Paper 1

Question 1

Which of the following is the correct definition of a customer-based SLA?

A. An SLA with a customer covering all of the services they useB. An SLA covering all customer groups and all the services they useC. SLAs for each service that are customer-focused and written in business

languageD. An SLA for each service, covering all those customer groups that use that service

Question 2

Which of the following data is LEAST likely to be used in the Incident process?

A. Incident categoryB. Cost of faulty itemC. Make/model of faulty itemD. Impact code

Question 3

An IT department wants to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling comparable services. This approach is known as:

A. Market rateB. The going rate that is agreed with customersC. Cost-plusD. Profitable

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management?

A. VerificationB. SecurityC. ReliabilityD. Maintainability

Question 5

The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:

A. Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to void spending a lot of money

B. Be as high level as possibleC. Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be heldD. Vary according to cost

Question 6

To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the Service Desk servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?

A. Service Level ManagerB. Change ManagerC. Capacity ManagerD. Financial Manager

Question 7

Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:

A. Service Level ManagementB. IT Service Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT ServicesC. Change and Capacity ManagementD. Change and Release Management

Question 8

Which of the following is a potential problem when implementing Change Management?

A. Lack of ownership of impacted servicesB. Increased visibility and communication of ChangesC. Better alignment of IT services to business needsD. The ability to absorb a larger volume of change

Question 9

Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?

1. Recommendations2. Management summary3. Business workload forecasts4. Back-out plans

A. 2, 3 and 4B. All of themC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3

Question 10

Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the IT Service Continuity Management life-cycle?

A. Develop procedures and initial testingB. Education and awarenessC. Review, audit and assuranceD. Ongoing training and testing

Question 11

Intermediate Recovery is concerned with which of the following time periods?

A. 4 to 24 hoursB. More than 72 hoursC. 24 to 72 hoursD. 4 to 8 hours

Question 12

Which of the following could be members of the Change Advisory Board?

1. Problem Manager2. Customer representatives3. Change Manager4. IT technical managers

A. All of themB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4D. 1, 3 and 4

Question 13

Which of the following should be easier after the implementation of a good IT Service Management software tool?

1. The analysis of raw data2. The identification of trends3. The definition of Service Management processes4. Implementation of preventative measures

A. 1, 2 and 4B. 2 and 3C. All of themD. 1 and 4

Question 14

Identifying the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:

A. Root Cause AnalysisB. CRAMMC. Business Impact AnalysisD. Component Failure Impact Analysis

Question 15

In Availability Management, what is SOA?

A. System Optimisation ApproachB. Systematic Operational AdjustmentC. Serviceability of ApplicationsD. Service Outage Analysis

Question 16

Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?

A. The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable

B. The ability to restore services or components back to normal operationC. The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is availableD. The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of

the IT infrastructure

Question 17

Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activityB. is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against taxC. Staff costs are capital costs because of their high valueD. Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)

Question 18

What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?

A. A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is notB. There is no real difference between a Problem and a Known ErrorC. In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause is knownD. In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT infrastructure, with a

Problem there is not

Question 19

Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?

A. DSLB. AMDBC. CMDBD. CDB

Question 20

A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?

A. Network ManagementB. The Service DeskC. Capacity ManagementD. Problem Management

Question 21

What is the correct sequence of activities involved in implementing a Service Management tool:

1. Tool selection2. Tool specification3. Process design4. Analysis of requirements

A. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3B. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1C. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3D. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

Question 22

The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in which sequence?

A. Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs

B. Draft SLAs, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services, agree SLAs

C. Review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs

D. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

Question 23

Which of the following statements is true?

A. An urgent Release is always a Delta ReleaseB. A Full Release may contain Package and Delta ReleasesC. A Full Release may contain several Delta ReleasesD. A Package Release may contain Full and Delta Releases

Question 24

Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?

A. To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimumB. To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer

demandsC. To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievableD. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels

Question 25

Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

1. Incident diagnostic scripts2. A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents3. A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure

supported4. A Forward Schedule of Change

A. 1 and 2B. All of themC. 3 and 4D. 1, 2 and 3

Question 26

The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:

1. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users2. Recording Change requests from users3. Handling complaints and queries

A. 1 OnlyB. 2 OnlyC. 1 and 3D. All of them

Question 27

Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk?

A. Remedial Service DeskB. Virtual Service DeskC. Local Service DeskD. Central Service Desk

Question 28

The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

A. Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionalsB. A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be

understood by everyoneC. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguityD. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

Question 29

Which of the following are amongst the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?

1. Modelling2. Risk Analysis3. Application Sizing4. DSL maintenance

A. 1 and 2B. 3 and 4C. 2 and 4D. 1 and 3

Question 30

When does an Incident turn into a Problem?

A. When it is urgentB. When it is a Major IncidentC. If the person reporting the Incident is very seniorD. Never

Question 31

Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?

A. Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available

B. No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management

C. No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing ProblemsD. Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate

Incident Management information

Question 32

For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?

A. Establishing the root cause of a capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being raised

B. Devising the back-out plan for a significant ChangeC. Chairing the CABD. Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs

Question 33

Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the following most accurately summarises them?

A. Planning, Control, Identification, Status Accounting, VerificationB. Problem Control, Error Control, Management reportingC. Incident Control, severity analysis, support allocation, reportingD. Identification, Problem Control, support allocation, investigation

Question 34

Which of the following will NOT have a direct impact on IT capacity?

A. An increase in network bandwidth availableB. A reduction in transactions processedC. A reduction in the number of files to be storedD. An increase in the cost per transaction

Question 35

Which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?

1. One Incident to one Problem2. One Incident to many Problems3. Many Incidents to one Problem

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of them

Question 36

Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?

A. The number of Problems raisedB. The number of Known Errors identifiedC. The number of Problems correctly categorisedD. The number of RFCs raised

Question 37

Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?

A. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirementsB. To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers

their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets

C. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability

D. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost

Question 38

Which of these is a direct benefit of having a Service Desk?

A. Service Level Requirements are establishedB. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted by users’ telephone callsC. Changes taking place are properly coordinatedD. All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date

Question 39

The scope of a Release can best be defined by:

A. The RFCs that it includesB. The number of updates to the DHSC. Service Level metricsD. The DSL configuration

Question 40

An ‘unabsorbed’ overhead would typically be:

A. A capital costB. A type of charging policyC. A cost which cannot be attributed to a specific customerD. A revenue stream

Paper 2

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a key reason for investing in a Service Desk?

A. To diagnose and remove the underlying cause of ProblemsB. To deliver high quality supportC. To provide a single point of contact for usersD. To aid user retention and satisfaction

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management activity?

A. Analysing the IT infrastructure to identify weaknesses that could lead to Incidents

B. Assigning Problems according to their priorityC. Assessing the impact, risk and cost of the proposed solution in order to decide

whether to implement itD. Considering the impact of Problems on the business

Question 3

Which of the following statements about the Change Advisory Board is correct?

A. The CAB are mainly concerned with the higher impact, higher risk ChangesB. The CAB is responsible for the production of the Forward Schedule of ChangeC. The CAB should discuss all ChangesD. The CAB has an Emergency Committee who will meet if some of the normal

CAB members cannot attend a scheduled meeting

Question 4

The ‘Goal’ of Release Management is best described as:

A. To ensure that all software and hardware Releases are released in a manner that is acceptable to users and customers

B. To introduce electronic software distribution tools to reduce the time spent managing the Release of new products

C. To reduce the number of malicious or unauthorised implementations of software through the strict application of Release procedures

D. To take an holistic view of a Change to an IT service and ensure that all aspects of a Release, both technical and non-technical, are considered together

Question 5

Which of the following will help the Service Desk meet its objectives?

1. Automatic Call Distribution system2. Configuration Management Database3. Known Error Database4. Integrated Service Management software tool

A. NoneB. 1, 2 and 3C. 1 and 4D. All of them

Question 6

A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under an SLA. Who will review this with the customer?

A. The IT Finance ManagerB. The Service Level ManagerC. The Change ManagerD. The Configuration Manager

Question 7

Of the following, which are the most important attributes needed by Service Desk staff?

A. Good interpersonal skills, tenacious, technically astute, firmB. Customer-focused, business awareness, articulate, methodical, tolerant, good

interpersonal skillsC. Logical, methodical, tenacious, forthright, analyticalD. Well presented, technical specialist, numerate, good interpersonal skills

Question 8

Which of the following best reflects ITIL guidance for how often an IT Service Continuity recovery plan should be tested?

A. At least annuallyB. After initial development and at least annuallyC. After initial developmentD. Three months after the last test to ensure changes have been made

Question 9

Which of the following best describes a Change Model?

A. A small, virtually risk-free, software changeB. Moving desktop equipment after a relocationC. A standard way of dealing with changes of the same typeD. A Capacity Management technique

Question 10

Cost-plus is a type of…

A. Costing modelB. BudgetC. Accounting policyD. Charging policy

Question 11

Which of the following is most involved with the operational maintenance of quality IT services?

A. Applications DevelopmentB. Service DeliveryC. Service SupportD. Customer Services

Question 12

Which of the following tasks is NOT normally assigned to the Service Desk?

A. Receipt and logging of user callsB. Root Cause AnalysisC. Incident escalationD. First line Incident resolution

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT a Configuration Item?

A. An organisation’s Capacity PlanB. A laser printerC. A Service Level AgreementD. The make, model and serial number of a PC

Question 14

Who will authorise a Request for Change before the Change is built and tested?

A. The Change InitiatorB. The Change ManagerC. The Configuration ManagerD. Release Management

Question 15

What is a Service Catalogue?

A. An arrangement with an external supplier covering delivery of contracted services

B. A description of the services provided to customersC. An agenda for the regular service review meetings with customersD. A set of actions to address Problems in CIs that have registered a high failure rate

Question 16

Status Accounting is an important part of which process?

A. Financial Management for IT ServicesB. Change ManagementC. Incident ManagementD. Configuration Management

Question 17

When establishing a new SLA or amending an existing one, which of the following should the Service Level Manager consider?

1. That the new, or revised, SLA can meet the targets agreed with the customer

2. That the conditions in other SLAs can continue to be met3. That the possible impact of changes to the SLA can be identified

A. 2 and 3B. 1 and 3C. 1, 2 and 3D. 1 and 2

Question 18

In ITIL, which of the following is NOT a recognised technique for modeling capacity requirements?

A. Analytical ModellingB. Simulation ModellingC. Trend AnalysisD. Reciprocal Modelling

Question 19

Should an SLA specify how changes to customer requirements can be implemented before the planned SLA review date?

A. Yes, because the customer may ask for changes at any timeB. Yes, but only if the customer pays for the changeC. No, the SLA is reviewed periodically so that any changes can be introduced in a

controlled mannerD. No, IT have budgeted for the agreed level of service and it would be

unreasonable to change that mid-term

Question 20

The main objective of Availability Management is to…

A. Maximise service times provided by the IT departmentB. Ensure services meet availability targetsC. Identify unreliable componentsD. Measure the performance of suppliers

Question 21

Which Incidents need to be logged by the Service Desk?

A. All IncidentsB. All Incidents except simple enquiriesC. Only Incidents not resolved at loggingD. Only Incidents from genuine customers

Question 22

A programming mistake has just been detected in one of the operational IT systems. This will lead to all bills being multiplied by a factor of 100 in nine months time. The mistake can be corrected by one month of programming resource.

Which of the following statements best summarises the situation?

A. The impact is low but the urgency is high due to the large amounts of money involved

B. The impact and urgency are low because there is plenty of time to solve the mistake

C. The impact and urgency are both high because of the large amounts of money involved

D. The impact is high but the urgency is low at the moment

Question 23

What percentage of calls should the Service Desk be able to resolve at first contact?

A. 95%B. 100%C. Sufficient to meet the relevant service targetsD. All top priority calls

Question 24

What is the ITIL definition of a Problem?

A. A deviation from the standard operation of serviceB. A call logged at the Service Desk more than onceC. An Incident for which the root cause is known and for which a workaround

existsD. The unknown underlying cause of one or more existing or potential Incidents

Question 25

The production of an SLR is usually the starting point for whom in the SLM process?

A. The Service ProviderB. The IT services legal representativeC. The CustomerD. The Change Manager

Question 26

A new version of application software may need an upgrade to the operating system. Either or both of these changes may also need a hardware change e.g. faster processor or more memory.

Which ITIL process is responsible for rolling out the Changes?

A. Change ManagementB. Release ManagementC. The Service DeskD. Service Level Management

Question 27

Which of the following needs to be considered when implementing Configuration Management for the first time?

A. Gathering and recording CI informationB. Controlling RFCsC. Defining software release policiesD. Auditing the DHS

Question 28

If a customer complains that service levels are below those agreed in the SLA, possibly due to a number of related hardware incidents. Who is responsible for ensuring the underlying cause of the incidents is investigated?

A. The Service Level ManagerB. The Availability ManagerC. The Incident ManagerD. The Problem Manager

Question 29

When should the Capacity Management process be reviewed for effectiveness and efficiency?

A. RegularlyB. When the process is being plannedC. Not unless there is a negative issue arisingD. Immediately after the process has been implemented

Question 30

Potential benefits from implementing IT Service Continuity Management are:

1. Lower insurance premiums2. Fulfilment of mandatory or regulatory requirements3. Reduced business disruption4. Better management of risk and the consequent reduction of the impact

failure

A. 2, 3 and 4B. 2 and 4C. 1, 2 and 4D. All of them

Question 31

Which of these is NOT the responsibility of Availability Management?

A. Monitoring a Service Quality PlanB. Producing the Availability PlanC. Contributing to a Service Improvement ProgrammeD. Defining targets for reliability and maintainability

Question 32

Which of the following are variable costs?

1. Salaries2. Overtime3. Quarterly lease payments4. Usage charges5. Consumables

A. 2, 3 and 5B. 2, 4 and 5C. 1, 3 and 5D. 1, 2 and 4

Question 33

Which of the following definitions best describes ITIL?

A. A methodology for supporting and delivering IT servicesB. A quality standard in managing customer relationshipsC. A prescriptive process for managing Service Improvement ProjectsD. A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management

Question 34

Performance issues have been highlighted on a particular service and corrective measures have been identified. Which ITIL process will approve the implementation of these corrective measures?

A. Performance ManagementB. Capacity ManagementC. Change ManagementD. Problem Management

Question 35

Which of the following are possible problems associated with availability metrics?

1. Not measuring availability at the point of service delivery2. Producing measures of availability that are meaningless to the business3. Dependence on suppliers for serviceability data4. Lack of suitable software

A. All of themB. 1 and 2C. 3 and 4D. 2 and 4

Question 36

Which of the following are Incident Management activities?

1. Negotiating SLAs with the Customers2. Matching the Incident against Known Errors3. Categorising and assigning priorities4. Processing Requests for Change to improve service functionality

A. 1 and 3B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 2D. All of them

Question 37

The Requirements and Strategy phase of the IT Service Continuity life-cycle consists of:

A. Organisation, implementation planning and risk reduction measuresB. Education and awareness, review and auditC. Business Impact Analysis, risk assessment and business continuity strategyD. Initial testing, education and awareness, assurance

Question 38

Unabsorbed overheads are best described as:

A. Costs that can be attributed to a specific customer or serviceB. Indirect costs that can not easily be apportioned on the basis of usageC. External Services costsD. Capital Costs

Question 39

ITIL Best Practice suggests that Release Management should be introduced as part of an integrated set of processes. Which other ITIL processes should also be introduced together with Release Management?

A. Change Management and Configuration ManagementB. Configuration Management and Incident ManagementC. Change Management and Service Level ManagementD. Configuration Management and Problem Management

Question 40

Which of the following terms is associated with Demand Management?

A. Underpinning disciplineB. Identify the root causeC. Shaping user behaviourD. The customer is always right

Paper No. 3

Question 1

Which of the following would be valid reasons for a Service Desk to invoke escalation procedures?

1. An Incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within an SLA2. The business impact of an Incident increases due to unforeseen

circumstances3. The number of users impacted by an Incident is greater than first thought4. A senior manager engaged in a critical business activity complains about a

lack of progress being made on a particular Incident

A. 1, 2 and 3B. 2, 3 and 4C. All fourD. 1, 3 and 4

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management responsibility?

A. Ownership of an Incident throughout its lifecycleB. Investigation of the cause of an IncidentC. Initiating Requests for ChangeD. Maintenance of a Known Error database

Question 3

The ‘writing off’ of part of an asset’s value each year, usually a fixed percentage of the original cost, is known as …

A. Transfer costingB. Discounted cash flowC. Net book valueD. Depreciation

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT a concern of Resource Capacity Management?

A. Establishing the future IT capacity requirements of the businessB. Understanding the profile of use of CIsC. Understanding CI utilisation thresholdsD. Having a knowledge of new and changing technologies

Question 5

Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?

1. CMDB A Availability Management2. CFIA B Release Management3. DHS C Service Level Management4. OLA D Configuration Management

A. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-BB. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-CC. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-DD. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Question 6

Which of the following statements best describes ‘resilience’?

A. The combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainabilityB. The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have

failedC. The ability of a CI to remain functional under given conditionsD. The ability of a CI to be retained in, or restored to, its normal operational state

Question 7

Which of the following is a responsibility of Change Management?

A. Reviewing Changes to confirm they meet their objectivesB. Initiating a Change to rectify a Known ErrorC. Testing the back out plan for a major ChangeD. Implementing a change to software at a remote site

Question 8

Which of the following activities is NOT part of the Release process?

A. Moving software from the DSL to the development environmentB. Moving software from the DSL to the live environmentC. Moving software from the development to the test environmentD. Moving software from the live environment to the DSL

Question 9

In ITSCM a ‘reciprocal arrangement’ is where:

A. There is an agreement with another similar organisation to provide support for each other in the event of a disaster

B. Having a mirrored service in another location so that service interruption is minimised

C. Taking the best of all other approachesD. Making the main data centre as disaster-proof as possible to avoid service

interruptions

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of IT Service Management?

A. Running and maintaining existing servicesB. Developing new systemsC. Keeping IT services in line with changing business needsD. Keeping the costs of delivering IT services within agreed budget limits

Question 11

In which two Service Management processes would you be most likely to use a risk analysis and management methodology?

A. Change and Financial Management for IT ServicesB. Availability Management and IT Service Continuity ManagementC. Incident Management and Change ManagementD. Service Level Management and IT Service Continuity Management

Question 12

Salesmen are able to use their laptops from hotels to log in to their company’s IT services. On several occasions they have found that when a certain modem is used, the connection was unsatisfactory. A temporary solution to this situation has been identified.

Which processes, other than Incident Management, will be involved in achieving a permanent solution?

A. Problem, Change, Release and Configuration ManagementB. Only Configuration, Problem and Release ManagementC. Only Change and Release ManagementD. Only Change, Release and Configuration Management

Question 13

Many performance related Incidents have arisen because a new batch of PCs do not have sufficient memory for the applications they are been used for. Which process should have prevented this from happening?

A. Performance ManagementB. Capacity ManagementC. Configuration ManagementD. IT Service Continuity Management

Question 14

Which of the following would be appropriate Key Performance Indicators for aService Desk?

1. Percentage of Incidents closed without escalation2. Percentage of Incidents correctly categorised at logging3. Percentage of Incidents related to hardware

A. All threeB. 1 and 2C. 1 and 3D. 2 and 3

Question 15

Which of the following would NOT be undertaken by Problem Management?

A. Liaison with third party suppliersB. Working with Availability Management to ensure agreed levels of service

AvailabilityC. Known Error managementD. Taking charge of difficult Incidents

Question 16

A trend analysis of Incident data indicates that over 30% of Incidents regularly recur. Which of the following will contribute most to reducing regularly recurring Incidents?

A. A review of recently implemented RFCsB. Implementation of the Problem Management processC. The selection of an appropriate tool to log all Incident data more accuratelyD. The introduction of a single Service Desk telephone number so users know

whom to contact

Question 17

Which of the following statements about IT Service Continuity Management are correct?

1. The ‘intermediate recovery external’ option can offer a remote installation, fully quipped with the required hardware, software, communications and environmental control equipment

2. The ‘intermediate recovery external’ option can be shared between multiple customers and in the event of a disaster may not be available due to over- subscription

A. BothB. NeitherC. Only the firstD. Only the second

Question 18

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. It is better to budget and account for IT services before implementing chargingB. Budgeting and Accounting for IT services is essential for effective Service

ManagementC. Charging is required in order to cost IT servicesD. Charging may lead to the recovery of costs

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a technique usually associated with Availability Management?

A. Auto error detectionB. Fault Tree AnalysisC. Queuing theoryD. Service Outage Analysis

Question 20

The Service Desk is unable to deal with a user’s Incident. What action should they take?

A. Log the details and inform the customer of the Incident number. Monitor progress and keep customer informed

B. As it is the first time it has happened to this user, tell them to ring back if it happens again. Inform them you will then pass the Incident to second line support for resolution

C. Log the details and inform the customer of the Incident number. Suggest they ring back if they have not heard anything within 48 hrs

D. From the information given it appears there could be a hardware fault. Suggest the customer contacts a third party to try to get the incident resolved quickly

Question 21

Which of the following would NOT normally be discussed in a typical service review with a customer?

A. Requirements for an increase in capacityB. Service performance trends

C. Authorisation for changes to a serviceD. Customer satisfaction with the service

Question 22

Which of the following best describes why an SLA should contain definitions of terms?

A. To ensure that anywhere there is a measurement required within the SLA then it is realistically measurable

B. To make sure that all sections in the SLA make senseC. To ensure that both the customer and IT can clearly understand the terms in the

SLAD. To ensure that the customer’s understanding of a particular term is the one

meant in the SLA

Question 23

With which of the following processes do you associate this definition? ‘Any event which is not part of the standard operation of the service and which causes or may cause an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of service’

A. Availability ManagementB. Service Level ManagementC. Problem ManagementD. Incident Management

Question 24

Incident Management activities include which of the following?

1. Matching Incidents against Known Errors2. Analysing Incident data to identify root causes of Problems3. Determining the underlying cause of the Incident4. Assigning impact and urgency, thus defining priority

A. 1 and 4B. 1 and 3C. 2 and 4D. 1 and 2

Question 25

Change Management is NOT responsible for:

A. Scheduling a Change to the networkB. Ensuring that a Change to an application is prioritisedC. Ensuring that the impact of a Change to hardware is fully assessedD. Implementing the Release of a software Change

Question 26

Which is the correct sequence of events in the Incident Lifecycle after the Incident has actually occurred?

A. Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, DiagnosisB. Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, DiagnosisC. Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, RestorationD. Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration

Question 27

In which of the following circumstances is requesting an Urgent Change justified?

A. If only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any other components

B. A CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are unable to attend

C. A supplier has advised that a previous version of a software package will not be supported very much longer

D. A Change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a valid charging policy?

A. Cost recoveryB. Activity based costingC. ‘Cost plus’ pricingD. Market rate

Question 29

A CI must have a unique reference so that…

A. Audits can be carried out remotelyB. The same description can be used for several CIsC. Mistakes in identifying a particular CI are less likelyD. New CIs can be quickly and accurately registered in the CMDB

Question 30

In ITSCM the severity of a disaster depends upon:

A. The time of day it occursB. How many people are available to assist in recoveryC. The type of disaster, whether flood, fire, etc.D. The impact on the customer’s business

Question 31

Incident reports from the last month show that the average resolution time was 30 minutes. What does this mean?

A. Incidents were open for an average of 30 minutesB. A random selection of Incidents were open less than 30 minutesC. Most Incidents were fixed within 30 minutesD. The average time taken for Incidents to be reported to the Service Desk by users

was 30 minutes

Question 32

A supplier offers an IT provider a choice of three different maintenance options when purchasing a new Server. In which document will the customer’s choice be registered?

A. Underpinning ContractB. Operational Level AgreementC. Service Level AgreementD. Service Catalogue

Question 33

Students can access course-work from their home PCs via the internet. A student requires an existing set of programs for the course they are following. Which process is responsible for ensuring the correct programs are sent to the students?

A. Release ManagementB. Change ManagementC. Configuration ManagementD. Network Management

Question 34

Incidents have NOT been linked to the correct CI. Which activity is most likely to have failed to work properly?

A. Service DeskB. Change ManagementC. Problem ManagementD. Configuration Management

Question 35

Capacity Management comprises three sub-processes. Which of the following is NOT one of the sub-processes?

A. Business Capacity ManagementB. Service Capacity ManagementC. Financial Capacity ManagementD. Resource Capacity Management

Question 36

The status of a Configuration Item could NOT be:

A. FaultyB. ObsoleteC. HardwareD. On loan

Question 37

Downtime calculations must include planned outages for maintenance agreed with the customer. Is this statement true?

A. YesB. NoC. No, unless the Service Level Manager and Customer agree this is appropriateD. Yes, but only in SLAs where there are hardware CIs

Question 38

Which of these should be included in a Release Policy?

1. Numbering conventions2. Definition of acceptance criteria for adding new software to the DSL3. Policy for issuing emergency releases

A. 1 and 2B. 1 and 3C. 2 and 3D. All three

Question 39

In ITIL, the term ‘variant’ is used to describe:

A. Unauthorised or illegal versions of softwareB. A CI based on another, but with minor differencesC. An incident which has the same impact as an existing Known Error but a

different root causeD. The difference between forecast and actual resource usage

Question 40

Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?

1. DSL A Financial Management for IT Services2. CRAMM B Release Management3. FTA C IT Service Continuity Management4. ROI D Availability Management

A. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-AB. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-CC. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-AD. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D