jee main gtm-7

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India A.P, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant ICON CENTRAL OFFICE, MADHAPUR - HYD

Sec: Sr. ICON ALL Date: 30-12-18 Time: 09:00 AM to 12:00 Noon Max.Marks:360

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters):_______________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures

: in words______________________________________________________________

Examination Centre number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters):___________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature:_______________________ 1. Invigilator’s Signature:_____________________

Jee Main_GTM-7

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 30-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-7_Q’P_Code-C(12th Jan)

Sec: Sr. ICON ALL space for rough work

This booklet contains 29 printed pages. The Booklet Code PAPER: PHYSICS, MATHEMATICS & CHEMISTRY Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 12th Jan Students

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.

3. The test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry

having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each

correct response.

5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each question

1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from

the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will

be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 5

above.

7. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Answer Sheet.

8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,

any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given

at the bottom of each page.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the

Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Also tally the serial number of the booklet and Answer sheet are the same as that on this booklet in case of

discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the

test booklet and Answer Sheet.

12. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.



PHYSICS

1. The measured mass and volume of a body are 2.42g and 34.7cm respectively with possible errors 0.01g, and 0.1cc. Then the maximum percentage error in density is

1) 2.54% 2) 1.54% 3) 4.54% 4) 0.54% 2. The given hinge construction consists of two rhombus with side ratio 3 : 2.

The vertex 2A moves in the horizontal direction with a speed V. The

velocity of 1A is :

0A 1A 2AV

3x 2x

1) 0.6 V 2) 0.7 V 3) 3 V 4) 2 V 3. A smooth square platform ABCD is moving towards right with a uniform

speed v . At what angle must a particle be projected from A with speed u so that it strikes the point B.

1) 1sin uv

2) 1cos vu

3) 1cos uv

4) 1sin vu



4. Assuming that the block A is always remains horizontal, hence the

acceleration of B is

1) 6m/s2 2) 2m/s2 3) 4m/s2 4) none of these

5. In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of friction between the two

blocks is 12. The force of friction acting between the two blocks is

1) 4N 2) 6N 3) 8N 4) 10N

6. Consider two observers moving with respect to each other at a speed v

along a straight line. They observe a block of mass m moving a distance l

on a rough surface. The following quantities will be same as observed by

the observers:

1) Kinetic energy of the block at time t 2) work done by friction on the block 3) total work done on the block 4) acceleration of the block

A

B

212 m /s

2kg

4kg

1F 2N

2F 20 N



7. A body is moved from rest along a straight line by a machine delivering

constant power. The ratio of displacement and velocity (s/v) varies with

time t as

1)

t

/s v 2)

t

/s v

3)

t

/s v 4)

t

/s v

8. A square plate of mass M and edge L is shown in figure. Moment of inertia

of the plate about the axis in the plane of plate and passing through one of

its vertex making an angle 15o with its side as shown in figure is

A

B

1) 2

12ML 2)

21124ML 3)

2712ML 4)

2724ML



9. A small block mass ‘m’ is rigidly attached to ‘P’ of a ring of mass ‘3m’ and

radius ‘r’ . The system is released from rest at 90o and rolls without

sliding .The angular acceleration of ring just after release is

P

1) 4gr

2) 8gr 3) 3

gr 4) 2

gr

10. The apparent value of acceleration due to gravity at the latitude 045 on the

earth becomes zero if the angular velocity of rotation of earth is

1) 2gR

2) 2gR 3) 2gR

4)52R

11. One end of a glass capillary tube with a radius ‘r’ is immersed into water to

a depth of ‘h’. The surface tension of water is ‘S’ and the atmospheric

pressure is ‘ 0P ’. What pressure is required to blow an air bubble out of the

lower end of the tube? Density of water is ‘ ’.

1) 02sP ghr

2) 02sP ghr

3) 0

2sP ghr

4) 02sP ghr



12. Pressure (P) Vs temperature (T) graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the

figure. If density of the gas at point A is , 0 then its density at point B is

B

A

P

T

03p

0p

0T02T

1) o32 2) 0

43 3) 0

34 4) 0

23

13. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be

proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The gas may be

1) a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic gases

2) a mixture of diatomic and triatomic gases

3) monoatomic

4) diatomic 14. A boy is walking away from a wall at a speed of 1.0m/s in a direction at

right angles to the wall. As he walks, he blows a whistle steadily. An

observer towards whom the boy is walking hears 4.0 beats per second. If

the speed of sound is 340m/s, the frequency of the whistle is

1) 300 Hz 2) 340Hz 3) 680 Hz 4) 740 Hz



15. If at 0,t a travelling wave pulse on a string is described by the function.

2

63

yx

.

What will be the function representing the pulse at time t, if the

pulse is propagating along positive x axis with speed 4 / ?m s

1) 2

64 3

yx t

2) 2

64 3

yx t

3) 2

6yx t

4) 2

612

yx t

16. Two electric dipoles each of dipolemoment 306.2 10p C m are placed

with their axis along the same line and their centres at a distance, 810 .d cm The force of attraction between dipoles is

1) 162.1 10 N 2) 122.1 10 N 3) 102.1 10 N 4) 82.1 10 N 17. A dielectric in the form of a sphere is introduced into a homogenous

electric field. A, B and C are three points as shown in the figure . Then

1) intensity at A increases while that at B and C decreases

2) intensity at A and B decreases, whereas intensity at C increases

3) intensity at A and C increases and that at B decreases

4) intensity at A, B, and C decreases



18. Two long coaxial and conducting cylinders of radius a and b are separated

by a material of conductivity and a constant potential difference V is

maintained between them by a battery. Then the current per unit length of

the cylinder flowing from one cylinder to the other is

1) 4

/V

n b a

2) 4

/V

b a

3) 2

/V

n b a

4) 2 Vb a

19. Find the reading of the ideal ammeter connected in the given circuit.

Assume that the cells have negligible internal resistance.

A

10V 4V 8V 6V

8 4 4 2

1) 2.5A 2) 5 3) 2A 4) 1 A

20. When a galvanometer is shunted with a 4 resistance, the deflection is

reduced to 1/5. If the galvanometer is further shunted with a 2 wire, the

new deflection will be (assuming the main current remains the same)

1) 5/13 of the deflection, when shunted with 4 only






21. A positively charged disk is rotated clockwise as shown in figure. The

direction of the magnetic field at point A in the plane of the disk is:

1) into the page 2) Right wards

3) Leftwards 4)Out of the page

22. Consider the situation shown in figure if the switch is closed and after some

time it is opened again, the closed loop will show

1) an anticlockwise current-pulse

2) a clockwise current-pulse

3) an anticlockwise current-pulse and then a clockwise current-pulse 4) a clock wise current-pulse and then and anticlockwise current-pulse 23. The figure shows variation of R, LX and CX with frequency f in a series

L,C,R circuit. Then, for what frequency point, the circuit is purely resistive

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) All points



24. Radiation of wave length 0

3

( 0 being the threshold wave length) is

incident on a photo sensitive metallic sphere of radius R. The steady state

charge developed on the sphere will be.

1) 0

0

4 Rche

2) 0

0

6 Rche

3) 0

0

8 Rche

4) 0

0

12 Rche

25. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by

0E ,0 x 1V x =

0 , x > 1

1λ and 2λ are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particle, when 0 x 1 and

x >1 respectively. If the total energy of particle is 02E , then 1 2λ / λ is

1) 2 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4

26. Two monochromatic coherent point sources 1 2S andS are separated by a

distance L. Each source emits light of wavelength , where L . The

line 1 2S S when extended meets a screen perpendicular to it at a point A.

Then choose the correct statement.

1) The interference fringes on the screen are circular in shape

2) The interference fringes on the screen are straight lines perpendicular to

the line 1 2 1 2S S A;S S n

3) The point A is an intensity maxima if L n / 2

4) The point A is always an intensity maxima for any separation L



27. In figure shows a parallel beam of light is incident on the plane of the slits

of a Young’s double-slit experiment. Light incident on the slit 1S passes

through a medium of variable refractive index 1 ax (where ‘x’ is the

distance from the plane of slits as shown), up to a distance ' ' before falling

on 1S . Rest of the space is filled with air. If at ‘O’ a minima is formed, then

the minimum value of the positive constant a (in terms of and wavelength

' ' in air) is

1)

2) 2

3) 2

4)

2

l

28. When a real object is placed 25 cm from a lens, a real image is formed.

Mark the is INCORRECT statement from the following.

1) The lens is a converging lens

2) The image may be magnified or diminished

3) The focal length of the lens is less than 25 cm

4) The focal length of the lens may be greater than 25



29. Light Emitting Diode is

1) A lightly dope p- n junction diode connected in Reverse Bias

2) A lightly doped p –n junction diode connected in Forward Bias

3) A heavily doped p –n junction diode connected in Forward Bias

4) A heavily doped p- n junction diode connected in Reverse Bias

30. A plane electromagnetic wave travelling in a non – magnetic medium is

given by 8 1 8 1 19 10 sin 9 10 6E NC rads t m x

Where x is in metre and t is in second.

The dielectric constant of the medium is

1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2



MATHS

31. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola 2 2x y 2sec 5 is 3 times the

eccentricity of the ellipse 2 2 2secx y =25, then a value of is :

1) / 6 2) / 4 3) / 3 4) / 2

32. If a, b, c are in G.P., and the equations, 2 2 0ax bx c &

2 2 0dx ex f have a common root, then , ,d e fa b c

are in

1) A,P. 2) G.P. 3) H.P. 4) A.G.P

33. The lower corner of a leaf in a book is folded over so as to just reach the

inner edge of the page. The fraction of width folded over if the area of the

folded part is minimum is:

1) 5/8 2) 2/3 3) 3/4 4) 4/5

34. 3

0 ( sin )Lim

xxIf

a x bx x =1 then the constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are (where a>0)

1) b=1, a=36 2) a=1, b=6 3) a=1,b=36 4) b=1, a=6

35. Let three matrices2 14 1

A

; 3 42 3

B

and 3 42 3

C

. If rt denotes

trace of a matrix then rt

2 3( ) ( )( ) ......2 4 8r r r

ABC A BC A BCA t t t

1)6 2) 9 3) 12 4) 15



36. If the integers m and n are chosen at random from {1,2,3……. 100} then

the probability that a number of the form 7 7m n is divisible by 5 equal to

1) 1/4 2) 1/7 3) 1/8 4) 1/49

37. Given 2 3 21 2(1 2 5 10 )(1 ) 1 ......nx x x x a x a x and that 2

1 22a a then

the value of n is

1) 4 2) 6 3) 8 4) 9

38. Let a

, b

, and c

be non-coplanar unit vectors equally inclined to one

another at an acute angle then [a

b

c

] in terms of is equal to:

1) (1 cos ) cos2 2) (1 cos ) 1 2cos 2

3) (1 cos ) 1 2cos 4) (1 2 ) 1 .COS COS

39. If the lines 1 0;4 3 4 0;x y x y and 0x y where 2 2 2, are concurrent then

1) 1, 1 2) 1, 1 3) 1, 1 4) 1, 1

40. 2 2sec (sec tan ) d

1) (sec tan )[2 tan (sec tan )]2

c

2) (sec tan )[2 4tan (sec tan )]3

c

3) (sec tan )[2 tan (sec tan )]3

c

4) 3(sec tan )[2 tan (sec tan )]3

c



41. In an experiment with 15 observations on x, the following results were

available 2 2830x , 170x . One observation that was found to be 20

wrong and was replaced by the correct value 30 then the corrected variance

is

1) 8.33 2) 78 3)188.66 4) 177.33

42. If the function23( ) ,

4t x xf x where

x

‘t’ is a parameter has a minimum

and a maximum then the range of value of ‘t’ is

1) (0,4) 2 )(0, ) 3) ( ,4) 4) (4, ) 43. The vertex of a parabola is (2,2) and the co-ordinates two extremities of the

latus rectum are (-2,0) and (6,0) . The equation of the parabola is

1) 2 4 8 12 0y y x 2) 2 4 8 12 0x x y

3) 2 4 8 12 0x x y 4) 2 8 4 20 0x y x

44. If 2 4q 0pr , 0p then the domain of the function 3 2( ) log( ( ) ( ) )f x px p q x q r x r

1) 2qRp

2) ( , 1]2qRp

3) ( , 1]2qRp

4) ( ,7)R



45. Given : 2/314

2f x x

,

tan[ ], 0

1, 0( )x X

xXg x

, ( ) { }h x x , 2log ( 3)( ) 5 xk x

then in [0,1] Lagrange’s Mean value Theorem is NOT applicable to

1) , ,f g h 2) ,h k 3) ,f g 4) g, h, k

46. The set of values of x for which the equation

1 1 21cos cos 3 32 2xx x

=

3 holds good is

1) [0,1] 2) 10,2

3) 1 ,12

4) { 1,0,1}

47. Number of integral solutions of the equation 1 2 3 4 770x x x x is

1) 44 2) 42(4 ) 3) 46(4 ) 4) 48(4 ) 48. The value of ‘c’ for which the sets,

2 2, 2 1 , | 0x y x y x x y x y c

contain only one point in common, is:

1) ( , 1] [3, ) 2) { 1,3}

3) { 3} 4) { 1}

49. The ends of the base of an isosceles triangle are at (2,0) and (0,1) and the

equation of one side is x=2 then the orthocenter of the triangle is,

1) 3 3,4 2

2) 5 ,14

3) 3 ,14

4) 4 7,3 12



50. If f 2( ) ( ) ( ) , ,x y f x f y x y xy x y R and '(0) 0f ,then

1) f need not be differentiable at every non zero x

2) f is differentiable for all x R

3) f is twice differentiable at 0x

4) f is a constant function

51. The image of the line 1 3 43 1 5

x y z

in the plane 2x-y+z+3=0 is the

line:

1) 3 5 23 1 5

x y z

2) 3 5 2

3 1 5x y z

3) 3 5 23 1 5

x y z

4) 3 5 2

3 1 5x y z

52. The value of ‘a’ (a>0) for which the area bounded by the curves

21

6xy

x , 0,y x a and x=2a has the least value, is

1) 2 2) 2 3) 1/32 4) 1

53. If , & are the roots of the equation 3 1 0x x then the value of,

1 1 11 1 1

is

1) Zero 2)-1 3 ) -7 4) 1



54. Consider the following relations:

, : , forsomerationalnumberR x y x y Rand x wy w

, : , , Integers such that n,q 0andqm=pnm pS m n p and q aren q

,then

1) R is an equivalence relation but S is not an equivalence relation

2) S is an equivalence relation but R is not an equivalence relation

3) R and S both are equivalence relations

4) Neither R nor S is an equivalence relation

55. Which of the following statement doesn’t convey the same meaning as “if a

natural number is odd, then it’s square is also odd.”

1) A natural number is odd only if it’s square is odd

2) For a natural number to be odd it is necessary that its square is odd

3) If square of a natural number is odd, then it is also odd

4) If the square of a natural number is not odd, then the natural number is

not odd

56. If x, y, z are not all simultaneously equal to zero, satisfying the system of

equations (sin3 ) 0x y z

(cos2 ) 4 3 0x y z

2 7 7 0x y z

then the number of principal values of is

1) 2 2)4 3)5 4)6



57. Let u= 1

20

ln( 11

xx

dx and

/2

0

ln(sin 2 )v x dx

then

1) 4u v 2) 4 0u v 3) 4 0u v 4) 2 0u v

58. The solution of y dx-x dy+3x2y2 3xe dx=0 is

1) 3xx e c

y 2)

3

0xx ey

3) 3xx e c

y 4)

3xy cx e

59. If a variable tangent to the curve 2 3x y c makes intercepts a, b on x and y

axis respectively, then the value of 2a b is

1) 27C3 2) 3427

c 3) 3274

c 4) 349

c

60. Distance between the two lines represented by the line pair, 2 24 4 2 6 0x xy y x y

1) 15

2) 5 3) 2 5 4) 3 5



CHEMISTRY

61. In an experiment 50 mL of 0.1 M solution of a salt reacted with 25 mL of

0.1 M solution of sodium sulphite. The half equation for the oxidation of

sulphite ion is 2 23 2 4SO aq H O l SO aq 2H aq 2e .

If the oxidation number of metal in the salt was 3, what would be the new

oxidation number of the metal?

1) Zero 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4

62. Molecular size of ICl and 2Br is nearly same, but boiling point of ICl is

about 40°C higher than 2Br This might be due to

1) I Cl bond is stronger than Br Br bond

2) ionisation energy of I< ionization energy of Br

3) ICl is polar where as 2Br is non-polar

4) The size of I > size of Br

63. Two radioisotopes P and Q of atomic weights 10 and 20, respectively are

mixed in equal amounts by weight. After 20 days, their weight ratio is

found to be 1 : 4 Isotope P has a half – life of 10 days. The half-life of

isotope Q is

1) zero 2) 5 days 3) 20 days 4) infinite



64. A substance will be deliquescent if its vapour pressure is

1) equal to the atmospheric pressure

2) equal to that of water vapour in the air

3) greater than that of water vapour in their air

4) lesser than that of water vapour in the air

65. Peptization is a process of

1) precipitating colloidal particles

2) ionization of colloidal particles

3) dispersing the precipitate into colloidal state

4) None of the above

66. For the reaction, 2 5 2 21N O 2NO O2

Given, 2 5

1 2 5

d N Ok N O

dt

22 2 5

d NOk N O ,

dt and

23 2 5

d Ok N O

dt

The relation between 1 2k ,k and 3k , is

1) 1 2 32k k 4k 2) 1 2 3k k k 3) 1 2 32k 4k k 4) None of these

67. The decomposition of 2 4N O to 2NO is carried out at 280 K in chloroform.

When equilibrium has been established, 0.2 mole of 2 4N O and 32 10 Mole of 2NO are present in a 2 L solution. The equilibrium constant

for the reaction, 2 4 2N O 2NO , is

1) 21 10 2) 32 10 3) 51 10 4) 52 10



68. A weak acid 5aHX K 1 10 on reaction with NaOH gives NaX. For

0.1 M aqueous solution of NaX, the per cent hydrolysis is

1) 0.001% 2) 0.01% 3) 0.15% 4) 1%

69. For a reversible process at T = 300 K, the volume of 2 moles of an ideal gas

is increased from 1 L to 10 L. The H for isothermal change is

1) 8.47 kJ 2) 4.98 kJ 3) 0 4) 11.47 kJ

70. Na is smaller than Na atom because

1) nucleus in each case contains different nucleons

2) sodium atom has an electron less than the sodium ion

3) sodium atom has 11 electrons and sodium ion has 10 electrons

4) the force of attraction is less in Na ion than in Na atom

71. A and B are two allotropes of an element. One gram of A will differ from

one gram of B in

1) oxidation number 2) chemical composition

3) total number of atoms 4) atomic arrangement

72. A mixture of 3Al OH and 3

Fe OH can be separated easily by treating it

with

1) HCl 2) 4NH OH 3) 3HNO 4) NaOH

73. The crystals of ferrous sulphate on heating give

1) 2 2FeO SO H O 2) 2 3 3 2Fe O SO H O

3) 2 3 2 3 2Fe O SO SO H O 4) 3 2 4 2FeO SO H SO H O



74. When 5PCl reacts with sulphuric acid, sulphuryl chloride 2 2SO Cl is

formed as the final product. This shown that sulphuric acid

1) is a dibasic acid

2) has great affinity for water

3) has two hydroxyl groups in its structure.

4) is a derivative of sulphur dioxide

75. The solubility of noble gases in water shows the order

1) He Ar Kr Ne Xe 2) He Ne Ar Kr Xe

3) Xe Kr Ar Ne He 4) None of the above

76. Which one is the most likely structure of 3 2CrCl 6H O . If 1/3 of total

chlorine of the compound is precipitated by adding 3AgNO to its aqueous

solution?

1) 3 2CrCl 6H O 2) 2 3 23 3Cr H O Cl H O

3) 2 2 24CrCl H O Cl 2H O 4) 2 2 25

CrCl H O Cl H O

77. Tests on an aqueous solution of a sodium salt having an anion nX gave the

following results Anion, 32 2 7 2Pb NOK Cr OnX Green solution Black precipitate

Which one of the following could be nX ?

1) I 2) 2NO 3) 2S 4) 24SO



78. 2 2

1(atm) 2(atm)

Pt H H 1M H 1M | H ,Pt ,

P P

1Pand 2P are pressures. The cell reaction

will be spontaneous if

1) 1 2P P 2) 1 2P P 3) 2 1P P 4) 1P 1atm

79. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane

is 13 12C H . How many structural isomers are possible when one of the

hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine atom?

1) 6 2) 4 3) 8 4) 7

80. The optically active tartaric acid is named as D tartaric acid because

it has a positive

1) optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose

2) pH in organic solvents

3) optical rotation and is derived from D glyceraldehydes

4) optical rotation when substituted by deuterium

81. Which one of the following will most readily be dehydrated in acidic

conditions?

1) 2) 3) 4)



82. What is the end product of the following sequence of operations?

2 2 4

22

H O DilH SO Ni2 HHgCaC A B C

1) Methyl alcohol 2) Acetaldehyde

3) 2 5C H OH 4) 2 4C H

83. A compound A of formula 3 6 2C H Cl on reaction with alkali can give B of

formula 3 6C H O or C of formula 3 4C H .B on oxidation gives a compound of

the formula 3 6 2C H O . C with dilute 2 4H SO containing 2Hg ion gives D of

formula 3 6C H O,which with bromine and NaOH gives the sodium salt of

2 4 2C H O . Then A is

1) 3 2 2CH CH CHCl 2) 2 2 3CH CCl CH

3) 2 2 2CH ClCH CH Cl 4) 3 2CH CHClCH Cl

84. Identify X, in the sequence.

1) 2) 3 2 2 2CH CH CH CH CHO

3) 3 2CH CHCHO 4) 3 2 2 2CH CH CH CH OH 85. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A),

trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D), is

1) A B C D 2) A C B D 3) B A D C 4) B D C A



86. The product formed on heating

1) 2)

3) 4)

87. The major product (P,Q) in the given reaction are

+ CH3 CH2 CH2 ClAlCl3 (P)

i) O2/ii) H2O

Q + Phenol

1) 2)

3) 4)

88. Glucose gives many reactions of aldehyde because

1) it is hydrolysed to acetaldehyde

2) it is a polyhydroxy ketone

3) it is a cyclic aldeyde

4) it is a hemiacetal in equilibrium with its aldehyde form in solution



89. Bases common to DNA and RNA are

1) adenine, cytosine, uracil

2) guanine, adenine, cytosine

3) guanine, uracil, thymine

4) adenine, thymine, guanine

90. Of the following which is a step-growth polymer?

1) Bakelite 2) Polyethylene

3) Teflon 4) PVC



Read the following instructions carefully: 1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet

with Black Ball Point Pen. 2. For writing/marking particulars on the Answer Sheet, use Black Ball Point Pen only. 3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified

space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer. 5. For

each incorrect response, ¼ (one–fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.

7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each page of the booklet.

8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should

leave his/her seat. 11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager etc. is

prohibited. 12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with

regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Examination body.

13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,

pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall.

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