ivms-autonomic pharmacology formative exam with answer key

Marc Imhotep Cray, M.D.

Autonomics Formative Exam


Instructions: Select the One Best Answer

1. Symptoms that might be helpful in distinguishing between 'cholinergic crisis'(e.g., overdose with cholinesterase inhibitors) and an acute exacerbation of myasthenia gravis include: A. increased salivation B. muscle fasciculations (twitching) C. profuse sweating D. muscle weakness 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 2. Drug Y produces a slowing heart rate when injected intravenously into an animal. This slowing in heart rate does not occur if the animal is bilaterally vagotomized. Drug Y may be: A. phenylephrine B. levarterenol C. methoxamine D. isoproterenol 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 3. The rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of norepinephrine involves the enzyme: 1. tryptophan hydroxylase 2. phenylalanine hydroxylase 3. dopamine beta-hydroxylase 4. tyrosine hydroxylase 5. tryptophan decarboxylase



4. Neurotransmitters found within the central nervous system include: A. dopamine B. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) C. 5-hydroxytryptamine (Serotonin) D. norepinephrine 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 5. Your pharmacology laboratory has been given a new compound for screening. It is found to increase the heart rate but has no effect on the eye. It also caused a significant reduction in diastolic blood pressure as well as relaxation of the bronchial muscle. This compound would be categorized as: 1. antimuscarinic 2. beta agonist 3. beta antagonist 4. alpha antagonist 5. muscarinic 6. All of the following statements concerning the structure-activity relationships of sympathomimetic amines are true EXCEPT: 1. the presence of a hydroxyl group in the 3 and 4 positions on the benzene ring is characteristic of the "catechol" nucleus 2. resistance to monamine oxidase is conferred by alkyl substitution on the alpha carbon of the phenylethylamine structure 3. the presence of hydroxyl groups in the 3 and 5 positions of a benzene ring increases the specificity for beta-1 receptors in the lung 4. a large alkyl substitution on the amino group of a direct-acting sympathomimetic increases the specificity for beta receptors 5. the absence of hydroxyl groups of the benzene ring of indirect-acting sympathomimetic amines increases oral effectiveness 7. Recent investigation has demonstrated the existence of both presynaptic alpha receptors (à2) and postsynaptic alpha receptors (à1). All of the following statements concerning these alpha receptors are true EXCEPT: 1. clonidine is an à2 selective agonist 2. methoxamine and phenylephrine are à2 selective agonists 3. prazosin and phenoxybenzamine are à1 selective antagonists 4. phentolamine is a nonselective alpha antagonist 5. epinephrine and norepinephrine are nonselective alpha agonists



8. All of the following statements concerning physostigmine and neostigmine are true EXCEPT: 1. physostigmine and neostigmine are classified as reversible cholinesterase inhibitors 2. neostigmine stimulates nicotinic receptors at ganglia and neuromuscular junctions unlike physostigmine 3. physostigmine is well absorbed orally 4. a major problem encountered with neostigmine is the unpleasant central nervous system effects which result from its administration 5. physostigmine is a tertiary amine and is able to penetrate the central nervous system 9. All of the following statements are true concerning effects of intravenous infusion of norepinephrine at 10 UG/Min EXCEPT: 1. an increase in pulse rate 2. an increase in pulse pressure 3. a marked increase in peripheral resistance 4. an increase in systolic blood pressure 5. an increase in diastolic blood pressure 10. Your pharmacology laboratory has been given an unknown compound for screening. It is found to contract the sphincter muscle of the eye, decrease the heart rate, increase bronchial gland secretions and causes sweating. You would classify this compound as (an): 1. antimuscarinic 2. alpha agonist 3. alpha antagonist 4. beta antagonist 5. muscarinic 11. True statements concerning the parasympathetic and sympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system include: 1. parasympathetic branch predominates under normal physiologic conditions while the sympathetic branch predominates during stressful episodes 2. acetylcholine is the chemical mediator at the ganglia of both branches and causes stimulation of nicotinic receptors postsynaptically 3. the adrenal medulla acts as a postganglionic sympathetic neuron and produces norepinephrine which travels via the bloodstream to stimulate alpha, beta-1 and beta-1 receptors 4. 1,2 5. 1,3



12. Which of the following statements is (are) correct concerning adrenergic drugs? A. at beta-1 receptors, isoproterenol is more potent than epinephrine, which is equipotent with norepinephrine B. at alpha-1 receptors, epinephrine is less potent than norepinephrine, which in turn is much more potent than isoproterenol C. at alpha-1 receptors, epinephrine is equal to or more potent than norepinephrine, which in turn is much more potent than isoproterenol D. at beta-2 receptors, isoproterenol is equal to or more potent than epinephrine, which is much less potent than norepinephrine 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 13. All of the following statements concerning catecholamine biosynthesis are true EXCEPT: 1. all of the enzymes involved with catecholamine biosynthesis are highly specific for each substance 2. tyrosine hydroxylase is the rate-limiting enzyme in catecholamine biosynthesis 3. the level of glucocorticoid influences the concentration of phenyl-n-methyltransferase and hence the conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine 4. the conversion of tyrosine to dopa and dopa to dopamine occurs in the cytoplasm of the adrenergic nerve terminal 5. the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine via dopamine beta-hydroxylase tales place within the granule of the adrenergic nerve terminal



14. Which of the following statements concerning the nerve action potential is (are) correct? A. an inhibitory neurotransmitter causes a selective decrease in permeability to potassium and chloride resulting in hyperpolarization (IPSP) B. an excitatory neurotransmitter causes a selective increase in permeability to all types of ions resulting in an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) C. conduction of the action potential refers to passage of an impulse along an axon or muscle fiber D. an inhibitory neurotransmitter causes a selective increase in permeability to potassium and chloride resulting in hyperpolarization (IPSP) 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. B,C,D 5. D only 15. Your pharmacology laboratory has received a new compound for screening. Initial experimentation with the compound yields the following findings: It causes contraction of the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder, contraction of the sphincter muscle of the iris, and secretion of lacrimal glands. With this information you might initially classify the compound as a(an): 1. alpha agonist 2. muscarinic agonist 3. beta agonist 4. anticholinergic 5. alpha antagonist 16. Respiratory effects of epinephrine include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle 2. inhibition of antigen-induced release of histamine 3. potent central nervous system stimulation 4. increase in respiratory rate and tidal volume 5. constriction of pulmonary vessels when administered as an aerosol



17. Correct statements concerning receptor location include: A. nicotine (N1) receptors have been found to occur at autonomic ganglion cells B. alpha adrenergic receptors have been found to exist on presynaptic terminals (à1) in addition to other locations such as blood platelets C. beta adrenergic receptors have been found in the heart ( 1) and in other sites ( 2) D. muscarinic receptors have been localized to the autonomic effector cells of the sympathetic nervous system 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 18. All of the following drugs are examples of direct acting beta agonists EXCEPT: 1. phenylephrine 2. metaproterenol 3. isoetharine 4. albuterol 5. terbutaline 19. Which of the following statements concerning the intravenous administration of catecholamines is (are) true? A. isoproterenol causes a decrease in peripheral resistance and A significant increase in pulse rate B. norepinephrine causes an increase in pulse rate and peripheral resistance C. epinephrine causes an increase in pulse rate and a decrease in peripheral resistance D. norepinephrine causes an increase in systolic blood pressure and a decrease in diastolic pressure 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above



20. Preterm labor can be terminated by the use of drugs which cause relaxation of uterine smooth muscle. Drugs which have been used for this purpose include: A. fenoterol B. ritodrine C. terbutaline D. metoprolol 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 21. Which of the following statements are true concerning the autonomic nervous system? A. the principle neurotransmitter of the sans is norepinephrine B. the PANS is characterized by long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers C. the principle neurotransmitter of the pans is acetylcholine D. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that stimulates the adrenal gland to release catecholamine 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 22. Your pharmacology laboratory has a new compound for screening. It is found to cause tachycardia, mydriasis, urinary retention and cycloplegia. You would classify this agent as a(an): 1. alpha agonist 2. ganglionic blocker 3. beta-1 agonist 4. nicotinic agonist 5. muscarinic agonist 23. The most important mechanism for terminating the activity of released norepinephrine from the presynaptic terminal is: 1. uptake-2 2. enzymatic destruction 3. diffusion into the systemic circulation 4. uptake-1 5. presynaptic receptor stimulation



24. A pharmacology laboratory is given a new compound for screening. This drug causes mydriasis and bradycardia, and causes pain and difficulty in micturition. You would classify this compound as a(an): 1. alpha agonist 2. anticholinergic 3. muscarinic agonist 4. beta blocker 5. nicotinic antagonist 25. All of the following drugs are examples of direct acting alpha agonists EXCEPT: A. phenylephrine B. metaraminol C. methoxamine D. metaproterenol 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 26. A patient with a history of thioridazine ingestion enters the emergency room exhibiting the following signs: delirium, mydriasis, tachycardia and dry skin. A drug which could help you confirm the patient's ingestion is: 1. phenylephrine 2. naloxone 3. physostigmine 4. edrophonium 5. neostigmine 27. Your pharmacology laboratory has received a new alpha agonist for screening. Which of the following effects would you expect to see if you initially administer atropine followed by the alpha agonist? A. mydriasis B. bradycardia C. urinary retention D. salivation 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above



28. Which of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of action of autonomic drugs is (are) true? A. atropine effectively antagonizes the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic and nicotinic sites B. quaternary anticholinesterase inhibitors exert both indirect and direct effects at nicotinic sites C. ganglionic blocking agents are not widely used today principally because of the multiple CNS toxicities D. alpha agonists are thought to stimulate the recently discovered alpha receptors which have been subdivided into two populations: alpha-1 (postsynaptic) and alpha-2 (presynaptic) 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 29. Which of the following statements accurately describe the concept "transmitter economy"? A. transmitter economy refers to the reuptake of released catecholamine for subsequent reutilization in neurotransmission B. transmitter economy refers to the reuptake of choline in the synaptic cleft for reutilization in acetylcholine synthesis C. transmitter economy refers to a process which helps to conserve synaptic supplies of norepinephrine D. transmitter economy is a process coined by Alexander Regan which ascribes receptor down regulation to supply side economics 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 30. Which of the following statements are true? A. terbutaline is relatively specific for Beta-2 receptors and is used as a bronchodilator B. guanethidine blocks responses to indirect acting sympathomimetic amines and potentiates they actions of exogenous epinephrine by inhibiting neuronal uptake C. MAO (monoamine oxidase) is the enzyme which catalyzes the oxidative deamination of catecholamines to form aldehyde derivatives D. yohimbine is an ergot alkaloid which has beta blocking activity 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above



31. Correct statements concerning physostigmine and neostigmine include: A. physostigmine and neostigmine are both classified as reversible cholinesterase inhibitors B. physostigmine, unlike neostigmine, is thought to exert a direct stimulatory effect at nicotinic receptors C. physostigmine is classified as a tertiary amine whereas neostigmine is a quaternary salt D. neostigmine should be used in place of physostigmine for reversal of central anticholinergic toxicity 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 32. Which of the following statements is (are) true? A. the veins are predominantly under sympathetic control B. the heart is predominantly under sympathetic control C. the urinary bladder is predominantly under parasympathetic control D. the arterioles are predominantly under parasympathetic control 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All are correct 33. Correct statements regarding the D-2 receptor include: A. the ergot alkaloids act as agonists at the receptor B. the D-2 Receptor is generally less sensitive to dopamine agonists than is the D-1 receptor C. metoclopramide is felt to be a selective antagonist at the D-2 receptor D. the prototype location for the D-2 receptor is the parathyroid gland 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 34. All of the following classes of drugs can demonstrate anticholinergic side effects EXCEPT: 1. tricyclic antidepressants 2. antihistamines 3. phenothiazines 4. anticonvulsants 5. All of the above



35. Which of the following statements concerning anticholinesterases is (are) true? A. pyridostigmine is a quaternary compound which is administered orally for the treatment of myasthenia gravis B. they act as "decurarizing drugs and will reverse the antagonism of competitive neuromuscular blocking agents C. physostigmine is a tertiary compound which is regarded as the anticholinesterase of choice for reversal of CNS anticholinergic toxicity D. unlike the tertiary anticholinesterases, quaternary compounds have direct agonist effects at the neuromuscular junction 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 36. Potential sites for cholinergic synapses include: A. autonomic effector sites, innervated by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers B. sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglion cells, and the adrenal medulla C. motor end-plates on skeletal muscles D. certain synapses within the central nervous system 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 37. Your pharmacology laboratory has received a compound for testing purposes. Initial experimentation with the compound yields the following observations: It causes contraction of the radial muscle of the iris, constriction of the arterioles of the skin and mucosa, and hyperglycemia. You would classify this compound as a(an): 1. anticholinergic 2. beta blocker 3. alpha agonist 4. muscarinic 5. antimuscarinic 38. The rate-limiting enzyme in catecholamine biosynthesis is: 1. aromatic l-amino acid decarboxylase 2. dopamine-beta-hydroxylase 3. tryptophan hydroxylase 4. phenylalanine hydroxylase 5. None of the above



39. Drugs which have no nicotinic activity, and are resistant to the activity of acetylcholinesterase include: A. acetylcholine B. methacholine C. carbachol D. bethanechol 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 40. Examples of pharmacologic effects of ganglionic blocking drugs include: A. cycloplegia B. vasodilatation, increased peripheral blood flow; hypotension C. anhidrosis D. bradycardia 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 41. Correct statements regarding the anticholinergic drugs, atropine and scopolamine, include: A. scopolamine has a more potent action on the iris, ciliary body, and certain secretory glands (salivary, bronchial, and sweat) B. scopolamine does not depress the central nervous system in doses that are used clinically and therefore is given in preference to atropine for most purposes C. atropine is more potent than scopolamine on the heart, intestine and bronchial muscle D. scopolamine has a longer duration of action that atropine 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. None of the above



42. Which of the following metabolic effects are observed following epinephrine administration? A. decrease in uptake of glucose by peripheral tissues B. increase in free fatty acids via activation of triglyceride lipase C. transient increase in serum potassium due to release of the ion from the liver D. inhibition of insulin secretion via stimulation of beta receptors 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B only 4. B,D 5. All of the above 43. Correct statements regarding the pharmacological actions of anticholinergics include: A. gastric secretion is greatly altered by conventional doses of belladonna alkaloids B. full therapeutic doses of atropine sulfate produce definite and prolonged inhibitory effects on the motor activity of the stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, and colon C. anticholinergic doses needed to produce inhibition of gastrointestinal motor activity are sufficient to depress salivary secretion and usually produce ocular and cardiac effects D. atropine reduces the secretion of pancreatic juice and bile 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. A,D 4. B and C 5. All of the above 44. All of the following statements regarding cholinergic blockage are true EXCEPT: 1. muscarinic actions of all parasympathomimetic drugs are blocked selectively by atropine, through competitive occupation of cholinergic receptors 2. epinephrine and other sympathomimetic amines antagonize most muscarinic effects at sites where adrenergic and cholinergic impulses produce opposing effects 3. nicotinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at autonomic ganglia are blocked by hexamethonium 4. nicotinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle are antagonized by D- tubocurarine 5. muscarinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at autonomic ganglia are blocked by hexamethonium



45. Which of the following regulatory agents or conditions would be expected to cause a decrease in the number of beta-adrenergic receptors? A. propranolol B. guanethidine C. alcohol withdrawal D. beta-adrenergic agonists 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 46. Which of the following statements regarding the central noradrenergic neuron is (are) true? A. alpha-methyl tyrosine can block the tyrosine hydroxylase reaction in catecholamine biosynthesis via competitive inhibition B. tetrabenazine and reserpine both interfere with the uptake storage mechanism of the noradrenergic neuron; however the tetrabenazine effects do not appear to be irreversible C. norepinephrine has its action terminated principally by reuptake into the presynaptic neuron D. norepinephrine and dopamine present in a free state with the presynaptic terminal can be degraded by COMT, which appears to be located in the outer membrane of the mitochondria 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 47. All of the following drugs are classified as indirect or mixed acting agents EXCEPT: A. ephedrine B. dopamine C. amphetamine D. dobutamine 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. None of the above; all are correct



48. Ganglionic blockade would be expected to give rise to all of the following EXCEPT: 1. arteriolar vasodilation, increased peripheral flow and hypotension 2. venodilation, pooling of blood, decreased venous return, and decreased cardiac output 3. reduced gastrointestinal tone and motility; constipation 4. bradycardia 5. All of the above 49. All of the following statements concerning the effects of anticholinesterase agents are true EXCEPT: 1. when applied topically to the anti-cholinesterase agents cause conjunctival hyperemia, miosis, and constriction of the ciliary muscle 2. enhancement of gastric contractions and increased secretion of gastric acid from parietal cells 3. augmentation of secretory function in bronchial, lacrimal, sweat, salivary, gastric, and intestinal glands 4. increase the effective refractory period of cardiac muscle and decrease the conduction time in conducting tissue 5. stimulation followed by depression or paralysis, of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle (nicotinic action) 50. The passage of impulses at autonomic ganglia can be influenced by drugs that act to: 1. interfere with the storage of synthesis of the transmitter (e.g., hemicholinium) 2. prevent the liberation of acetylcholine from the preganglionic nerve endings (e.g., botulinus toxin) 3. inactivate ganglionic cholinesterases (e.g., physostigmine) 4. either mimic or prevent the interaction between acetylcholine and its ganglionic (nicotinic) cholinergic receptor sites 5. All of the above 51. Neurotransmitters found within the central nervous system include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. 5-hydroxytryptamine 2. glutamate 3. GABA 4. dopamine 5. isoproterenol



52. Manifestations of ganglionic blockade include: A. mydriasis B. urinary retention C. tachycardia D. decreased venous return 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 53. All of the following drugs act on beta-adrenergic receptors EXCEPT: A. metaproterenol B. isoetharine C. terbutaline D. bethanechol 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 54. Which of the following drugs has no nicotinic activity? A. methacholine B. pilocarpine C. carbachol D. bethanechol 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. None of the above 55. The drug which would be most effective in reversing the central manifestations of anticholinergic toxicity is: 1. edrophonium 2. pyridostigmine 3. neostigmine 4. physostigmine 5. scopolamine



56. Direct acting cholinergic agonists include: A. physostigmine B. muscarine C. propantheline D. pilocarpine 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 57. Which of the following drugs is an antagonist at nicotinic (N1) receptors? 1. atropine 2. curare 3. scopolamine 4. hexamethonium 5. neostigmine 58. Which of the following drug classes do not demonstrate anticholinergic effects? A. phenothiazines B. antiarrhythmics C. antihistamines D. tricyclic antidepressants 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. None of the above 59. Which of the following drugs is classified as a selective alpha-1 agonist? 1. prazosin 2. norepinephrine 3. phenylephrine 4. phenoxybenzamine 5. epinephrine 60. The activity of norepinephrine released at the synaptic cleft is terminated principally by which of the following processes? 1. uptake-1 2. uptake-2 3. removal by the bloodstream 4. stimulation of presynaptic autoreceptors 5. enzymatic destruction within the synaptic cleft



61. Your pharmacology laboratory is given a new compound for screening. It is found to increase heart rate, reduce blood pressure and reduce uterine contractility. You would classify this agent as: 1. beta agonist 2. muscarinic agonist 3. nicotinic agonist 4. alpha antagonist 5. antimuscarinic 62. Drugs which exert their effects (either agonist or antagonist) on presynaptic alpha receptors (alpha-2) include: A. phenylephrine B. clonidine C. prazosin D. yohimbine 1. A,B,C 2. A,B 3. A,C 4. B,D 5. C,D 63. Nicotinic receptors are situated at which of the following locations? A. adrenal gland B. neuromuscular junction C. central nervous system D. autonomic ganglia 1. A,B,C 2. A,B 3. A,C 4. B,D 5. All of the above 64. Drugs contraindicated in the management of patients with asthma include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. physostigmine 2. bethanechol 3. propranolol 4. atropine 5. methacholine



65. All of the following statements concerning the cholinergic and adrenergic receptors are true EXCEPT: A. nicotinic (N2) receptors are found at the neuromuscular junction B. nicotinic (N1) receptors are found at the autonomic ganglia C. beta-1 receptors are found chiefly at cardiac sites and beta-2 receptors are found in smooth muscle and gland cells D. alpha-1 receptors are localized to presynaptic terminals whereas alpha-2 receptors are found at postsynaptic sites 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 66. Pharmacologic effects of ganglionic blocking drugs include: A. cycloplegia B. sweating C. vasodilation, hypotension, increased peripheral blood flow D. bradycardia 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 67. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at which of the following cholinergic receptor sites? 1. nicotinic 2. neuromuscular 3. nonnicotinic ganglionic 4. All of the above 5. 1,2 68. Prevertebral ganglia include: 1. superior cervical 2. superior mesenteric 3. celiac 4. 1,2 5. 2,3



69. Monamine oxidase and catechol-o-methyltransferase are the true important enzymes in the initial steps of catecholamine metabolism. The principal resulting metabolites include: A. 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) B. VMA (vanillylmandelic acid) C. SKP (SKP-2-NXT-SER) D. MHPG (3-methoxy-4-hydroxy phenylglycol) 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 70. Examples of indirect-acting sympathomimetics include: A. amphetamine B. methoxamine C. hydroxyamphetamine D. phenylephrine 1. A,B,C 2. A,C 3. B,D 4. D only 5. All of the above 71. An unknown compound causes miosis, drowsiness and mental clouding, respiratory depression, nausea and constipation. You would classify this compound as: 1. antimuscarinic 2. muscarinic 3. alpha agonist 4. alpha antagonist 5. None of the above 72. Your basement pharmacology laboratory correctly identified an unknown compound several years ago. This compound caused an increase in heart rate, reduction in mean blood pressure and relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle. This compound is marketed today under the names of: 1. propranolol 2. isoproterenol 3. trimethaphan 4. phenylephrine 5. bethanechol



73. Your pharmacology laboratory has been given a new compound for screening. It is found to increase heart rate, dilate the pupil, reduce glandular secretions and decrease gastrointestinal motility. You would classify this compound as a(an): 1. alpha agonist 2. antimuscarinic 3. beta agonist 4. parasympathomimetic 5. beta agonist



ANWER KEY:

1. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 2. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 3. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 4. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 5. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 6. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 7. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 8. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 9. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 10. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 11. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 12. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 13. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 14. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 15. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 16. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 17. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 18. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 19. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 20. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 21. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 22. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 23. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 24. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 25. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 26. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 27. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 28. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 29. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 30. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 31. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 32. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 33. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 34. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 35. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 36. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 37. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 38. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 39. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 40. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 41. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 42. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 43. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 44. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 45. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 46. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 47. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics



48. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 49. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 50. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 51. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 52. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 53. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 54. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 55. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 56. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 57. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 58. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 59. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 60. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 61. correct answer: 1 category: Autonomics 62. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 63. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 64. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 65. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 66. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 67. correct answer: 4 category: Autonomics 68. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 69. correct answer: 3 category: Autonomics 70. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 71. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics 72. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics 73. correct answer: 2 category: Autonomics

ivms-autonomic pharmacology formative exam with answer key

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