management 2. the objective of competition act, 2002 ? (b
TRANSCRIPT
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 1 P.T.O.
MANAGEMENT
1. Which of the following is the vital question in the economic system ?
(A) What to produce (B) How to produce
(C) For whom to produce (D) All of these
2. Which of the following is not the objective of Competition Act, 2002 ?
(A) Prohibition of abuse of dominant position
(B) Prohibition of restrictive trade practices
(C) Prohibition of anti-competitive agreement
(D) Regulation of combinations
3. The credit for inventing the word “Privatisation” goes to :
(A) Elton Mayo (B) F. W. Taylor
(C) L. Urwick (D) Peter Drucker
4. Graph of variables having linear relation will be :
(A) Curved (B) Hyperbola
(C) Straight line (D) None of these
5. In which files, the records are organised in sequence and an index table is used
to speed up access to the records without requiring a search of the entire file ?
(A) Direct files (B) Sequential files
(C) Indexed Sequential files (D) None of these
6. Correlation between income and demand is :
(A) Negative (B) Positive
(C) Zero (D) None of these
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 2
7. MIS stands for :
(A) Multiple Information System
(B) Maximum Information System
(C) Management Information System
(D) None of the above
8. ……….is the term given to any system of reorganization of data items within a
file, where the reorganisation is independent of the information content of the file.
(A) Printing (B) Maintenance
(C) Copying (D) Merging
9. In which files, the records organised in such a way that it is possible for the
computer to directly locate the key of the desired record without having to search
through a sequence of other records ?
(A) Direct Files (B) Sequential files
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
10. Relationship of two or more variables is examined excluding some other variables
in case of :
(A) Total correlation (B) Partial correlation
(C) Multiple correlation (D) None of these
11. In the calculation of return on shareholders' investments the referred investment
deals with :
(A) All reserves
(B) Preference and equity capital only
(C) All appropriations
(D) All of the above
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 3 P.T.O.
12. Dividing the net profit by the paid up amount of equity share capital yields :
(A) Temporary investment
(B) Earning per share
(C) Rate of return on equity share capital
(D) None of the above
13. The return on investment (ROI) may be calculated as :
(A) Net profit before interest, tax and dividend/Capital employed
(B) Net profit after interest, tax and dividend/Shareholder's fund
(C) ( Net profit – preference dividend )/ No. of equity shares
(D) Return on Investment /Net profit ratio
14. The major sources where from debentures can be redeemed are :
1. Profits
2. Capital
3. Provisions made for redemption
4. Conversion into shares or new debentures.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. Which of the following profits are capital profits ?
l. Profit prior to incorporation
2. Premium received on issue of shares or debentures
3. Profit made on redemption of debentures
4. Profit set aside for redemption of preference shares
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 4
16. Which section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provides nomination for payment
of depositor's money ?
(A) Section 42 (B) Section 24
(C) Section 110A (D) Section 452A
17. Relationship of banker with payee of draft :
(A) Trustee and Beneficiary (B) Drawer and Drawee
(C) Licensor and Licensee (D) Principal and Agent
18. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) The currency notes issued by RBI are legal tender throughout the world.
(B) The treasury bills are sold by the RBI for raising its working capital.
(C) All commercial banks, including those owned by government, do not need
a licence from the RBI to do banking business.
(D) The RBI is a banker to both central and state governments
19. SEBI is :
(A) Regulatory Authority (B) Statutory Authority
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
20. The short term money market comprises :
(A) The call money market
(B) The interbank deposit market
(C) The bills re-discounting market
(D) All of the above
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 5 P.T.O.
21. Bilateral arrangements instituted to restrain the rapid growth of exports of specific
manufactured goods, are called :
(A) Administered protection
(B) Voluntary export restraints
(C) Imposed export restraints
(D) None of the above
22. India is not associated with :
(A) SAARC (B) NAFTA
(C) BRICS (D) None of these
23. According to the credit tranche policy of the IMF, credit is made available in :
(A) Five tranches, each equivalent to 20% of country's quota
(B) Four tranches, each equivalent to 25% of country's quota
(C) Ten tranches, each equivalent to 10% of country's SDRs
(D) Four tranches, each equivalent to 25% of country's SDRs
24. A tariff fails to restrict imports when the demand for imports is :
(A) Perfectly price elastic (B) Price inelastic
(C) Of unitary price elasticity (D) None of these
25. Which barrier can be used against recession induced exports into the country ?
(A) Quotas (B) Voluntary export restraints
(C) Tariff (D) All of these
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 6
26. While delegating, a superior delegates :
(A) Only authority
(B) Authority and responsibility
(C) Authority, responsibility and accountability
(D) Authority and responsibility but not accountability
27. Which of the following is true with respect to planning function ?
(A) To make a blue print of ideas and work
(B) To tell the work allocation to all
(C) Monitoring whether the things allocated are done properly
(D) None of the above
28. Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey.
This is known as :
(A) Division of work
(B) Exception principle
(C) Unity of Command principle
(D) Authority - responsibility principle
29. In line and staff organisation the staff performs the function of :
(A) Management (B) Advising the management
(C) Assigning responsibility (D) None of these
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 7 P.T.O.
30. Which one of the following orders indicates the correct logical order of managerial
functions ?
(A) Organising, Planning, Directing, Staffing, Coordination and Control
(B) Planning, Organising, Staffing, Directing, Control and Coordination
(C) Planning, Directing, Organising, Staffing, Control and Coordination
(D) Organising, Planning, Staffing, Directing, Control and Coordination
31. The kinked demand curve explains :
(A) Price rigidity (B) Price flexibility
(C) Demand rigidity (D) Demand flexibility
32. Imperfect competition was introduced by :
(A) Marshall (B) Chamberlin
(C) Keynes (D) None of these
33. A situation in which the number of competing firms is relatively small is known
as :
(A) Monopoly (B) Perfect competition
(C) Monopsony (D) Oligopoly
34. Demand is a function of :
(A) Price (B) Firm
(C) Product (D) Cost
35. Price effect in indifference curve analysis arises :
(A) When the consumer becomes either better off or worse off because price
change is not compensated by income change.
(B) When the consumer is better off due to a change in income and price
(C) When income and price change
(D) None of the above
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 8
36. Elasticity of demand measures the :
(A) Sensitivity of production to changes in a particular cost
(B) Sensitivity of sales to changes in a particular causal factor
(C) Value of price and cost
(D) Volume of product
37. In the case of an inferior good, the income effect :
(A) Is equal to the substitution effect
(B) Reinforces the substitution effect
(C) Partially offsets the substitution effect
(D) More than offsets the substitution effect
38. What is customer value ?
(A) Ratio between the customer's perceived benefits and the resources used to
obtain these benefits
(B) Excess of satisfaction over expectation
(C) Post-purchase dissonance
(D) None of the above
39. Which method does not consider the time value of money ?
(A) Net present value (B) Internal Rate of Return
(C) Average rate of return (D) Profitability Index
40. Which of the following has the highest cost of capital ?
(A) Loans (B) Equity shares
(C) Bonds (D) Preference shares
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 9 P.T.O.
41. If the current ratio is 2 : 1 and working capital is Rs. 60,000, what is the value
of the current assets ?
(A) Rs. 60,000 (B) Rs. 1,00,000
(C) Rs. 1,20,000 (D) Rs. 1,80,000
42. Which one of the following is correct ?
(i) A ratio is an arithmetical relationship of one number to another number
(ii) Liquid ratio is also known as acid test ratio
(iii) Role of thumb for current ratio is 2 : 1
(iv) Debt-equity ratio is the relationship between outsiders fund and shareholders
fund
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of the above.
43. If compounding is done quarterly in year, the effective rate of interest is equal to :
(A) 4 × nominal rate of interest
(B) (1 + nominal rate of interest/4)4
(C) (1 + nominal rate of interest)/4
(D) All of the above
44. Cost of capital from all the sources of funds is called :
(A) Specific Cost (B) Composite Cost
(C) Implicit Cost (D) Simple Average Cost
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 10
45. Which one of the following is not used to estimate cost of equity capital ?
(A) External yield criterion
(B) Dividend plus growth rate
(C) Equity capitalisation approach
(D) Capital asset pricing model
46. Liberalization means :
(A) Reducing number of reserved industries from higher to lower number
(B) Liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restrictions
(C) Opening up of economy to the world by attaining international competitiveness
(D) Free determination of interest rates
47. When a company takes over another one and clearly becomes the new owner, the
action is called :
(A) Merger (B) Acquisition
(C) Strategic Alliance (D) None of these
48. Relaxing the restrictions and controls imposed on Business and Industry means :
(A) Liberalisation (B) Privatisation
(C) Globalisation (D) None of these
49. Company images and brand equity is factor affecting business :
(A) Internally (B) Externally
(C) Government Policy (D) None of these
50. Which among the following is not opened for private sector participation ?
(A) Power sector (B) Telecommunication sector
(C) Education sector (D) Railways
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 11 P.T.O.
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
Refer the below for the Question Nos. 51 to 55 :
There are eight persons born in different years viz., 1972, 1978, 1983, 1985, 1992,
1994, 1997 and 2000 but not necessary in the same order. Their ages were calculated
based on the year 2018 and also they were born in the same date of the same month
in the given different years.
Only two persons are born between T and P, whose age is multiple of 11. N was born
in one of the even numbered years but not the youngest person. S was born immedi-
ately before N. As many persons born after Q is same as the people born before M.
Neither Q nor M is the youngest person. More than two persons were born between
R and V, who is elder than Q.
51. What is the age difference between V and N ?
(A) 14 years (B) 5 years
(C) 11 years (D) 12 years
52. If N is related to P and Q is related to S in a certain way. Then, V is related to
which of the following ?
(A) M (B) N
(C) Q (D) T
53. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and they form a group.
Which of the following is one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) M (B) V
(C) S (D) R
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 12
54. How many persons are born between V and Q ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
55. M was born in which of the following years ?
(A) 1978 (B) 1983
(C) 1994 (D) 1997
Refer the below for the Question Nos. 56 to 60 :
Many sociologists have argued that there is functional relationship between education
and economic system. They point to the fact that mass formal education began in in-
dustrial society. They note that the expansion of the economies of industrial societies
is accompanied by a corresponding expansion of their educational systems. They ex-
plain this correspondence in terms of the needs of industry for skilled and trained
manpower, needs which are met by the educational system. Thus, the provision of mass
elementary education in Britain in 1870 can be seen as a response to the needs of
industry for a literate and numerate workforce at a time when industrial processes were
becoming more complex and the demand for technical skills was steadily growing.
56. The industry needs a literate work-force because :
(A) its expansion needs sound learning
(B) it relies heavily on expertise
(C) it promotes a competitive spirit
(D) its operations need intricate technical knowledge
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 13 P.T.O.
57. The author argues that :
(A) formal education can be traced to industrial society
(B) industrial society is responsible for expansion of education at mass level
(C) industrial society gave rise to vocational education
(D) industrial society changed the pattern of education
58. The observation of the Sociologists is based on a study of :
(A) the statistical data available in a historical context
(B) economic system of the 19th century
(C) the correlation between industry and education in a historical context
(D) growth of industry in 19th century
59. The Sociologists referred to it in the passage say that the relationship between
industry and elementary education was one :
(A) based on mutual need
(B) based entirely on the need of the industry
(C) based entirely on economic need
(D) based on some inexplicable historical forces
60. By 'functional relationship' is meant :
(A) a short-term relationship
(B) practical and utilitarian relationship
(C) temporary arrangement
(D) close and unbreakable relationship
61. Computer Assisted Instruction is based on ................. principle.
(A) Classical Conditioning (B) Operant Conditioning
(C) Pavlovian Conditioning (D) Respondent Conditioning
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 14
62. Which of the following is Doordarshan's Educational Television Channel ?
(A) Gurukul (B) Gyan Bharati
(C) Gyan Darshan (D) Vidya
63. Which of the following affects an individual's development at a given time ?
(A) Their experiences
(B) Interaction of nature and nurture
(C) Inherited potentialities
(D) Social pressure on the individual
64. The .............. got "Fundamental Duties" added to the Constitution of India ?
(A) 42nd amendment
(B) 54th amendment
(C) 83rd amendment
(D) 93rd amendment
65. The development of a student's personality is affected the most by :
(A) Discipline at institute
(B) Emotional climate at home
(C) Inherited assets and liabilities
(D) Social orientation of peers and elders
66. To make learning effective, a goal must be meaningful in terms :
(A) Objectives of the curriculum
(B) Intellectual ideas
(C) Standards of others
(D) The needs and purposes of students
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 15 P.T.O.
67. If you want to improve the ability to observe in children, which of the following
would you recommend ?
(A) Generating interest in subject
(B) Developing a framework for experiences
(C) Sharpening the senses
(D) Training mental faculties
68. ..............is the apex institution involved in the planned and coordinated
development of the teacher education system in the country.
(A) UGC (B) NCERT
(C) NCTE (D) XSEED
69. What makes an adolescent revolt against Authority ?
(A) He thinks that he is mature enough
(B) His want for recognition and independence of thought and action
(C) He thinks that he is intelligent enough
(D) He believes that he does not need any advice
70. What is the main purpose of punishment to students ?
(A) Demonstrate authority
(B) Protect others from doing the same
(C) Reform the offender
(D) Retaliate for the wrong that has been done
71. ..............measure the extent of students learning in a given content area.
(A) Achievement Tests (B) Aptitude Tests
(C) Diagnostic Tests (D) Readiness Tests
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 16
72. What will be the IQ of a 25 years old boy whose mental age is 16 ?
(A) 64 (B) 75
(C) 80 (D) 100
73. Success of inclusive education depends on :
(A) Community support
(B) Attitudinal change among teachers
(C) High quality teaching—learning materials
(D) High quality textbooks
74. Interaction analysis category system in education for increasing the teacher
effectiveness was developed by :
(A) Amidon and Simon (B) Flander
(C) Rayon (D) Richard Over
75. NUEPA is concerned with :
(A) Educational evaluation (B) Educational planning
(C) Educational supervision (D) Educational unity
76. Who propagated cognitive theory of teaching ?
(A) David Berliner (B) Donald T. Campbell
(C) Egon Brunswik (D) N. L. Gage
77. Mind mapping refers to :
(A) An action plan for an adventure
(B) A technique to enhance comprehension
(C) Drawing the picture of mind
(D) Studying the functions of mind
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 17 P.T.O.
78. Fathometer is used to measure :
(A) Earthquakes (B) Rainfall
(C) Ocean depth (D) Sound intensity
79. Golf player Vijay Singh belongs to which country ?
(A) USA (B) Fiji
(C) India (D) UK
80. Which is a green planet in the solar system ?
(A) Pluto (B) Venus
(C) Uranus (D) Mars
81. What was the name of co-founder of Adobe and inventor of the PDF, who recently
died ?
(A) Charles Chuck Geschke (B) Simo Decosta Neomi
(C) John Warnock (D) Boby Freident
82. In the West Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, fossils of bones of giant dinosaurs
with long neck, about 10 million years old, have been found, what are they
called ?
(A) Albania (B) Jurassic
(C) Western (D) Sauropod
83. Which Indian logistics company has started the 'Oxygen on Wheels' project to
transport oxygen ?
(A) Aegis Logistics
(B) Adani Logistics
(C) Container Corporation of India Ltd.
(D) Mahindra Logistics
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 18
84. Who has been awarded the "Order of the Rising Sun" of Japan ?
(A) Biswabhushan Harichandan (B) Sharankumar Limbale
(C) Alfred Ego (D) Brunette Ganesh
85. Pandit Debu Chaudhary, who passed away recently, was a great player of which
musical instrument ?
(A) Santoor (B) Sitar
(C) Tabla (D) Shehnai
86. Who has been named as the fourth Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) ?
(A) T. Rabi Shankar
(B) Subhash Kumar
(C) Mukhmeet S. Bhatia
(D) Shabir Hussain
87. Who among the following has won the Portuguese Grand Prix 2021 ?
(A) Valtteri Bottas (B) Sebastian Vettel
(C) Max Verstappen (D) Lewis Hamilton
88. According to new terminology, ‘Aries’ means ‘air’, ‘Taurus’ means ‘light’, ‘Libra’
means ‘water’ and ‘Scorpio’ means ‘earth’. What would an organism breathe in ?
(A) Aries (B) Taurus
(C) Libra (D) Scorpio
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 19 P.T.O.
89. A team of 5 players Ashwin, Rahul, Sachin, Virat and Rohit participated in a
tournament and played four matches.
The following table gives partial information about their individual scores and
the total runs scored by the team in each match.
Each column has two values missing. These are the runs scored by the two low-
est scorers in that match.
None of the two missing values is more than 10% of the total runs scored in
that match.
Runs scored Match 1 Match 2 Match 3 Match 4
Ashwin 100 53
Rahul 88 65 52
Sachin 110
Virat 72 75 20 56
Rohit 60 78
Total 270 300 240 200
What is the maximum possible percentage contribution of Ashwin in the total
runs scored in the four matches ?
(A) 19.7% (B) 19.9%
(C) 20.1% (D) 20.5%
90. Choose the word which is not similar to the other words in the group :
(A) Peas (B) Cabbage
(C) Spinach (D) Tomato
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 20
91. Solve the following question and choose the correct alternative from the
following :
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are sitting in row but not necessarily in that order.
All of them are sitting in a row with their backs toward North.
3 is immediate right to 5 and 4 is immediate left to 1. Only 2 is between 1 and
5.
Which of the following are at the extreme ends ?
(A) 3, 4 (B) 2, 5
(C) 2, 1 (D) 4, 5
92. Complete the given series by finding the missing term :
5, 15, 45, 225, ?
(A) 1024 (B) 1125
(C) 1500 (D) 2250
93. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative
implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other
researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms
of preliminary studies.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 21 P.T.O.
94. ATNHG, DKCMB, CVPJI, GNFPE, EXRLK, JQISH, GZTNM, __
(A) MTLVK (B) PQMTH
(C) RIJTU (D) HSKUJ
95. DEF, DEF2, DE2F2, ............, D2E2F3
(A) DEF3 (B) D3EF3
(C) D2E3F (D) D2E2F2
Refer the below for the Question Nos. 96 to 100 :
Eight boxes are arranged one above the other. Each box contains different chocolates
Bar one, Perk, Snickers, Kitkat, Bournville, Dairy Milk, 5 star and Munch but not
necessarily in the same order.
Box K is kept second from the top. Only one box is kept between Box M and the
box which contains snickers. Box M is kept neither adjacent to Box K nor adjacent
to the box which contains Munch. As many boxes kept between Box Q and the box
which contains Perk is kept between Box W and the box which contains Kitkat. More
than three boxes are kept between Box K and the box which contains Munch. Box
which contains Perk is kept immediately below the box which contains Snickers. Box
M is kept above box L, but not contain Munch. Three boxes are kept between Box L
and the box which contains Dairy Milk. As many boxes kept above Box Q kept be-
low Box W. Box P is kept above Box W. Snickers is placed above M. Two boxes are
kept between Box S and the box which contains Bournville. Box K does not contain
Snickers. Box G is kept above Box S. Box Q does not contain Kitkat. Neither Box L
nor Box Q does not contain Bar one. At most one box placed between Munch and
Kitkat.
(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 22
96. How many boxes are kept below the box which contains 5 star ?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
97. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) As many boxes are kept between Box L and Box W are kept between Box
M and the box which contains Bar one
(B) More than three boxes are kept between Box S and the box which contains
Bournville
(C) Less than three boxes are kept above the box which contains 5 star
(D) None is true
98. Four of the following five are like in a certain way based on the above
arrangement. Find which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) W-Munch (B) M-Perk
(C) K-Bournville (D) L-Bar one
99. How many boxes are kept between Box L and the box which contains Dairy
Milk ?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) None of these
100. If Box Q is related to Snickers, Box M is related to Munch, in the same way
Box S is related to which of the following ?
(A) Bournville (B) Dairy Milk
(C) 5 star (D) None of these