iasbaba's rapid revision series(rare)-2021 csat-1

IASBABA'S

Rapid Revision Series(RaRe)-2021

CSAT-1

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IASbaba’s Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)

CSAT Test - 1

2021

Q.1) When x + y is divided by 12 the remainder is

8, and when x – y is divided by 12 the remainder is

6. If x > y, what is the remainder when xy divided

by 6?

a) 1

b) 3

c) 6

d) 7

Q.2) Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 45 minutes

and 15 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are

opened together but after 3 minutes, pipe B is

turned off. What is the total time required to fill

the tank?

a) 18 min 30 sec

b) 25 min 15 sec

c) 36 min

d) 30 min

Q.3) X is as much younger than Y and he is older

than Z. If the sum of the ages of Y and Z is 70 years,

what is definitely the difference between Y and X's

age?

a) 2 years

b) 4 years

c) 5 years

d) Data inadequate

Q.4) If all 6s get inverted and become 9s between

1 and 100. then by how much will the sum of all

numbers change including both?

a) 270

b) 300

c) 330

d) 350

Q.5) 2 cars facing each other are at a distance of

500 m from each other. Each car moves forward

by 100 m at a speed of 50 m/s and then moves

backwards by 50 m at a speed of 25 m/s. How long

will they take to collide?

a) 14 sec

b) 13 sec

c) 11 sec

d) 10 sec

Q.6) Taj Mahal at Agra gets an average of 5000

visitors on Sundays and 1400 visitors on other

days. Then find the average number of visitors per

day if the month has 30 days starting with Sunday.

a) 1800

b) 2000

c) 2200

d) 2800

Q.7) In an examination, a student had to obtain

40% of the maximum marks to pass. He got 130

marks and failed by 30 marks. The maximum

marks of the examination were?

a) 280

b) 400

c) 340

d) 390

Q.8) Sujatha spends 30% of her monthly salary on

transport and half the remaining amount on food

and if she spends 5% of the salary on rent and

saves 2,700 Rs. Find her monthly salary

a) 7,800 Rs

b) 8,600 Rs

c) 9,000 Rs

d) 9,500 Rs

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CSAT Test - 1

2021

Q.9) Two persons X and Y went to a Stationary

shop. A purchased 5 pens, 2 notebooks and 6

pencils and used up all his money. B purchased 6

pens, 6 notebooks and 18 pencils and paid 50%

more than what A had paid. What percentage of

the A's money was spent on pens?

a) 12.5%

b) 15%

c) 16.66%

d) 25%

Q.10) In a certain code language, "LOYALTY" is

written as "ZUMBZPM". How is "LAUGHTER"

written in that code language?

a) SFHJOMN

b) SFUIHVBM

c) SHFOJMK

d) SHFOMJL

Q.11) A number when divided by a divisor leaves a

remainder of 24. When twice the original number

is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 11.

What is the value of the divisor?

a) 35

b) 37

c) 41

d) 49

Q.12) A shopkeeper sells an article at a certain

profit percentage. If he sells his article at 1/3 of his

actual selling price, then he incurs a loss of 50%.

What is his actual profit percentage?

a) 50

b) 40

c) 30

d) 35

Q.13) A is the daughter of C while C and D are

sisters to one another. S is the mother of D. If R is

the son of S, which of the following statements is

correct?

a) D is the grandfather of A

b) R is the maternal uncle of A

c) R is the cousin of A

d) S is the brother of C

Q.14) Three containers A, B and C are having

mixtures of milk and water in the ratio of 1:5, 3:5,

5:7 respectively. If the capacities of the containers

are in the ratio 5:4:5, find the ratio of milk to

water, if all the three containers are mixed

together.

a) 53:113

b) 53:115

c) 54:115

d) 55:115

Q.15) The ten's digit of a 2 -digit number is greater

than the units digit by 4. If we subtract 36 from the

number, the new number obtained is a number

formed by the interchange of the digits. Find the

number.

a) 18

b) 37

c) 81

d) None of these

Direction for the following two questions: In each

of the following letter series, some of the letters

are missing, which are given below it. Choose the

correct alternative.

Q.16) D_F_DEE_D_EF_DE_F

a) EFFDED

b) EFFDDF

c) EFFDFE

d) None of the above




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Q.17) _OPO _ QOPQ _ RQPO _ POR _ O

a) APRQO

b) QPORO

c) QPROO


Direction for the following 6 (five) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only Passage 1

Aggression is any behavior that is directed toward

injuring, harming, or inflicting pain on another

living being or group of beings. Generally, the

victims of aggression must wish to avoid such

behavior in order for it to be considered true

aggression. Aggression is also categorized

according to its ultimate intent. Hostile aggression

is an aggressive act that results from anger, and is

intended to inflict pain or injury because of that

anger. Instrumental aggression is an aggressive act

that is regarded as a means to an end other than

pain or injury. For example, an enemy combatant

may be subjected to torture in order to extract

useful intelligence, though those inflicting the

torture may have no real feelings of anger or

animosity toward their subject. The concept of

aggression is very broad, and includes many

categories of behavior (e.g., verbal aggression,

street crime, child abuse, spouse abuse, group

conflict, war, etc.). A number of theories and

models of aggression have arisen to explain these

diverse forms of behavior, and these

theories/models tend to be categorized according

to their specific focus. The most common system

of categorization groups the various approaches

to aggression into three separate areas, based

upon the three key variables that are present

whenever any aggressive act or set of acts is

committed. The first variable is the aggressor

him/herself. The second is the social situation or

circumstance in which the aggressive acts occur.

The third variable is the target or victim of

aggression.

Regarding theories and research on the aggressor,

the fundamental focus is on the factors that lead

an individual (or group) to commit aggressive acts.

At the most basic level, some argue that aggressive

urges and actions are the result of inborn,

biological factors. Sigmund Freud (1930) proposed

that all individuals are born with a death instinct

that predisposes us to a variety of aggressive

behaviours, including suicide (self-directed

aggression) and mental illness (possibly due to an

unhealthy or unnatural suppression of aggressive

urges). Other influential perspectives supporting a

biological basis for aggression conclude that

humans evolved with an abnormally low neural

inhibition of aggressive impulses (in comparison to

other species), and that humans possess a

powerful instinct for property accumulation and

territorialism. It is proposed that this instinct

accounts for hostile behaviours ranging from

minor street crime to world wars. Hormonal

factors also appear to play a significant role in

fostering aggressive tendencies. For example, the

hormone testosterone has been shown to

increase aggressive behaviours when injected into

animals. Men and women convicted of violent

crimes also possess significantly higher levels of

testosterone than men and women convicted of

non-violent crimes. Numerous studies comparing

different age groups, racial/ethnic groups, and

cultures also indicate that men, overall, are more

likely to engage in a variety of aggressive

behaviours (e.g., sexual assault, aggravated

assault, etc.) than women. One explanation for

higher levels of aggression in men is based on the

assumption that, on average, men have higher

levels of testosterone than women.




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Q.18) “An enemy combatant may be subjected to

torture in order to extract useful intelligence,

though those inflicting the torture may have no

real feelings of anger or animosity toward their

subject.” Which one of the following best

explicates the larger point being made by the

author here?

a) In certain kinds of aggression, inflicting

pain is not the objective, and is no more

than a utilitarian means to achieve another

end.

b) When an enemy combatant refuses to

reveal information, the use of torture can

sometimes involve real feelings of hostility.

c) Information revealed by subjecting an

enemy combatant to torture is not always

reliable because of the animosity involved.

d) The use of torture to extract information is

most effective when the torturer is not

emotionally involved in the torture.

Q.19) All of the following statements can be seen

as logically implied by the arguments of the

passage except

a) Freud’s theory of aggression proposes that

aggression results from the suppression of

aggressive urges.

b) The Freudian theory of suicide as self-

inflicted aggression implies that an

aggressive act need not be sought to be

avoided in order for it to be considered

aggression.

c) A common theory of aggression is that it is

the result of an abnormally low neural

regulation of testosterone.

d) If the alleged aggressive act is not sought

to be avoided, it cannot really be

considered aggression.

Passage 2

The University Grant Commission's directive to college and University lecturers to spend a minimum of 22 hours a week in direct teaching is the product of budgetary cutbacks rather than pedagogic wisdom. It may seem odd, at first blush, that teachers should protest about teaching a mere 22 hours. However, if one considers the amount of time academics require to prepare to lectures of good quality as well as the time they need to spend doing research, it is clear that most conscientious teachers work more than 40 hours a week. In University system around the world lecturers rarely spend more than 12 to 15 hours in directing teaching activities a week. The average college lecturer in India does not have any office space. If computers are available, internet connectivity is unlikely. Libraries are poorly stocked. Now the UGC says universities must implement a complete freeze on all permanent recruitment, abolish all posts which have been vacant for more than a year, and cut staff strength by 10 per cent. And it is an order to ensure that these cutbacks do not affect the quantum of teaching that existing lecturers are being asked to work longer. Obviously, the quality of teaching and academic work in general will decline. While it is true that in some college teachers do not take their classes regularly, the UGC and the institution concerned must find a proper way to hold them accountable. An absentee teacher will continue to play truant even if the number of hours he is required to teach goes up.

Q.20) Besides direct teaching, University teachers

spend considerable time in/on

a) Administrative activities such as admission

b) Supervising examination and correction of

answer papers

c) Carrying out research in the area of their

interest





CSAT Test - 1

2021

Passage 3

In a low-carbon world, renewable energy

technologies are hot business. For investors

looking to redirect funds, wind turbines and solar

panels, among other technologies, seem a

straightforward choice. But renewables need to be

further scrutinized before being championed as

forging a path toward a low-carbon future. Both

the direct and indirect impacts of renewable

energy must be examined to ensure that a climate-

smart future does not intensify social and

environmental harm. As renewable energy

production requires land, water, and labor, among

other inputs, it imposes costs on people and the

environment. Hydropower projects, for instance,

have led to community dispossession and

exclusion. Renewable energy supply chains are

also intertwined with mining, and their

technologies contribute to growing levels of

electronic waste. Furthermore, although

renewable energy can be produced and

distributed through small-scale, local systems,

such an approach might not generate the high

returns on investment needed to attract capital.

Q.21) Which one of the following statements, if

true, could be an accurate inference from the

passage?

a) The author’s only reservation is about the

profitability of renewable energy systems.

b) The author does not think renewable

energy systems can be as efficient as non-

renewable energy systems.

c) The author has reservations about the

consequences of non-renewable energy

systems.

d) The author has reservations about the

consequences of renewable energy

systems.

Passage 4

174 incidents of piracy were reported to the

International Maritime Bureau last year, with

Somali pirates responsible for only three. The rest

ranged from the discreet theft of coils of rope in

the Yellow Sea to the notoriously ferocious

Nigerian gunmen attacking and hijacking oil

tankers in the Gulf of Guinea, as well as armed

robbery off Singapore and the Venezuelan coast

and kidnapping in the Sundarbans in the Bay of

Bengal. For [Dr. Peter] Lehr, an expert on modern-

day piracy, the phenomenon’s history should be a

source of instruction rather than entertainment,

piracy past offering lessons for piracy present.

But, where does piracy begin or end? According to

St Augustine, a corsair captain once told Alexander

the Great that in the forceful acquisition of power

and wealth at sea, the difference between an

emperor and a pirate was simply one of scale. By

this logic, European empire-builders were the

most successful pirates of all time. A more eclectic

history might have included the conquistadors,

Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But

Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry, making

comparisons with the renegades of today possible.

The main motive for piracy has always been a

combination of need and greed. Why toil away as

a starving peasant in the 16th century when a

successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid?

Anyone could turn to freebooting if the rewards

were worth the risk.

Increased globalisation has done more to

encourage piracy than suppress it. European

colonialism weakened delicate balances of power,

leading to an influx of opportunists on the high

seas. A rise in global shipping has meant rich

pickings for freebooters. Lehr writes: “It quickly

becomes clear that in those parts of the world that

have not profited from globalisation and

modernisation, and where abject poverty and the




CSAT Test - 1

2021

daily struggle for survival are still a reality, the root

causes of piracy are still the same as they were a

couple of hundred years ago.”

Q.22) “A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry.” From this statement we can infer that the author believes that:

a) Colonialism should be considered an

organised form of piracy.

b) The disorganised piracy of today is no

match for the organised piracy of the past.

c) Lehr does not assign adequate blame to

empire builders for their past deeds.

d) Vasco da Gama and the East India

Company laid the ground for modern

piracy.

Q.23) “Why toil away as a starving peasant in the

16th century when a successful pirate made up to

£4,000 on each raid?” In this sentence, the

author’s tone can best be described as being:

a) Facetious, about the hardships of peasant

life in medieval England.

b) Ironic, about the reasons why so many

took to piracy in medieval times.

c) Analytical, to explain the contrasts

between peasant and pirate life in

medieval England.

d) Indignant, at the scale of wealth successful

pirates could amass in medieval times.

Q.24) If x/y = 7/4, then what is the value of (x2 –

y2)/ (x2 + y2)?

a) 31/65

b) 33/65

c) 32/49

d) 43/72

Q.25) 2 years ago, one-fifth of A's age was equal to

one-fourth of the age of B, and the average of their

age was 27 years. If the age of C is also considered,

the average age of three of them declines to 24.

What will be the average age of B and C, 3 years

from now?

a) 25 years

b) 26 years

c) 27 years

d) cannot be determined

Q.26) Find the missing number from the given

series

5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, _

a) 109

b) 115

c) 122

d) 125

Q.27) The ratio of number of male and female

journalists in a newspaper office is 5:4. The

newspaper has two sections, political and sports.

If 30 percent of the male journalists and 40

percent of the female journalists are covering

political news, what percentage of the journalists

(approx.) in the newspaper is currently involved in

sports reporting?

a) 60%

b) 65%

c) 71%

d) 70%

Q.28) Find the total number of digits used in

numbering the pages of a book having 488 pages

a) 990

b) 1356

c) 1435

d) 1530




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Q.29) If the number 841*747 is completely

divisible by 9, then what is the smallest whole

number that should come in place of *?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 7

d) 9

Q.30) A group of 900 men has provisions for 60

days. After 28 days, a reinforcement of 300 men

comes. The food will last for how many days

more?

a) 21 days

b) 24 days

c) 27 days

d) 35 days

Q.31) N is the greatest number which divides

1305, 4665 and 6905 and gives the same

remainder in each case. What is the sum of the

digits in N?

a) 2

b) 5

c) 6

d) 8

Q.32) The average of 7 consecutive numbers is P.

If the next three numbers are also added, the

average shall

a) remain unchanged

b) increase by 1

c) increase by 1.5

d) increase by 2

Q.33) If the product of n positive integers is nn,

then their sum is

a) a negative integer

b) equal to n

c) equal to n + 1/n

d) never less than n2

Q.34) If the product of the integers a, b, c and d is

3094 and if l < a < b < c < d, what is the product of

b and c?

a) 91

b) 106

c) 221

d) 189

Q.35) There are five houses P, Q, R, S and T. P is

right of Q and T is left of R and right of P. Q is right

of S. Which house is in the middle?

a) P

b) Q

c) T

d) R

Q.36) On a straight road, car X and car Y are

traveling at different constant rates. If car X is now

2 km ahead of car Y, how much time from now will

car X be 4km ahead of car Y?

Statement I: Car X is traveling at 45 km/hr and car

Y is traveling at 30 km/hr.

Statement II: 6 minutes ago, car X was 1/2 km

ahead of car Y

a) Statement I alone is sufficient, but

statement II alone is not sufficient.

b) Statement II alone is sufficient, but

statement I alone is not sufficient

c) Both statements together are sufficient,

but neither statement alone is sufficient

d) Each statement alone is sufficient




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Q.37) How is J related to N?

Statement I: R is the brother of J and N is the son

of R.

Statement II: J is the sister of R and N is the son of

R.

Statement III: O is cousin brother of N and J’s only

son

a) Either Statement I or II alone is sufficient

b) Only Statement II alone is sufficient

c) Only Statement III alone is sufficient

d) Data insufficient

Q.38) Three friends had a lunch at the restaurant.

When the bill was received Arjun paid 2/3 of the

amount paid by Sanjay and Sanjay paid 1/2 of the

amount Manish had paid. What fraction of the bill

did Sanjay pay?

a) 3/4

b) 3/11

c) 4/11

d) 5/13

Q.39) Find the two digit number whose unit’s digit

is smaller than its ten’s digit by 4, and if the

number was divided by the digit’s sum, the

quotient would be 7

a) 51

b) 73

c) 40

d) 84

Q.40) Find the missing letters in the given pattern

c_bba__cab_ac_ab_ac

a) bcbac

b) cabcb

c) accbc

d) acbcb

Q.41) The ratio of metal 1 and metal 2 in Alloy A is

3:4. In Alloy B same metals are mixed in the ratio

5:8. If 26 kg of Alloy B and 14 kg of Alloy A are

mixed then find out the ratio of metal 1 and metal

2 in the new Alloy.

a) 3:2

b) 2:5

c) 2:3

d) 5:3

e)

Q.42) If 2, a, b, c, d, e, f and 65 forms an arithmetic

progression, find out the value of ‘e’.

a) 48

b) 41

c) 47

d) 39

Q.43) A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be

formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

without repetition. The total number of ways in

which this can be done is:

a) 220

b) 600

c) 240

d) 216

Q.44) A rectangular piece of paper is 22 cm long

and 10 cm wide. A cylinder is formed by rolling the

paper along its length. Find the volume of the

cylinder.

a) 175 cm3

b) 180 cm3

c) 385 cm3

d) 195 cm3




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following five passages and answer the

items that follow. Your answers to these items

should be based on the passages only.

Passage 1

Brown et al. (2001) suggest that ‘metabolic theory

may provide a conceptual foundation for much of

ecology just as genetic theory provides a

foundation for much of evolutionary biology’. One

of the successes of genetic theory is the diversity

of theoretical approaches and models that have

been developed and applied. A Web of Science (v.

5.9. Thomson Reuters) search on genetic* +

theor* + evol* identifies more than 12000

publications between 2005 and 2012. Considering

only the 10 most-cited papers within this 12000

publication set, genetic theory can be seen to

focus on genome dynamics, phylogenetic

inference, game theory and the regulation of gene

expression. There is no one fundamental genetic

equation, but rather a wide array of genetic

models, ranging from simple to complex, with

differing inputs and outputs, and divergent areas

of application, loosely connected to each other

through the shared conceptual foundation of

heritable variation.

Q.45) Which of the following best captures the

essence of the passage?

a) Genetic theory has a wide range of

theoretical approaches and applications

and metabolic theory must have the same

in the field of ecology.

b) Genetic theory has a wide range of

theoretical approaches and application

and is foundational to evolutionary biology

and metabolic theory has the potential to

do the same for ecology.

c) Genetic theory provides an example of

how a range of theoretical approaches and

applications can make a theory successful.

d) Genetic theory has evolved to spawn a

wide range of theoretical models and

applications but metabolic theory need not

evolve in a similar manner in the field of

ecology.

Passage 2

Aesthetic political representation urges us to

realize that ‘the representative has autonomy with

regard to the people represented’ but autonomy

then is not an excuse to abandon one’s

responsibility. Aesthetic autonomy requires

cultivation of ‘disinterestedness’ on the part of

actors which is not indifference. To have

disinterestedness, that is, to have comportment

towards the beautiful that is devoid of all ulterior

references to use – requires a kind of aesthetic

commitment; it is the liberation of ourselves for

the release of what has proper worth only in itself.

Q.46) Which among the following is the most

logical inference that can be drawn from the

passage?

a) Disinterestedness is different from

indifference as the former means a non-

subjective evaluation of things which is

what constitutes aesthetic political

representation.

b) Aesthetic political representation

advocates autonomy for the

representatives drawing from

disinterestedness, which itself is different

from indifference.

c) Disinterestedness, as distinct from

indifference, is the basis of political

representation.




CSAT Test - 1

2021

d) Aesthetic political representation

advocates autonomy for the

representatives manifested through

disinterestedness which itself is different

from indifference.

Passage 3

The dominant hypotheses in modern science

believe that language evolved to allow humans to

exchange factual information about the physical

world. But an alternative view is that language

evolved, in modern humans at least, to facilitate

social bonding. It increased our ancestors’ chances

of survival by enabling them to hunt more

successfully or to cooperate more extensively.

Language meant that things could be explained

and that plans and past experiences could be

shared efficiently.

Q.47) Which of the following best captures the

essence of the passage?

a) From the belief that humans invented

language to process factual information,

scholars now thinks that language was the

outcome of the need to ensure social

cohesion and thus human survival.

b) Since its origin, language has been

continuously evolving to higher forms,

from being used to identify objects to

ensuring human survival by enabling our

ancestors to bond and cooperate.

c) Experts are challenging the narrow view of

the origin of language, as being merely

used to describe facts and label objects, to

being necessary to promote more complex

interactions among humans.

d) Most believe that language originated

from a need to articulate facts, but others

think it emerged from the need to promote

social cohesion and cooperation, thus

enabling human survival.

Passage 4

I’ve been following the economic crisis for more

than two years now. I began working on the

subject as part of the background to a novel, and

soon realized that I had stumbled across the most

interesting story I’ve ever found. While I was

beginning to work on it, the British bank Northern

Rock blew up, and it became clear that, as I wrote

at the time, “If our laws are not extended to

control the new kinds of super-powerful, super-

complex, and potentially super-risky investment

vehicles, they will one day cause a financial

disaster of global-systemic proportions.” I was

both right and too late, because all the

groundwork for the crisis had already been done—

though the sluggishness of the world’s

governments, in not preparing for the great

unravelling of autumn 2008, was then and still is

stupefying. But this is the first reason why I wrote

this book: because what’s happened is

extraordinarily interesting. It is an absolutely

amazing story, full of human interest and drama,

one whose byways of mathematics, economics,

and psychology are both central to the story of the

last decades and mysteriously unknown to the

general public. We have heard a lot about “the two

cultures” of science and the arts—we heard a

particularly large amount about it in 2009,

because it was the fiftieth anniversary of the

speech during which C. P. Snow first used the

phrase. But I’m not sure the idea of a huge gap

between science and the arts is as true as it was

half a century ago—it’s certainly true, for instance,

that a general reader who wants to pick up an

education in the fundamentals of science will find




CSAT Test - 1

2021

it easier than ever before. It seems to me that

there is a much bigger gap between the world of

finance and that of the general public and that

there is a need to narrow that gap, if the financial

industry is not to be a kind of priesthood,

administering to its own mysteries and feared and

resented by the rest of us. Many bright, literate

people have no idea about all sorts of economic

basics, of a type that financial insiders take as

elementary facts of how the world works. I am an

outsider to finance and economics, and my hope is

that I can talk across that gulf.

My need to understand is the same as yours,

whoever you are. That’s one of the strangest

ironies of this story: after decades in which the

ideology of the Western world was personally and

economically individualistic, we’ve suddenly been

hit by a crisis which shows in the starkest terms

that whether we like it or not—and there are large

parts of it that you would have to be crazy to like—

we’re all in this together. The aftermath of the

crisis is going to dominate the economics and

politics of our societies for at least a decade to

come and perhaps longer.

Q.48) According to the passage, the author is likely

to be supportive of which one of the following

programmes?

a) An educational curriculum that promotes

economic research.

b) An educational curriculum that promotes

developing financial literacy in the masses.

c) The complete nationalisation of all

financial institutions.

d) Economic policies that are more sensitively

calibrated to the fluctuations of the

market.

Q.49) All of the following, if true, could be seen as

supporting the arguments in the passage, except:

a) The story of the economic crisis is also one

about international relations, global

financial security, and mass psychology.

b) Economic crises could be averted by

changing prevailing ideologies and beliefs.

c) The failure of economic systems does not

necessarily mean the failure of their

ideologies.

d) The difficulty with understanding financial

matters is that they have become so

arcane.

Passage 5

With the Treaty of Westphalia, the papacy had

been confined to ecclesiastical functions, and the

doctrine of sovereign equality reigned. What

political theory could then explain the origin and

justify the functions of secular political order? In

his Leviathan, published in 1651, three years after

the Peace of Westphalia, Thomas Hobbes

provided such a theory. He imagined a “state of

nature” in the past when the absence of authority

produced a “war of all against all.” To escape such

intolerable insecurity, he theorized, people

delivered their rights to a sovereign power in

return for the sovereign’s provision of security for

all within the state’s border. The sovereign state’s

monopoly on power was established as the only

way to overcome the perpetual fear of violent

death and war.

Q.50) Which among the following best captures

the essence of the passage?

a) Thomas Hobbes theorized the voluntary

surrender of rights by people as essential

for emergence of sovereign states.

b) Thomas Hobbes theorized the emergence

of sovereign states as a form of




CSAT Test - 1

2021

transactional governance to limit the

power of the papacy.

c) Thomas Hobbes theorized the emergence

of sovereign states based on a

transactional relationship between people

and sovereign state that was necessitated

by a sense of insecurity of the people.

d) Thomas Hobbes theorized that sovereign

states emerged out of people’s voluntary

desire to overcome the sense of insecurity

and establish the doctrine of sovereign

equality.

Q.51) When in each box 5 or 6 dozens of apples

were packed, three dozens were left. Therefore,

bigger boxes were taken to pack 8 or 9 dozens of

apples. However, still dozens of apples remained.

What was the least number of dozens of apples to

be packed?

a) 343 dozens

b) 361 dozens

c) 363 dozens

d) 365 dozens

Q.52) There are four prime numbers written in

ascending order of magnitude. The product of the

first three is 7429 and last three is 12673. Find the

first number.

a) 19

b) 17

c) 13

d) 11

Q.53) Three partners shared the profit in a

business in the ratio 4:6:8. They had partnered for

12 months, 8 months and 6 months respectively.

What was the ratio of their investments?

a) 4:6:8

b) 4:7:8

c) 4:8:16

d) 4:9:16

Q.54) The speed of a stream is 1 kmph. A motor

boat goes 35 km upstream and back to the starting

point in 12 hours. The speed of the motor boat in

still water is

a) 8 kmph

b) 6 kmph

c) 7.5 kmph

d) 6.5 kmph

Q.55) The L.C.M of two numbers is 495 and their

H.C.F is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 100, then

their difference is

a) 10

b) 46

c) 70

d) 90

Q.56) When 0.36 is written in simplest form, the

sum of the numerator and the denominator is:

a) 15

b) 34

c) 64

d) 13

Q.57) 2 men and 7 boys can build a museum in 14

days; 3 men and 8 boys can build it in 11 days.

Then, 8 men and 6 boys can build three such

museums in how many days?

a) 18 days

b) 21 days

c) 24 days

d) 30 days




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2021

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the



Passage 1

It is notable that power major NTPC has joined

hands with oil giant IOC to set up a series of

electric vehicle (EV) charging stations in cities and

along highways. There is much potential for India

to emerge as a leader in small and public EVs,

given high latent demand. The benefits in reducing

demand for imported crude oil can be huge, apart

from reducing carbon emissions and other air

pollutants.

The most effective way to bring down carbon

emissions and pollution from transport is to vastly

expand and improve public transport — buses are

just 2% of the vehicles on the road. That said, there

is much scope to replace India’s giant fleet of two-

wheelers with electric bikes. India has over 170

million two-wheelers, and sales data from the last

six years show that 79% of on-road vehicles here

are two-wheelers. It would make perfect sense to

boost supply of EVs, especially two-wheelers, e-

rickshaws, tempos and small cars, so as to

complement and supplement public transport

going forward. Estimates suggest that by meeting

a rising part of the incremental demand for

mobility, EVs can lead to macroeconomic benefits,

and sooner rather than later. Assuming only about

half a litre of petrol consumption per two-wheeler

daily, or about 200 litres annually, the volumes

would add up to over 30 billion litres. And the bill

for which, at current prices, would amount to well

over Rs 2 lakh crore.

In tandem, we need power reforms to rev up

utility realisations and strengthen the grid. India

also has an opportunity in supplying on-board

electric batteries. Swapping services to provide

charged batteries on lease would step-up diffusion

of EVs. A power-electronics industry ecosystem

would raise production and provide high-

efficiency subsystems for EVs. India must not miss

the bus on EVs.

Q.58) “There is much potential for India to emerge

as a leader in small and public EVs, given high

latent demand.” What can be logically deducted

from the given sentence?

1. Electric vehicles are less in developed

countries as compared to India.

2. India has not yet adopted electric vehicles

fully.

3. Indians are already demanding a huge

number of electric vehicles.

Choose the correct option

a) Only statement 3 is correct

b) Only statement 2 is correct

c) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

d) All the statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Q.59) From the given information, the tone of the

passage can be deduced as

a) Sarcastic

b) Caustic

c) Cynical

d) Laudatory




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2021

Passage 2

The “who’s who” of universities and research

institutions published by the Human Resource

Development Ministry, as the National

Institutional Ranking Framework, 2018, should be

viewed mainly as a proposition that data makes it

possible to assign objective credentials to some

aspects of education. Its assessment of some of

the top institutions such as the Indian Institute of

Science, the Jawaharlal Nehru University, the IITs

and the IIMs is unsurprising, given their record of

research, peer-reviewed publications and

outcomes for graduates.

Even among the 3,954 institutions that

participated, there is a clear skew towards

southern, south-eastern and western India.

Participation levels are inadequate: there were

40,026 colleges and 11,669 standalone institutions

according to the HRD Ministry’s All India Survey on

Higher Education for 2016-17.

To the faculty and students in many colleges, what

matters is the vision of the administrative leaders

and a commitment to excellence. The governing

bodies should make available adequate financial

and academic resources to colleges, particularly

the younger ones, to help them improve

performance. These are measured by the NIRF in

terms of the percentage of faculty with doctoral

degrees, papers published in credentialed

journals, inclusivity and diversity of students, and

median salaries for the graduates.

Q.60) What does the author mean when he refers

to the universities and institutions as “Who’s

who”?

a) He is trying to understand ‘who’ the list

prepared by NIRF consists of

b) He is referring to the top institutions

among all institutions mentioned in the list

prepared by NIRF

c) He is asking the reader to fathom ‘who’

developed the list and the reasons behind

it

d) Both a and c

Q.61) Which of the following can be logically

deducted from the given passage?

1. There was a huge amount of participation

seen in NIRF 2018.

2. The ranking approach has been critiqued

for failing to capture the crucial metric of

learning outcomes.

3. NIRF’s assessment of the top notch

institutions was expected.

Chose the correct code

a) Only statement 3 is correct

b) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

c) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

d) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Passage 3

Nature writing is nonfiction or fiction prose or

poetry about the natural environment. Nature

writing encompasses a wide variety of works,

ranging from those that place primary emphasis

on natural history facts (such as field guides) to

those in which philosophical interpretation

predominate. It includes natural history essays,

poetry, essays of solitude or escape, as well as

travel and adventure writing.

Nature writing often draws heavily on scientific

information and facts about the natural world; at

the same time, it is frequently written in the first

person and incorporates personal observations of

and philosophical reflections upon nature.

Modern nature writing traces its roots to the

works of natural history that were popular in the

second half of the 18th century and throughout

the 19th. An important early figure was the

"parson-naturalist" Gilbert White (1720 – 1793), a

pioneering English naturalist and ornithologist. He

is best known for his Natural History and

Antiquities of Selborne (1789).

Q.62) Which of the following statement best

summarizes the above passage?

a) The passage talks about the life and lessons

of Gilbert White, a profound naturalist and

ornithologist.

b) The passage talks about how the nature

writing is missing in the modern era and

needs to be revived.

c) The passage talks about from where the

writers draw inspiration for nature writing,

and how its importance is diminishing in

the modern era.

d) The passage talks about what nature

writing is, the different type of nature

writing, its style, and about the roots and

pioneer of modern nature writing.

Passage 4

Many sociologists have argued that there is

functional relationship between education and

economic system. They point to the fact that mass

formal education began in industrial society. They

note that the expansion of the economies of

industrial societies is accompanied by a

corresponding expansion of their educational

systems. They explain this correspondence in

terms of the needs of industry for skilled and

trained manpower, needs which are met by the

educational system. Thus, the provision of mass

elementary education in Britain in 1870 can be

seen as a response to the needs of industry for a

literate and numerate workforce at a time when

industrial processes were becoming more complex

and the demand for technical skills was steadily

growing.

Q.63) The industry needs a literate work-force

because

a) its expansion needs sound learning

b) it relies heavily on expertise

c) it promotes a competitive spirit

d) its operations need intricate technical

knowledge

Q.64) How many integers, greater than 999 but

not greater than 4000, can be formed with the

digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, if repetition of digits is

allowed?

a) 376

b) 375

c) 500

d) 673




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Q.65) If the price of a book is first decreased by

25% and then increased by 20%, then the net

change in the price will be:

a) 90

b) 20

c) 30

d) 40

Directions for the following two questions: Each

of the questions below starts with a few

statements, followed by four conclusions

numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to consider every

given statement as true, even if it does not

conform to the accepted facts. Read the

conclusions carefully and then decide which of the

conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given

statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q.66) Statements:

I: Some boys are scholars

II: Some teachers are boys

III: All scholars are observers

Conclusions:

I: Some scholars are boys

II: Some scholars are not boys

III: Some observers are boys

IV: Some teachers are scholars

a) Only conclusion I and conclusion III follow

b) Either conclusion I or II and conclusion III

follow

c) Conclusions I, III, and IV follow


Q.67) Statements:

I: All teachers are professors

II: All professors are researchers

III: All researchers are consultants

Conclusions:

I: Some consultants are teachers

II: All professors are consultants

III: Some researchers are teachers

IV: All professors are teachers

a) Only conclusion I and conclusion II follow

b) Either conclusion I or conclusion IV follow

c) Only conclusion I and conclusion III follow


Q.68) In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of

two contestants A and B is 3:4. A has a start of 140

m. Then, A wins by:

a) 60m

b) 40m

c) 20m

d) 10m

Q.69) At a game of billiards, A can give B, 15 points

in 60 and A can give C, 20 points in 60. How many

points can B give C in a game of 90?

a) 30 points

b) 20 points

c) 10 points

d) 12 points

Q.70) The price of commodity X increases by 40

paise every year while the price of commodity Y

increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the

price of commodity X was Rs 4.20 and that of Y was

Rs 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40

paise more than the commodity Y?

a) 2010

b) 2011

c) 2012




CSAT Test - 1

2021

d) 2013

Q.71) There are two examination rooms A and B.

If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the

number of students in each room is the same. If 20

candidates are sent from B to A, then the number

of students in A is double the number of students

in B. The number of students in room A is:

a) 25

b) 60

c) 100

d) 120

Q.72) The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If

the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed

respectively in their salaries, then what will be new

ratio of their salaries?

a) 3 : 3 : 10

b) 10 : 11 : 20

c) 23 : 33 : 60

d) Cannot be determined

Q.73) What is the speed of the train?

Statement I: The train crosses a signal pole in 18

seconds.

Statement II: The train crosses a platform of equal

length in 36 seconds.

Statement III: Length of the train is 330 metres.

a) Statement I and II only are sufficient

b) Statement II and III only are sufficient

c) Statement I and III only are sufficient

d) Statement III and either Statements I or II

are sufficient

Q.74) Abhi faces towards north. Turning to his

right, he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left

and walks 30 metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to

his right. He then turns to his right again and walks

55 metres. Finally, he turns to the right and moves

40 metres. In which direction is he now from his

starting point?

a) South-west

b) South

c) North-west

d) South-east

Q.75) Two dice are tossed at the same time. The

probability that the total score is a prime number

is:

a) 1/15

b) 5/12

c) 3/14

d) 6/15

Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the



Passage 1

India on Sunday rejected Pakistan’s allegation that

it had sought to “politicize” deliberations at the

Financial Action Task Force (FATF), which

concluded its plenary last week with more

strictures against Pakistan. According to sources,

the government has taken a strong view of

Pakistan’s accusation that India had launched a

“malicious campaign” to use the FATF’s process

for its own “narrow, partisan objectives” against




CSAT Test - 1

2021

Pakistan. Pakistan’s Foreign Ministry was, in turn,

responding to India’s statement that time was

running out for Islamabad to show action “Against

Money Laundering and Combating Financing of

Terror (AML/CFT)” by groups that pose a

transnational risk.

Calling Pakistan’s statement on politicisation a

“false ploy” meant to “deflect attention and evade

scrutiny of Pakistan’s poor compliance of global

standards on AML/CFT and hoodwink the global

community”, the government sources pointed to

Pakistan’s own attempts at trying to influence the

outcome of the FATF process, which has placed

the neighbour on a “grey list” of countries of

concern. In June 2018, the FATF decided

unanimously to put Pakistan on the grey list, and

hand it a 27-point action plan meant to be

implemented within 18 months (by September

2019). If it fails to fulfil its FATF commitments, it

could face the “next steps” or being moved to the

“blacklist”, the FATF has warned.

The sources say that instead of moving seriously

on the checklist, including shutting down support

for groups such as the Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-

e-Mohammad, Pakistan’s leadership has been

trying to influence FATF member countries for

support. At the most recent FATF plenary, where

proceedings are meant to be secret and taken by

consensus, Pakistan is believed to have received

the backing of China, Turkey and Malaysia to avert

being put on the blacklist immediately.

Q.76) Which among the following is correct

regarding the view of the FATF regarding Pakistan,

as given in the passage?

a) FATF has decided to ensure that there is no

such country called Pakistan with terrorist

origins so that other countries can be safe.

b) FATF believes that Pakistan should

implement strict measures against the

terrorist groups in their country.

c) FATF believes that India has no role to play

in the terrorist group funding in Pakistan

though Pakistan has alleged so.

d) FATF has warned India against bringing any

malicious proposal to the board of the

FATF in case Pakistan is the beneficiary.

Q.77) Which among the following can be

understood regarding the functioning of FATF

from the given passage?

1. FATF has no mechanism of putting

sanctions of any country without giving

them at least a couple of warnings.

2. FATF has got a particular time frame within

which a country that has been put under

observation should get into action and do

something worthwhile.

3. FATF works on the principle of consensus

between the member countries whenever

it comes to taking any important decision.

Choose the correct statements from below

a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

b) Both statements 2 and 3 are correct

c) Only statement 3 is correct

d) Both statements 1 and 3 are correct

Passage 2

By winning the unanimous endorsement of the 55-

nation Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations

Security Council, India has cleared an important

hurdle in its quest for a non-permanent seat for

2021-22. The decision of the grouping this week

was taken as India was the sole candidate for the

post. In the next step, all 193 members of the UN




CSAT Test - 1

2021

General Assembly will vote for five non-

permanent seats in June 2020, when India will

need to show the support of at least 129 countries

to go through to the UNSC. It will then occupy the

seat at the UNSC for a two-year period, as it has

previously on seven occasions since 1950-51.

There are several reasons why India decided to

pursue its candidature for 2021-22. The

government at the time had felt it was necessary

to have India’s voice at the high table as many

times as possible, and therefore began the process

for another seat shortly after it had ended its

previous tenure in 2011-2012. By rotation, that

seat would have reached India only in the 2030s,

and India had to reach out to Afghanistan, which

had put in its bid already for the 2021-22 slots, to

request it to withdraw. Afghanistan did so because

of the special relationship between the two

countries. India has a unique role to play at the

UNSC, given the near-complete polarization

among the permanent members (P-5 nations),

with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and

Russia and China on the other. India’s ability to

work with both sides is well known. The year 2022

also has a sentimental value attached to it, as it

marks the 75th year of India’s Independence, and

a place at the UNSC would no doubt add to the

planned celebrations that year. Since 2013, when

it first announced the bid, the government has run

a quiet but consistent campaign towards this goal.

Q.78) Which among the following is the correct

equation between the P-5 Nations at the United

Nations Security Council?

a) The nations always support one another in

any endeavour by the global body on its

agenda.

b) The nations are divided among one

another since they do not find any

common solution to all the problems.

c) The nations are divided into two camps

and they are at odds with each other on

various issues.

d) The UNSC members are mainly concerned

about the broad security issues of the

world since they are tasked with that.

Passage 3

The RBI Annual Report reveals that almost all

demonetized notes have been returned to the

central bank. This number does not include the old

notes with District Central Cooperative Banks for

the short window when they were allowed to

accept deposits. It also does not include the notes

within Nepal. The shortfall of Rs 16,050 crore

between the notes in circulation when the notes

were demonetised and those that were returned,

could therefore also be made up once these notes

are returned to the RBI.

It should come as no surprise that almost all the

notes have been returned, including the stock of

black money held as cash. To the extent that it was

possible to exchange money legally, individuals did

so. When cash limits for withdrawal made it

difficult, friends and families participated. The

inconvenience of long queues was overcome by

household staff. A private company offered

booking of “chhotus”, who would stand in long

queues for people for Rs 90 an hour until their turn

came. Bank employees were averse to being

unhelpful to regular customers and found ways to

serve them. Innumerable ways were found to

work around the changing rules of exchange, cash

limits, indelible ink and specified uses of old notes.

Q.79) Which among the following can’t be inferred

from the given passage?

a) The notes returned include some stock of

black money as well.




CSAT Test - 1

2021

b) People came up with many innovative

ideas for exchanging money.

c) Bank employees were generally unhelpful

and reluctant to even serve their regular

customers.

d) Demonetization was utilized as a new

business opportunity.

Q.80) As per the passage, which factors are

responsible for the shortfall between notes before

demonetization and notes returned?

a) Old notes from neighbouring nations like

Nepal, Bangladesh and Pakistan.

b) Notes were smuggled overseas via hawala

transactions.

c) Money was laundered via fraudulent

investment in real estate.

d) Old notes that were deposited with District

Central Cooperative Banks were not

included.


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