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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015
Path to Success
CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)
T M
FORM NUMBER
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)
PAPER CODE
ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 18 - 03 - 2015
0 1 C M 4 1 4 1 0 1
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015
Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001 [email protected]
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
INSTRUCTIONS ()
www.allen.ac.in
LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT
Hindi
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /
TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 1
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.
Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail
1 4
(Phase - MLH & MAZ)
PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units,
Dimensions and MeasurementKinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a
plane)
Laws of Motion and Friction
Work, Energy & Power and Circular Motion
Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass
Rotational Motion
CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry
Structure of Atom
States of Matter : Gases and Liquids
Thermodynamics
Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium & Ionic Equilibrium)
Solid State
Solutions
BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World :
(i) The living world
(ii) Biological Classification
(iii) Plant Kingdom
(iv) Animal Kingdom
Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :
(i) Morphology of Flowering plants
(ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants
(iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach
Structure and Functions :
(i) Cell : The Unit of Life
(ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm)
(iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division
ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 18 - 03 - 2015
SYLLABUS – 1
LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLH & MAZ)
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
H-1/42Kota/01CM414101
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. Angle between the vectors ˆ ˆ ˆa i 2 j k
and
ˆ ˆ ˆb i x j (x 1)k
is :
(1) 90° (2) 0°
(3) obtuse angle (4) acute angle
2. A player throws a ball that reaches to the another
player in 4s. If the height of each player is 1.5m,
the maximum height attained by the ball from the
ground level is :
(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m
(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m
3. Velocity–time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg
moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.
Work done by all the forces on the particle is :
(1) 400 J
(2) –400 J
2
20
v (m/s)
t (s)(3) –200 J
(4) 200 J
4. Two springs A and B having spring constants
kA = 2k
B, are stretched by applying force of equal
magnitude. If energy stored in spring A is EA, then
energy stored is B will be :-
(1) 2 EA
(2) EA/4
(3) EA/2 (4) 4 E
A
5. A simple pendulum is oscillating without damping
when the displacement of the bob is less than
maximum, its acceleration vector a is correctly
shown in :-
(1)
a
(2)
a
(3) a (4)
a
1. ˆ ˆ ˆa i 2 j k
ˆ ˆ ˆb i x j (x 1)k
(1) 90° (2) 0°
(3) (4)
2.
4
1.5
(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m
(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m
3. (1) 400 J
(2) –400 J
2
20
v (m/s)
t (s)(3) –200 J
(4) 200 J
4. A B kA = 2k
B
A
EA B :-
(1) 2 EA
(2) EA/4
(3) EA/2 (4) 4 E
A
5. ( a
(1)
a
(2)
a
(3) a (4)
a
Kota/01CM414101H-2/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
6. When the following three forces of 50 N, 30 N
and 15 N act on a body, then the body is :
(1) at rest
(2) moving with a uniform velocity
(3) in equilibrium
(4) moving with an acceleration
7. Two balls are projected from the same point
simultaneously. First ball is projected vertically
upwards and the second ball at an angle of
projection 60° to the ground level. Both the balls
reach the ground simultaneously. The ratio of their
velocities are :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
8. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light
spring of force constant k and unstretched length
. The system is rotated about the other end of the
spring with an angular velocity , in gravity free
space. The increase in length of the spring will be–
Km
w
(1) 2m
k
(2)
2
2
m
k m
(3) 2
2
m
k m
(4) None of these
9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top
of a tower at 4.9 ms–1. It strikes the pond near the
base of the tower after 3 seconds. The height of
the tower is :-
(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m
(3) 29.4 m (4) None of these
10. Select the incorrect statement :-
(1) The potential energy is defined for
conservative forces only
(2) The net work done by kinetic friction may be
negative and positive
(3) The work done by pseudo force may be zero,
positive or negative
(4) The work done by a spring force is always
positive
6. 50 , 30 15 (1) (2) (3) (4)
7. 60°
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3
8. m k
Km
w
(1) 2m
k
(2)
2
2
m
k m
(3) 2
2
m
k m
(4)
9. 4.9 ms–1
3 :-
(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m
(3) 29.4 m (4) None of these
10. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
H-3/42Kota/01CM414101
11. A bird is flying towards north with a velocity
40 km/hr and a train is moving with velocity
40 km/hr towards east. What is the velocity of the
bird noted by a man in the train ?
(1) 40 2 km/hr north-east
(2) 40 2 km/hr south-east
(3) 40 2 km/hr north-west
(4) 40 2 km/hr south-west
12. An enemy plane is flying horizontally at an
altitude of 2 km with a speed of 300 m/s. An army
person with an anti-aircraft gun on the ground
sights the enemy plane when it is directly overhead
and fires a shell with a muzzle speed of
600 m/s. At what angle with the vertical should
the gun be fired so as to hit the plane ?
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) none of these
13. A small block slides with velocity 0.5 gr on the
horizontal frictionless surface as shown in the
figure. The block leaves the surface at point C.
The angle in the figure is :
(1) 1 4
cos9
(2) 1 3
cos4
r
AB
v0
C
O
r mgvC
D
(3) 1 1
cos2
(4) 1 4
cos2r
14. If block is sliding down on a smooth fixed inclined
plane as shown in the figure then net force acting
on the wedge due to block is :-
(1)mg
cos(2) mg
(3) mgcos (4) None of these
11. 40 /40 /
(1) 40 2 /
(2) 40 2 /
(3) 40 2 /
(4) 40 2 /
12. 2 300 /
600 /
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4)
13.
0.5 gr C
(1) 1 4
cos9
(2) 1 3
cos4
r
AB
v0
C
O
r mgvC
D
(3) 1 1
cos2
(4) 1 4
cos2r
14.
m
(1)mg
cos(2) mg
(3) mgcos (4)
Kota/01CM414101H-4/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
15. A uniform rod AB of length 7m is undergoing
combined rotational and translational motion such
that at some instant of time, velocities of its end
points A and centre C are both perpendicular to
the rod and opposite in direction, having
magnitudes 11m/s and 3 m/s respectively as
shown in the figure
3m/sC
A
B
11m/s
Velocity of center C and angular velocity of the
rod remain constant then which statement is
incorrect
(1) acceleration of point A is 56 m/s2
(2) acceleration of point B is 56 m/s2
(3) at the instant shown in the figure acceleration
of point B is more than that of point A
(4) angular velocity of the rod is 4 rad/s
16. A particle is moving from rest with constant
acceleration 4m/s2 for some time and then retards
with 2m/s2 for some time and finally comes to rest.
The total time during the motion is 12s. The
maximum velocity of the particle is:
(1) 16 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s
17. The position of a particle moving along a straight
line is given by x(t) = A
B(1–e–At) where B is
constant and A > 0. The dimensions of 3A
B is
same as
(1) linear momentum
(2) moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity
(4) acceleration
18. A ball of mass m falls from a height h on a floor
for which the coefficient of restitution is 1
2. The
height attained by the ball after two rebounds is :-
(1) h
4(2)
h
2(3)
h
16(4)
h
8
15. AB 7m A C 11m/s–1
3 m/s–1
3m/sC
A
B
11m/s
c
(1) A 56 m/s2
(2) B 56 m/s2
(3)B A
(4) 4 rad/s
16. 4 /2 2 /2
12
(1) 16 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s
17.
x(t)=A
B(1–e–At) B
A > 0 3A
B
(1) (2) (3) (4)
18. m h
1
2
:-
(1) h
4(2)
h
2(3)
h
16(4)
h
8
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
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19. A variable force (24t2 – 8t) Newton is acting on
a particle. The impulse imparted to it in first two
seconds will be :
(1) 12 kg-m/s (2) 24 kg-m/s
(3) 36 kg-m/s (4) 48 kg-m/s
20. Two uniform rods of equal length but different
masses are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped
body, which is then pivoted as shown in figure.
If in equilibrium the body is in the shown
configuration, ratio M/m will be :-
90°
30°
m M
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
21. For a particle having initial velocity and
acceleration in different directions :
(1) its path is straight line
(2) its path is always a curve
(3) its speed goes an increasing irrespective of
direction of acceleration
(4) its speed goes on decreasing if direction of
acceleration is reversed
22. Measure of two quantities along with the precision
of respective measuring instrument is:
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
The value of AB will be
(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m (2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m (4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m
23. The coordinate of centre of mass of shown body :-
y
(0,0)
a
a/2
aX
a/2
(1) 13
a,020
(2) a
,02
(3) a
0,2
(4) 3a
,04
19. (24t2 – 8t) :(1) 12 -/ (2) 24 -/(3) 36 -/ (4) 48 -/
20. L- M/m :-
90°
30°
m M
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
21. (1) (2) (3)
(4)
22. :
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
AB :-(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m (2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m (4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m
23. :-y
(0,0)
a
a/2
aX
a/2
(1) 13
a,020
(2) a
,02
(3) a
0,2
(4) 3a
,04
Kota/01CM414101H-6/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
24. A monkey is descending from the branch of a tree
with constant acceleration. If the breaking strength
of branch is 75% of the weight of the monkey,
the minimum acceleration with which the monkey
can slide down without breaking the branch is
(1) g (2) 3g
4(3)
g
4(4)
g
2
25. A square is made by joining four rods each of mass
M and length L. Its moment of inertia about an
axis PQ, in its plane and passing through one of
its corner is :-
P
Q
45°
L
(1) 6ML2 (2) 4
3ML2
(3) 28
ML3
(4) 210
ML3
26. A car starts from rest with an acceleration of
1 m/s2. A man who is 48 m behind the car starts with
a uniform velocity of 10 m/s. Then the minimum
time after which the man will reach the car,
(1) 4 s (2) 8 s
(3) 12 s (4) 16 s
27. A test tube of mass 2m closed with a cork of mass
m contains a drop of liquid of negligible. When
the test tube is heated, the liquid evaporates and
the cork files off under the pressure of the gas.
What must be the minimum velocity with which
the cork must be ejected such that the test tube
describes a full circle of radius R about the pivot?
(Assuming test tube as a point object) :-
(1) 5Rg
(2) 2 5Rg
2m
string
m
R
(3) 2 3Rg
(4) 2 4Rg
24. 75%
(1) g (2) 3g
4(3)
g
4(4)
g
2
25. M L PQ :-
P
Q
45°
L
(1) 6ML2 (2) 4
3ML2
(3) 28
ML3
(4) 210
ML3
26. 1 /2 48 10 /(1) 4 s (2) 8 s
(3) 12 s (4) 16 s
27. 2m m
R (
) :-
(1) 5Rg
(2) 2 5Rg
2m
string
m
R
(3) 2 3Rg
(4) 2 4Rg
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
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28. Pulling force making an angle to the horizontal
is applied on a block of weight W placed on a
horizontal table. If the angle of friction is , the
magnitude of force required to move the body is
equal to :-
(1) Wcos
cos( )
(2)
Wsin
cos( )
(3) W tan
sin( )
(4)
Wsin
tan( )
29. A block is placed on a rough horizontal plane. A
time dependent horizontal force F = kt acts on the
block. Here k is a positive constant. Acceleration–
time graph of the block is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
30. A spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping.
The fraction of its total energy associated with
rotation is :-
(1)3
5(2)
2
7
(3) 2
5(4)
3
7
31. One particle is dropped while another particle is
thrown downwards with an initial velocity of
2m/s, simultaneously. Both these particles are at
a separation of 18 m after time :
(1) 4.5 s (2) 9 s
(3) 9.8 s (4) 18 s
32. The v-t graph of the motion of a wooden block
of mass 1kg is shown in figure. It is given an initial
push at t = 0, along a horizontal table. The
coefficient of friction between the block and table
is (g = 10 ms-2) :-
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
14
0 14
v(ms )–1
t(s)(3) 0.4
(4) Can't be determined
28. W :-
(1) Wcos
cos( )
(2)
Wsin
cos( )
(3) W tan
sin( )
(4)
Wsin
tan( )
29. F = kt k
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
30. :-
(1)3
5(2)
2
7
(3) 2
5(4)
3
7
31. 2 /18 (1) 4.5 (2) 9 (3) 9.8 (4) 18
32. 1kg v-t t = 0 :-(g = 10 ms-2)
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
14
0 14
v(ms )–1
t(s)(3) 0.4
(4)
Kota/01CM414101H-8/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
33. Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line
varies with the velocity of the particle as F = K
V.
Here K is a constant. The work done by this force
in time t is :-
(1) 2
Kt
V(2) 2Kt
(3) Kt (4) 2
2Kt
V
34. A machine which is 75 per cent efficient, uses
12 joules of energy in lifting up a 1 kg mass
through a certain distance. The mass is then
allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity
at the end of its fall is (in m s–1) :-
(1) 24 (2) 32
(3) 18 (4) 9
35. The least coefficient of friction for an inclined
plane inclined at an angle with horizontal, in
order that a solid cyclinder will roll down without
slipping is :-
(1) 2
tan3
(2) 2
tan7
(3) 1
tan3
(4) 4
tan3
36. An aeroplane is flying at a uniform speed
v m/s at a height h from the ground. If the angle
subtended at an observation point on the ground
by two positions (symmetrial about observation
point) of the aeroplane t second apart is , the
height h will be :
(1) v t
tan2 2
(2) 2v t
tan
(3) v t
tan2
(4) v t
2 tan2
33.
F = K
VK
t :-
(1) 2
Kt
V(2) 2Kt
(3) Kt (4) 2
2Kt
V
34. 75 % 1 12
:-
(1) 24 (2) 32
(3) 18 (4) 9
35.
:-
(1) 2
tan3
(2) 2
tan7
(3) 1
tan3
(4) 4
tan3
36. h v t h
(1) v t
tan2 2
(2) 2v t
tan
(3) v t
tan2
(4) v t
2 tan2
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
H-9/42Kota/01CM414101
37. Sixteen beads in a string are placed on a smooth
inclined plane of inclination sin–1(1/3) such that
some of them lie along the incline whereas the rest
hang over the top of the plane. If acceleration of
first bead is g/2, the arrangement of beads is that:-
(1) 12 hang vertically
(2) 10 lie along inclined plane
(3) 8 lie along inclined plane
(4) 10 hang vertically
38. A body of mass M is dropped from a height h on
a sand floor. If the body penetrates x cm into the
sand, the average resistance offered by the sand
to the body is :-
(1) Mgh
x
FHGIKJ (2) Mg
h
x1FHGIKJ
(3) Mgh + Mgx (4) Mgh
x1FHGIKJ
39. The K.E of a body varies directly as the time(t)
elapsed. The force acting varies directly as :-
(1) t–t (2) t–1/2 (3) t1/2 (4) t
40. A rod of uniform mass and of length L can freely
rotate in a vertical plane about an axis passing
through O. The angular velocity of the rod when
it falls from position P to P´ through an angle is:-
PP´
O
(1) 6g
sin5L
(2) 6g
sinL 2
(3)6g
cosL 2
(4)
6gsin
L
37. sin–1(1/3) 16 g/2 :-
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 10
38. M h x :-
(1) Mgh
x
FHGIKJ (2) Mg
h
x1FHGIKJ
(3) Mgh + Mgx (4) Mgh
x1FHGIKJ
39. K.E (t) :-(1) t–t (2) t–1/2 (3) t1/2 (4) t
40. L O P P´ :-
PP´
O
(1) 6g
sin5L
(2) 6g
sinL 2
(3)6g
cosL 2
(4)
6gsin
L
Kota/01CM414101H-10/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
41. A particle moves along a straight line and its
velocity depends on time as v = 4t – t2. In the first
five seconds :
(1) average velocity of the particle is 25/3 m/s
(2) average velocity of the particle is 5/3 m/s
(3) acceleration is 5/3 m/s2 at t = 0
(4) acceleration is 2 m/s2 at t = 0
42. Object A strikes the stationary object B with a
certain given speed u head-on in an elastic
collision. The mass of A is fixed, you may only
choose the mass of B appropriately for following
cases. Then after the collision :-
(1) For B to have the greaters speed, choose
mB = mA
(2) For B to have the greaters momentum, choose
mB >> mA
(3) For B to have the greaters speed, choose
mB << mA
(4) For the maximum fraction of kinetic energy
transfer, choose mB >> mA
43. The potential energy of a system is represented in the
first figure, the force acting on the system will be
represented by :-
(1)
F(x)
ax (2)
F(x)
ax
(3)
F(x)
ax (4)
F(x)
a x
41. v
t v = 4t – t2
(1) 25/3
(2) 5/3
(3) t = 0 5/3 2
(4) t = 0 2 2
42. A, B u
A
B
:-
(1) B mB = mA
(2) B mB >> mA
(3) B mB << mA
(4)
mB >> mA
43.
(1)
F(x)
ax (2)
F(x)
ax
(3)
F(x)
ax (4)
F(x)
a x
Key Filling
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
H-11/42Kota/01CM414101
44. A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries
a mass M at the other end. The string values
2/ revolution per second around the vertical axis
through the fixed end as shown in the figure,then
tension in the string is :-
S
LT
M
R
(1) ML (2) 2ML
(3) 4 ML (4) 16 ML
45. A pulley is connected to the ceiling of an elevator
by a massless rod. Two masses are connected as
shown in figure. There is sufficient friction in the
pulley axis. The acceleration of block w.r.t. earth is:-
(1) 4g
7(upward) (2)
3g
7(upward)
(3) 2g
7(upward) (4)
g
7(upward)
44. L
M
2/
S
LT
M
R
(1) ML (2) 2ML
(3) 4 ML (4) 16 ML
45.
B
:-
(1) 4g
7() (2)
3g
7()
(3) 2g
7() (4)
g
7()
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
Kota/01CM414101H-12/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
46. Find the average weight of molecule of ethyl
alchohol (approximately) :-
(1) 0.8 × 10–23 (2) 0.08 × 10–23
(3) 8 × 10–23 (4) 88 × 10–23
47. The energy of the electrom in the firsa Bohr's orbit
of hydrogen is –13.6 eV. The Possible value of
the energy of the electron in the excited state is:-
(1) –3.4eV (2) –4.2 eV
(3) –6.8 eV (4) +6.8 eV
48. When an aqueous solution of H2O
2 undergoes
electrolysis using platinium electrodes, 96.6 kJ
heat is emitted. What would be the heat of
formation of 1 mol H2O
2?
(1) 96.6 kJ (2) 94.2 kJ
(3) 285 kJ (4) 376.8 kJ
49. A cylinder provided with piston contains PCl5,
PCl3 and Cl2 at equilibrium. If the system is
compressed with the help of piston. Then choose
the correct statement.
(1) Some more PCl5 will be decomposed.
(2) System remains unaffected
(3) PCl3 and Cl2 react to form PCl5
(4) Explosion takes place
50. X+Y– ionic compound keeps bcc structure. The
distance between two nearest ions is 1.73 Å. What
would be the edge length of the unit cell?
(1) 200 pm (2) 3
pm2
(3) 142.2 pm (4) 2 pm
51. The solubility of pottassium sulphate at 50°C is
16. What is the weight of water required to
dissolved 4 gm. of the salt at this temperature?
(1) 250 gm. (2) 100 gm.
(3) 25 gm. (4) 10 gm.
52. The uncertainty in position for the electron and
He particle is the same. Tha uncertainty in
momentum for the electron is 32 × 105. What
would be the uncertainty in momentum for the
He particle :-
(1) 32 × 105 (2) 16 × 105
(3) 8 × 105 (4) None
46. ():-
(1) 0.8 × 10–23 (2) 0.08 × 10–23
(3) 8 × 10–23 (4) 88 × 10–23
47. –13.6 eV :-(1) –3.4eV (2) –4.2 eV
(3) –6.8 eV (4) +6.8 eV
48. H2O2
96.6 kJ 1
H2O2 :-
(1) 96.6 kJ (2) 94.2 kJ
(3) 285 kJ (4) 376.8 kJ
49. PCl5, PCl
3 Cl
2
(Compressed)
:-
(1) PCl5
(2)
(3) PCl3 Cl2 PCl5(4)
50. X+Y– bcc
1.73 Å
:-
(1) 200 pm (2) 3
pm2
(3) 142.2 pm (4) 2 pm
51. 50°C 16, 4 :-(1) 250 (2) 100 (3) 25 (4) 10
52. He
e– 32 × 105 He
:-
(1) 32 × 105 (2) 16 × 105
(3) 8 × 105 (4)
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
H-13/42Kota/01CM414101
53. For the A B process :
Given : H = +ve, S = –ve, TS > H
which of the following statement is correct :-
(1) Process A B is spontaneous
(2) Process B A is non–spontaneous
(3) Process B A is spontaneous
(4) All the above are false
54. If for the reaction : A B
Ef = energy of activation for the forward reaction
Er = energy of activation for the backward reaction
For the exothermic reaction :
(1) Ef > Er (2) Ef < Er
(3) Ef = E
r(4) None
55. The structure of ionic compoundA+B– is identical
to NaCl. If the edge length is 400 pm and the
cation redius is 75 pm. Then evaluate the radius
of anion.
(1) 100 pm (2) 125 pm
(3) 250 pm (4) 325 pm
56. Molecular weight of dibasic acid is 40 and
equivalent weight of mono acid base is 20.
If 4 gm. of each compound is taken in a litre of
water, the solution is :-
(1) Acidic (2) Neutral
(3) Less Basic (4) Of pH = 14
57. Electron is moving with a velocity of 106 m/s. Its
wave length would be :-
(Given h = 6.63×10–34 J s and m = 9.11×10–31 kg)
(1) 0.727 nm (2) 7.27 nm
(3) None (4) 72.7 nm
58. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia at 298K is:
H°f = –46.11 kJ mol–1. This value is applicable
to this equation :-
(1) ½N2(g) +3/2H
2(g) NH
3(g)
(2) N(g) + 3H(g) NH3(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(4) ½N2(g) + 3/2H2(g) NH3()
59. To a 10 ml of 10–3 N H2SO4 solution water has
been added to make the total volume to one litre.
Its pOH would be :-
(1) 3 (2) 14 (3) 9 (4) 5
60. CsBr possesses bcc structure. The edge length of
the unit cell is 400 pm. Find out the interionic
distance?
(1) 346.4 pm (2) 200 pm
(3) 300 pm (4) 100 pm
53. A B :-H = +ve, S = –ve, TS > H
:-(1) A B (2) B A (3) B A (4)
54. : A B :E
f =
Er = :
(1) Ef > Er (2) Ef < Er
(3) Ef = E
r(4)
55. A+B– NaCl
400 pm 75 pm
(1) 100 pm (2) 125 pm
(3) 250 pm (4) 325 pm
56. 40
20
4 1 :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
57. 106 m/s :-( : h = 6.63×10–34J s m = 9.11×10–31 kg)
(1) 0.727 nm (2) 7.27 nm
(3) (4) 72.7 nm
58. 298K H°f = –46.11 kJ mol–1 :-(1) ½N2(g) +3/2H2(g) NH3(g)
(2) N(g) + 3H(g) NH3(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H
2(g) 2NH
3(g)
(4) ½N2(g) + 3/2H
2(g) NH
3()
59. 10–3 N H2SO4 10
1 pOH :-
(1) 3 (2) 14 (3) 9 (4) 5
60. CsBr bcc
400 pm :-
(1) 346.4 pm (2) 200 pm
(3) 300 pm (4) 100 pm
Kota/01CM414101H-14/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
61. What weight of 98% pure H2SO4 is required to
neutralize 80 gm. of NaOH?
(1) 98 gm. (2) 0.98 gm.
(3) 100 gm. (4) 980 gm.
62. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of He+
is –871.6 × 10–20 J. The energy of the electron in
the first orbit of hyhdrogen would be :-
(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–9 J
(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J
63. A system absorbs 300 cal of heat with the result
that the volume of the system becoms double of
its initial volume and temprature changes from
273 K to 546 K. The work doen by the system
on the surroundings is 200.0 cals. Calculate E.
(1) 273 kcal (2) 500 cal
(3) 100 cal (4) –500 cal
64. To a 1000 litre solution of pH = 3 , water has been
added to make the pH = 4. How much water has
been added in the process :-
(1) 900 litre (2) 9000 litre
(3) 10,000 litre (4) None of these
65. An aqueous solution of urea has freezing point
–0.52°C. Calculate the osmotic pressure of
solution at 27°C. Assume molarity and molality
be same. Kf(H
2O) = 1.86 –mol– kg.
(1) 4.53 (2) 5.1
(3) 3.2 (4) 6.87
66. 100 gm. of marble is treated with 1000 ml of 1N
HCl. At the end of the reaction the weight of
undissolved marble is :-
(1) 10 gm. (2) 25 gm.
(3) 50 gm. (4) 75 gm.
67. To a uniform tube of 100 m long H2 and O
2 were
released from the opposite end. Distance from O2
end at which they meet is :-
(1) 80 (2) 20 (3) 50 (4) 60
68. Dissociation energy of methane and ethane
respectively are 360 and 620 kcal mole–1.
Calculate C–C bond energy :
(1) 80 kcal mol–1 (2) 160 kcal mol–1
(3) 260 kcal mol–1 (4) None
69. A solution has pH = 2, its pH has been increased
to 4. The H+ concentration of the solution is
______ the original solution.
(1) Twice (2) Half
(3) Hundred times more (4) Hundred times less
61. 80 NaOH 98%
H2SO
4 :-
(1) 98 (2) 0.98 (3) 100 (4) 980
62. He+ –871.6×10–20 J
:-(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–9 J
(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J
63. 300 273 K 546 K 200.0 E :-(1) 273 kcal (2) 500 cal
(3) 100 cal (4) –500 cal
64. pH = 3 1000 pH = 4 :-(1) 900 (2) 9000 (3) 10,000 (4)
65. –0.52°C 27°C
Kf(H2O) = 1.86 –mol– kg.
(1) 4.53 (2) 5.1
(3) 3.2 (4) 6.87
66. 100 1N HCl 1000 :-(1) 10 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75
67. 100 H2
O2 O2 :-(1) 80 (2) 20 (3) 50 (4) 60
68. 360
620 kcal mole–1 C–C :
(1) 80 kcal mol–1 (2) 160 kcal mol–1
(3) 260 kcal mol–1 (4) None
69. pH = 2 pH 4 H+ :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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H-15/42Kota/01CM414101
70. Arrange the following solution in order of
decreasing freezing point :-
(i) 0.075 M CuSO4(ii)0.060 M (NH
4)2SO
4
(iii) 0.14M urea (iv) 0.04 M MgCl2
(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) iv > iii > i > ii
(3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) ii > iii > i > iv
71. 100 ml of 0.6 N H2SHO4 and 200 ml of
0.3 N HCl solutions are mixed. This solution has
been further diluted to 600 ml. Normality of the
solution would be :-
(1)2N
5(2)
N
10
(3) N
5(4)
N
20
72. Two flasks A and B of the same capacity contain
helium and hydrogen respectively at 27°C and
1 atmosphere pressure. Flask A contains.
(1) The same numebr of atoms as B does
(2) The same weight of the gas as B does
(3) Double the number of atoms as B does
(4) Half the number of atoms as B does
73. At 440°C, HI was heated in closed tube up to the
point of equilibrium. 22% of HI was decomposed.
The equilibrium constant is :-
(1) 0.282 (2) 0.0796
(3) 0.0199 (4) 1.99
74. The pH of aqueous solution of three acids A, B
and C respectively is 1,2 and 3. What will be the
ratio of their [H+]?
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 300 : 20 : 10
(3) 100 : 10 : 1 (4) 1 : 10 : 100
75. Osmotic pressure of 40% (w/v) urea solution is
1.64 atm and that of 3.42% (w/v) can sugar is 2.46
atm. When equal volume of the above two
solutions are mixed, the somotic pressure of the
resulting solution would be :-
(1) 1.1 atm (2) 2.05 atm
(3) 3.6 atm (4) 4.3 atm
76. The magnitude of charge on the electron is
4.8 × 10–10 esu. What is magnitude of charge on
the nucleus of Li+ :-
(1) 4.8 × 10–10 esu (2) 9.6 × 10–10 esu
(3) 1.44 × 10–9 esu (4) 2.40 × 10–9 esu
70. :-
(i) 0.075 M CuSO4 (ii)0.060 M (NH4)2SO4
(iii) 0.14M urea (iv) 0.04 M MgCl2
(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) iv > iii > i > ii
(3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) ii > iii > i > iv
71. 0.6 N H2SHO
4 100 0.3 N HCl
200600
:-
(1)2N
5(2)
N
10
(3) N
5(4)
N
20
72. A B 27°C
1 He H2 A :-
(1) B (2) B (3) B (4) B
73. 440°C HI 22% :-(1) 0.282 (2) 0.0796
(3) 0.0199 (4) 1.99
74. A, B C pH
1, 2 3 [H+] :-
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 300 : 20 : 10
(3) 100 : 10 : 1 (4) 1 : 10 : 100
75. 40% (w/v) 3.42% (w/v)
1.64 2.46
:-(1) 1.1 atm (2) 2.05 atm
(3) 3.6 atm (4) 4.3 atm
76. 4.8 × 10–10 esu
Li+ :-
(1) 4.8 × 10–10 esu (2) 9.6 × 10–10 esu
(3) 1.44 × 10–9 esu (4) 2.40 × 10–9 esu
Kota/01CM414101H-16/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
77. A mixture of three gases A (density = 0.82), B
(density = 0.26) and C (density = 0.51) is enclosed
in a vessel at constant temperature when
equilibrium is established :-
(1) Gas A will be at the top in the vessel
(2) Gas B will be at the top in the vessel
(3) Gas C will be between gases A and B in the
vessel
(4) The gases will mix homogeneously
throughout the vessel
78. If 1.0 mole of I2 was added to 1 litre flask at 1000 K.
At equilibrium (Kc = 104) :-
(1) [I2(g)] > [I(g)] (2) [I2(g)] < [I(g)]
(3) [I2(g)] = [I(g)] (4) [I
2(g)] = ½[I(g)]
79. A weak acid HA has a pH = 2. It confirms the
following data :-
C Ka [A–]
(1) 0.1 M 10% – –
(2) 0.01M – 10–2 –
(3) – – – 10–2M
(4) All the above
80. Which of the following solution will have
maximum molecules.
(1) 200 ml solution of 2M glucose
(2) 100 ml solution of 3M glucose
(3) 100 ml solution of 3M sucrose
(4) Indefinite
81. The electromagnetic radiation of wave length
242 nm are sufficient to cause the ionization of
sodium atom. The corresponding ionization
energy of sodium in kJ mol–1 would be :-
(1) 449.5 (2) 494.5 (3) 944.5 (4) 955.4
82. The heat of combustion of SR and SM are 70,960
and 71,030 cals, respectively. What would be the
heat of transition for the change. SR SM
where, SR = sulphur rhombic
SM
= sulphur monoclinic
(1) 70,960 cals (2) 71,030 cals
(3) –70 cals (4) +70 cals
83. The equilibrium constant for :-H2(g) + CO2(g) H2O(g) + CO(g) is 1.8 at1000°C. If 1.0 mole of H2 and 1.0 mole of CO2are placed in a 1.0 litre flask, the final equilibriumconcentration of CO at 1000° will be :-
( 1.8 1.34)
(1) 0.290 M (2) 0.386 M(3) 0.573 M (4) 0.688 M
77. A ( = 0.82), B ( = 0.26) C ( = 0.51)
:-
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C, A B
(4)
78. I2 1.0 1000 K 1.0 (Kc
= 104 ) :-
(1) [I2(g)] > [I(g)] (2) [I
2(g)] < [I(g)]
(3) [I2(g)] = [I(g)] (4) [I
2(g)] = ½[I(g)]
79. HA pH = 2
:-C Ka
[A–]
(1) 0.1 M 10% – –
(2) 0.01M – 10–2 –
(3) – – – 10–2M
(4) 80. :-
(1) 2M 200
(2) 3M 100
(3) 3M 100
(4)
81. 242 nm kJ mol–1 :-(1) 449.5 (2) 494.5
(3) 944.5 (4) 955.4
82. SR)
(SM
) 70,960 71,030
:-
(1) 70,960 (2) 71,030
(3) –70 (4) +70
83. 1000°C :-H2(g) + CO2(g) H2O(g) + CO(g) 1.8 1 1.0 H
2
1.0 CO2 CO :-
( 1.8 1.34)
(1) 0.290 M (2) 0.386 M
(3) 0.573 M (4) 0.688 M
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
H-17/42Kota/01CM414101
84. Water contains dissolved CO2, its reaction with
water is represented as :
CO2 + H2O H3O+ + HCO3
–
Kc for the reaction is 3.8 × 10–7 and pH = 6.
What is the value of 3
2
[HCO ]
[CO ]
?
(1) 3.8 × 10–1 (2) 3.8 × 10–13
(3) 6.0 (4) 3.8
85. Arrange the following in the increasing order of
their boiling points :-
(i) 10–3 M NaCl (ii) 10–3 M Urea
(iii) 10–3 M MgCl2
(iv) 10–2 M NaCl
(1) (i)<(ii)<(iv)<(iii) (2) (i)<(ii)<(iii)<(iv)
(3) (ii)<(i)<(iii)<(iv) (4) (iv)<(iii)<(i)<(ii)
86. The mass number of three isotopes of the element
X are M, M+1 and M+2. The average mass
number of the element is M+0.5. As such the
isotopes should confirm their ratio given below:-
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 : 1
87. Heat of reaction are given as :
C(gr) + ½O2 CO, H = –110.5 kJ and
CO + ½O2 CO
2 , H = –283.2 kJ
Predict the heat of reaction :
C(gr) + O2 CO2
(1) –393.7 kJ (2) +393.7 kJ
(3) –172.7 kJ (4) +172.7 kJ
88. For the reaction : N2O
4(g) 2NO
2(g), the degree
of dissociation in term of KP can be expressed as:-
(1)p
p
K / P
4 K / P (2) p
p
K
4 K
(3)
1/ 2
p
p
K / p
4 K / p
(4)
1/ 2
p
p
K
4 K
89. The atomic mass of an element having bcc structure
is 100 gm/mol. The length of the edge of unit cell
is 400 pm. The density of the element is :-
(1) 10.38 gm/cm3 (2) 5.19 gm/cm3
(3) 7.29 gm/cm3 (4) 2.14 gm/cm3
90. Following pair of solutions are in contact by
semipermeable membrane in which case thephenomenon of osmosis will take place
(1) 0.1 M Urea and 0.1 M KCl(2) 0.2 M Glucose and 0.2 M urea
(3) 1 × 10–3 M CaCl2 and 1.5 × 10–3 M NaCl
(4) 0.1 M Sucrose and 0.1 M maltose
84. CO2
:
CO2 + H
2O H
3O+ + HCO
3–
Kc = 3.8 × 10–7 pH = 6
3
2
[HCO ]
[CO ]
:-
(1) 3.8 × 10–1 (2) 3.8 × 10–13
(3) 6.0 (4) 3.8
85. :-(i) 10–3 M NaCl (ii) 10–3 M Urea
(iii) 10–3 M MgCl2 (iv) 10–2 M NaCl
(1) (i)<(ii)<(iv)<(iii) (2) (i)<(ii)<(iii)<(iv)
(3) (ii)<(i)<(iii)<(iv) (4) (iv)<(iii)<(i)<(ii)
86. X M, M+1
M+2 M+0.5
:-
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 : 1
87. :C(gr) + ½O2 CO, H = –110.5 kJ CO + ½O
2 CO
2 , H = –283.2 kJ
:-C(gr) + O2 CO2
(1) –393.7 kJ (2) +393.7 kJ
(3) –172.7 kJ (4) +172.7 kJ
88. : N2O
4(g) 2NO
2(g)
KP :-
(1)p
p
K / P
4 K / P (2) p
p
K
4 K
(3)
1/ 2
p
p
K / p
4 K / p
(4)
1/ 2
p
p
K
4 K
89. bcc 100 gm/mol
400 pm :-(1) 10.38 gm/cm3 (2) 5.19 gm/cm3
(3) 7.29 gm/cm3 (4) 2.14 gm/cm3
90.
:-(1) 0.1 M 0.1 M KCl
(2) 0.2 M 0.2 M urea
(3) 1 × 10–3 M CaCl2 1.5 × 10–3 M NaCl
(4) 0.1 M 0.1 M
Kota/01CM414101H-18/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
91. Find out the correct match from the following
table :-
Coloumn I Coloumn II Coloumn III
(i) Cyanobacteria Cell
membrane
Movement
(ii) Eubacteria Pili Protein
synthesis
(iii) Cyanobacteria Chromatophore Photosynthesis
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii)
92. Consider the following four statements A, B, C,
D and select the right option for two correct
statements :-
(A) Ulothrix, asexually reproduces by zoospore
formation
(B) Albugo, asexually reproduces by conidia
formation
(C) Life cycle pattern is diplontic in Mucor and
Rhizopus
(D) Mucor mucido is homothallic species
The correct statements are :
(1) A & B (2) B & C
(3) C & D (4) A & C
93. Which of the statements are correct about the plant
seen here?
(A) It is Ginkgo biloba.
(B) It is called maiden hair tree.
(C) It was found during the age of dinosaurs.
(D) It produces fruits
(1) Only D is correct.
(2) Only A, C and D are correct.
(3) Only A, B and C are correct.
(4) All are correct.
91. :-
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II LrEHk-III
(i) lk;uksthok.kq dksf'kdk f>Yyh xeu
(ii) lR; thok.kq fiykbZ izksVhu
la'ys"k.k
(iii) lk;uksthok.kq Økse sVksQksj izdk'k
la'ys"k.k
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii)
92. A, B, C D :-(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) (1) A B (2) B C(3) C D (4) A C
93.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(1) D
(2) A, C D
(3) A, B C
(4)
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
H-19/42Kota/01CM414101
94. Read the following statements :-
(A) Bryophytes are thallus like and prostrate or
erect
(B) They are attached to the substratum by the
help of only multicellular rhizoids
(C) They usually occur in damp, humid and shaded
localities
(D) The sporophyte of bryophytes is free living
How many above statements are correct and
incorrect regarding bryophytes :-
(1) 2–correct ; 2–incorrect
(2) 1–correct ; 3–incorrect
(3) 3–correct ; 1–incorrect
(4) 4–correct ; 0–incorrect
95. Which one of the following structures in
Hirudinaria is correctly matched with it's function?
(1) Annuli – internal segmentation
(2) Parapodia – locomotion
(3) Setae – Attachement
(4) Clitellum – Cocoon formation
96. Match column-I with column-II & select the
correct options :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) Exocoetus (i) Saw fish
(B) Pterophyllum (ii) Angel fish
(C) Pristis (iii) Flying fish
(D) Trygon (iv) Sting ray
(v) Fighting fish
Options :-
A B C D
(1) iii v ii iv
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii ii i iv
(4) iii ii iv i
97. A primitive angiosperm that lacks vessels :-
(1) Magnolia (2) Ranalisma
(3) Nymphaea (4) Wintera
94. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
:-
(1) 2– ; 2–
(2) 1– ; 3–
(3) 3– ; 1–
(4) 4– ; 0–
95.
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
96. -I -II :-
-I -II
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
(v)
:-
A B C D
(1) iii v ii iv
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii ii i iv
(4) iii ii iv i
97. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
Kota/01CM414101H-20/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
98. The excess of nutrients which are not used
immediately, are converted into .......and are stored
in tissue ........
(1) Fat, Adipose tissue
(2) Fat, White fibrous connective tissue
(3) Carbohydrate, matrix
(4) Protein, Elastic connective tissue
99. Interphase represents :-
(1) Between M phase and G1 phase
(2) Between G1 and S phase
(3) Between S phase and G2
(4) Phase between two successive M-phase
100. In elongation of peptide chain, the creation of
peptide bonds between aminoacid is catalyzed by-
(1) r-RNA
(2) Protein in larger subunit
(3) t-RNA
(4) m-RNA
101.
A
B
Choose the correct option regarding above
diagram :-
Name of
organism
A B
(1) Nostoc Mucilagenons
sheath
Heterocyst
(2) Eubacteria Pili Cell wall
(3) Nostoc Heterocyst Mucilagenous
sheath
(4) Nostoc Akinetes Heterocyst
98. .......
........
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
99. :-
(1) M G1
(2) G1 S
(3) S G2
(4)
100.
-
(1) r-RNA
(2)
(3) t-RNA
(4) m-RNA
101.
A
B
:-
ltho dk
uke
A B
(1) ukLVkWd 'ys"eh; ijr gsVsjksflLV
(2) lR;thok.kq fiykbZ dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
(3) ukLVkWd gsVsjksflLV 'ys"eh; ijr
(4) ukLVkWd ,dkbfuV gsVsjksflLV
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102. The life cycle in Bryophyta is haplo-diplontic
type, it means that :-
(1) Haploid generation is multicellular and
diploid generation is single celled
(2) Haploid generation is dominant &
multicelllular, diploid generation is also
multicellular but comparatively less
developed
(3) Haploid & diploid generations are equally
developed
(4) Haploid generation is highly reduced
103. During gametangial copulation gemetangium
with 125 nuclei and gemetangium with 50 nuclei
participated then how many and nuclei will
participate in sexual reproduction -
(1) 100 and 100
(2) 125 and 50
(3) 75 and 100
(4) 50 and 50
104. In the following diagrams which one provides peat
that have long been used as fuel :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
102.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
103. 125
50
-
(1) 100 and 100
(2) 125 and 50
(3) 75 and 100
(4) 50 and 50
104.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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105. Consider the following four statements (A–D)
regarding Petromyzon?
(A) Jawless vertebrates
(B) Body covered with placoid scales.
(C) Pectoral and pelvic fins are absent.
(D) Adults are marine but migrate to fresh water
for Spawning.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) A only (2) A and B
(3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D
106. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below
represent four different vertebrates. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the option given,
along with its correct class, habitat &
characteristics ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Class Habitat Characteristics
(1) (D) Mammalia Aerial - Ecolocationsensory system
(2) (A) Osteichthyes Fresh water - Brood pouchesin males
(3) (B) Cyclostomata Ectoparasites - Scales andpaired finspresent
(4) (C) Chondrichthyes Marine - Placoid scalesand AirBladder present
107. The terms leptome and hadrome refer to
conducting part of :-
(1) Phloem only
(2) Xylem only
(3) Phloem and xylem respectively
(4) Xylem and phloem respectively
105. (A–D) (A)(B) (C)(D)
(1) A (2) A B(3) A, C D (4) B, C D
106. (A, B, C D) ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(1) (D) -
(2) (A) -
(3) (B) -
(4) (C) -
107. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
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108. Consider the following four statement (A–D)
related to the animal tissue, and select the correct
option stating which ones are true (T) and which
ones are false (F)?
Statements –
(A) The intercellular matrix of cartilage is solid
and pliable and resists compression
(B) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
substance
(C) Cartilage is the main tissue that provides
structural frame work of the body
(D) Bones support and protect softer tissues and
organs
Options :
A B C D
(1) F F T T
(2) F T F T
(3) T T F T
(4) T F F F
109. If the initial amount of DNA is 2C then its amount
in G2-phase will be :-
(1) 2C (2) 1C (3) 3C (4) 4C
110. How many t-RNA recognize stop codon of
m-RNA?
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) None of the above
111. Find out the correct match from the following
table :-
Coloumn I Coloumn II Coloumn III
(i) Mesosomes Oxidative
Enzyme
Cell
respiration
(ii) Capsule Loose nature Protein
Synthesis
(iii) Flagella Flagellin
Protein
Help in
genetic
recombination
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (iii) (4) Only (i)
108. (A–D)
(T)
(F)
–
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
:
A B C D
(1) F F T T
(2) F T F T
(3) T T F T
(4) T F F F
109. DNA 2C G2
:-
(1) 2C (2) 1C (3) 3C (4) 4C
110. t-RNA, m-RNA
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
111.
:-
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II LrEHk-III
(i) ehlkslksElvkWDlhdkjh
fodjdksf'kdh; 'olu
(ii) lEiqfVdk <hyh izdf̀r izksVhu la'ys"k.k
(iii) d'kkfHkdk¶ysftfyu
izksVhu
vkuqoaf'kd
iquZ;kstu es
lgk;d
(1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (4) (i)
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112. The life cycle pattern, in which the diploid
sporophyte is dominant, photosynthetic &
independent phase of plant. The gametophyte
phase is represented by few celled dependent
haploid gametophyte. This type of life cycle
pattern is found in :-
(1) Only pteridophytes
(2) Only gymnosperms
(3) Only angiosperms
(4) All seed bearing plants
113. Nostoc fixes nitrogen in symbiotic association
with the following :-
(A) Alnus (B) Gunnera
(C) Anthoceros (D) Casuarina
The correct combination is :-
(1) A & B (2) B & C
(3) A & C (4) A & D
114. Identify the correct match from the column I, II,
and III :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(1) Chlorophyceae (a) Condidia (i) Fucus
(2) Pheophyceae (b) Pyrenoid (ii) Somatogany
(3) Ascomycetes (c) Calmpconection
(iii) Isokont
(4) Basidiomycetes (d) Funcoxanthin (iv) Penicillium
Options
(1) 3-b-ii, 4-c-i, 2-a-iii, 1-d-iv
(2) 3-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-c-iv, 1-a-ii
(3) 1-b-iii, 2-d-i, 3-a-iv, 4-c-ii
(4) 1-a-ii, 2-c-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-b-i
115. Which of the following structure in torpedo is
incorrectly matched with it's functions?
(1) Electric organ – Generation of electric current.
(2) Claspers – Used in copulation
(3) Ampulla of Lorenzini – Regulation of body
temperature.
(4) Scroll valve – Increases absorptive surface area.
112.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
113.
:-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
:-
(1) A B (2) B C
(3) A C (4) A D
114. Identify the correct match from the column I, II,
and III :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(1) Chlorophyceae (a) Condidia (i) Fucus
(2) Pheophyceae (b) Pyrenoid (ii) Somatogany
(3) Ascomycetes (c) Calmpconection
(iii) Isokont
(4) Basidiomycetes (d) Funcoxanthin (iv) Penicillium
(1) 3-b-ii, 4-c-i, 2-a-iii, 1-d-iv
(2) 3-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-c-iv, 1-a-ii
(3) 1-b-iii, 2-d-i, 3-a-iv, 4-c-ii
(4) 1-a-ii, 2-c-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-b-i
115.
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
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116. Following figures (a) and (b) are related to the:-
(a)
(b)
(1) (a) Liliaceae, (b) Solanaceae
(2) (a) Fabaceae, (b) Solanaceae
(3) (a) Solanaceae, (b) Liliaceae
(4) (a) Solanaceae, (b) Fabaceae
117. Cystoliths are present in:-
(1) Nerium leaf (2) Eichhornia leaf
(3) Ficus leaf (4) Both 2 and 3
118.
A
Mesentron
B
Ileum
Rectum
In above diagramof alimentary canal of cockroach
A and B are shown. Identify A and B correctly :-
(1) Gizzard, malpighian tubules
(2) Crop, gizzard
(3) Oesophagus, hepatic caeca
(4) Crop, hepatic caeca
119. Select the incorrect match :-
(1) Telophase – Reformation of nuclear envelope
(2) Anaphase – Centromere splits
(3) Metaphse – Chromatids separate
(4) Prophase – First stage of M-phase
120. Which of the following RNA polymerase enzyme
catalyses precursor of m-RNA
(1) RNA ligase
(2) DNA polymerase
(3) RNA polymerase-II
(4) RNA polymerase-III
116. (a) (b) :-
(a)
(b)
(1) (a) , (b) (2) (a) , (b) (3) (a) , (b) (4) (a) , (b)
117. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
118.
A
Mesentron
B
Ileum
Rectum
A B A B :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
119. :-(1) – (2) – (3) – (4) – M
120. RNA m-RNA (1) RNA (2) DNA (3) RNA -II
(4) RNA -III
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121. Find out the correct match from the following
table :-
Coloumn I Coloumn II Coloumn III(i) Monera Eukaryotes Producer
(ii) Protista Unicellular Decomposer
(iii) Mycota Unicellularprokaryotes
Decomposer
(iv) Plantae Multicellular Producer
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
122. Choose the correct statement from the following :-
(1) In terrestrial plant groups, there is a
progressive evolution of the gametophytic
generation
(2) In all vascular plants both haploid & diploid
generations are independent
(3) Vascular cryptogames differ from
phanerogames, because in the later, only the
sporophyte is independent
(4) Sporophyte of pteridophytes may be
monoecious or dioecious
123. One of the following is correct about Pinus :-
(A) Monoecious – Male & female sporophylls
borne in same strobili
(B) Monoecious – Male & female sporophylls
borne in separate strobili
(C) Dioecious – Male & female sporophylls on
different strobili and on different plants
Option :-
(1) A & B (2) Only B
(3) Only A (4) A, B & C
124. Which of the following phyla includes marine,
triploblastic and radially symmetric animals
having no brain and specialised excretory organs?
(1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora
(3) Echinodermata (4) Both (1) and (2)
121. :-
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II LrEHk-III
(i) eksusjk lehedsUædh mRiknd
(ii) izks fVLVk ,ddksf'kdh; vi?kVd
(iii) ekbdksVk ,ddksf'kdh;vlhedsUædh
vi?kVd
(iv) IykaVh cgqdksf'kdh; mRiknd
(1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iv)
122. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
123. :-
(A) –
(B) –
(C) –
:-
(1) A B (2) B
(3) A (4) A, B C
124.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
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125. Find the incorrect statement regarding
amphibians?
(1) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive
tracts open into a common chamber called
cloaca.
(2) Respiration is through lungs and skin.
(3) Heart is 3–chambered with sinus venosus and
conus arteriosus.
(4) Fertilization internal and development is
indirect.
126. Match the following and choose the correct
option?
A. Radicle i. Seed less
B. Parthenocarpicfruit
ii. Root formation
C. Ovule iii. Double fertilization
D. Endosperm iv. Seed
(1) A- i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A- ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(3) A- iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
(4) A- ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
127. Multiple (multilayered) epidermis on dorsal and
ventral side of the leaf is found in ?
(1) Zea mays (2) Nerium
(3) Mangifera indica (4) Triticum
128. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
A. Heart of cockroach is differentiated into
funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either
side.
B. The respiratory system of cockroach consists
of a network of trachea that open through
10 pairs of small holes called spiracles.
C. Female cockroach produce 2-3 ootheca each
containing 50-60 eggs.
D. In Mosaic vision, with the help of several
ommatidia a cockroach can receive one image
of an object.
How many of the above statements are right :-
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
125.
(1)
(2)
(3) 3
(4)
126.
?
A. i.
B. ii.
C. iii.
D. iv.
(1) A- i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2)A- ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(3)A- iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
(4)A- ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
127.
?(1) (2) (3) (4)
128. (A-D) :-
A.
B.
10
C. 2-3
50-60
D.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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129. :-(a) (b)
(c) (d) (1) (2) 'c' (3) b (4) a, b d
130. -5'-ATG CAT GCA TGC ATG CAT-3'
m-RNA (1) 5' UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 3'
(2) 5' AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 3'
(3) 3' AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 5'
(4) 3' UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 5'
131.
I II III
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1) (i) (2) (i) (ii)(3) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii)
132. -
1
2
3
4
5 6
'1' '3' '5'
'2', '4', '6'
-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
129. Eukaryotic cells :-
(a) Are comparatively larger than prokaryotic cell
(b) Possesed an orgnised nucleus without a
nuclear membrane
(c) Show cytoplasmic streaming
(d) Do not contain mesosome
(1) All are correct
(2) All are correct except 'c'
(3) Only b is incorrect
(4) a, b & d are correct
130. If the sequence of coding strand in a transcription
unit is -
5'-ATG CAT GCA TGC ATG CAT-3'
What will be sequence of nucleotides in m-RNA?
(1) 5' UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 3'
(2) 5' AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 3'
(3) 3' AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 5'
(4) 3' UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 5'
131. Find out the correct match from the following
table :
Column I Column II Column III
(i) Phycomycetes Albugo Green ear disease
(ii) Ascomycetes Neurospora Ergot disease
(iii) Basidiomycetes Ustilago Smut disease
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii)
132. Following is a schematic diagram of evolution of
plants -
1
2
3
Mosses
4
5
Ferns
6
Grasses
Trees
Unicellularalgae
If '1' represent multicellularity '3' represents
diploidy and '5' represents vessels then '2', '4', '6'
can be respectively -
(1)Haploidy, Conducting tissues, Haploidy
(2)Gametophyte, Tracheids, Closed vascular
bundle.
(3)Gametophyte, Open vascular bundle,
Tracheids.
(4) Haploidy, Tracheids, True vessels
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133. Identify the following diagrams A to C :
(A) (B) (C)
:-
(1) A - Laminaria, B - Porphyra, C - Chara
(2)A - Fucus, B - Dictyota, C - Laminaria
(3) A - Fucus, B - Polysiphonia, C - Porphyra
(4) A - Laminaria, B-Chara, C - Porphyra
134.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
135.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
136. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
133. Identify the following diagrams A to C :
(A) (B) (C)
Options :-
(1) A - Laminaria, B - Porphyra, C - Chara
(2)A - Fucus, B - Dictyota, C - Laminaria
(3) A - Fucus, B - Polysiphonia, C - Porphyra
(4) A - Laminaria, B-Chara, C - Porphyra
134. When you go through the anatomical study of
various animals then you will come to know that
some animals have body cavities not lined by
mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as
scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and
endoderm, the animals can be identified as?
(1) Tape worms
(2) Round worms
(3) Leeches
(4) Snails
135. Which of the following can not be considered as
an exclusive feature of birds?
(1) 4 chambered heart with only right aortic arch.
(2) Monocondylic skull with heterocoelus
vertebrae.
(3) Metanephric kidney and uricotelism.
(4) Female oviparous with single functional ovary
and oviduct.
136. Carpophore is found in :-
(1) Regma
(2) Cremocarp
(3) Etaerio of Achenes
(4) Carcerulus
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137. (A-D) (A) (body fluid)
(B)
(C) (intercellular matrix)
(D)
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
138.A
B
CD
A part of male reproduction
A, B, C D :-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. :-(1) DNA
(2) 70 S (3)
(4)
140. ?
(1) 5'
(2) 3'
(3)
(4)
137. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(A) Epithelial tissue has a free surface
which faces either a body fluid or the outside
environment
(B) Epithelial tissue provides a covering or a
lining for some part of the body
(C) In epithelium tissue the cells are compactly
packed with little intercellular matrix
(D) Simple epithelium consists of two or more
cells layers
How many of the above statements are correct:-
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
138.A
B
CD
A part of male reproduction
In above diagram A, B, C and D is shown. Identify
which secreate third layer on spermatophore when
these passout the male genital pore :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. The stroma of the chloroplast contains all
except :-
(1) Double stranded linear DNA
(2) 70 S ribosomes
(3) Enzymes required for the synthesis of
carbohydrats
(4) Enzymes required for the synthesis of
proteins
140. Where are the primers synthesized on the lagging
strand ?
(1) Only at the 5' end of the newly synthesized
strand
(2) Only at the 3' end of the new synthesized
strand
(3) At the begining of every Okazaki fragment
(4) At multiple places within an Okazaki
fragment
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141. Identify the diagram shown below as well as the
related right class and name of sex organs and
select the right option
Name ofOrganism
ClassName of sexorgan
(1) Acetabularia RhodoplayceaeAnthiridia &Archegonia
(2) Chlamydomonas ChlorophyceaeGlobule &Nucule
(3) Chara ChlorophyceaeGlobule &Nucule
(4) Chara PhaeophyceaeAntheridia &Oogonium
142. On the Basis of characters in group A & group
B identify the correct :-
Group - A Group-B
(i) Land plant (i) Land plant
(ii) Plant bodyforms thallus
(ii) Sporophyte isdivided in to root,stem & leaves
(iii) Gemma cupspresent ondorsal surface
(iii) Vascular tissue ispresent
(iv) Multicellularscales are present
(iv) Fruits are absent
(v) Gametophyticplant body
(v) Seeds are present
Options :-
(1) A - Spirogyra B - Riccia
(2) A - Cycas B - Pinus
(3) A - Marchantia B - Cycas
(4) A - Pinus B - Marchantia
141.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
142. A B :-
- A -B
(i) (i)
(ii)
(ii)
(iii)
(iii)
(iv)
(iv)
(v)
(v)
:-(1) A - B - (2) A - B - (3) A - B - (4) A - B -
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143. Select the option with all correct features among
given below (A to E) regarding the animal shown
in the following figure.
(A) Diploblastic and without tissue organisation
(B) Sessile and radially symmetric
(C) Found in fresh water and has perforated body
(D) Used as a scrubber while bathing
(E) Water current passing through the body helps
in gathering food and removal of wastes.
(1) B and D only (2) A, C and E
(3) A, C, D and E (4) A, B, C and E
144.
[B][A]
[C]
Mark the correct combination of types of body
cavity or coelom (shown in the above figure) in
various animals from the following table?
A B C
(1) Nereis Ancylostoma Fasciola
(2) Taenia Ascaris Pheretima
(3) Hirudinaria Taenia Ascaries
(4) Wuchereria Faciola Nereis
143. (A E)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)
(1) B D (2) A, C E(3) A, C, D E (4) A, B, C E
144.
[B][A]
[C]
:-
A B C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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145. Which of the following pair is incorrect ?
(1) Cucurbita – Parietal placentation
(2) Tomato – Axile placentation
(3) Dianthus – Superficial placentation
(4) Sunflower – Basal placentation
146. Given below are events of blood clotting
mechanism, Arrange them in correct order :-
(A) Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin
(B) Thrombokinase formed by a cascade process
(C) Conversion of prothrombin into thrombin
(D) Relase of certain factors from platelets
(1) B D C A
(2) D C B A
(3) D B C A
(4) B D A C
147. Which of the following organelle in the figure
correctly matches with its functions ?
Cisternae
(1) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, Lipid synthesis
(2) Golgi Appratus protein synthesis
(3) Smooth endoplasmic Reticulum, Aerobic
respiration
(4) Golgi appratus, formation of Glycoproteins
148. Which face of golgi complex gives rise to the
secretory vesicles ?
(1) Cis face (2) Proximal face
(3) Convex face (4) Trans face
149. Which statement is true for transcription?
(1) Both strands of DNA are copied during
transcription
(2) The total DNA of organism gets transcribed
(3) Adenosine now form base pair with uracil
instead of thymine
(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase enzyme
catalyses process of transcription
145. ?
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
146. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) B D C A
(2) D C B A
(3) D B C A
(4) B D A C
147.
Cisternae
(1) RER,
(2)
(3) SER,
(4)
148.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
149. -
(1) DNA
(2) DNA
(3)
(4) DNA DNA
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150. Find the correct match from the following table
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i) Euglena MoneraIdentical pigmentto higer plants
(ii) Puccinia MycotaHeteroecionsnature
(iii) Chara PlantaeMulticellular sexorgan
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii)
151. Match the column-I with column-II :-
Column-I Column-II
(a) Phycomycetes (i) Imperfectfungi
(b) Ascomycetes (ii) Mushroom
(c) Basidiomycetes (iii) Morels
(d) Deuteromycetes (iv) Aquatic fungi
(1) a - i b - ii c - iii d - iv
(2) a - iii b - iv c - ii d - i
(3) a - iv b - iii c - ii d - i
(4) a - iv b - iii c - i d - ii
152. Which of the following animals has feather like
gills located in mantle cavity and has respiratory
and excretory functions?
(1) Nereis (2) Limulus
(3) Aplysia (4) Ascidia
153. Examine the animals shown in the figure A, B,
C and D and mark the characterstic found in all
of them?
[A][B]
[C] [D]
(1) Jointed appendages and wings
(2) Respiration by tracheal system
(3) Chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages
(4) Body divisible into cephalothorax and abdomen
150.
-I -II -III
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1) (i) (2) (i) (ii)(3) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii)
151. -I -II :-
-I -II
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
(1) a - i b - ii c - iii d - iv
(2) a - iii b - iv c - ii d - i
(3) a - iv b - iii c - ii d - i
(4) a - iv b - iii c - i d - ii
152. (1) (2) (3) (4)
153. A, B, C D
[A][B]
[C] [D]
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
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154. Which pair is not incorrect ?
(1) Leaf tendril – Opuntia
(2) Leaf bladder – Nepenthes
(3) Leaf pitcher – Dischidia
(4) Leaf spine – Sweet pea
155. Which of the following is not correct for the
simple columnar epithelium ?
(1) It is composed of a single layer of tall and
slender cells
(2) Their nuclei are located at the centre of the
cells
(3) Free surface may have microvilli
(4) This epithelium is found in the lining of
stomach and intestine and it help in secretion
and absorption
156. What is a tonoplast :-
(1) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(2) Inner membrane of chloroplast
(3) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant
cells
(4) Cell membrane of plant cell
157. How do the sugar of RNA and DNA differ ?
(1) RNA has six carbon sugar, DNA has five
carbon sugar
(2) The sugar of RNA has hydroxy group that is
not found in sugar of DNA
(3) RNA contain uracil; DNA contain thymine
(4) DNA's sugar has a phosphorus atom, RNA's
sugar does not
158. In a bacteria, if 200 base pairs are present in
nucleoid then total number of ester bonds will
be :-
(1) 200 (2) 398 (3) 2 (4) Zero
154. ?
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) (Leaf spine) –
155.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
156.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
157. RNA DNA ?
(1) RNA DNA
(2) RNA OH DNA
(3) RNA DNA
(4) DNA RNA
158. 200
:-
(1) 200 (2) 398
(3) 2 (4) Zero
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Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
159. A cladogram showing evolution of plants is given
below, study it carefully and give the answer of
following question :-
4
32
1BGA
5
leafy gametophyteLiverworts
Embryo
Phycobillins
Silicated cell wall
Naked DNA
Chl cChl b
Chlorophyll-'a'
Number 3 representing the which group of plants
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Moss
(3) Diatom (4) Red algae
160. Unlike Bryophytes & Pteridophytes in ......(A)....
the male & the female gametophyte do not have
.......(B).............. existance
In above statement fill A & B :-
(1) A : Angiosperm; B : Dependent
(2) A : Gymnosperm; B : Dependent
(3) A : Algae; B : Free Living
(4) A : Gymnosperm; B : Independent free living
161. Which of the following is a correct pair of the
excretory structures and the animals in which they
are found?
(1) Flame cells – Taenia and Wuchereria
(2) Nephridia – Nereis and Limulus
(3) Proboscis gland – Echinus and Balanoglossus
(4) Uriniferous tubules – Salamandra and Chameleon
162. Find out the correct match from the following
table :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(1) Coelenterata Meandrina Brain coral
(2) Echinodermata Antedon Sea lemon
(3) Tunicata Branchiostoma Sea lancelet
(4) Annelida Aplysia Sea hare
Time Management is Life Management
159. :-
4
32
1BGA
5
Naked DNA
Chl cChl b
Chlorophyll-'a'
3 (1) (2) (3) (4)
160. ...........(A)................ .......(B).............. A B (1) A : ; B : (2) A : ; B : (3) A : ; B : (4) A : ; B :
161.
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) – 162. :-
-I -II -III
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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163. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
are examples of :-
(1) Homologous organs
(2) Analogous organs
(3) Homoplastic organs
(4) Vestigial organs
164. Observe the given diagram representing the
structural pattern of bone :-
Compact bonetissue
Haversioncanal
It is found in which of the following ?
(a) Epiphyseal part of bone
(b) Metaphyseal part of bone
(c) Diaphysis of bone
(d) Epiphyseal plate of bone
(1) a & b (2) b & c
(3) c & d (4) only c
165. Which of the following statement is not true for
plasma membrane ?
(1) Lipid components of the membrane mainly
consists of Phosphoglycerides
(2) Integral proteins lie on the surface of membrane
(3) Polar head of phospholipid are toward the
outer sides and the hydrophobic tail are
toward the inner part.
(4) Carbohydrate of plasma membrane are involves
in cell to cell recognition mechanisms.
166. Identify a and b
ba 5'
5'
5'
3'
3'
3'5'
(1) a-leading, b-lagging
(2) a-lagging; b-leading
(3) a-leading; b-leading
(4) a-lagging, b-lagging
163. (Thorn) (1) (2) (3) (4)
164. :-
?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) a b (2) b c(3) c d (4) c
165. (1)
(2) (3)
(4)
166. a b
ba 5'
5'
5'
3'
3'
3'5'
(1) a-, b-(2) a-; b-(3) a-; b-(4) a-, b-
Kota/01CM414101H-38/42
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015
167. In eukaryote RNA polymerase-III is resposible
for transcription of........
(1) tRNA, 5srRNA snRNA
(2) mRNA, 23srRNA
(3) 16srRNA, 18srRNA
(4) 28srRNA, 18s and 5.8s rRNA
168. Match the column-I (name of algal cell ) with
column-II (shape of chloroplast) and choose the
correct answer, on the basis of codes given in
column-I and II :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) Ulothrix (i) Plate like
(B) Zygnema (ii) Reticulate
(C) Oedogonium (iii) Discoid
(D) Chara (iv) Stellate
(E) Fritschiella (v) Girdle shape
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii, E-i
(2) A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
(4) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
169. Consider the following four statements A, B, C
and D, select the right option -
(A) Diplontic life cycle is found in all seed bearing
plants.
(B) In Pinus, both male cones and female cones
are present on the same tree.
(C) Male gametes of Pinus are biflagellated.
(D) In Pinus, pollination takes place at 3- called
stage.
The correct statements are -
(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D
(3) A and B (4) A, B, C and D
170. Select the incorrect statement from the following :-
(1) In green algae sexual reproduction may be
isogamas, anisogamous or oogamous
(2) In red Algae sexual reproduction is oogamous
and accompanied by complex post fertilization
development
(3) In brown Algae sexual reproduction may be
isogamous, Anisogamous or oogamous.
(4) In Bryophyta zygote undergo reduction
division immediately
167. RNA -III (1) tRNA, 5srRNA snRNA
(2) mRNA, 23srRNA
(3) 16srRNA, 18srRNA
(4) 28srRNA, 18s and 5.8s rRNA
168. -I () -II () -I II :-
-I -II
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
(E) (v)
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii, E-i
(2) A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
(4) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
169. A, B, C D, -
(A)
(B)
(C) (D) 3-
-
(1) A, B C (2) A, B D(3) A B (4) A, B, C D
170. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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171. The animal shown in an adult chordate animal is
shown in the following figure. Its anatomical study
has revealed that is possesses (retains) a chordate
character. Select the correct option w.r.t. the
chordate character, retained in the adult ?
(1) Notochord
(2) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
(3) Pharyngeal gill slits
(4) Post and tail
172. Which of the following statements regarding
mammals are correct ?
(A) Monocondylic skull
(B) Left aortic arch
(C) Respiration by single lung
(D) Metanephric kidney
(E) External ears or pinnae
(F) Amniote
(G) Acoelous or amphiplatyan vertebrae
(H) Corpus callosum in brain
(I) Homiothermic
(1) B, D, E, F, G, H, I
(2) A, B, D, F, G, H, I
(3) A, D, E, F, G, H
(4) B, C, E, F, G, I
173. Cystoliths are composed of :-
(1) Calcium oxalate
(2) Calcium carbonate
(3) MgCO3
(4) Glucosides
171.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
172.
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(F)
(G)
(H)
(I)
(1) B, D, E, F, G, H, I
(2) A, B, D, F, G, H, I
(3) A, D, E, F, G, H
(4) B, C, E, F, G, I
173. :-
(1)
(2)
(3) MgCO3
(4)
Kota/01CM414101H-40/42
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174. A student scrapped some mucus from inner
surface of checks by blunt end of a scalpal and
observed it in microscope, which type of cell can
be seen in microscopic observation ?
(1) Columnar cell
(2) Squamous cell
(3) Cubodial cell
(4) Pigmented cell
175. Find out the incorrect match :-
(1) Telocentric – Terminal centromere
(2) Submetacentric – Centromere slightly away
form middle
(3) Acrocentric – Both arms of chromosome
almost equal
(4) Metacentric – Two equal arms of the
chromosome
176. Read the following statement carefully and select
the correct statement
(A) In transcription only a segment of DNA and
only one of the strand of DNA is copied into
RNA
(B) Both strands of DNA are copied during
transcription
(C) The DNA polymerase on their own initiate the
process of replication
(D) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase
catalyse polymerisation only in one direction
(5' 3')
(1) Only A and D
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B & C
(4) A, B, C, D
177. Which of the following is not included in a
transcription unit -
(1) Promoter
(2) Terminator
(3) Structural gene
(4) Co-repressor
174.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
175. :-
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
176.
(A) DNA
RNA
(B) DNA
(C) DNA
(D)DNA DNA
(5' 3')
(1) A D
(2) A B
(3) B C
(4) A, B, C, D
177.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015
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Study the following characters and give the
answers of questions number 178,179,180
characters -
(A) Floridean starch (B) C - phycocyanin
(C) Laminarin (D) Chlorophyll a and b
(E) Fucoxanthin (F) Alginates
(G) Carrageenin (H) Gemmae
(I) Sporogonium (J) Cynophycean starch
178. Which characters are related to Dictyota,
Sargassum and Laminaria ?
(1) C, E, F (2) D, E, H
(3) A, D, E (4) E, F, J
179. Which characters are present in Nostoc and
Anabena ?
(1) D, A, I (2) C, D, E
(3) B, J (4) A, B
180. Which characters are found in Marchantia ?
(1) C, D, I (2) E, F, G
(3) D, H, I (4) G, I, J
178, 179, 180 -
(A) (B) C -
(C) (D) a b
(E) (F)
(G) (H)
(I) (J) 178.
?
(1) C, E, F (2) D, E, H
(3) A, D, E (4) E, F, J
179. ?
(1) D, A, I (2) C, D, E
(3) B, J (4) A, B
180. ?
(1) C, D, I (2) E, F, G
(3) D, H, I (4) G, I, J
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Your moral duty
is to prove that is
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