i.c.s. college of arts, commerce and science, khed
TRANSCRIPT
I.C.S. COLLEGE OF ARTS, COMMERCE AND SCIENCE, KHED
BACHELOR OF MANAGEMT STUDIES
T.Y.B.M.S. (SEM VI)
QUESTION BANK
OPERATION RESEARCH
1. Operations Research is a ……………………….. approach to solve problems for
management.
a. Scientific
b. Non-Scientific
c. Holistic
d. logical
2. Operations Research originated in Great Britain during …………….. to bring
mathematical or quantitative approaches to bear on military operations.
a. World War I
b. World War II
c. Civil War
d. Industrial Revolution
3. Operation research analyst do not ………………
a. Predict future operation
b. Build more than one model
c. Collect the relevant data
d. Do not recommend decision
4. The optimization in operation research is to ……………..
a. Maximize
b. Minimize
c. Both a & b
d. Neutralize
5. Operation Research involves …………… attack of complex problems to arrive at
the optimum solution
a. Scientific
b. Systematic
c. Statistical
d. Both A and B
6. Operations Research simply helps in improving the ………..….. of the solution but
does not result in a perfect solution.
a. Quality
b. Clarity
c. Look
d. Quantity
7. Objective of linear programming for an objective function is to …………
a. Maximize or minimize
b. Subset or proper set modelling
c. Row or column modeling
d. Adjacent modelling
8. For a Linear programming equation, convex set of equations is included in region
of ………….
a. Disposed solutions
b. Feasible solutions
c. Profit solutions
d. Loss solution
9. The solution to LPP give below is. Max Z = 30x1 – 15x2 subject to 3x1 + 4x2 ≥ 9
and 5x1 + 3x2 ≥ 10 ; x1, x2 ≥ 0
a. Unbounded Solution
b. Max Z = 14
c. Max Z = 3
d. Infeasible solution
10. In graphical representation the bounded region is known as …………….. region.
a. Solution
b. Feasible solution
c. Basic solution
d. optimal
11. The mathematical model of an LP problem is important because ……………..
a. It helps in converting the verbal description & numerical data into
mathematical expression
b. Decision-makers prefer to work with formal models
c. It captures the relevant relationship among decision factors
d. It enables the use of algebraic technique
12. Which of the following is not characteristic of the LP model?
a. Alternative courses of action
b. An objective function of maximization type
c. Limited amount of resources
d. Non-negativity condition on the value of decision variables
13. The word Linear means that the relationships are represented by …………
a. Diagonal lines
b. Curved lines
c. Straight lines
d. Slanting lines
14. In simplex method, slack, surplus and artificial variables are restricted to be
……………
a. Multiplied
b. Negative
c. Non – Negative
d. Divided
15. In simplex method basic solution set as (n – m), all variables other than basic are
classified as ………………
a. Basic variable
b. Non-Basic variable
c. Constant
d. Non positive
16. In simplex method, feasible basic solution must satisfy the ………………
a. Non – Negativity constraint
b. Negativity constraint
c. Basic constraint
d. Common constraint
17. The tie in replacement ratio indicate the solution is …………….
a. Infeasible
b. Unbounded
c. Alternate
d. Degenerate
18. If there exist an artificial variable in the basis of final simplex table with a positive
value the solution is ……………….
a. Infeasible
b. Unbounded
c. Alternate
d. Degenerate
19. In converting a less-that-or-equal constraint for use in a simplex table, we must
add …………………
a. Slack variable
b. Surplus variable
c. Artificial variable
d. Both A & B
20. In converting a more-than-or-equal constraint for use in a simplex table, we must
subtract ………………..
a. Slack variable
b. Surplus variable
c. Artificial variable
d. Both A & B
21. Condition to solve Assignment problem by Hungarian method is ………………..
a. Unbalanced and minimization
b. Balanced and maximization
c. Minimization and balanced
d. Unbalanced and maximization
22. Opportunity cost matrix is derived by …………………
a. Subtracting all elements from minimum element
b. Adding all elements from minimum element
c. Subtracting all elements from maximum element
d. Adding some elements from minimum element
23. If solution is not optimum, we move to next iteration by considering …………
a. Maximum of uncovered elements
b. Minimum of uncovered elements
c. Minimum of covered elements
d. Maximum of covered elements
24. For maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the
…………
a. Profit
b. Optimization
c. Cost
d. Time
25. If no. of rows are not equal to number of columns and the Matrix elements are
Profit elements then the problem is ………………………..
a. Balanced and Maximization Transportation Problem
b. Unbalanced and Maximization Transportation Problem
c. Balanced and Maximization Assignment Problem
d. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment Problem
26. If no. of rows are equal to number of columns and the Matrix elements are Time
elements then the problem is …………………
a. Balanced and maximization Transportation Problem
b. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment Problem
c. Balanced and Maximization Assignment Problem
d. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment Problem
27. The purpose of the transportation approach for locational analysis is to minimize
……………………….
a. Total Profit
b. Total shipping costs
c. Total variable costs
d. Total fixed costs
28. The initial solution to a transportation problem can be generated in any manner,
so long as …………………..
a. It minimizes cost
b. It ignores cost
c. All supply and demand are satisfied
d. Degeneracy does not exist
29. In a minimization problem, a negative improvement index (Cell evaluation) in a
cell indicates that the ………………..
a. Total cost will increase if units are reallocated to that cell
b. Total cost will decrease if units are reallocated to that cell
c. Current iteration is worse than the previous one
d. Problem has no feasible solution
30. In a minimization problem, a positive improvement index (Cell evaluation) in cell
indicates that ………………..
a. The solution is optimal
b. The total cost will increase if units are reallocated to that cell
c. The total cost will decrease if units are reallocated to that cell
d. There is degeneracy
31. When the number of shipments in a feasible solution is less than the number of
rows plus the number of columns minus one then ……………
a. The solution is optimal
b. There is degeneracy, and an artificial allocation must be created
c. Dummy source must be created
d. A dummy destination must be created
32. The total cost of the optimal solution to a transportation problem is ………..
a. Cannot be calculated from the information given
b. Can be calculated based only on the entries in the filled cells of the
solution
c. Is calculated by multiplying the total supply (including any dummy values)
by the average cost of the cells
d. Can be calculated based unfilled cells of the solution
33. The critical path refers to …………………
a. Longest path in terms of duration
b. Shortest path in terms of duration
c. Longest path in terms of length
d. Shortest path in terms of length
34. The full form of CPM is ………………
a. Critical Project Method
b. Critical Path Method
c. Critical Path Management
d. Critical Project Management
35. An …………….. is a job or task which will consume time and resource
a. Event
b. Activity
c. Project
d. Time
36. A representation of a project with activities and event in a logical sequence is
known as …………………
a. Event
b. Activity
c. Duration
d. Network diagram
37. In PERT the expected time is …………………….. of optimistic, most likely and
pessimistic duration.
a. Simple average
b. Weighted average
c. Harmonic average
d. Geometric average
38. ………………… use to calculate earliest occurrence of event and ……………….
Is use to calculate latest occurrence of event
a. Forward Pass Method, Backward Pass Method
b. Backward Pass Method, Forward Pass Method
c. Fulkerson rule and Forward Pass Method
d. Fulkerson rule and Backward Pass Method
39. S. M. Johnson’s algorithm derives the minimum completion times for all no passing
cases. No passing means ……………………..
a. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved at
the last facility
b. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved for
the next facility
c. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved
for all subsequent facilities
d. The order of processing jobs though the last facility must be preserved for
the first facility
40. An approach that minimizes the total time for sequencing a group of jobs through
two work centers while minimizing total idle time in the work centers…………
a. Gross Materials Requirement Plan
b. Load Report
c. Lot- for-Lot
d. Johnson’s Rule
41. When a set of jobs must pass through two workstations whose sequence is fixes,
……. Is the rule most commonly applied
a. Johnson’s Rule
b. Earliest Due Date Rule
c. First Come, First Serve Rule
d. Slack Time Remaining
42. Processing time Mij’s are …………………. Of order of processing the jobs
a. Dependent
b. Negligible
c. Independent
d. Interlinked
43. In sequencing I smallest time for a job belongs to machine – 1 then that job has to
placed …………..
a. In the middle
b. In the starting
c. At end
d. Both A & B
44. …………….. operation is carried out on a machine at a time
a. Two
b. At least one
c. Only one
d. At least two
45. Who developed the Game Theory?
a. J. R. Hicks
b. William J. Baumol
c. Neumann Morgenstern
d. Samuelson P. T.
46. What is a Saddle Point?
a. Equilibrium point
b. Balanced Growth point
c. Imbalanced Growth point
d. Unstable Equilibrium point
47. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as
the…………….
a. Payoff
b. Penalty
c. Reward
d. End-game strategy
48. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called …………
a. First mover advantage
b. A Nash equilibrium strategy
c. Tit-for-tat
d. A dominant strategy
49. In a zero-sum game
a. What one player wins, the other loses
b. The sum of each players winning if the game is played many times must be
zero
c. The game is fair each person has an equal chance of winning
d. Ong run profits must be zero
50. A common assumption about the players in a game is that ………………
a. Neither player knows the payoff matrix
b. The players have different information about the payoff matrix
c. Only one of the players pursues a rational strategy
d. The specific identity of the players is irrelevant t the play of the game
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MARKETING
INTERNATION MARKETING
1. According to Peter Drucker, what is the basic purpose of business?
a. to make income and profit
b. to create and keep customers
c. to find and serve customers
d. to sell products and services
2. Who in a company is not involved in creating customer value?
a. the procurement department
b. the HR department
c. the finance department
d. procurement, HR, finance department create customer value
3. Complete the missing where’d: Marketing needs to be ___
a. anywhere in the organization
b. ubiquitous throughout the organization
c. representative of the organization
d. universal for the organization
4. Three questions are central to strategy. Which is not one of them?
a. When do we compete?
a. With whom do we need to develop key relationships?
b. Where do we compete?
c. How do we compete?
5. According to the textbook, international marketing is "the multinational process
of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of
ideas, goods, and services to create exchanges that satisfy individual and
organizational objectives." The definition fails to recognize
a. Nonprofit marketing
b. Business-to-business marketing
c. Consumer marketing
d. Integration of the 4 Ps
6. The marketing mix (the 4 Ps of marketing) does not include
a. product
b. place
c. practicality
d. promotion
7. To U.S. students, French marketing is
a. domestic marketing
b. foreign marketing
c. comparative marketing
d. international marketing
8. This kind of international marketing study contrasts two or more marketing
systems to identify similarities and differences.
a. domestic marketing
b. foreign marketing
c. comparative marketing
d. extensive marketing
9. For practical purposes, the difference between the concept of international
marketing and the concept of multinational marketing is
a. significant
b. insignificant
c. meaningful
d. adequate
10. Good marketing is no accident, but a result of careful planning and ________.
a. execution
b. selling
c. strategies
d. research
11. The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a _________.
a. Product
b. an advertisement for the product
c. a salesperson from a previous visit
d. problem or need
12. A cluster of complementary goods and services across diverse set of industries is
called as _____________
a. Market place
b. Meta market
c. Market space
d. Resource Market
13. What explains the importance of a personal visit to potential markets for
expansion?
a. Management likes to travel.
b. Lobbying with local governments is mandatory.
c. Companies need to deal out contracts with competitors in person.
d. A marketing plan for the foreign market usually requires the co-
operation with a local agent or distributor
14. When the Coca-Cola Company conducted focus groups in Europe and Asia to
assess potential market acceptance of a contoured aluminum soft drink can, it
was attempting to collect ___ data.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. incipient
d. quantitative
15. The literature distinguishes between different objectives for market-entry. Which
is not one of them?
a. efficiency seeking
b. information seeking
c. knowledge seeking
d. market seeking
16. Which of the companies listed below is not operating by Franchising?
a. Marriott International
b. Hertz
c. 7-Eleven
d. H&M
17. The level and nature of education in each international market will __________
a. Vary
b. Same
c. Equal
d. Static
18. UAI stands for _______
a. Universal avoidance index
b. Uncertainty avoidance index
c. Uncertainty applicable index
d. Uncertainty avoidance income
19. The international marketing involves a sound assessment of……………. market
a. International
b. Global
c. Foreign
d. Rural
20. A poorly conceived product often leads to ________ failures
a. Strategy
b. Marketing
c. Research
d. Service
21. __________ is one of the most important product related decision
a. Product elimination
b. Product diversification
c. Product standardization
d. Adaptation strategy
22. Labeling has how many values?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1
23. Rapid growth that fall away just as quick are called _______
a. Fads
b. Calm
c. Standard
d. Tradition
24. Labeling has …………………..value
a. No
b. Informative and educative
c. Educative
d. Informative
25. The ________ market is the collective system of unauthorized cells channel for
products
a. Rural
b. Urban
c. Gray
d. International
26. When companies have to market abroad they use _________ principal
distribution
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
27. Commission or buying agents are finders of which firms?
a. Foreign
b. National
c. International
d. Global
28. What is feed forward control?
a. Control before strategy
b. Control during the strategy
c. Control after the strategy
d. Control over the strategy
29. Need for international business strategy is ___________
a. Business level strategy
b. Culture of the organization
c. Pest
d. Unique competencies
30. _______ are common forms of trade barrier
a. Geocentric
b. Ethnocentric
c. FTA
d. Tariffs
31. _______ is another form of licensing.
a. Franchising
b. Marketing
c. Internationalization
d. IMF
32. FTA stands for __________
a. Free Trade Agreement
b. Free Trade Association
c. Fixed Trade Agreement
d. Fixed Time Agreement
33. NTB stands for _________
a. National Trade Business
b. Non-Tariff Barrier
c. Non-Tariff Bonus
d. National Trade Book
34. Communism is an __________
a. Political
b. Legal
c. Economic
d. Technological
35. The difference between the two prices is called _________
a. Margin of dumping
b. Anti-dumping
c. Normal value dumping
d. Corresponding dumping
36. Economic union is the ________ of integration
a. Lowest level
b. Highest level
c. Middle level
d. Line level
37. ________ helps estimate market size for business planning
a. HR
b. TR
c. MR
d. PR
38. Democracy is the most uncommon form of ________ around the world
a. Public sector
b. Private sector
c. Government
d. International
39. __________ refers to how comfortable are people with changing the way them
work or live.
a. Uncertainty
b. Certainty
c. Common
d. Communism
40. International marketing involves identifying the _______________ customers all
over the world.
a. Potential customer
b. Active customer
c. Impulsive customer
d. Discount customer
41. ________ is the course that goods take between production and the final
consumer.
a. Distribution
b. Marketing
c. Targeting
d. Planning
42. _______ is defined as any form of paid communication or promotion for product,
service and idea.
a. Promotion
b. Strategy
c. Sales
d. Advertising
43. _______ segmentation based on the different personality traits.
a. Product
b. Labeling
c. Psychographic
d. Companies
44. The ______ environment of foreign markets is different from that of the
domestic.
a. Political and Legal
b. Technological
c. Political
d. Legal
45. IFC standards for ______
a. International Finance Corporation
b. Integration foreign currency
c. Investment Fund Customs
d. International frequent concept
46. Channels of distribution is known as _____ in the 4 P’s model of Marketing.
a. Plan
b. Product
c. Place
d. Ports
47. _______ pricing is the part of cost based pricing.
a. Markup
b. Markdown
c. Loss
d. Discounts
48. One of the special modes of carrying out international business is a _________
project.
a. Wholly
b. Turnkey
c. Fads
d. Important
49. The third type of NTV covers _________ regulation.
a. Multilingual
b. Political
c. Technical
d. Environmental
50. CM stands for __________.
a. Common Market
b. Cultural Market
c. Custom Market
d. Central Market
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RETAIL MANAGEMENT
1. Retail is the...... Stage of any economic activity.
a. first
b. last
c. mid
d. side
2. Marketers see the process of retailing as a necessary part of their overall........
Strategy.
a. distribution
b. production
c. purchasing
d. manufacturing
3. McDonalds is an example of....... Franchise.
a. product
b. manufacturing
c. business format
d. selling
4. ....... Retailers purchase manufacturers ' seconds, overruns or off seasons at a deep
discount.
a. off price
b. catalogue
c. franchisee
d. business format
5. A ....... is a large, self - service retail food store offering groceries, meat as well as
some non - food items, such as health and beauty products and general
merchandise.
a. kiraana store
b. hyper market
c. supermarket
d. books store
6. ....... Stock items, ranging from groceries, hardware, and sports equipment to
furniture and appliance to computers and electronics.
a. kirrana store
b. hypermarket
c. supermarket
d. clothes collection
7. A...... Store stock a particular type of merchandise.
a. convenience
b. specialty
c. department
d. apartment
8. ....... is defined as the exchange of business information, through standard
interfaces, by using computers.
a. Bar coding
b. Electronic label
c. Electronic Data Interchange
d. Mark
9. The....... Has been developed and managed on an international basis enabling
compatibility for imported and exported goods.
a. electronic data interchange
b. European Article Number
c. bar code
d. electronic label
10. .......is fast transforming the way business is being conducted and monitored
across the supply chain.
a. Radio Frequency Identification
b. Electronic label
c. Electronic surveillance
d. Electronic data interchange
11. Radio frequency identification was invented in 1948 by........
a. Henry fayol
b. Harry German
c. Harry Stockman
d. McDonald
12. The........ Owns the trademark /product /service and license the trademark to
another party.
a. franchisor
b. franchisee
c. franchise
d. manufacturer
13. ......has identified various elements that go into the composition of a value chain.
a. Philip Kotler
b. Michael Porter
c. Darwin
d. Harry stockman
14. A....... is a group of customers who are bound together by their loyalty to a
retailer and the activities in which the retailer engages.
a. Focus group
b. Frequent shopper
c. Retail brand community
d. Manager
15. ...... is a clear and definite plan outlined by the retailer to tap the market.
a. Retail Strategy
b. Diversification
c. Retail format
d. Market strategy
16. The.... Provides a clear sense of direction for the organization and distinguishes
the firm from all others.
a. mission statement
b. brand equity
c. penetration
d. focus group
17. The...... Define a series of action that enable businesses to sell their products to
customers.
a. retail value chain
b. retail format
c. brand value
d. store value
18. ........ Include the activities associated with receiving, storing and discriminating
inputs to the product.
a. Inbound logistics
b. Outbound logistics
c. Operations
d. Human resources
19. ...... Include the activities associated with collecting, storing and physically
distributing the product to buyers.
a. Inbound logistics
b. Outbound logistics
c. Operations
d. Human resources
20. Shopping mall is an example of....... Location.
a. free standing
b. destination
c. traditional
d. modern
21. ........ are small selling spaces, typically located in the walkways of enclosed
malls, airport, college campuses, or office building lobbies.
a. Merchandise kiosks
b. Free standing
c. Shopping centres
d. Kiraana shops
22. A....... Is a group of retail and other commercial establishment that are planned,
developed, owned and managed as a single property.
a. shopping Centre
b. merchandise kiosks
c. free standing location
d. malls
23. .......is the process by which a retailer attempts to offer the right quantity of the
right merchandise in the right place at the right time and meet the company's
financial goals.
a. Merchandise management
b. Procurement
c. Distribution
d. Purchasing
24. A.......is the smallest unit available for inventory control.
a. assortment
b. category
c. stock keeping unit
d. production unit
25. Merchandise that has high demand for a relatively short period of time is referred
to as.........
a. staple merchandise
b. fad merchandise
c. fashion merchandise
d. free standing
26. .......enjoy popularity for a limited period of time and usually generate a high
level of sales for a short time.
a. Fads
b. Staples
c. Necessities
d. Fashion
27. ......is the combination of all products made available in a store and a set of
products offered within a product category.
a. Merchandise
b. SKU
c. Assortment
d. Category
28. The.......gives the precise items and quantities that need to be purchased for each
merchandise line.
a. model stock plan
b. category
c. assortment
d. merchandise
29. ........ brands target price sensitive segment by offering no-frills product at a
discount price.
a. Generic
b. Copy cat
c. Premium
d. Assortment
30. ........go from one store to another, buying only items that are on special discount.
a. Cherry pickers
b. Pizza
c. Burger
d. Mango pickers
31. After determining the money available for buying, a decision needs to be taken
on what to buy and in what quantity this result in the creation of a......
a. Model stock plan
b. Range pan
c. Category management
d. Merchandise category
32. The first step in the process of sourcing is to.........
a. Analyzing vendor performance
b. Identifying the sources of supply
c. Evaluating the sources of supply
d. Establishing vendor relation
33. ........ Process is as important as the merchandise purchasing process.
a. Merchandise holding
b. Buying function
c. Buying cycle
d. Retail operation
34. Advertising agency........ developed a model of brand equity called Brand Asset
Valuator.
a. Phillips Kotler
b. Michael Porter
c. Young and Rubicam
d. Darwin
35. ....... and relevance combine to determine brand strength.
a. Esteem
b. Brand equity
c. Knowledge
d. Differentiation
36. Private label brands also called......
a. House brands
b. Brand value
c. Brand stature
d. Brand vitality
37. ...........strategies adopted by the retailer can be cost oriented, demand oriented or
competition oriented pricing.
a. Cost
b. Demand
c. Pricing
d. Competition
38. Retailers using a.........pricing strategy frequently often weekly discount the
initial prices for merchandise through sales promotion.
a. everyday low
b. single/multiple
c. odd/anchor
d. high /low
39. Buyers employ....... to promote merchandise and increase sales.
a. coupons
b. promotional markdowns
c. price bundling
d. multiple unit pricing
40. Retailers often charge different prices to different demographic market segments,
a practice referred to as
a. third degree price discrimination
b. self-selected variable pricing
c. second degree price discrimination
d. individualized variable pricing
41. ........ is opposite of market skimming.
a. Penetration pricing
b. Leader pricing
c. Market skimming pricing
d. Everyday low pricing
42. ...... is a place where customers develop perception, about product, service the
retailer and his staff and so on.
a. Retail store
b. Store design
c. Visual merchandising
d. Mall management
43. The responsibility of store manager are.
a. store operations
b. merchandising
c. holding inventory
d. Supply of information
44. The 5 s' of retail operations was a model presented by pal and Byrom, depicted
by........ Diagram.
a. tree diagram
b. human skeleton
c. pie chart
d. fish bone
45. The........ has parallel aisles with merchandise on shelves on both sides of the
aisles.
a. grid layout
b. race track
c. free form
d. plant layout
46. .......is the presentation of a store and its merchandise in ways that will attract the
attention of potential customers.
a. Impulse goods
b. Visual merchandising
c. Shopping product
d. Specialty goods.
47. ........ Suggests that visual merchanding is one of the visible elements of
positioning strategy.
a. Mc Goldrick
b. Harry stockman
c. Harry German
d. Philip Kotler
48. ......... Includes sign whose visual content is delivered digitally through a
centrally managed and controlled network, distributed to servers in stores, and
displayed on a flat panel screen.
a. Promotional signage
b. Category signage
c. Digital signage
d. Point of sale signage
49. Promotional events that help promote brands are an essential part of.......
a. finance management
b. facility management
c. traffic management
d. mall management
50. .......is the cost effective.
a. Race track
b. Grid layout
c. Freeform
d. Plant layout
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BRAND MANAGEMENT
1. Whisper, Visa, Tropicana, Surf, Limca, Crush, Denim is examples of
a. Descriptive Brand Name
b. Suggestive brand name
c. Free Standing brand name
d. example of product
2. Vaseline- petroleum jelly sold as lip salve and moisturizer, is an example of
a. Benefit related positioning
b. Positioning by usage occasion and time of use
c. Category related positioning
d. Price Quality positioning
3. “Jod jo tootega nahin” tagline is related with brand……
a. M-Seal
b. Fevikwik
c. Fevicol
d. Ambuja cement
4. Lifebuoy – kills the germs you cannot see, is an example of
a. Emotional benefit related to positioning
b. Functional benefit related positioning
c. Usage occasion related to positioning
d. Health-related positioning
5. Which is not an example of Positioning by usage occasion and time of use?
a. Listerine – night time rinse
b. Nescafe – Great start to the morning
c. NIIT (Inspired……life begins at NIIT)
d. Domino’s (When families are having fun)
6. Plant to make an emotional relationship among product firm and their clients and
constituent are
a. Brand name
b. Brand management
c. Brand image
d. Brand culture
7. Sales advertisement target at as customer are called
a. Attract to Seller
b. Attract to Buyer
c. Consumer sales promotions
d. Trade sales option
8. Services acquired from other state is related to
a. Dumping
b. Bribes
c. Outsourcing
d. Exchanging policy
9. Charge dissembling prices in diverse markets for same product is
a. Marketing mix
b. Psychographic factor
c. Prices discrimination
d. Prices skimming
10. Brand equity related to worth of a
a. Consumer
b. Brand
c. Franchise
d. Buyer
11. Advantages of having diverse brand consist of each of following except
a. Quickly responds to retailers
b. Effective compete in market
c. Save actual brand image
d. Fill all gaps In market
12. Formed by management for customer and for firm through brand is
a. Prices
b. Value
c. Cost
d. Rate
13. A product which uses name of vendor or store where it
a. Co- brand
b. Manufacturer brand
c. Private brand
d. Multi brand
14. Lots of brand names for areas and landmark like cisco and fuji film are case of
brand name category which is
a. Evocative
b. Geography
c. Descriptive
d. Initialize
15. 4p’s are sometime called as the
a. Product life cycle
b. Marketing mix
c. Prices discrimination
d. Parallel mix
16. Ask quote is for
a. Buyer
b. Seller
c. Hedger
d. Speculators
17. A strong brand commands
a. Intense consumer loyalty
b. Intense employer loyalty
c. Intense employee loyalty
d. Instances supplier loyalty
18. "Worldwide Leader in Sports" is the tagline of
a. Star Sports
b. Ten Sports
c. ESPN
d. Sony live
19. …………………refers to a brands objective (functional) attributes in relation to
other brands.
a. Brand position
b. Product relation
c. Brand relationship
d. productivity
20. In strategic brand management, focus is on
a. Brand positioning
b. Brand marketing
c. Brand performance
d. brand strategically work
21. Close up, Doordarshan, Frooti, Babool, Fair and Lovely, Band-aid and Ujala are
the examples of………..
a. Descriptive Brand Name
b. Suggestive brand name
c. Free Standing brand name
d. company
22. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Branding not helps to organize inventory
b. Branding not helps in getting a competitive advantage
c. Brand signals a certain level of quality
d. Brand is human attraction
23. Watches sold as a Jeweler is related to
a. Titan Raga
b. Tanishq
c. Swatch
d. Gold Plus
24. Marketers can apply a branding on
a. Physical good
b. A service
c. A store and organization
d. Tangible and intangible goods and services
26. _________ is the first tourist board in India to register its brands.
a. Kerala tourism
b. Madhya Pradesh Tourism
c. Gujarat Tourism
d. MSRTC
27. Kadak, Xerox, Exxon, Fidji are examples of
a. Products
b. Descriptive Brand Name
c. Suggestive brand name
d. Free standing brand name
28. ___________is the added value endowed on services and products.
a. Brand value
b. Brand strategy
c. Brand equity
d. None of the above
29. There are __________ key elements of customer-based brand equity.
a. Four
b. Five
c. Three
d. Two
30 . Brand equity is a result of
a. Similarity in consumer response
b. Differences in consumer response
c. Similarity in seller response
d. Differences in seller response
31. Differences in response are a result of
a. Consumers loyalty
b. Consumers liking
c. Consumer disliking
d. Consumer knowledge
32. Differential response by consumers resulting in brand equity can be seen in
a. Perceptions
b. Preferences
c. Behavior
d. Attitude
33. What is more important in brand equity?
a. Quality
b. Quantity
c. Customer perception
d. Brand value
34. A ____________ can be defined as the marketers vision of brand and what is
should do for consumers.
a. Brand exploration
b. Brand promise
c. Brand creation
d. brand management
35. In Brand Asset Valuator model, there are _______ components of brand equity.
a. Four
b. Five
c. Three
d. Two
36. In Brand Asset Valuator model, _____________ measures the degree to which a
brand is perceived from others.
a. Promotion
b. Relevance
c. Energy
d. Differentiation
37. In Brand Asset Valuator model, ________measures the brand's sense of
momentum.
a. Promotion
b. Relevance
c. Energy
d. Differentiation
38. In Brand Asset Valuator model, ___________ measures the breadth of a brand's
appeal.
a. Promotion
b. Relevance
c. Energy
d. Differentiation
39. .………………….can be thought of as a perceptual map of in which like
products of the same company (say, toothpaste) are positioned very close to one
another and compete more with one another than with brands of other
companies.
a. Brand Comparison
b. Cannibalization
c. Positioning
d. Brand Associations
40. In Brand Asset Valuator Model, __________measures how well the brand is
respected and regarded.
a. Promotion
b. Relevance
c. Energy
d. Differentiation
41. In Brand asset valuator model, _____________ measures how intimate and
familiar consumers are with the brand.
a. Promotion
b. Relevance
c. Energy
d. Knowledge
42. In Brand Asset valuator model, Energized brand strength is formed of
a. Differentiation, energy and relevance
b. Esteem and knowledge
c. Differentiation and knowledge
d. None of the above
43. In Brand Asset valuator model, Brand stature is formed of
a. Energy and relevance
b. Esteem and knowledge
c. Energy and knowledge
d. Esteem and relevance
44. In Brand Asset Valuator model, Brand stature represents
a. Past performance
b. Present strength
c. Future value
d. None of the above
45. As per Brand Asset Valuator Model, strong new brands show
a. Higher levels of differentiation
b. Lower levels of differentiation
c. Higher esteem
d. All of above are false
46. …………………..includes two visual signals of a brand – its character (e.g.
Amul girl, Pillsbury doughboy) and its logo. Both are elements of brand
identity.
a. Brand attitude
b. Brand symbol
c. Brand image
d. Brand Positioning
47. As per Brand Asset Valuator Model, leadership brands show
a. High levels on all dimensions
b. Low level on all dimensions
c. High at esteem and knowledge
d. Medium level on all dimensions
48. In Brand Asset Valuator Model, declining brands show
a. High knowledge
b. High energy
c. High level of differentiation
d. Low energy
49. As per BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building sequential steps are
a. Relevance, Presence, Performance, Advantage, Bonding
b. Presence, Relevance, Performance, Advantage, Bonding
c. Bonding, Advantage, Performance, Relevance, Presence
d. Performances, advantage, relevance’s, bonding presence
50. As per AAKER Model, brand management commences with developing
a. Brand identity
b. Brand awareness
c. Brand equity
d. Brand quality
51. …………………includes all that is linked up in memory about the brand. It
could be specific to attributes, features, benefits or looks of the brand.
a. Brand attitude
b. Brand Associations
c. Brand relationship
d. Brand image
52. The _________ emphasizes the duality of brands.
a. Brand resonance model
b. AAKER Model
c. Brand asset valuator model
d. BRANDZ Model
53. Master is an example of
a. Brand resonance model
b. AAKER Model
c. Brand asset valuator model
d. BRANDZ Model
54. _____ can be explained as how easily and how often customers think of brand
under several consumption or purchase situations.
a. Brand salience
b. Brand performance
c. Brand Judgments
d. Brand Imagery
55. ___________ is how well the service or products fulfill customers functional
needs.
a. Brand salience
b. Brand performance
c. Brand Judgments
d. Brand Imagery
56. …………………includes two aspects of a brand – its associations and its
personality.
a. Brand attitude
b. Brand positioning
c. Brand relationship
d. Brand image
57. _____________ explains the intrinsic properties of the service or product.
a. Brand salience
b. Brand performance
c. Brand Judgments
d. Brand Imagery
58. _________ lays emphasis on customers own personal evaluations and opinions.
a. Brand salience
b. Brand performance
c. Brand Judgments
d. Brand Imagery
59. _____________ can be stated as customers' emotional reactions and responses
with respect to the brand.
a. Brand salience
b. Brand performance
c. Brand feelings
d. Brand Imagery
60. …………defines what the brand thinks about the consumer, as per the
consumer.
a. Brand position
b. Brand attitude
c. Brand relationship
d. Brand image
61. __________indicates the nature of the relationship customers share with the
brand and the limit to which they are in sync with.
a. Brand salience
b. Brand performance
c. Brand feelings
d. Brand Imagery
@@@@@
MEDIA PLANNING AND
MANAGEMENT
1. The word Media came from the Latin word……….
a. Middle
b. Media
c. Medium
d. Mediator
2. A consumer must plan to act in the desired manner is also known as …………
a. Attention
b. Intention
c. Behaviour
d. Attraction
3. ………….. Research will tell you about your target audience’s local media habits.
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
c. Descriptive
d. Subjective
4. ………….. indicates a percentage of target audience who is exposed at least once
in a given period to a particular media vehicle.
a. Reach
b. Frequency
c. Market Coverage
d. Target Market
5. Message weight is expressed in terms of gross impressions or ………… rating
points
a. Gross
b. Net
c. Operational
d. Optional
6. (TRPs) are available in India calculated on the basis of the ……….. method.
a. Panel
b. Polling
c. Opinion
d. Optional
7. ……………… advertising is a type of online advertising that comes in several
forms including banner ads, rich media and more.
a. Display
b. Indoor
c. Outdoor
d. Primary
8. Currently ads are regulated by a non-statutory body ………
a. Advertising Standards Council of India.
b. Advertising Service Council of India.
c. Advertising Standard Corporation of India.
d. Advertising Service Corporation of India
9. The …………. Measures the sales strength of brand in a particular area
a. Brand Development Index
b. Broad Development Index
c. Brand Developed Index
d. Broad Developed Index
10. Media Strategy is based upon market ……………….
a. Coverage
b. Persuasion
c. Interaction
d. Target Area
11. ……….Target are those who have the power to affect the changes the campaign
calls for.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Research
12. The cost factor becomes a matter of the relative cost of the individual media, in
case of newspapers, this relationship is determined as per ………. Per column.
a. Centimetre
b. Metre
c. Word
d. Line
13. Frequency is defined as?
a. All possible exposures to a target audience
b. The number of times a reader is exposed to a message
c. Three exposures to the target audience
d. The total number of duplicated exposures
14. ……… refers to specific methods of media used by companies to deliver
advertising messages to targeted customers.
a. Media Vehicle
b. Media Mix
c. Media Methodology
d. Media Strategy
15. …………... is the ability to aim a radio or TV program or programming at a
specific, limited audience or consumer market.
a. Narrow casting
b. Media concentration
c. Media Mix
d. Media Methodology
16. A…………. is a publication that mostly covers one main topic.
a. Newsletter
b. Newspaper
c. Magazine
d. Media
17. Television has been used as an advertising medium nearly since the day the
device was introduced at the New York World’s Fair in ……….
a. 1939
b. 1940
c. 1942
d. 1945
18. Cable Television Amendment Bill ……….. mandates digitization of TV
broadcasts pan India 2014.
a. 2011
b. 2012
c. 2013
d. 2014
19. ………….. is the use of a remote control device (RCD) to avoid commercials by
switching to another channel.
a. Planning
b. Zipping
c. Forwarding
d. Zapping
20. In the year 1957, All India Radio was renamed ……………., which is
controlled by the Ministry of information and Broadcasting.
a. Doordarshan
b. Dhwani
c. Akashvani
d. Television
21. In …………. Advertising messages are proved either with or without the
consent of the mobile owner.
a. Pull
b. Broad
c. Push
d. Narrow
22. A…………….. is an estimation of a company’s promotional expenditures over a
period of time.
a. Media Planning
b. Media Buying
c. Media Budget
d. Media Scheduling
23. ………… method is a ‘let’s not rock the boat’, or, ‘If something’s going well,
why fix it’ way of setting budgets.
a. Status Quo
b. Inflation adjusted
c. Case Rate
d. Forwarding
24. ………… method is slightly modified version of the ‘status-quo’ method.
a. Media Budget
b. Inflation Adjusted
c. Case rate to advertising
d. Media Planning
25. ………… method is identical to the A-S method expect that the budgeting is
linked to the number of cases or units sold, and not to sales revenue.
a. Media Budget
b. Inflation Adjusted
c. Case rate to advertising
d. Media Planning
26. ………… is the process of strategizing, negotiating, and purchasing ad
placements, or “inventory”.
a. Media budgeting
b. Media buying
c. Media planning and buying
d. Media scheduling
27. …………. refers to the pattern of timing of an advertising which is represented
as plots on a flowchart on a yearly basis.
a. Media buying
b. Media planning and buying
c. Media Scheduling
d. Media Strategy
28. ……………. scheduling involves advertising the message evenly throughout a
given period.
a. Pulsing
b. Fighting
c. Continuity
d. Concentrated advertising
29. ……………… scheduling involves giving all the advertisement in a single
period.
a. Pulsing
b. Fighting
c. Continuity
d. Concentrated advertising
30. …………… scheduling involves giving advertisement at specific intervals.
Company advertises for some period, followed by break of no advertisement,
followed by the second flight of advertisement and likewise.
a. Pulsing
b. Fighting advertising
c. Continuity
d. Concentrated advertising
31. …………… scheduling is the combination of both continuous and fighting
advertisements. It includes continuous advertising at low-weight level,
reinforced periodically by waves of heavier activity.
a. Pulsing advertising
b. Fighting advertising
c. Continuity
d. Concentrated advertising
32. …………… is a count up of all the people of the total base or defined Target
Grass (TG) who are actually exposed to or ‘reached’ by communication used.
a. Reach
b. Frequency
c. Cumulative reach
d. Cumulative frequency
33. …………. number of unduplicated individuals or households reached by (or
exposed to) an advertising medium (broadcast or print) over a particular period.
a. Reach
b. Frequency
c. Cumulative reach
d. Cumulative frequency
34. …………… is the average number of exposures amongst those who have been
reached or, in other terms, have seen the ad at least once. Therefore it can be in
decimals as it is a derived number.
a. AOTS
b. AIR
c. Circulation
d. TRP
35. In the ……………… , a diary with quarter hour times slots across the rows, and
channels across the columns is given to a panel.
a. peoplemeter
b. dairy system
c. stickiness index
d. AIR
36. The …………… comprises of two units-a remote to register the viewer details,
and a channel monitoring device attached to the TV which records the channel
being watched.
a. peoplemeter
b. dairy system
c. stickiness index
d. AIR
37. A measure called …………….. actually helps look beyond the TRP it looks at
the quality of viewing.
a. stickiness index
b. Circulation
c. AIR
d. AOTS
38. …………… is the average number of copies of a publication that are sold. Print
order is the number of copies of a publication that are printed.
a. AIR
b. Circulation
c. Stickiness index
d. AOTS
39. …………… is defined as the number of people who have read or looked at the
publication in the time span equal to the periodicity of the publication.
a. AIR
b. Total readers
c. Solus readers
d. Group readers
40. ……………. are readers of a publication who read only that publication with
dedication and none other of the same frequency.
a. Total or Claimed Readers
b. Sole or Solus Readers
c. No Readers
d. Group Readers
41. ……………. Is used to get a sense of media weights in a competitive context. It
is the share of GRP’s for a brand within a particular product category or
competitive set.
a. GRP
b. SOV
c. GI
d. TRP
42. …………….. is standard measure in advertising, it measures advertising
impact.
a. GRP
b. SOV
c. GI
d. TRP
43. The media plan is the guide for ………………….
a. Media Selection
b. Media Strategy
c. Media Scheduling
d. Media Weights
44. …………… is a integral part of media planning
a. Target Market
b. Local Market
c. Global Market
d. Media
45. A Combination of Media types is known as the ………………
a. Media Selection
b. Media Strategy
c. Media Planning
d. Media Mix
46. The audience can be differentiated into different ………………
a. Target Audience
b. Primary Audience
c. Secondary Audience
d. Audience Segments.
47. Which of the following would not be involved in setting media objectives?
a. Target Audience
b. Reach
c. Low involvement purchase decision
d. Frequency
48. Which of the following is not a valid statement?
a. The media environment has become fiercely competitive
b. Independent media buying services specialize in media planning
c. Media planning is less important than creative
d. It is necessary to plan for out-of-home media
49. All Media Objective should be based on …………………
a. Media Planning
b. Research
c. Media Scheduling
d. Media Strategy
50. Good objectives should be quantifiable and usually use the verb tense “……”
a. to be
b. to the
c. to work
d. to do
@@@@@
FINANCE
PROJECT MANAGEMENT
1. Private sector makes investment in
a. BOT Project
b. BOO Project
c. LROT Project
d. EPC Contract
2. PERT was established as planning tool in
a. 1960s
b. 1970s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s
3. Project type of organizational was used by the company
a. Bechtel
b. Del
c. US Navy
d. Remigtion Rand
4. Project Management was established as a profession by project management
associations in
a. America
b. Canada
c. England
d. London
5. In functional type of structure decisions are
a. Delayed
b. Prompt
c. Wise
d. Unwise
6. Matrix type of structure is
a. Flexible
b. Rigid
c. Temporary
d. Permanent
7. In matrix structure there is a violation of
a. Unity of command
b. Discipline
c. Authority
d. Span of control
8. Training requirement is a
a. Financial Factor
b. HR Factor
c. Marketing Factor
d. Administrative Factor
9. The method which uses accrual accounting
a. Payback
b. ARR
c. NPV
d. IRR
10. The method which does not consider investment profitability is
a. Payback
b. ARR
c. NPV
d. IRR
11. The most reliable method of financing capital budget decisions
a. NPV
b. ARR
c. Payback
d. Post audit method
12. PV of cash inflow of a project is ₹2,38,000 and investment is ₹2,00,000. The PI
is
a. 1.19
b. 1.20
c. 1.21
d. 1.40
13. Following is not applicable to project planning
a. It does not facilitates scheduling
b. It minimizes risk
c. It facilitates controlling
d. It facilitates coordination
14. Following is not applicable as function of project planning
a. It does not define the work
b. It provides a means of communication
c. It improves efficiency of operation
d. It coordinates the activities involved in project
15. Project is implemented at
a. Initiation phase
b. Development phase
c. Construction phase
d. Handover phase
16. Personality conflict arises at
a. Project formation
b. Programme phase
c. During the main programme
d. At all the stages
17. Following is not true about feasibility study
a. It does not come out with overall outcome of the project proposal
b. It estimates cost
c. It analyses cash flow profile
d. It assesses impact of the project
18. Technological resources are examined by
a. Economic feasibility
b. Technical feasibility
c. Legal feasibility
d. Operational feasibility
19. Cultural implications of the project are examined by
a. Economic feasibility
b. Cultural feasibility
c. Technical feasibility
d. Marketing feasibility
20. All the aspects of the project are examined in
a. Comprehensive feasibility
b. Technical feasibility
c. Marketing feasibility
d. Legal feasibility
21. Market trend is decided by
a. Customer analysis
b. Product Description
c. Manpower Analysis
d. Technical Analysis
22. Following is not a product mix
a. Mix of debt and equity
b. Expansion of products
c. Development of new uses of products
d. Addition of new prestigious product
23. Technology choice is affected by
a. Plant capacity
b. Sources of material
c. Customer type
d. Investments cost
24. Capacity decisions are affected by
a. Technological requirements
b. Utilities
c. Manpower
d. Customer type
25. Strategic decisions are taken by
a. Senior management
b. Middle management
c. Lower management
d. Shop floor Employees
26. Operational decisions are taken by
a. Jr. Manager
b. Sr. Manager
c. M.D.
d. Shop floor employees
27. Purchase of right quantity of material is the objective of
a. Production Management
b. Material Management
c. H.R. Management
d. Marketing Management
28. Following is not the benefit of material management
a. Ensures effective manpower management
b. Reduces cost
c. Avoids loss of labour
d. Prompt delivery of material
29. The objective of work study is
a. To analyze the method of doing the job
b. To recruit the right people
c. To purchase right machinery
d. To train people
30. The security on which the rate of dividend is not fixed is
a. Equity Shares
b. Preferences Shares
c. Debentures
d. Public Deposits
31. The security which is last claimant is
a. Equity Shares
b. Preference Shares
c. Debentures
d. Public deposit
32. Capital expenditure budget is
a. A budget for long term investment
b. A budget for short term investment
c. A budget for future expenditure
d. A budget for personal expenditure
33. The budget which helps to control plan and control cash is
a. Production budget
b. Cash budget
c. Sales budget
d. Flexible budget
34. The budget which is dynamic is
a. Fixed Budget
b. Flexible Budget
c. Cash Budget
d. Sales Budget
35. The budget which covers all the functional budget is
a. Master Budget
b. Sales Budget
c. Production Budget
d. Cost Budget
36. Production Cost budget shows
a. Budgeted costs of production
b. Budgeted costs of sales
c. Budgeted purchases
d. Budgeted Capacity
37. High Gearing will increase
a. Financial Risk
b. Business Risk
c. Cost of Final
d. Shareholders equity
38. A high geared company exposes to
a. Business Risk
b. Financial Risk
c. Inflation Risk
d. Interest Rate Risk
39. Interest on debentures ₹4,00,000 preference dividend ₹2,00,000 Tax rate is 4% if
EBIT is 15,00,000 the financial leverage is
a. 1.75
b. 2.88
c. 1.96
d. 3.75
40. Financial Leverage is
a. EBIT/EBT
b. EBT/EBIT
c. C/EBT
d. C/EBIT
41. Operating leverage is 1.26 and financial leverage is 1.02 the combined leverage
is
a. 2.9 %
b. 1.29%
c. 3.29%
d. 4.50%
42. The source of capital use to get financial leverage is
a. Debentures
b. Equity Capital
c. Debt capital
d. Short term loans
43. Effective use of leverage reduces the overall cost of
a. Capital
b. Money
c. Production
d. Sales
44. Financial Leverage implies application of debt capital for maximizing
a. EBIT
b. PBT
c. Debt
d. EPS
45. Leverage help in
a. Long term loans
b. Designing capital structure
c. Raising short term loans
d. Raising medium term loans
46. Leverage analyses relation between
a. Equity and debt
b. Debentures and loans
c. Financial and operating leverage
d. Short term loan and equity
47. Favourable D.FL should be
a. More than 1
b. Equal to 1
c. Equal to 0
d. Less than 1
48. Operating leverage is used to measure
a. Financial Risk
b. Business Risk
c. Market Risk
d. Economic risk
49. The limitation operating leverage is
a. Higher Risk
b. Profitability
c. Liquidity
d. cost effective
50. The leverage having combined effect on financial and operating leverage is
a. Capital Gearing
b. Financial Leverage
c. Operating Leverage
d. Combined Leverage
@@@@@
STRATEGIC FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
1. Part of income distributed to shareholders
a. Profit
b. Loss
c. Dividend
d. Retained Profit
2. Dividends are payments which are
a. Voluntary
b. Non obligatory
c. Obligatory
d. Occasional
3. The irrelevance theory of dividend supported by
a. Walter
b. MM
c. Gordon
d. Fayol
4. The relevance theory of dividend was supported by
a. Walter
b. MM
c. Gordon
d. Walter and Gordon
5. The most common form of Dividend Payment is
a. Stock Dividend
b. Cash Dividend
c. Stock split
d. Bonus issue
6. Constant Payout Ratio means
a. Stable Dividend Policy
b. Long term dividend Policy
c. Regular Dividend Policy
d. Irregular Dividend Policy
7. XBRL stands for
a. Extra business regulations Ltd.
b. Excursive Business reporting law
c. Extra Ordinary business reporting language
d. Extensible business reporting language
8. The First Taxonomy for financial reporting was released on
a. 30th June 2003
b. 31st July 2000
c. 26th January 2003
d. 15th August 2009
9. The institute of authorizing to develop XBRL + agronomies in India is
a. ICAI
b. MCA
c. SEBI
d. IDRA
10. XBRL taxonomy for commercial and industrial undertaking developed by ICAI
are adopted by
a. Ministry of Finance
b. SBI
c. RBI
d. M.C.A.
11. XBRL India is formed as one of the following
a. Registered company
b. Government Corporation
c. Trust
d. Partnership with XBRL international
12. EVA concept is postulated by
a. Stewart
b. Stern
c. Terry
d. Stern Stewart & Co.
13. EVA is a corporate surplus which is shared by
a. Employee and management
b. Employee and Shareholders
c. Shareholders only
d. Employees , Management.
14. Net Profit for calculation of EVA is
a. NPAT
b. NPBT
c. NOPAT
d. NOP
15. Amalgamation is governed by
a. AS 14
b. AS 3
c. AS 21
d. AS 32
16. In Amalgamation all the assets and liabilities of the transferor company are
pooled into the books of transferee company at
a. Market Value
b. Book Value
c. Fair Value
d. Realizable Value
17. Discounted bills are shown under
a. Advances
b. Loans
c. Current Assets
d. Other Assets
18. The % of provisions required on standard asset
a. 40 %
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 100%
19. The % of Provisions required on sub standard asset on secured portion is
a. 15 %
b. 12 %
c. 10 %
d. 5 %
20. The % provisions on unsecured portion of sub standard asset is
a. 25 %
b. 15 %
c. 100 %
d. 75 %
21. The % of provision on unsecured portion of doubtful asset is
a. 125 %
b. 100 %
c. 75 %
d. 25 %
22. The % of provision on doubtful asset up to 1 year is
a. 25 %
b. 30 %
c. 5 %
d. 40 %
23. The % of provision on doubtful asset exceeding 1 year but not exceeding 3 years
is
a. 10 %
b. 25 %
c. 40 %
d. 45 %
24. The % of provision on doubtful asset exceeding 3 years is
a. 25 %
b. 100 %
c. 50 %
d. 30 %
25. The % of provisions on loss asset is
a. 30 %
b. 50 %
c. 75 %
d. 100 %
26. Bills purchased and discounted is treated as NPA when they remain unpaid for
more than
a. 40 days
b. 90 days
c. 45 days
d. 25 days
27. Cash Credit and overdraft is considered as NPA when it remains out of order for
more than
a. 90 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 45 days
28. MPBF refers to
a. Maximum Permissible Bank Finance
b. Minimum Permissible Bank Finance
c. Bank Overdraft
d. Cash Credit
29. Public Deposits are accepted for a maximum of
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 year
30. Interest on debenture is
a. Paid out of income
b. Paid out of profit
c. Paid out of debentures
d. Paid out of loans
31. Guidelines for issue of bonus shares are issued by
a. SEBI
b. RBI
c. Income Tax act
d. Company law
32. Constant payout ratio means
a. Stable dividend policy
b. Regular dividend policy
c. Irregular dividend policy
d. Long term dividend policy
33. Dividend is payable to
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Stock holders
d. Managers
34. Ploughing back of profit means
a. Declaration of Dividend
b. Retaining Profits
c. Re investing Profits
d. Building Reserves
35. The models known as birds in the hand argument
a. Gordon’s Model
b. Walter’s Model
c. Fayol Model
d. Henry Model
36. The factor not considered for determination of dividend policy is
a. Liquidity
b. Consistently of earning
c. Government Policies
d. GDP of the country
37. The approvable to dividend policy are
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
38. The profit which is distributed as dividend is known as
a. Isolating Profit
b. Divisible Profit
c. Net Profit
d. Gross Profit
39. Payment of Fixed Dividend is known as
a. Constant Payout
b. Fluctuating Dividend
c. Cash Dividend
d. Stock Dividend
40. The policy in which less dividend is paid is
a. Liberal dividend policy
b. Conservative Dividend Policy
c. Stable Dividend Policy
d. Fluctuating dividend policy
41. Dividend which is declared before declaration of final dividend is called as
a. Final Dividend
b. Interims Dividend
c. Advoc Dividend
d. Temporary Dividend
42. Relationship Between Dividend per share and earning per share is known as
a. Dividend Payout
b. Dividend Yield
c. Dividend Per share
d. E.P.S
43. Provision of Standard Asset in respect of advances to commercial real estate
sector is
a. 1 %
b. 15 %
c. 10 %
d. 40 %
44. Provision for sub standard asset is respect of unsecured infrastructure loan A/c
where ESCROW A/c is available is
a. 15 %
b. 20 %
c. 15 %
d. 1 %
45. Term Loan becomes NPA when interest/ principle remains over due for a period
of more than
a. 90 days
b. 180 days
c. 30 days
d. 45 days
46. Bills purchased as discounted becomes NPA when it is remain unpaid for a
period more than
a. 50 days
b. 130 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
47. Banks in India have to achieve CA ratio of
a. 9 %
b. 15 %
c. 5 %
d. 10 %
48. Cash in Hand is an asset carrying % risk
a. 10 %
b. 0 %
c. 100 %
d. 50 %
49. Claims on Banks other than RBI carries % risk
a. 20 %
b. 30 %
c. 90 %
d. 100 %
50. Loans up to ₹1,00,000 against gold and silver ornaments carry risk
a. 50 %
b. 10 %
c. 100 %
d. 20 %
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INNOVATIVE FINANCIAL SERVICES
1. The term ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers financial investment in a highly risky and
growth oriented venture with the objective of earning a high rate of
return.
a. Venture capital
b. Merchant banking
c. Leasing
d. banking.
2. V C Fs of specialized financial institution promoted by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Central government
b. RBI
c. State government
d. Merchant banking.
3. Write the example of V C Fs of state financial institution.
a. K S I D C
b. T D I C I
c. C V C F
d. ICICI.
4. Which of the following is a V C F promoted by
specialized financial institution.
a. Indus venture capital fund
b. I L & FS Venture corporation ltd.
c. I D B I venture capital fund
d. Merchant banking
5. Off shore VCFs are promoted by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ & financial institution.
a. Foreign banks
b. Private banks
c. State banks
d. Merchant banking
6. High risk is an outstanding feature of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Mutual fund
b. Venture capital
c. Debenture finance
d. Govt. bonds.
7. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is needed for developing a product in the initial stages.
a. Seed capital
b. Startup capital
c. Second round financing
d. STAR CAPITAL .
8. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ capital is needed for product development and initial marketing.
a. Seed capital
b. Startup capital
c. First round financing
d. OWN .
9. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ provided at a stage when product has been launched in the
market but has not earned enough profits to meet future capital needs.
a. First round financing
b. Second round financing
c. Startup capital
d. Third round
10. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ capital is provided for early manufacturing and marketing expense.
a. Startup capital
b. Seed capital
c. First round financing
d. Second round financing
11. The additional finance provided by VCFs to overcome fledging stage is called
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. a. second round financing
b. first round financing
c. seed capital
d. third round
12. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ stage is called fledging stage.
a. First round financing
b. Second round financing
c. Startup capital
d. Last
13. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is known as bridge finance.
a. Development financing
b. Expansion financing
c. Replacement finance
d. NEW
14. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers to transfer of management control.
a. Bridging
b. Buyout
c. Buyin
d. WAY.
15. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refer to the process of acquiring an existing product line by the
current operating management.
a. MBDs
b. MBIs
c. CVCF
d. IMF.
16. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ means buying the control of a sick company.
a. Turn around
b. Buyout
c. Bridge
d. Way
17. Venture capital organized in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. a. 1995
b. 1954
c. 1952
d. 1950.
18. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ types of valuation
method can be adopted by VCFs.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. VCFs can be structured as an investment trust under
the Indian act ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. 1882
b. 1883
c. 1884
d. 1885
20. There are ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ VCFs registered with SEBI.
a. 157
b. 158
c. 159
d. 160
21. IDBI venture capital fund was starts in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. 1987
b. 1988
c. 1989
d. 1990
22. The first nationalized bank in India to start a VCF ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. a. Canara bank
b. SBI
c. Bank of India
d. ICICI
23. A ……………….. Is an investment that enable holder to buy goods and avail
services intermediate & pay later at on extra cost.
a. Credit card
b. Debit card
c. Add-on card
d. Smart card
24. …………………… is also called as an electronic cheque.
a. Credit card
b. Debit card
c. Add-on card
d. Smart card
25. ……………….. Business portfolio includes credit rating grading credit
analysis, record, risk assuming & securing.
a. ONICRA
b. ICRA
c. Equity MAX
d. CARE
26. ……………………… is combination of banking and consulting services.
a. Financial services
b. Merchant banking
c. Financial instituting
d. Issues management
27. For registration of merchant bankers of various category ……………….. Has
presubscribed capital adequacy norms.
a. RBI
b. SEBI
c. Central government
d. Privet bank
28. ………………………. Safeguard success of the projected issue of shares
since it provide insurance again the risk.
a. Brokerage
b. Underwriting
c. Merchant banking
d. Stock broking
29. ……………………… is a service which gives retail and institution the
opportunity to buy and sale equity.
a. Stock broking
b. Stock tending
c. Derivatives trading
d. Underwriting
30. A ………………..can operate only on behalf of registries FITs.
a. Sub broker
b. Stock broker
c. Foreign broker
d. All types of brokers
31. ………………….. are financial contract that derive their value from an
.underlying assets
a. Derivatives
b. Stock trading
c. Security
d. Clearing account
32. ……………………. Is the process in which certain types of assets are the
pooled so that they can be repackaged into interest broking security?
a. Derivatives
b. Factoring
c. Securitization
d. Forecasting
33. In ……………………… securities interest received from the receivable is not
passed to holder of the unit.
a. Pass through security
b. Trenched security
c. Interest payable securities
d. Pay through security
34. A ………………………. Is a supplement credit card offered to closed
relatives of primary card holder?
a. Smart card
b. Debit card
c. Add on card
d. Credit card
35. Full form of PIN.
a. Personal index no.
b. Permanent index no.
c. Personal identification no.
d. Personal integer no.
36. The fist financial instituted establish in India.
a. IDBI
b. ICICI
c. IRBI
d. IIFCI
37. Which fund does not have a fixed date of redemption?
a. Open ended fund
b. Closed ended fund
c. Diversified fund
d. Open and closed both types of fund.
38. “Ask” means the
a. Buyers prices
b. Seller prices
c. Market prices
d. Traded price
39. Nifty index is used in.
a. Derivatives
b. Stock
c. Furniture
d. Assets
40. Stock exchange deal with
a. Second hand securities
b. Issuing capital
c. Fist hand capital
d. Authorized capital
41. The fist stock exchange of India was established in.
a. Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Calcutta
d. Madras
42. SEBI is
a. Regulator authority
b. Depository
c. Banking firm
d. NBFI
43. Which of the following is required for investing in mutual funds?
a. KYC
b. Passport
c. Voter ID
d. De-mat account
44. FDI is stand for
a. Foreign derived income
b. Foreign direct investment
c. Foreign derivatives investment
d. Foreign deposit investment
45. LBMA stand for
a. London bullion member association
b. London bond market association
c. London bond member association
d. London bullion market association
46. TDS stand for
a. Tax deducted at services
b. Tax deducted at sources
c. Tax deposit at services
d. Tax deposit at source
47. Which of the following speculator expected the price of security is fall in the
near future
a. Bull
b. Bear
c. Stag
d. Broker
48. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a service offered by a stock broker ie; buying and selling or
dealing in shares on behalf of the customers.
a. Lease finance
b. Venture capital
c. Merchant banker
d. Stock broking
49. N H B stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. National house banker
b. National house bank
c. National house building
d. New housing bank.
50. N.B F C stands for ……………..
a. Non banking finance companies
b. Non banking financial corporation
c. Non bulk finance companies
d. Banking Services
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INDIRECT TAXES
1. Which one of the following are defined as sources of ‘customs and excise’
revenue?
a. Petroleum Revenue Tax
b. VAT
c. Inheritance Tax
d. Capital gains Tax
2. Central taxes to be subsumed under GST included…………..
a. Vat
b. Petroleum tax
c. Manufacturing tax
d. Services tax
3. Which two of the following are the most accurate indicators of the government’s
budgetary situation (fiscal stance) in any given year?
a. Public Sector Net Cash Requirement
b. Public Sector Receipts
c. Income Tax Schedules
d. Public Sector Net Borrowing
4. State taxes to be subsumed under GST included………………
a. Excise duty
b. Central sales tax
c. Central service tax
d. State VAT
5. The concept of Goods and Services Tax (GST) is originated in………..
a. Canada
b. USA
c. Britain
d. Germany
6. Which of the following is statement is not correct about GST?
a. GST is like a last-point retail tax. GST is going to be collected at point
of Sale.
b. GST will abolish all the direct tax levied in India
c. It will be implemented from 1 July, 2017 throughout the country.
d. It will unified the tax structure in India
7. Which of the following tax will be abolished by the GST?
a. Service Tax
b. Corporation tax
c. Income Tax
d. Wealth Tax
8. Which of the following tax rate is not applicable under the GST?
a. 5
b. 12
c. 18
d. 25
9. GST will be levied on………………..
a. Manufacturers
b. Retailers
c. Consumers
d. Individual
10. What kind of Tax is GST?
a. Direct Tax
b. Indirect Tax
c. Depends on the type of goods and services
d. None of the above
11. Who is the head of the GST council?
a. Shashi Kant Das
b. Amit Mitra
c. Arun Jaitley
d. Hasmukh Adhia
12. Which constitutional amendment is done to pass the GST bill?
a. 101st
b. 120th
c. 122nd
d. 115th
14. Which of the following good will not be covered under the GST bill?
a. Cooking gas
b. Liquor
c. Petrol
d. Sugary
15. Which of the following is the main motive of the government behind the
introduction of the Goods and Services Tax
a. To bring tax uniformity in the country
b. To increase government revenue
c. To replace all the indirect tax
d. To work with relation
16. Chair person of GST council is ………………….
a. Union minister of state in charge of revenue
b. Union finance minister
c. One elected person amongst the state finance minister
d. Minister in charge of finance
17. The vice chairman of GST council is……………
a. Union minister of state in charge of revenue
b. Union finance minister
c. One elected person amongst the state finance minister
d. Minister in charge of finance
18. …………….. is levied on inter-state supplies of goods and services
a. CGST
b. SGST
c. IGST
d. UT GST
19. IGST shall be levied on ……….. with effort from the date notified by the
government
a. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
b. Petroleum product
c. Natural gas
d. Motor spirit
20. What is the full form of GST?
a. Goods and Supply Tax
b. Goods and Services Tax
c. General Sales Tax
d. Government Sales Tax
21. GST was implemented in India from
a. 1st January 2017
b. 1st April 2017
c. 1st March 2017
d. 1st July 2017
22. In India, the GST is a dual model of
a. UK
b. Canada
c. USA
d. Japan
e. China
23. GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on
a. Development
b. Dividend
c. Destiny
d. Destination
24. India’s GST structure are based on how many structures?
a. 6
b. 4
c. 3
d. 5
25. The maximum rate for CGST is?
a. 28
b. 12
c. 18
d. 20
26. The maximum rate for SGST/UTGST is?
a. 28
b. 14
c. 20
d. 30
27. The maximum rate for SGST/UTGST is?
a. 28
b. 14
c. 20
d. 30
28. Which code is used to classify goods and services under GST?
a. HSN Code
b. SAC/HSN Code
c. GST Code
d. SAC Code
29. What does “I” in IGST stands stand for?
a. Internal
b. Integrated
c. Internal
d. Intra
30. Supplier means a person supplying ……………..
a. Goods
b. Services
c. Goods and services both at time
d. Goods or services or together
31. Place of business includes……………………
a. Warehouse
b. Godown
c. Any place where taxable person store his goods
d. Any place from trading or business activity are done.
32. ……………. Is a tax that is shifted from one tax payer to another tax payer?
a. Direct tax
b. Indirect tax
c. Entry tax
d. GST
33. Inter-state supplies means location of supplies and place of supply are in ……..
a. Two different state
b. Within a union territories
c. A state and an union territories
d. With in a state supply
34. M/s. ABC. Of Gujarat supplied goods to m/s. XYZ of Delhi this will classify as
……………….
a. Intra state supply
b. Export supply
c. Inter-state supply
d. Deemed supply
35. For banking and finance services, place of supply are ……………..
a. Location of branch
b. Location of receiver
c. Location of head office
d. Location of recipient in record of supply
36. The liability to pay tax on goods shall arise at the………………
a. Dispatch of goods
b. Removal of goods
c. Time of goods
d. Delivery of goods
37. ………… of supply is the amount upon which tax is levied and collected
a. Value
b. Cost
c. Turn over
d. Gross value
38. Transaction value of supply excludes……..
a. Taxes, duties, cases
b. Incidental charges
c. Subsidies
d. Value of supply
39. Exempt supply of any goods services or both which attracted …….……rate of
tax.
a. Nil
b. Zero
c. Subsidize
d. Exempted
40. …………….. indicted non taxable supply
a. Aggregate turn over
b. Exempt supply
c. Inward supply
d. Export supply
41. The …….. needs to compulsory get registration under GST
a. Farmer
b. Individual
c. Ecommerce operator
d. Shop keeper turn over less than 600000
42. The input tax credit of ……………..cannot be utilized for making payment of
CGST.
a. SGST & UTGST
b. UTGST
c. IGST
d. GST
43. A person is liable to register under GST law where his aggregate turn our
exceeds……..
a. Rs 10 lakhs
b. Rs 20 lakhs
c. Rs 20 lakh exceeds
d. 15 lakhs
44. Every person shall have ………. In order to be eligible for of registration
a. Aadhar card
b. TAN card
c. VAT. Number
d. PAN card
45. GST identification no. is of ………..digits
a. 20
b. 15
c. 10
d. 27
46. The first 2 digits of GSTIN represented………………
a. Entity code
b. Country code
c. State code
d. Checksum character
47. CPIN stand for………
a. Common PAN Identification NO.
b. Challan paid identification NO.
c. Common portal identification no.
d. Challan portal identification NO.
48. The proper office issue from GST-08 for………..
a. Description in furnished of return
b. Grant of registration
c. Cancellation of registration
d. Detail of registration
49. ………… adopted first time GST.
a. France
b. UAE
c. USA
d. Spain
50. When did GST act come in the FORCE.
a. 2016
b. 2017
c. 2018
d. 2019
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