insights test 3
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Insights test for IAS UPSC preparation. very good test. Very helpfulTRANSCRIPT
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 3
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014
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1. With reference to waterways in
India, consider the following
statements
1. There are five national
waterways in India
2. The National Waterway-
V connects Brahmani
river & Mahanadi delta
system along with East
Coast Canal
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
2. Power sharing is the very spirit
of democracy. In this context,
which of the following
statements are correct?
1. Power sharing increases
conflict among different
communities
2. Power sharing increases
the possibility of
arbitrariness
3. Power sharing delays
decision making process
4. Power sharing increases
instability and
divisiveness
5. Power sharing
undermines the unity of
a country
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1, 2 and 5 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 2, 3 and 4 Only
d. None
3. India needs to be energy secure for
ensuring robust economic growth.
What are the characteristics of a good
source of energy:
1. Readily accessible
2. Easy to store and
transport
3. High calorific value
4. Should be renewable
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3 Only
c. 3 and 4 Only
d. 2 and 4 Only
4. Nineteenth century witnessed one
of the important phase of transition in
the history of the world. With regard
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to the plethora of novels that surfaced
during this period, consider the
following statements:
1. Novels focused more on the
lives of the great people
2. Novels focused on the
problems faced by the working
class
3. Novels focused more on the
lives of the ordinary man
4. Oliver Twist was one of the
famous novel of this period
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
5. Consider the following
statements on WIFS
programme
1. Iron folic acid tablet can be
taken during illness and even
during menstruation.
2. The weekly Iron Folic Acid
Supplementation (WIFS) is
an evidence based
programme for addressing
Iron Deficiency Anaemia
which is both safe and
effective.
3. If taken on empty stomach,
these tablets can even cause
death in many cases of
children
4. This programme is restricted
to the children between
class 4th to class 12th as
children below 4th standard
are vulnerable to side effects.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 1,2 and 3 Only
d. All Four
6. With reference to the Rajiv
Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikran
Abhiyan (RGPSA) scheme,
consider the following
statements,
1. The schemes of Rashtriya
Gram Swaraj
Yojana(RGSY), e-Panchayat,
Panchayat Empowerment
and Accountability
Incentive Scheme(PEAIS)
and Panchayat Mahila Evam
Yuva Shakti Abhiyan
(PMEYSA) will be
subsumed in RGPSA from
2013-14
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2. The funding of RGPSA for
State plans is envisaged on a
90:10 sharing basis by the
Central and all State
Governments respectively.
3. During the 12th plan, grants
to State Election
Commissions is linked to the
performance under RGPSA
4. Constitution of State
Finance Commission(SFC)
every five years and
placement of Action Taken
Report (ATR) on the
recommendations of the
SFC in the state Assembly is
a must to avail funds under
RGPSA
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 1,3 and 4 Only
c. 2, 3 and 4 Only
d. All Four
7. Sarojini Naidu was one of the
famous personality on the 20th
Century. Which of the
following statements is/are
correct?
1. Sarojini Naidu was the first
Indian woman to become
the President of the Indian
National Congress
2. Sarojini Naidu was the first
woman Governor of India
3. Sarojini Naidu’s birthday is
celebrated as "Women's
Day"
4. Sarojini Naidu was one of
the framers of Indian
Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1 and 4 Only
b. 1, 3 and 4 Only
c. 1, 2 and 4Only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. With regard to Indian Literature
consider the following:
1. Stories in prose was new to India.
2. Panchatantra is a prose.
3. Prose overlooks asthetic appeal.
4. Dastan contains tales of adventure
and heroism in Persian and Urdu
and is regarded as a prose
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
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c. 1 Only
d. 1, 3 and 4
9. With reference to resource
planning and development,
consider the following
statements
1. Resource planning includes
matching the resource
development plans with
overall national
development plans.
2. The availability of resources
is a necessary condition for
the development of any
region, but mere availability
of resources in the absence
of corresponding changes in
technology and institutions
may hinder development.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
10. Consider the following
statements,
1. The Limits to
Growth is a 1972 book
about the computer
modeling of
exponentialeconomic
and population
growth with finite
resource supplies
2. The Club of Rome is
a global think
tank that deals with a
variety of
international political
issues.
3. The purpose of The
Limits to
Growth was to
explore how
exponential growth
interacts with finite
resources.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All Three
11. Power is shared among different
organs of government. Such a
separation of powers ensures
that none of the organs can
exercise unlimited power.
Which the following system of
power sharing is called checks
and balances?
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1. Horizontal division of
powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Vertical division of
powers
4. Federal division of
powers
Which of the above answers is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 4 Only
12. In the parliamentary system of
Government, India has adopted the
principle of checks and balances.
Consider the following statements:
1. Even though ministers and
government officials exercise
power, they are responsible to the
Parliament or State Assemblies.
2. Powers shared among governments
at different levels
3. Although judges are appointed by
the executive, they can check the
functioning of executive or laws
made by the legislatures
4. Power shared among different
social groups, such as the religious
and linguistic groups.
Which of the statements is/are
incorrect?
a. 2 and 4 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 1, 2 and 3 Only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Which of the following mirrors
are best suited to be used in
Solar cookers?
a. Concave and Convex
both
b. Only Plane Mirror
c. Convex mirror only
d. Concave mirror only
14. What is the basic force behind
the generation of Ocean
thermal energy?
a. Heat generated by the
seabed volcanoes.
b. Energy of waves and
currents
c. Temperature difference
between the surface and
deeper ocean
d. Rise and fall in the level
of tides
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15. Which of the following are
correct?
1. The modern novel form
developed in India in the
eighteenth century, as
Indians became familiar with
the Western novel.
2. Print and vernacular helped
in the development of the
modern novel.
3. The earliest novel in Marathi
was Baba Padmanji’s
Yamuna Paryatan, which
spoke about the plight of
widows.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 2 Only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
16. Consider the following:
1. Indian novelists of the
nineteenth century wrote
for a cause.
2. Colonial rulers regarded
the contemporary culture
of India as superior.
3. Indian novelists failed to
develop a modern
literature of the country
that could produce a
sense of national
belonging and cultural
equality with their
colonial masters.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 Only
d. None
17. In the modern India, though
there was an increase in the
Indian novels, the spread of it
was declined because of which
of the following factors?
1. Absence of translations
of novels into different
regional languages.
2. Absence of Print
3. Vernacular languages did
not help in development
of the novels.
4. Fear of Western culture
invading Indian culture
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 1, 2 and 3
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b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. None
18. Consider the following
statements about Agenda 21
1. Agenda 21 is a binding action
plan of the United Nations
with regard to sustainable
development
2. The "21" in Agenda 21 refers
to the 21 important points
that are need to be
implemented by all the
countries
3. In 2012, at the United
Nations Conference on
Sustainable
Development the attending
members reaffirmed their
commitment to Agenda 21
in their outcome document
called "The Future We
Want"
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 3 Only
d. All Three
19. The First World War created a
new economic and political
situation in India which.
Consider the following
statements related to the First
World War :
1. Customs duties were
introduced and income
tax was raised to finance
the war.
2. Through the war years
prices increased –
doubling between 1913
and 1918 – leading to
extreme hardship for the
common people.
3. Soldiers were forcefully
recruited from the rural
areas which caused
widespread anger among
the people.
4. The end of the First
World War improved
the lives of the people.
Which of the above statement/s
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
20. Which of the following
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statements about Mahatma
Gandhi's famous philosophy of
SATYAGRAHA is/are correct
?
1. Satyagraha is not physical
force. A satyagrahi does
not inflict pain on the
adversary; he does not
seek the destruction of
the enemy.
2. Mahatma Gandhi first
experimented with
Satyagraha at Champaran
in Bihar.
3. Satyagraha aims at
appealing to the
conscience of the
oppressor.
4. Satyagraha Theory
influenced Martin Luther
King, Jr.'s and James
Bevel's campaigns during
the civil rights movement
in the United States
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. On 13 April 1919, the infamous
Jallianwalla Bagh incident took
place in Amritsar. Consider the
following statements on the
Jallianwalla Bagh massacre.
1. The people had gathered
at JallianwallaBagh to
attend the annual
Baisakhi fair and there
wasn't any protest.
2. The British media
strongly condemned
General Dyer for
ordering the killings of
the people.
3. The Government held an
inquiry commision,
chaired by Lord Hunter.
4. This commission did not
have any members and
the report was uncritical
of General Dyer.
which of the above statement/s
is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. none of the above
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22. Consider the following
Statements:
1. In India, citizens have the
right to seek enforcement of
the Fundamental Rights
2. The Right to Constitutional
Remedies is not a
Fundamental Right.
3. In case of violation of a
Fundamental Right the
citizen can directly approach
Supreme Court or High
Court.
4. Only the High Courts have
the right to issue orders for
the enforcement of both
Fundamental Rights and
Legal rights.
5. The Courts can also enforce
the Fundamental Rights
against private individuals
and bodies.
Which of the statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 5
c. 1, 3, 4 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3 and 5
23. The concept of sustainable
development focuses on the
needs of :
a. Future generation of
humanity only
b. Conservation of
environment irrespective
of the needs of economic
growth
c. Present and future
generations of humanity
d. Conservation of fossil
fuels to ensure energy
security of the nations
24. The fusion reaction is said to
the future source of energy.
What are the conditions needed
to achieve fusion reaction?
a. Extremely high pressure
and extremely low
temperature
b. Extremely low pressure
and extremely low
temperature
c. Extremely high pressure
and extremely high
temperature
d. Extremely low pressure
and extremely high
temperature
25. Which of the following
statements is/are true?
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a. The hydrogen bomb is
based on thermonuclear
fission reaction.
b. The fundamental physics
of the fission chain
reaction in a nuclear
weapon is quite different
to the physics of a
controlled nuclear
reactor. Also, the two
types of devices are
engineered differently.
c. No industrialized nation
has been able to meet
even one-fourth of its
total demand of energy
from nuclear reactors.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. All of the above
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. None of the above
26. With reference to the Special
Industry Initiative scheme
known as UDAAN, consider
the following statements,
1. It will be implemented by
the National Skills
Development Corporation
(NSDC) and Ministry of
Home Affairs along with the
corporate sector
2. It targets the youth of J&K,
Naxal affected districts and
North East India, specifically
graduates and postgraduates,
who are seeking global and
local opportunities.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
27. A new campaign for the safety
of women titled ‘I respect
women’ has been launched by
a. Ministry of tourism
b. Ministry of women and
family welfare
c. Ministry of Home Affairs
d. None of the above
28. Consider the following
statements on National Urban
Health Mission (NUHM),
which along with National
Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
1. Both the schemes have been
now clubbed under Sarva
Swasthya Abhiyan.
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2. A NUHM is proposed for
the urban poor with focus
on those living in urban
slums.
3. One Accredited Social
Health Activist ASHA
(community link worker)
for 200 to 500 households
will work under NUHM
scheme
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 3 Only
d. 2 Only
29. Consider the following statements:
1. The Concurrent List contains
forest, education and agriculture as
its subjects.
2. All States in the Indian Union do
not have identical powers.
3. The Union territories do not have
the powers of a State
4. The Constitution originally
provided for a two-tier system of
government, the Union
Government and the State
Government only.
Which of the statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. Country ‘A’ is said to be a
federal country. Which of the
following are the features of a
federal government?
1. There are four levels (or
tiers) of government.
2. The fundamental provisions
of the constitution can be
unilaterally changed by one
level of government.
3. Courts have the power to
interpret the constitution
and the powers of different
levels of government.
4. Sources of revenue for each
level of government are
clearly specified to ensure its
financial autonomy.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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31. During the 19th Century,
Bengal literature was one of the
important vernacular literature
which has contributed
immensely to the Indian
literature. Which of the
following is/are correct with
reference to Bengal literature?
1. Initially the Bengali novel
used a colloquial style
associated with urban life.
2. Initially the Bengali novel
used meyeli, the language
associated with women’s
speech.
3. Bankim Chandra was
famous for verse-oriented
Indian writing.
4. Vandhe Mataram was taken
from Rabindranath tagore’s
Anandamath
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1, 3 and 4 Only
c. 1, 2 and 3 Only
d. None
32. With regard to Vernacular
literature, consider the
following:
1. Vernacular novels were
used by colonial
administrators in
governing the Indian
society.
2. Vernacular novels
inspired the spirit of
Nationalism in the
remote areas.
3. Vernacular novels failed
to revive the Indian
culture.
4. Vernacular novels were
translated into English by
British administrators.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 2 Only
b. 1 and 2 Only
c. 1, 2 and 4 Only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. The Himalayan Yew is a
a. Bird species known for
its long beautiful white
feathers
b. A sub species of Owl
which is bigger in size
than any other owl
species in the world
c. A medicinal plant known
from which world
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famous anti-cancer drug
is produced
d. None of the above
34. Consider the following
statements about decline in
India’s biodiversity
1. Habitat destruction,
hunting, poaching, over-
exploitation,
environmental pollution,
poisoning and forest fires
are factors, which have
led to the decline in
India’s biodiversity.
2. Other important causes
of environmental
destruction are unequal
access, inequitable
consumption of resources
and differential sharing of
responsibility for
environmental well-
being.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
35. Consider the following
statements on forests,
1. Assam has the largest
area under permanent
forests, constituting 75
per cent of its total forest
area.
2. Reserved and protected
forests are also referred
to as permanent forest
estates maintained for the
purpose of producing
timber and other forest
produce, and for
protective reasons.
3. In India More than half
of the total forest land
has been declared
reserved forests. Reserved
forests are regarded as the
most valuable as far as
the conservation of forest
and wildlife resources are
concerned.
4. Almost one-third of the
total forest area is
protected forest, as
declared by the Forest
Department. This forest
land are protected from
any further depletion.
Which one of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1, 2and 4 Only
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b. 2,3 and 4 Only
c. 1 and 4 Only
d. All Four
36. The first proper modern novel
was written by Srinivas Das,
which was titled Pariksha-Guru.
Which of the following is the
theme of Pariksha Guru?
a. It is based on the inner and
outer world of the newly
emerging middle classes.
b. It is based on India’s
freedom struggle.
c. It is based on the plight of
women.
d. It is based on the issues
between a master and a
student
37. What are the benefits of
watershed management?
1. Boosts local communities’
income
2. Rejunevates land and
water sources
3. Increases the life of
downstream dam and
reservoirs
4. Mitigates drought and
floods
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1, 2 and 3 Only
c. All of the above
d. 3 and 4
38. Storing water in form of
groundwater is often considered
to be a better option than
storing it on surface reservoirs.
What can be the possible
reasons behind it?
1. Unlike surface water,
groundwater can always
be free of contaminants.
2. Evaporation of surface
reservoirs is higher as
compared to
groundwater.
3. Stagnated surface water
provides a breeding
ground for disease
vectors.
4. Even nearby wells can be
recharged and water need
not be conveyed to each
well.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. All of the above
b. 2, 3 and 4
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c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4 only
39. Which of the following
statements are true?
1. The regions of water scarcity
are also the regions of high
poverty in India.
2. Narmada Bachao Aandolan
and Chipko Movement are
examples of movements
related to the conservation
of the environment.
3. Local irrigation solutions as
compared to Mega-irrigation
projects enable the local
communities to exercise
more control over their
fields and environment.
Select the correct answer
using the codes below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. All of the above
40. The Rowlatt Act,1919 was an
act hurriedly passed through the
Imperial Legislative Council
despite the united opposition of
the Indian members.
Consider the following statements
with regard to this Act:
1. It gave the government
enormous powers to repress
only the political activities of
the Indians.
2. It allowed detention of political
prisoners without trial for three
or more years.
3. Opposition to this law was the
sole reason for Gandhiji to call
for the Non-Cooperation
Movement.
Which of the statements above
is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
41. The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat
Movement began in January
1921. Various social groups
participated in this movement,
each with its own specific
aspiration in their own way.
Consider the following social
groups:
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1. Students,
headmasters and
teachers, and
lawyers
2. Peasants
3. Tribals
4. Plantation workers
Which of the above group/groups
participated in the movement?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
42. Which of the following mission
mode projects are exclusively
implemented by the state
governments under National e-
Governance Plan?
1. Education
2. Health
3. PDS
4. Agriculture
5. Insurance
6. Banking
7. Road Transport
Select the codes given below to
answer the question
a. 1,2,3,5,and 7 Only
b. 1,2,3,4 and 7 Only
c. 1,2,4 and 7 Only
d. 1,2 and 4 Only
43. The newly launched “Seekho
aur Kamao” scheme is,
1. a 100% Central Sector
Scheme for Skill
Development of minorities
2. Implemented by the
Ministry of Youth Affairs
Select the codes given below to
answer the question
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
44. The Tory government in Britain
constituted a Statutory
Commission under Sir John
Simon which was to arrive in
India in 1928.
1. It did not have even a
single Indian member.
2. Lord Reading,
announced in October
1929, a vague offer of
dominion status for
India in an unspecified
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future.
3. All the political
parties in India except
the Muslim League
participated in Go
back Simon
demonstrations.
Which of the above is/are
incorrect?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 3 only
45. Consider the statements on the
impact of the Great Depression
(which began in 1929 and lasted
till the mid-1930s) on India.
1. Both the exports
and imports of
India nearly
halved between
1928 and 1934.
2. In these
depression years,
India became an
exporter of
precious metals,
notably gold.
Which of the above statement/s
is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
46. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
a. In India joint forest
management (JFM)
programme e has been in
formal existence since
1988 when the state of
Orissa passed the first
resolution for joint forest
management
b. JFM depends on the
government to undertake
protection activities
mostly on degraded forest
land managed by the
forest department.
Select the right answer using the codes
below
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
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47. Consider the following
statements:
1. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
organised the dalits into
the Depressed Classes
Association in 1930
2. He clashed with
Mahatma Gandhi at the
second Round Table
Conference by
demanding reserved seats
for dalits in provincial
and central legislative
councils.
3. Gandhiji began a fast
unto death opposing
reservations to Depressed
Classes in 1932.
Which of the above statement/s
is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1 , 2 and 3
48. Consider the following
statements about the Science,
Technology and Innovation
Policy (STI) 2013
1. One of its key features is
positioning India among the
top five global scientific
powers by 2020
2. Raising Gross Expenditure
in Research and
Development (GERD) to
2% from the present 1% of
the GDP in this decade by
encouraging enhanced
private sector contribution.
3. India has declared 2010-20 as
the “Decade of Innovation”
4. A Strong and viable Science,
Research and Innovation
system for High Technology
led path for India (SRISHTI)
are the goal for the STI
policy.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1and 2 Only
b. 1,2 and 3Only
c. 3 and 4Only
d. All Four
49. Consider the following
statements about the ‘Jiyo Parsi’
scheme
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1. It has been launched in
order to reverse the
declining trend of Parsi
population.
2. Financial assistance will be
provided under the scheme
for investigation and
detection of infertility,
counselling and fertility
treatment to couples.
3. This is a 100% Central
sector scheme
Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 3 Only
d. All Three
50. Consider the following state
about the “Nai Roshni” scheme
1. It is launched by the
ministry of women and
family welfare to impart
leadership skills to rural
women
2. This scheme is also known
as “Scheme for Leadership
Development of Minority
Women”.
Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
51. Consider the following
statements about the National
Urban Livelihoods Mission
(NULM)
1. It is an an improved version
of the earlier poverty
alleviation programme for
the urban poor titled Swarna
Jayanti Shahari Rozgar
Yojana (SJSRY)
2. It is being implemented by
the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Poverty Alleviation
(HUPA)
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
52. With reference to the Lifestyle
Disease Education and
Awareness Programme (LEAP),
consider the following
statements
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1. The Programme is a joint
initiative of the National
Rural Health Mission and
the State Departments of
Health and Education of
Kerala government
2. The new initiative will
complement a peer
programme titled
‘Amrutham, Arogyam’ for
adults in the State.
3. Training for students in
vegetable farm making and
making healthy diet is one of
its main objectives
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. All Three
d. None
53. Consider the following
statements:
1. Indian Constitution has
given the status of
national language to
Hindi.
2. Seventh Schedule
contains the languages
recognized by Indian
Constitution.
3. Languages in India are
grouped as scheduled and
non-scheduled languages.
4. In India, states have been
created on the linguistic
basis with the theory ‘one
language- one state’
Which of the statements is/are
correct?
a. 3 Only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
54. Rise of coalition government at the
centre has led to which of the
following?
1. More autonomy to the States.
2. The federal power sharing has
become more effective
3. Delay in decision making
4. It is one of the casual factors for
instability
Which of the statements is/are
correct?
a. 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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55. Consider the following with regard
to 73rd and 74th Amendment Act.
1. The panchayat works under the
overall supervision of the gram
sabha.
2. Seats are reserved in the elected
bodies and the executive heads
of these institutions for the
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
Tribes and Other Backward
Classes.
3. At least one-third of all
positions are reserved for
women and one-sixth for
minorities.
4. An independent institution
called the State Election
Commission has been created in
each State to conduct
panchayat and municipal
elections. He can only be
removed by the President of
India.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
56. The salient features of the
Scheme of Tourist Visa on
Arrival (TVOA) are:
1. The TVOA is available to
foreign nationals arriving
from Japan, USA, UK,
Singapore, Finland,
Luxembourg, New Zealand,
Cambodia, Laos, Vietnam,
Philippines, Myanmar and
Indonesia.
2. The TVOA is allowed for a
maximum of two times in a
calendar year to a foreigner
with a minimum gap of two
months between each visit.
TVOA is non-extendable
and non-convertible.
3. The TVOA facility is even
applicable to the holders of
Diplomatic/Official
Passports.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3Only
c. 2 Only
d. All Three
57. Consider the following
statements about Swavalamban
Yojana
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1. "NPS -Swavalamban Model"
is designed to ensure ultra-
low administrative and
transactional costs, so as to
make small investments
viable
2. Open to eligible citizens of
India, in the age group of
40–60 years. Subscriber is
free to choose the amount
he/she wants to invest every
year.
3. Regulated by Pension Fund
Regulatory Development
Authorities (PFRDA)
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3Only
c. 2 Only
d. All Three
58. With reference to the proposed
the LPG Connection Portability
Scheme, consider the following
statements
1. An LPG consumer in these
markets can now switch to
the distributor of his/her
choice within a cluster of
LPG distributors in the
vicinity under this scheme
2. This initiative is expected to
usher in improvement in
customer service by
fostering healthy
competition among each
cluster of distributors.
3. No Transfer fee or
additional security deposit
will be charged for transfer
of connection under the
portability scheme.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3Only
c. 3 Only
d. All Three
59. Consider the following
statements on water scarcity
and water stress
1. Water scarcity is the lack
of sufficient available
water resources to meet
the demands of water
usage within a region
2. Water stress is the
difficulty of obtaining
sources of fresh water for
use during a period of
time and may result in
further depletion and
deterioration of available
water resources.
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3. According to Falken
Mark, a Swedish expert,
water stress occurs when
water availability is less
than 1,000 cubic metre
per person per day.
4. The per capita
availability of water in
India is 1545 cubic meters
as per the 2011 census
compared to 1816 cubic
meters in 2011
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 2,3 and 4 Only
c. 3 and 4 Only
d. All Four
60. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Aus, Aman and Boro are
three crops of wheat
grown in and around
Punjab and Haryana
2. Cotton, jute, groundnut
and soyabean are mostly
grown during Zaid season
which is cropping season
between Rabi and Kharif
seasons.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below.
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
61. Consider the following
statements about pulses
1. India is the largest
producer as well as the
consumer of pulses in the
world.
2. Major pulses that are
grown in India are tur
(arhar), urad, moong,
masur, peas and gram.
3. Being leguminous crops,
all these crops including
arhar help in restoring
soil fertility by fixing
nitrogen from the air
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. All Three
62. Consider the following
statements about the Printing
Press in India:
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1. The printing press first came to
Kerala(Cochi) with Portuguese
missionaries in the mid-
sixteenth century.
2. The Bengal Gazette, a weekly
newspaper, is the first
published Indian
newspaper, brought out by
Gangadhar Bhattacharya, who
was close to Rammohun Roy.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. neither 1 nor 2
63. The following energy sources
are the most widely used in
India.
1. Coal
2. Petroleum and Natural
Gas
3. Hydroelectricity
4. Nuclear energy
5. Wind energy
Which option shows their
arrangement in increasing order of
consumption in India?
a. 5, 4, 3, 2 ,1
b. 4,5,3,2,1
c. 2,5,4,3,1
d. 2,4,5,3,1
64. To which crop does following
descriptions apply?
1. It requires high
temperature, light rainfall
or irrigation, 210 frost-
free days and bright
sunshine for its growth.
2. It is a kharif crop and
requires 6 to 8 months to
mature.
Select the correct answer from
following choices
a. Sugarcane
b. Cotton
c. Tobacco
d. Jute
65. With reference to the Rashtriya
Bal Swaasthya Karyakram,
consider the following
statements,
1. It is a newly launched
scheme by ministry of HRD
and Social Justice which
assures a package of health
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services for children up to 18
years of age.
2. It is part of the National
Rural Health Mission
3. The services under this
programme aim to cover all
children of 0-6 years of age
group in rural areas and
urban slums, in addition to
children enrolled in classes
1st to 12th in Government
and Government aided
schools.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. All Three
66. Consider the following
statements on generic drugs
1. A generic drug is a
pharmaceutical product
that is manufactured
without a license from
the innovator company
and marketed after the
expiry date of the patent
or other exclusive rights.
2. Generic drugs are subject
to the same regulations
over manufacturing,
packaging, testing and
quality standards, as their
patented/branded
equivalent.
3. Prices of the
branded/patented drugs
are generally quite high,
due to the temporary
monopoly over the
product, bestowed by the
patent.
4. At ‘Jan Aushadhi Stores',
where quality generic
medicines, which are
equivalent to the
expensive branded drugs,
in terms of their potency
and efficacy, are sold at
cheaper prices.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 4 Only
b. 1,2 and 3 Only
c. 1,2 and 4 Only
d. All Four
67. Consider the following
statements about the National
Electric Mobility Mission Plan
(NEMMP) 2020
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1. It is a roadmap for
progressive induction and
expansion of efficient and
environmentally friendly
electric and hybrid vehicles
in the country.
2. It aims to boost 6-7 million
units of new vehicle sales of
the full range of electric
vehicles by year 2020
3. The Mission Plan lays special
emphasis on progressive
indigenization of technology,
localization of
manufacturing and
eventually, job creation.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. All Three
d. None
68. The beneficiaries under the
Antyodaya Anna Yojana"
(AAY) include
1. and persons earning their
livelihood on daily basis in
the informal sector like
porters, coolies, rickshaw
pullers, hand cart pullers,
fruit and flower sellers,
snake charmers, rag pickers
2. Single women or single men
with no family or societal
support or assured means of
subsistence.
3. Families of HIV positive
persons and all primitive
tribal households
4. Landless agriculture
labourers, marginal farmers,
rural artisans/craftsmen
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 4
d. All Four
69. Consider the following
statements about the Direct
Benefits Transfer (DBT)
scheme
1. The scheme is aimed at
cutting the bloated subsidy
bill of Rs.1, 64,000 crores.
2. Aims to eliminate
middlemen in various
government sponsored
welfare schemes and
subsidized food, fuel and
fertiliser schemes.
http://insightsonindia.com Page 28
3. On the basis of Aadhar cards
money is deposited in
beneficiaries’ accounts.
4. It would infuse financial
inclusion on a greater scale
in rural India.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 1,3 and 4 Only
c. 1 and 4
d. All Four
70. Consider the following
statements
1. Operation Sadhbhavana is
evidence of the Indian
Army's "organisational
innovation and operational
learning".
2. Youth Employment and
Guidance Node
(YEGN) programme under
Operation Sadhbhavana was
launched a few years back
in border and remote areas
of Jammu and Kashmir to
enable the youth to get
employment
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
71. Consider the following
statements,
1. The running water cuts
through the clayey soils
and makes deep channels
as gullies. It is known as
gully erosion.
2. Sometimes water flows
as a sheet over large areas
down a slope. In such
cases the top soil is
washed away. This is
known as sheet erosion.
3. Soil erosion is also caused
due to defective methods
of farming.
4. When the land becomes
unfit for cultivation it is
known as bad land.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,3 and 4
d. All Four
72. With reference to various
species and their status n the
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wild in India, consider the
following statements
1. Great Indian Bustard,
Siberian Crane, Red-
headed Vulture and
Forest Owlet are now
listed under critically
endangered birds
2. Among animals, Pygmy
Hog, Kondana Rat and
The Sumatran
Rhinoceros are listed as
critically endangered
3. The Leatherback turtle is
listed as vulnerable
species
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All Three
73. Consider the following criteria;
1. Populations have
declined or will decrease,
by greater than 80% over
the last 10 years or three
generations.
2. Have a restricted
geographical range.
3. Small population size of
less than 250 individuals
and continuing decline at
25% in 3 years or one
generation.
4. Very small or restricted
population of fewer than
50 mature individuals.
Which of the following categories
would be aptly described by the
above criteria for a species?
a. Vulnerable
b. Critically Endangered
c. Endangered
d. Near Risk Category
74. Social Justice is one of the
ideals enshrined in the
preamble of the Constitution.
Which of the following are
correct with regard to the social
differences that occur in a
society?
1. All kinds of
social
differences are
based on
accident of
birth.
2. Some of the
differences are
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based on our
choices.
3. Every social
difference
does not lead
to social
division.
4. Democracy
always leads
to
disintegration
of society on
the basis of
social
divisions.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
75. Which of the following are the
measures taken by Government to
reduce social differences in the
society?
1. The government has provided
for 33% reservation for women
in the Parliament.
2. Hindi Language has been made
the national language of the
country.
3. The State intervenes in
thematters of religion in order
to ensure equality within
religious communities.
4. Enactment of Mahatma Gandhi
National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
76. Communalism is based on the
belief that:
1. People who follow different
religions cannot belong to the
same social community.
2. Any difference that the
followers of a particular religion
may have is irrelevant or trivial
for community life.
3. The fundamental interests of a
particular community are the
same.
4. If the followers of different
religion have some
commonalities these are
superficial and immaterial.
Which of the statements is/are
correct?
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a. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. Consider the following
statements:
1. The Constitution of India
ensures equality of
citizens within religious
communities.
2. A democratic
government is the most
legitimate government
3. Preamble is not an
integral part of the
Constitution
4. Democracy helps in
promoting dignity and
freedom of the individual
Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 1 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. Consider the following
statements with regard to
Pressure Groups.
1. They have political ideology
and take positions on
political issues
2. Their decision making is
more formal and rigid.
3. Their principal concern is
the betterment and well-
being of their members, not
society in general.
4. They have deepened
democracy.
5. These groups are formed
having uncommon
objectives.
Which of the statements is/are
correct?
a. 1, 4 and 5
b. 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 4 and 5
79. Which of the following is
associated with or true about
Ozone (O3) ?
1. Human exposure
to ozone is not
harmful.
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2. The chemicals
used in fire
extinguishers
deplete ozone
layer.
3. The United
Nations
Environment
Programme
succeeded in
freezing the
production of
ozone-depleting
substances like
CFCs only at the
beginning of 21st
century.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 2 and 3
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
80. The Ganga Action Plan was
being implemented from 1985
to make Ganga pollution-free.
Which of the following
qualities in the Ganga water
would ensure that it is safe for
human uses?
1. High concentration of Coliform
bacteria which is found in
human intestine and kills other
harmful micro-organisms.
2. Low pH value of Ganga water
3. Complete absence of all metals
from the Ganga water.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. None of the above
81. Who are the stakeholders in the
conservation of forests in India?
1. Manufacturing Industries
2. Tourists and wildlife enthusiasts
3. Forest Department,
Government of India
4. Forest inhabitants
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. All of the above
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 4 only
82. Which of the following
statements have been realized
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to be true by communities and
governments around the world?
1. Partnering local
communities in the
conservation of forests
ensures decentralised
economic growth and
ecological
conservation.
2. Ecological stability of
the area may be
disturbed by banning
traditional methods of
exploitation of forest
produce by the local
communities.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. Both
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. None
83. With reference to land
utilization in India, consider the
following definitions
1. Culturable waste land
includes land available
for cultivation, whether
taken up or not taken up
for cultivation once, but
not cultivated during the
last five years or more in
succession including the
current year for some
reason or the other .
2. Fallow lands other than
current fallows includes
all land which was taken
up for cultivation but is
temporarily out of
cultivation for a period of
not less than one year and
not more than five years.
3. Land which cannot be
brought under cultivation
except at an exorbitant
cost is classified as
unculturable whether
such land is in isolated
blocks or within
cultivated holdings.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All Three
84. Consider the following
statements about soils
1. Alluvial soils as a whole
are very fertile. Mostly
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these soils contain
adequate proportion of
potash, phosphoric acid
and lime which are ideal
for the growth of
sugarcane, paddy, wheat
and other cereal and
pulse crops.
2. Black soils are black in
colour and are also
known as regur soils.
3. Black soils are rich in soil
nutrients, such as calcium
carbonate, magnesium,
potash and lime. These
soils are generally poor in
phosphoric contents.
4. The laterite soil develops
in areas with high
temperature and heavy
rainfall.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 1,3 and 4 Only
c. 2,3 and 4 Only
d. All Four
85. In the Indian context, which of
the following statements are
incorrect with respect to the
multi-party system adopted?
1. It leads to political
instability.
2. It deepens democracy.
3. It creates a natural
system of checks and
balance
4. It may lead to hung
parliament
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 Only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. None
86. Democracies that follow a federal
system all over the world tend to have
two kinds of political parties; parties
that are present in only one of the
federal units and parties that are
present in several or all units of the
federation. Which of the following are
the necessary conditions for a party to
be recognized as a national party in
India?
1. The party should secure a
minimum 6% of total valid votes
in the Lok Sabha elections or the
Assembly elections in four or more
States.
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2. The party should win a minimum
of 2% of Lok Sabha seats by
contesting from at least 3 states.
3. The party should be recognised as
a state party in minimum of 3
states.
4. The party should have won at least
4 seats in Lok Sabha elections
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 Only
d. None
87. Reforming political parties is one of
the aspects of good governance.
Which of the following is/are a step
in this direction?
1. The Parliament enacted anti-
defection law
2. On Supreme Courts orders, it’s
now mandatory for every
candidate who contests elections to
file an Affidavit giving details of his
property and criminal cases
pending against him.
3. The Election Commission passed
an order making it necessary for
political parties to hold their
organizational elections and file
their income tax returns.
4. The political parties do not come
under the ambit of Right to
Information Act.
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
88. Consider the following
statements about sustainable
development
1. Sustainable development
ties together concern for
the carrying
capacity of natural systems
with the social and
economic challenges faced
by humanity.
2. The carrying capacity of a
biological species in
an environment is the
minimum population size of
the species that the
environment can sustain
definitely, given the
food, habitat, water and
other necessities available in
the environment
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3. Economic development,
social development, and
environmental protection
are the interdependent and
mutually reinforcing pillars
of sustainable development
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All Three
89. Which of the following
statements are true concerning
the construction of dams?
1. The vegetation that is
submerged under the
dam, rots under
anaerobic conditions and
gives rise to large
amounts of methane.
2. The construction of dams
is preferable in hilly
areas.
3. It disturbs the natural
eco-system of the
surrounding areas.
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 1 and 3
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. Only 3
90. What are the usual constraints
in promoting solar energy at a
large scale in India?
1. The manufacturing of solar
cells is very expensive given
the level of technology India
posses.
2. The energy efficiency of
solar cells is very low.
3. Solar cells require heavy and
costly maintenance.
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 1 and 2
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1 only
d. 2 and 3
91. Which of the following
statements is/are true?
1. The green plants in a
terrestrial ecosystem
capture the majority of
the fraction of the solar
energy falling on their
leaves.
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2. Only a fraction of the
energy is transferred from
one trophic level to the
other via the food chain.
3. The lower trophic levels
house greater number of
individuals than the
higher levels.
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
92. Which of the following is true
regarding the process of
Biological Magnification?
1. The maximum
concentration of the
chemicals is found at the
highest trophic level.
2. The effect of biological
magnification in
vegetables, fruits etc. can
always be overcome by
washing them properly.
3. The chemical must be
non-biodegradable for
Biological magnification
to occur.
Select the correct answers using
the codes below
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 only
93. With regard to the necessary
conditions for a party to be
recognized as a State party.
Consider the following
statements:
1. A political party should
secure at least 6% of the
total valid votes polled
during general election to a
State Legislative Assembly
and should, in addition, win
at least two seats in that
Assembly or the party
should win at least 3% of the
total number of seats or
three seats in the Legislative
Assembly, whichever is
more.
2. A political party should
secure at least 6% of the
total valid votes polled in a
State during a general
election to Lok Sabha and
win at least one seat in the
Lok Sabha from that State,
or the party should win at
least one seat in the Lok
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Sabha for every 25 seats or
any fraction thereof allotted
to that State.
Which of the statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
94. With regard to registration of
political parties in India, consider the
following statements:
1. All political parties must register
themselves with the Election
Commission.
2. Not all parties that are registered
with the Election Commission are
recognized by it.
3. The registered parties will get
unique symbols.
4. The registered parties are entitled
for free broadcasting or telecasting
facilities.
Select the correct answers using the
codes below
a. 2 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
95. Which of the following non-
metals form oxides on burning
of fossil fuels:
1. Carbon
2. Nitrogen
3. Sulphur
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
96. Which of the following
statements is/are true?
1. The availability of
electrical energy to each
individual in a country is
one of the parameters to
measure the growth of
the country.
2. The transmission of
electricity is less efficient
than transporting coal or
petroleum over the same
distance.
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Select the correct answer using
the codes below
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
97. Consider the following
statements about the
Constituent Assembly formed
in 1946:
1. The members of the
Constituent Assembly
were elected in 1946
directly on the basis of
universal franchise.
2. The Constituent
Assembly that came into
being was dominated by
the Congress party.
3. The Congress party
members of the
Constituent Assembly
were unanimous in
theiropinion on all the
critical issues.
Which of the above is/are
incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
98. In the nineteenth century,
hundreds of thousands of Indian
and Chinese labourers went to
work in various countries
around the world. Consider the
following statements with
regard to the migration of
Indian labourers:
1. In India, indentured labourers
were hired under contracts
which promised good working
conditions and permanent
settlement in those countries.
2. Most Indian indentured
workers came from the present-
day regions of Rajasthan,
Gujarat, and Punjab.
3. The labourers were hired to
work on plantations, in mines,
and in road and railway
construction projects around
the world.
Which of the above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. 1 and 3 Only
99. India had a very rich and old
tradition of handwritten
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manuscripts. Which of the
following statement/s about
the manuscripts is/are
incorrect?
1.The manuscripts were written
in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian only
and never in any of the
vernacular languages.
2.Manuscripts ceased to be
produced well before the
introduction of print.
3.Manuscripts were highly
expensive and were not widely
used in everyday life.
Select the right answer using
the codes below
a. 1 and 2Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. 1 and 3 Only
100. Consider the following
statements about Raja Ravi
Varma :
1. Raja Ravi Varma achieved
recognition for his depiction of
scenes from the epics of the
Mahabharata and Ramayana.
2. Raja Ravi Varma produced
images for mass circulation.
3. Ravi Varma's prints began
shaping popular ideas about
modernity and tradition,
religion and politics, and society
and culture.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3