law paper iii

7/31/2019 Law Paper III

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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of

this page.2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of

questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet

will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept anopen booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediately

by a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither theQuestion Booklet will be replaced nor any extratime will be given.

(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated belowon the correct response against each item.Example :where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at anyplace other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not beevaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or

put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for thespace allotted for the relevant entries, which may discloseyour identity, or use abusive language or employ any otherunfair means, you will render yourself liable todisqualification.

9. You have to return the test question booklet and OriginalOMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examinationcompulsorily and must not carry it with you outside theExamination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carryduplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.

12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75

Instructions for the Candidates 1.

2. - 3. , -

- , :(i) -

-

(ii) - / -

-

(iii) OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D) :(C)

5 . OMR OMR ,

6.

7 . (Rough Work) 8 . OMR , , , , ,

9. - OMR OMR

10. / 11. ()

12.

[Maximum Marks : 150Time : 2 1/2hours]

PAPER-III

LAW

(To be filled by the Candidate)

Signature and Name of Invigilator

OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................

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J 1 2

J-58-12 1 P.T.O.


2/24

Paper-III 2 J-58-12

1. The new Constitution establishes,

indeed a system of Government whichis at the most quasi-federal, almost

devolutionary in character, a unitary

state with subsidiary federal features

rather than the federal state with

unitary features said by

(A) Dr. K.C. Wheare

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

2. In which of the following case it washeld that Right to Life does not

include Right to Die ?

(A) Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab

(B) Chenna Jagdeshwar Vs. State of

A.P.

(C) State of U.P. Vs. Sanjay Kumar

Bhatia

(D) Deena Vs. Union Bank of India

3. Assertion (A) : An accused person

cannot be compelled to give hissignature or thumb impression.

Reason (R) : An accused person

cannot be compelled to be a

witness against himself.

Codes :(A) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

4. After a Money Bill has been passed by

the House of the People, within howmany days it is transmitted to the

Council of States for its

recommendations ?

(A) Thirty days

(B) Twenty four days

(C) Sixty days

(D) Fourteen days

5. Assertion (A) : Directive Principles

are not enforceable by any

Court.

Reason (R) : Directive Principles

are more or less fundamental in

the governance of the country.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but

(R) is not the correct explanation

of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(R) is the correct explanation of(A).

(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.

6. The Supreme Court does not have

original jurisdiction regarding a

dispute between

(A) a citizen and a State

(B) the Government of India and

one State(C) two States

(D) the Government of India and

one State on one side and one

State on the other side

7. In the Constitution of India, provision

relating to the formation of new States

can be amended by

(A) A Parliamentary resolution

which should be ratified by

majority of State Legislatures.(B) A simple majority in each House

of Parliament.

(C) 3/4th

majority in the Parliament

(D) 2/3rd

majority in the each Houseof Parliament provided they also

constitute the majority of total

members of each House.

LAW

Paper III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.

All questions are compulsory.


3/24

J-58-12 3 Paper-III

1. , , ?(A) . . . (B) . (C) . . . (D)

2. ?(A) (B) (C) . . (D)

3. (A) :

(R) :

( )

:(A) (A) , (R) (B) (A) , (R) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) (R)

4. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. (A) :

(R) :

:(A) (A) (R) , (R),

(A) (B) (A) (R) (R),

(A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R)

6. :(A) (B)

(C) (D)

7. , ?(A)

(B)

(C) 3/4 (D) 2/3

III

: (75) - (2)


4/24

Paper-III 4 J-58-12

8. Holding of periodic, free and fair

elections by the Election Commission

is part of the basic structure of the

Constitution as per the following :

(A) Election Commission of India

Vs. AIADMK

(B) S.S. Dhanoa Vs. Union of India

(C) In Gujarat Assembly Election

matter

(D) Sadiq Ali Vs. Election

Commission of India

9. Writ ofMandamus cannot be issued,where a fundamental right is infringed

by

(A) A Statute

(B) A Statutory Order

(C) An Executive Order

(D) Private Body

10. Assertion (A) : The principles of

natural justice ensures fair hearing.

Reason (R) : It requires unbiased

judge to decide after hearing all

parties.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(R) is good explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(R) is not a good explanation of

(A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

11. Prerogative writs to review anadministrative action are :

(A) Two : Writ of Habeas Corpus

and Writ of Mandamus.

(B) Three : Writ of Habeas Corpus

and Writ of Mandamus

and Writ of Prohibition.

(C) Four : Writ of Habeas Corpus

and Writ of Mandamus

and Writ of Prohibition

and Writ of Certiorari

and Writ of Quo

Warranto.

(D) Five : Writ of Habeas Corpus,

Writ of Mandamus,

Writ of Quo warranto,

Writ of Certiorari and

Writ of Prohibition.

12. A mandatory procedural requirement

for an administrative tribunal must be

(A) Legal representation

(B) Cross examination

(C) Reasoned decision

(D) All of the above

13. Judicial review of an administrative

action means

(A) Review by the Parliament

(B) Review by the Government

(C) Review by the Legislative

Assembly

(D) Review by the Judiciary


5/24

J-58-12 5 Paper-III

8. -

?

(A) AIADMK

(B) . .

(C)

(D)

9.

:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10. (A) :

(R) :

:

(A) (A) (R) (R),

(A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R),

(A)

(C) (A) , (R)

(D) (A) , (R)

11. :

(A) :

(B) : ,

(C) : , , , -

(D) : , , - ,

12. ( ) :

(A)

(B) -

(C) (D)

13. :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)


6/24

Paper-III 6 J-58-12

14. Match an item in List I with correctanswer in List II.

List I List II

Institution of

Lokpal and

Lokayukta

(A) Law should be able

to control the

numerous widediscretionary

powers

(B) Ensure fair hearing

(C) Evaporatemaladministration

and corruption to

bring good

governance

(D) Check and control

abuse of power andexecutive excesses

15. Find correct answer :

(A) Administrative law is a branch

of public law and is only a part

of Constitutional law. It cannot

control the Constitutional law.

(B) Administrative law is a branch

of private law.

(C) Administrative law isindependent to Constitutional

law.

(D) Administrative law is neither the

branch of public law nor of

private law, but a part of

Constitutional law.

16. Benthams definition of law is

imperative in nature because

(A) law is an assembling of signs.

(B) law is declaration of volitionconceived or adopted by

sovereign in a State.

(C) because it is adopted by non-

sovereign State.

(D) (A) & (B) both

17. The term Legal theory has been first

time used by

(A) Llewlyne

(B) Ihring

(C) Salmond

(D) W. Friedman

18. Bracket theory of corporate

personality is also known as

(A) Concession theory

(B) Symbolist theory

(C) Fiction theory

(D) Will theory

19. A says to B that he will give a sum

of rupees five thousand if B marrieshis daughter, this is

(A) Vested Right

(B) Contingent Right

(C) Primary Right

(D) Secondary Right

20. Assertion (A) : Kelsen follows Kant

in distinguishing between is

and ought.

Reason (R) : Kelsen is a forerunnerof philosophical school.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and

(R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but

(R) is not a correct explanation

of (A).


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

21. The possession is the

(A) five point in ownership

(B) seven point in ownership

(C) nine point in ownership

(D) ten point in ownership


7/24

J-58-12 7 Paper-III

14. -I -II :

I II

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) ( )

15. :(A)

(B) (C)

(D)

16. (A) (B)

(C) -

(D) (A) (B)

17. ?(A) (B) (C) (D) .

18. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)

19. , , :(A) (B) (C) (D)

20. (A) : (is)

(ought) (R) :

:(A) (A) (R) (R),

(A) (B) (A) (R) , (R),

(A)

(C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R)

21. () :(A) (B) (C) (D)


8/24


9/24

J-58-12 9 Paper-III

22. :I.

II. III. IV. : :(A) I, III IV(B) II, III IV(C) I, II IV(D) I, II III

23. -

?(A) -(B) (C) (D)

24. , ,

?(A) 299 1(B) 300 1(C) 299 2(D) 300 2

25. ?(A) 29 (B) 30(C) 31 (D) 13

26.

82 ?(A) 12 (B) 7 (C) 16 (D) 18

27. / ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

28. : + =

: M, B M

B

M ?(A) M (B) M (C) M (D) M

29. : :(A) (B) /(C) (D)

30. : ______ (A) (B) (C) (D)


10/24

Paper-III 10 J-58-12

31. Fill in the gap which is moreappropriate.

Inducing a girl under 18 years of age to

go away with him from _________ is

an offence of

(A) Normal home

(B) Place of work

(C) Domestic area

(D) Any place

32. Find the correct answer :

The principle of intergenerational

equity envisages :

(A) Conservation of options

(B) Conservation of quality

(C) Conservation of access(D) All the above

33. Find the correct answer :

The Supreme Court allowed

compensation of ` 23.84 lakhs and

later allowed additional compensation

of ` 47 lakhs to the farmers whose

crops got damaged, being irrigated by

subsoil water drawn from a stream

which was polluted from untreated

effluents of 22 industries. It wasdecided in the case of

(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum

vs. Union of India

(B) Indian Council ForEnvironment Action vs. Union of

India

(C) S. Jagannath vs. Union of India

(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs.

Union of India

34. The concept of sustainable

development contains which of the

following essentials ?

(A) The precautionary principle

(B) The polluter pays principle

(C) The doctrine of public trust

(D) All above

35. Assertion (A) : The Supreme Court

in Banwasi Seva Ashram vs.

State of Uttar Pradesh,

permitted the government

agency to acquire the forest

land, ousting certain tribaldwellers to implement a power

project only after they agreed to

provide certain facilities

approved by the Court.

Reason (R) : Because the

governmental action had an

environmental impact that

threatened to dislocate poor

forest dwellers and disrupt their

life-style infringing theirfundamental right to life, which

include the right to livelihood.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but

(R) is not a correct explanation

of (A).

(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is good explanation of (A).

36. The Supreme Court observed that

noise pollution cannot be tolerated,

even if such noise was a direct result

of and was connected with religious

activities in the case of

(A) A.P. Pollution Control Board vs.

Prof M.V. Naidu

(B) Church of God (Full Gospel) inIndia vs. KKR Majestic Colony

Welfare Association.

(C) K.M. Chinappa vs. Union of

India

(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs.

Union of India


11/24

J-58-12 11 Paper-III

31. :18 ______

(A) (B) (C) (D)

32. : :(A) (B)

(C) (D)

33. : 23.84 ` 47` , 22 ?(A)

(B)

(C) . (D)

34. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. (A) :

,

(R) :

:

(A) (A) (R)

(B) (A) (R) (R),

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R) (R),

(A)

36.

( )

:

(A) . . .

..

(B) ( )

. . .

(C) . .

(D)


12/24


37. Assertion (A) : Nobody can claim afundamental right to create noise

pollution by amplifying the

sound of his speech with the

help of loudspeaker.

Reason (R) : While one has a right

to speech, others have a right to

listen or decline to listen.

Anyone who wishes to live in

peace, comfort and quiet within

his house has a fundamental

right to prevent the noise as

pollutantion reaching him.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but

(R) is not a correct explanation.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(R) is good explanation of (A)

38. In which of the following cases it was

held that there is no reason to compel

non-smokers to be helpless victims of

air pollution ?

(A) Samantha vs. State of A.P.

(B) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India

(C) Murli Deora vs. Union of India

(D) Sheela Barse vs. Union of India

39. Protection and improvement of

environment and safeguarding forests

and wildlife is

(A) A fundamental right(B) One of the Directive Principles

of State Policy.

(C) One of the Fundamental Duties

(D) Both one of the Directive

Principles of State Policy and

one of the Fundamental Duties

40. Who stated that international law is

not true law but positive international

morality only, analogous to the rules

binding a club or society ?

(A) Oscar Schachter

(B) John Austin

(C) Louis Flenkin

(D) Hans Kelson

41. Opino juris sive necessitatismeans

(A) Opinions of jurists is necessary

evidence for determining rules

of international custom

(B) Opinions of jurists is not

necessary for ascertaining the

rules of international law

(C) The feeling on the part of States

that in acting as they do they are

fulfilling a legal obligation

(D) None of the above

42. Which of the following cases supports

constitutive theory of recognition,

namely, the act of recognition alone

confers international personality on an

entity purporting to be a state or

clothes new government with an

authority to enter into international

relations ?

(A) The Arantzazu Mendi, (1939)

A.C. P 256

(B) A.M. Luther Vs. James Sagor &

Co, (1921) 3 K.B. P.532

(C) Tinoco Concessions, (1923) 1

United Nations Reports of

International Arbitral Awards P

369



13/24


37. (A) : ,

(R) : ,

:

(A) (A) , (R)

(B) (A) , (R)

(C) (A) (R) , (R),(A)

(D) (A) (R) (R),(A)

38.

?

(A)

(B) . .

(C)

(D)

39.

:(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

40.

?

(A) (B)

(C)

(D)

41. (Opino

juris sive necessitatis) :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

42.

, ,

, :

(A) , (1939) . . . 256

(B) . .

., (1921)3 . . . 532

(C) , (1923)1

, . 369(D)


14/24


43. Which of the following statements istrue ?

(A) Nationality is the evidence of

the link or relations of an

individual with the State

whereas domicile denotes defacto residence of an individual

in a State with an intention to

permanently settle there.

(B) Nationality is an evidence of

residence of an individual with

an intention to permanently

settle there.

(C) Domicile denotes the link or

relations of an individual with

the State.


44. The Charter of the Untied Nations

came into force on

(A) 26 June 1945

(B) 10 December 1945

(C) 24 October 1945

(D) 1 November 1945

45. A member of the United Nations

which has persistently violated the

principles contained in the Charter

may be expelled from the United

Nations by the

(A) Security Council

(B) General Assembly(C) General Assembly upon the

recommendation of the Security

Council

(D) Security Council upon the

recommendation of the General

Assembly

46. The Judges of the International Court

of Justice are elected by the

(A) General Assembly

(B) Security Council

(C) General Assembly upon

recommendation of the Security

Council

(D) General Assembly and the

Security Council independently

of one another

47. Under Section 6 of the Hindu

Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956

the natural guardian of a minor child is

(A) Mother

(B) Father

(C) Both Mother and Father(D) Either Mother or Father

48. A Muslim wife can relinquish her

Mahr

(A) When she is minor

(B) When she has attained the age of

puberty

(C) When she is not less than 18

years of age

(D) When she is not less than 21

years of age.

49. In Islamic Law Faskh means

(A) Restitution of conjugal rights

(B) Judicial separation

(C) Dissolution or rescission of the

contract of marriage by judicial

decree at the instance of the

husband.

(D) Dissolution on rescission of the

contract of marriage by judicial

decree at the instance of thewife.

50. Muta marriage is recognised by

(A) Hanafi School

(B) Maliki School

(C) Ithna Ashari School

(D) Hanbali School


15/24


43. ?

(A)

(B)

,

(C)

(D)

44. ?

(A) 26 1945

(B) 10 1945

(C) 24 1945

(D) 1 1945

45. ,

,

:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

46.

?(A) (B)

(C) (D) ,

47. ,1956 6 :(A) (B)

(C) (D)

48. ?(A) (B)

(C) 18

(D) 21

49. :(A) (B) (C)

(D)

50. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)


16/24


51. The term Hindu denotes the person

(i) Professing Hindu Religion

(ii) Professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh

Religion

(iii) Who are not professing Muslim,

Christian, Parsi or Jew Religion.In respect of the aforesaid propositions

which is correct ?

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is

incorrect.

(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is

incorrect.

(C) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is

incorrect.

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct.

52. Match the List I with List II using

the codes given below :

List-I List-II

(a) Void

Marriages

(i) Section 9

(b) Voidable

marriages

(ii) Section 11

(c) Divorce (iii) Section 13

(d) Restitution of

Conjugal Rights

(iv) Section 12

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

53. In which of the following case the

Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu

Marriage Act was Constitutionally

violative of right to Human dignity

and privacy ?

(A) Bipin Chandra vs. Prabhavati

(B) T. Sareetha vs. T. Venkatasubah

(C) Lachman vs. Meena


54. Match the List I with List II and

indicate the correct answer using the

codes given below :

List-I List-II

(a) Pre-Marriage

Pregnancy

(i) Divorce

(b) Marriage within

Prohibited

Degree

Relationship

(ii) Voidable

Marriage

(c) Cruelty (iii) Void

Marriage

(d) When any

spouse without

reasonable

excuse

withdraws from

the society of

the other

(iv) Restitution

of

Conjugal

Rights

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

55. International Womens Day is

celebrated every year on

(A) 2nd

March (B) 4th

March

(C) 6th

March (D) 8th

March

56. Which one of the following is correct

according to Art I of the Universal

Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 ?

(A) All human beings are born free

and equal in rights.(B) All human beings are born free,

equal and dignity

(C) All human beings are equal in

dignity and rights.

(D) All human beings are born free

and equal in rights and dignity.


17/24


51.

(i)

(ii) ,

(iii) , ,

?

(A) (i) (ii) , (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) , (i)

(C) (i) (iii) , (ii)

(D) (i), (ii) (iii)

52. -I -II :

I II

(a) (i) -9

(b) (ii) -11

(c) (iii) -13

(d)

(iv) -12

:(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

53. 9, ?

(A)

(B) . .

(C)

(D)

54. -I -II

I II(a)

(i)

(b)

(ii)

(c) (iii) (d)

( )

(iv)

:(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

55.

?(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

56. , 1948 1 ?(A)

(B) ,

(C)

(D)


18/24


57. Regional Human Rights Court doesnot exist in

(A) Africa (B) Europe

(C) America (D) Asia

58. Which protocol to the European

Convention on Human Rights hasabolished European Commission of

Human Rights ?

(A) Protocol 1 (B) Protocol 2

(C) Protocol 3 (D) Protocol 11

59. Which one of the followingconvention has neither interstate

communication procedure nor

individual communication procedure ?

(A) International Convention on

Civil and Political Rights

(B) International Convention on

Economic, Social and Cultural

Rights

(C) Convention on the Rights of

Child.

(D) Convention on the Rights of

persons with Disabilities.

60. The term of the office of the

Chairperson and Members of theNHRC under Protection of Human

Rights Act, 1993 is

(A) 5 years from the date on which

he enters the office or until he

attains the age of 70 years

whichever is earlier.

(B) 4 years from the date on which

he enters the office or until he



(C) 3 years from the date on whichhe enters the office or until he



(D) 5 years from the date on whichhe enters the office or until he



61. The Chairperson of National

Commission on Minorities shall be

deemed member of

(A) Human Rights Council

(B) Law Commission of India

(C) National Human Rights

Commission

(D) International Law Commission

62. Which one of the following is an

actionable wrong ?

(A) Injuria sine damnum

(B) Damnum sine injuria

(C) Both of the above


63. Which of the following is the gist of

tortious liability ?

(A) Legal damages

(B) Violation of legal right

(C) Availability of legal duty


64. The Rule of Absolute Liability is

subject to

(A) All the exceptions mentioned in

the rule ofRylands vs. Fletcher

(B) Half of the exceptions

mentioned in the rule ofRylands

vs. Fletcher

(C) None of the exceptions

mentioned in the rule ofRylands

vs. Fletcher

(D) All the exceptions mentioned in

rule ofM.C. Mehta vs. Union of

India


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57. :(A) (B) (C) (D)

58. () ?(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 11

59. : ?(A)

(B) ,

(C) (D)

60. , 1993 ?(A) 5

70

(B) 4

70 (C) 3

68

(D) 5 68

61.

?

(A)

(B) (C)

(D)

62. ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

63.

?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

64.

?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) . .


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65. Assertion (A) : If a person speaks illof the business which X is doing,it amounts to defamation.

Reason (R) : Slander is actionableper se.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but(R) is not the correct explanationof (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

66. In res Ipsa Loquitor:

(1) Presumption of negligence is

there.(2) Plaintiff has to bring direct

evidence.

(3) Plaintiff is discharged from the

duty of proving negligence on

the part of the defendant.

(4) Court does not give chance todefendant to avoid his liability.

Codes :

(A) (1) and (2) are correct.

(B) (1), (2) and (4) are correct.(C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

(D) (1) and (3) are correct.

67. Which one of the following statements

is true ?

(A) Both public as well as private

nuisance are punishable under

criminal law.

(B) Only private nuisance is

punishable under criminal law,

while there is no punishment forgeneral nuisance.

(C) Public nuisance is punishable

under criminal law while private

nuisance is a moral wrong only.

(D) Public nuisance is punishableunder criminal law, while

private nuisance under civil law.

68. For constituting tort of nuisance, there

should be

(A) Unreasonable interference

(B) Interference should be with the

use of enjoyment of land.

(C) Damage

(D) All of the above

69. Partnership is based on

(A) Mutual trust

(B) Mutual benefit

(C) Mutual interest

(D) Mutual agency

70. Which statements are correct ?

(i) An undisclosed principal can

intervene against express terms.

(ii) An undisclosed principal cannot

intervene against express terms.

(iii) An undisclosed principal cannotintervene when he knows that

the other party would not have

dealt with him.

(iv) An undisclosed principal can

intervene when he knows that

the other party would not have

dealt with him.

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.


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65. (A) : X ,

(R) : :

:(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R),

(A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R)

66. ,

(1) (2) (3)

(4)

:(A) (1) (2) (B) (1), (2) (4)

(C) (1), (2) (3) (D) (1) (3)

67. ?(A)

(B)

,

(C)

(D) ,

68.

(A)

(B) (C)

(D)

69. :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

70. ?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

:

(A) (i) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iii)

(C) (iii) (iv)

(D) (iv) (i)


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71. Read the following passage, and

match the column :

A negotiable instrumentcontains a contract and therefore mustbe supported by consideration. Inorder to be a holder in due course, the

holder must have obtained theinstrument before its maturity. Aninstrument payable on demand iscurrent at least as long as no demandfor payment is made. To make aholder in due course, the instrumentmust be complete and regular. A post-dated cheque may not be complete andregular.

Column P Column Q

(a) Negotiable

instrument

(i) Before

maturity(b) Holder in

due course(ii) Demand for

payment

(c) Currency ofinstrument

(iii) Post datedcheque

(d) Completeand regular

(iv) Consideration

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

72. Assertion (A) : Every public company

shall have at least three and every

private company at least two

Directors.

Reason (R) : Directors are trustees

for the company and not for

individual shareholders.

Codes :(A) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is

not an explanation for (A).

(B) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is

an explanation for (A).


(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

73. Arrange the following concepts in asequence in which they appeared. Use

the code given below :

(i) Right of an unpaid seller to stop

goods in transit.

(ii) Agreement to sell goods.

(iii) Damages for breach of contractof sale of goods.

(iv) Conditions and warranties.

Codes :

(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

74. Which statements are correct ?

(i) Partner has a duty of good faith.

(ii) Partner has duty not to compete.

(iii) Partner has duty of due

diligence.

(iv) Partner has duty to indemnify

for fraud.

Codes :(A) Only (i) is correct.(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

75. Match an item in List P with an item

in List Q :List P List Q(a) Removal of

Directors byCompany LawBoard

(i) Section318

(b) Duty of Directorsto discloseinterest

(ii) Sections299 300

(c) Compensation forloss of office ofDirector

(iii) Section402

(d) Director withunlimitedliability

(iv) Sections322 323

Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)


23/24


71. : () , , ,

P Q(a) (i)

(b) (ii)

(c)

(iii)

(d)

(iv)

:(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

72. (A) :

(R) : ()

:(A) (A) (R) , (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(C) (A) , (R) (D) (R) , (A)

73. :(i)

(ii)

(iii) (iv) :(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

74. ?(i) (ii) (iii)

(iv)

:(A) (i) (B) (i) (ii) (C) (i), (ii) (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)

75. P Q :

- P - Q(a)

(i) 318

(b)

(ii) 299 - 300

(c)

(iii) 402

(d)

(iv) 322 - 323

:(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)


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Space For Rough Work

law paper iii

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