SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

1 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET - A SERIES

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER – I)

Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

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SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR

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THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

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Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item

comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the

Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response

which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See

directions in the Answer Sheet.

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with your Admission Certificate.

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has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted

to take away with you the Test Booklet.

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THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN

THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for

which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks

assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

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if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as

above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no

penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

2 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

1. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption

from the basic customs duty was extended to the

bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the

importance of this material?

1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not

based on fossil fuels.

2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable

resources.

3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste

materials.

4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for

surfacing of the roads.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: (Answer : b)

It is based on renewable resources like

sugar, molasses, rice, corn and potato

starches.

It reduces urban heat islands.

2. Consider the following

1. Carbon dioxide

2. Oxides of Nitrogen

3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission/

emissions from coal combustion at thermal

power plants?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation : (Answer : d)

By products of power thermal plant operation

need to be considered in both the design and

operation. Waste heat due to the finite

efficiency of the power cycle must be released

to the atmosphere, using a cooling tower, or

river or lake water as a cooling medium. The

flue gas from combustion of the fossil fuels is

discharged to the air; this contains carbon

dioxide and water vapour, as well as other

substances such as nitrogen, nitrogen oxides,

sulfur oxides, and (in the case of coal-fired

plants) fly ash, mercury and traces of other

metals. Solid waste ash from coal-fired boilers

must also be removed. Some coal ash can be

recycled for building materials.

3. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are

kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said

to be in such an orbit when:

1. The orbit is geosynchronous.

2. The orbit is circular

3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth‘s

equator.

4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22.236 km.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation (Answer : d)

A geostationary orbit (or Geostationary

Earth Orbit - GEO) is a geosynchronous

orbit directly above the Earth's equator (0°

latitude), with a period equal to the Earth's

rotational period and an orbital eccentricity

of approximately zero.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

3 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

An object in a geostationary orbit appears

motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to

ground observers. Communications satellites

and weather satellites are often given

geostationary orbits, so that the satellite

antennas that communicate with them do not

have to move to track them, but can be

pointed permanently at the position in the

sky where they stay. Due to the constant 0°

latitude and circularity of geostationary

orbits, satellites in GEO differ in location by

longitude only.

It is the part of space about 35,786 km

(22,000 mi) above sea level, in the plane of

the equator, where near-geostationary orbits

may be implemented.

Geostationary orbits are useful because they

cause a satellite to appear stationary with

respect to a fixed point on the rotating Earth,

allowing a fixed antenna to maintain a link

with the satellite. The satellite orbits in the

direction of the Earth's rotation, at an

altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi) above

ground, producing an orbital period equal to

the Earth's period of rotation, known as the

sidereal day.

4. India has experienced persistent and high food

inflation in the recent past. What could be the

reason?

1. Due to a gradual switchover to the

cultivation of commercial crops, the area

under the cultivation of food grains has

steadily decreased in the last five years by

about 30%

2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the

consumption patterns of the people have

undergone a significant change.

3. The food supply chain has structural

constraints.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation (Answer : b)

Source : Economic Survey page no. 10, i.e. Our

production in the last 4 years has increased

except 2009 - 10.

5. At present, scientists can determine the

arrangement or relative positions of genes or

DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does

this knowledge benefit us?

1. It is possible to know the pedigree of

livestock.

2. It is possible to understand the causes of all

human diseases.

3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant

animal breeds.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : c)

All human disease cannot be cured.

6. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign

nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth

Games in India amounted to

(a) Export

(b) Import

DOUBTFUL

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

4 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

(c) Production

(d) Consumption

Explanation: {Answer (a) or (d) }

Mostly it will be (a) because it brings foreign

exchange.

7. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of

sustainable energy. Why?

1. They use living organisms as catalysts to

generate electricity from certain substrates.

2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as

substrates.

3. They can be installed in waste water

treatment plants to cleanse water and

produce electricity.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : c)

The idea of using microbial cells in an

attempt to produce electricity was first

conceived at the turn of the nineteenth

century. M.C. Potter was the first to

perform work on the subject in 1911. A

microbial fuel cell is a device that converts

chemical energy to electrical energy by the

catalytic reaction of microorganisms.

A typical microbial fuel cell consists of

anode and cathode compartments separated

by a cation (positively charged ion) specific

membrane. In the anode compartment, fuel

is oxidized by microorganisms, generating

electrons and protons. Electrons are

transferred to the cathode compartment

through an external electric circuit, while

protons are transferred to the cathode

compartment through the membrane.

Electrons and protons are consumed in the

cathode compartment, combining with

oxygen to form water.

More broadly, there are two types of

microbial fuel cell: mediator and mediator-

less microbial fuel cells.

Since the current generated from a microbial

fuel cell is directly proportional to the

energy content of wastewater used as the

fuel, an MFC can be used to measure the

solute concentration of wastewater (i.e. as a

biosensor system).

The strength of wastewater is commonly

evaluated as biochemical oxygen demand

(BOD) values.

8. Which one of the following statements

appropriately describes the ―fiscal stimulus‖?

(a) It is a massive investment by the

Government in manufacturing sector to

ensure the supply of goods to meet the

demand surge caused by rapid economic

growth.

(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the

Government to boost economic activity in

the country.

(c) It is Government‘s intensive action on

financial institutions to ensure disbursement

of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to

promote greater food production and contain

food inflation.

(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the

Government to pursue its policy of financial

inclusion.

Explanation : (Answer : b)

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

5 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

Governments use fiscal policy to influence

the level of aggregate demand in the

economy, in an effort to achieve economic

objectives of price stability, full

employment, and economic growth.

Keynesian economics suggests that

increasing government spending and

decreasing tax rates are the best ways to

stimulate aggregate demand. This can be

used in times of recession or low economic

activity as an essential tool for building the

framework for strong economic growth and

working towards full employment. In

theory, the resulting deficits would be paid

for by an expanded economy during the

boom that would follow; this was the

reasoning behind the New Deal.

Governments can use a budget surplus to do

two things: to slow the pace of strong

economic growth, and to stabilize prices

when inflation is too high. Keynesian theory

posits that removing spending from the

economy will reduce levels of aggregate

demand and contract the economy, thus

stabilizing prices.

Economists debate the effectiveness of fiscal

stimulus. The argument mostly centers on

crowding out, a phenomenon where

government borrowing leads to higher

interest rates that offset the stimulative

impact of spending. When the government

runs a budget deficit, funds will need to

come from public borrowing (the issue of

government bonds), overseas borrowing, or

monetizing the debt. When governments

fund a deficit with the issuing of

government bonds, interest rates can

increase across the market, because

government borrowing creates higher

demand for credit in the financial markets.

This causes a lower aggregate demand for

goods and services, contrary to the objective

of a fiscal stimulus. Neoclassical economists

generally emphasize crowding out while

Keynesians argue that fiscal policy can still

be effective especially in a liquidity trap

where, they argue, crowding out is minimal.

9. The formation of ozone hold I the Antarctic

region has been a cause of concern. What could

be the reason for the formation of this hole?

(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric

turbulence; and inflow of

chlorofluorocarbons.

(b) Presence of prominent polar front and

stratospheric clouds; and inflow of

chlorofluorocarbons.

(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric

clouds; and inflow of methane and

chlorofluorocarbons.

(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to

global warming.

Explanation : (Answer : b)

Methane is not responsible for ozone hole,

its only responsible for Global Warming.

The chemistry of the Antarctic polar vortex

has created severe ozone depletion. The

nitric acid in polar stratospheric clouds

reacts with CFCs to form chlorine, which

catalyzes the photochemical destruction of

ozone. Chlorine concentrations build up

during the winter polar night, and the

consequent ozone destruction is greatest

when the sunlight returns in spring

(September/October). These clouds can only

form at temperatures below about -80°C.

Since these temperatures are rarely reached

in the Arctic, ozone depletion at the north

pole is much less severe than at the south.

Accordingly, the seasonal reduction of

ozone levels over the Arctic is characterized

as an "ozone dent," whereas the more severe

ozone depletion over the Antarctic is

considered an "ozone hole

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

6 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

10. Consider the following actions which the

Government can take:

1. Devaluing the domestic currency.

2. Reduction in the export subsidy.

3. Adopting suitable policies which attract

greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

Which of the above action/actions can help in

reducing the current account deficit?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Explanation (Answer : d)

Enhancing the subsidy will be the right choice

rather than reducing it.

11. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)

Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the

Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country,

provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning

Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all

panchayat elections.

3. Establishment of State4 Finance

Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : Answer : c

District planning committee comes under 74th

Amendment not in 73rd

Amendment.

12. Two important rivers - one with its source in

Jharkhand (and known by a different name in

Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha

– merge at a place only a short distance from the

coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the

Sea. This is an important site of wildlife and

biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of

the following could be this?

(a) Bhitarkanika

(b) Chandipur-on-sea

(c) Gopalpur-on-sea

(d) Simlipal

Explanation : (Answer : a)

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a

mangrove wetland in India's Orissa state.

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area

of 650 km² in the river delta of the Brahmani

and Baitarani rivers.

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are home to 55

of India's 58 known mangrove species. The

mangroves harbor one of India's largest

populations of saltwater crocodiles, and

Gahirmatha Beach, which separates the

mangroves from the Bay of Bengal, is the

world's most important nesting beach for

Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Some wildlife

experts are of the opinion that the largest

saltwater crocodile ever was in

Bhitarkanika, measuring an estimated 23

feet (7.0 m) which could be traced from the

skull preserved by the Kanika Royal Family

13. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is

sometimes attributed to the ―base effect‖. What

is ―base effect‖?

(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in

supply due to failure of crops.

(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due

to rapid economic growth

(c) It is the impact of the price levels of

previous year on the calculation of

inflation rate.

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given

above is correct in this context.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

7 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

14. India is regarded as a country with

―Demographic Dividend‖. This is due to

(a) Its high population in the age group below

15 years.

(b) Its high population in the age group of 15-

64 years

(c) Its high population in the age group above

65 years.

(d) Its high total population

Explanation : (Answer : b)

The demographic dividend is a rise in the

rate of economic growth due to a rising

share of working age people in a

population. This usually occurs late in the

demographic transition when the fertility

rate falls and the youth dependency rate

declines

15. Regarding ―carbon credits‖, which one of the

following statements is not correct?

(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in

conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol

(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or

groups that have reduced greenhouse gases

below their emission quota.

(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to

limit the increase of carbon dioxide

emission.

(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed

from time to time by the United nations

Environment Programme.

Explanation : (Answer : d)

Under the Kyoto Protocol, the 'caps' or

quotas for Greenhouse gases for the

developed Annex 1 countries are known as

Assigned Amounts and are listed in Annex

B. The quantity of the initial assigned

amount is denominated in individual units,

called Assigned amount units (AAUs), each

of which represents an allowance to emit

one metric tonne of carbon dioxide

equivalent, and these are entered into the

country's national registry

Developed country can 'sponsor' a

greenhouse gas reduction project in a

developing country where the cost of

greenhouse gas reduction project activities

is usually much lower, but the atmospheric

effect is globally equivalent. The developed

country would be given credits for meeting

its emission reduction targets, while the

developing country would receive the

capital investment and clean technology or

beneficial change in land use.

16. Which one of the following is not a feature of

―Value Added Tax‖?

(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system

of taxation.

(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each

stage of transaction in the production-

distribution chain.

(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods

or services and must ultimately be borne by

the consumer.

(d) It is basically a subject of the Central

Government and the State governments

are only a facilitator for its successful

implementation.

Explanation : (Answer : d)

VAT is the State Subject.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

8 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

17. A ―closed economy‖ is an economy in which

(a) The money supply is fully controlled

(b) Deficit financing takes place

(c) Only exports take place

(d) Neither exports nor imports take place

Explanation : (Answer : d)

Closed Economy Means :

An economy in which no activity is

conducted with outside economies. A closed

economy is elf-sufficient, meaning that no

imports are brought in and no exports are

sent out. The goal is to provide consumers

with everything that they need from within

the economy's borders.

18. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular

fashion all around near its base, it gradually

dries up and dies because

(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.

(b) Roots are starved of energy.

(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes.

(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.

Explanation : (Answer : b)

Phloem layer of tissue just below the bark is

responsible for carrying food from leave to

roots.

19. The ―New START‖ treaty was in the news.

What is this treaty?

(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms

reduction treaty between the USA and the

Russian Federation.

(b) It is a multilateral energy security

cooperation treaty among the members of

the East Asia Summit.

(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation

and the European Union for the energy

security cooperation.

(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among

the BRICS countries for the promotion of

trade.

20. Three of the following criteria have contributed

to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka

and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of

biodiversity:

1. Species richness

2. Vegetation density

3. Endemism

4. Ethno-botanical importance

5. Threat perception

6. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and

humid conditions.

Which three of the above are correct criteria in

this context?

(a) 1, 2 and 6

(b) 2, 4 and 6

(c) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 6

Explanation : (Answer : c)

The total number of plants that are endemic

to an area is one of the two primary criteria

for determining biodiversity hotspot status.

To be designated as a hotspot, an area must

have at least 1,500 species of endemic

plants. Many hotspots exceed this number

by thousands. Sundaland and the Tropical

Andes, for example, each have 15,000

endemic plants. In total, hotspots hold at

least 150,000 plants as endemics,

representing a remarkable 50 percent of the

world‘s vascular plant species. This is an

absolute minimum, because it does not

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

9 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

include species that are endemic to the

combined area of two or more hotspots.

Another form of measurement, which is

perhaps a better indicator of the importance

of a particular hotspot, is the percentage of

endemic plants compared to a hotspot‘s total

plant diversity. For example, among the

13,000 plants species found in Madagascar

and the Indian Ocean Islands, 11,600 are

endemics, a remarkable 89 percent. These

data are given in each of the individual

hotspot sections

21. Human activities in the recent past have caused

the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in

the atmosphere , but a lot of it does not remain

in the lower atmosphere because of

1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.

2. The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the

oceans.

3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Explanation : (Answer : c)

Since CO2 is heavier than Air, it sinks in ocean

than moving up. Also, during winter, it is

observed that CO2 is trapped in ice caps.

22. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine

upwelling zones are important as they increase

the marine productivity by brining the

1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface.

2. Nutrients to the surface.

3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

23. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not

regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical

deciduous forest. This is because

(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in

nutrients.

(b) Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have

poor viability.

(c) The rain forest species are slow-growing

(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain

forest.

24. The Himalyan Range is very rich in species

diversity. Which h one among the following is

the most appropriate reason for this

phenomenon?

(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant

vegetative growth.

(b) It is a confluence of different bio-

geographical zones.

(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been

introduced in this region.

(d) It has less human interference.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

10 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

25. With reference to India, consider the following

Central Acts:

1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947.

2. Mining and Mineral Development

(Regulation), 1957

3. Customs Act, 1962

4. Indian Forest Act, 1927

Which of the above Acts have relevance

to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in

the country.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) None of the above Act

26. Karl Marx explained the process of class

struggle with the help of which one of the

following theories?

(a) Empirical liberalism

(b) Existentialism

(c) Darwin‘s theory of evolution

(d) Dialectical materialism

27. A layer in the Earth‘s atmosphere called

Ionosphere facilitates radio communication.

Why?

1. The presence of ozone caused the reflection

of radio waves to Earth.

2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: (Answer : d)

Presence of Ionized materials in Ionosphere

is the prime reason for radio wave

communication.

28. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and

Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to

investment in a country. Which one of the

following statements best represents an

important difference between the two?

(a) FII helps bring better management skills and

technology, while FDI only brings in capital.

(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability

in general, while FDI only targets specific

sectors.

(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market,

while FII targets primary market.

(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.

29. A generally engineered form of brinjal, known

as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The

objective of this is

(a) To make it pest-resistant

(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities.

(c) To make it drought-resistant

(d) To make its shelf-life longer

30. With reference to ―Aam Admi Bima Yojana‖.

Consider the following statements :

1. The member insured under the scheme must

be the head of the family or an earning

member of the family in a rural landless

house-hold.

2. The member insured must be in the age

group of 30 to 65 years.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

11 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

3. There is a provision for free scholarship for

up to two children of the insured who are

studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : c)

Beneficiaries Age group is 19 – 59.

31. In the context of global oil prices, ―Brent crude

oil‖ is frequently referred to in the news. What

does this term imply?

1. It is a major classification of crude oil.

2. It is sourced from North Sea.

3. It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : b)

It contains sulphur which is even higher than

WTI crude oil.

32. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor

is to

(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons

(b) Increase the speed of neutrons

(c) Cool down the reactor.

(d) Stop the nuclear reaction.

33. In India, if a religious sect/community is given

the status of a national minority, what special

advantages it is entitled to?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive

educational institutions.

2. The President of India automatically

nominates a representative of the

community of Lok Sabha.

3. It can derive benefits from the Prime

Minister‘s 15-Point Programme.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : c)

Minority education institution has the power to

reserve only upto 50% seats for students

belonging to its own community. (Supreme

Court Judgement on St.Stephens College case,

1992, S.C.C. 558).

34. India is a home to lakhs of person with

disabilities. What are the benefits available to

them under the law?

1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in

government-run schools.

2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up

business.

3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

DOUBTFUL

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35. With what purpose is the Government of India

promoting the concept of ―Mega Food Parks‖?

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for

the food processing industry.

2. To increase the processing of perishable

items and reduce wastage.

3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food

processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

36. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds

from the Consolidated Fund of India must come

from

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(c) The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Union Finance Minister

37. All revenues received by the Union Government

by way of taxes and other receipts for the

conduct of Government business are credited to

the

(a) Contingency Fund of India

(b) Public Account

(c) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

38. Microfinance is the provision of financial

services to people of low-income groups. This

includes both the consumers and the serlf-

employed. The service/services rendered under

micro-finance is/are

1. Credit facilities

2. Savings facilities

3. Insurance facilities

4. Fund Transfer facilities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below the lists:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

39. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of

global community over pace and time as a

geostrategically significant region. Which

among the following is the most convincing

explanation for this global perspective?

(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second

World War.

(b) Its location between the Asian Powers of

China and India.

(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation

during the Cold War period.

(d) Its location between the Pacific and

Indian oceans and its pre-eminent

maritime character.

40. A company marketing food products advertises

that its items do not contain trans-fats. What

does this campaign signify to the customers?

1. The food products are not made out of

hydrogenated oils.

2. The food products are not made out of

animal fats/oils.

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3. The oils used are not likely to damage the

cardiovascular health of the consumers.

Which of the statements given above is/are

above?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : d)

No trans fats are essential fatty acids;

indeed, the consumption of trans fats

increases the risk of coronary heart

disease by raising levels of

"bad" LDL cholesterol and lowering levels

of "good" HDL cholesterol. Health

authorities worldwide recommend that

consumption of trans fat be reduced to trace

amounts. Trans fats from partially

hydrogenated oils are more harmful than

naturally occurring oils.

A type of trans fat occurs naturally in the

milk and body fat of ruminants (such

as cattle andsheep) at a level of 2–5% of

total fat. Natural trans fats, which

include conjugated linoleic acid(CLA)

and vaccenic acid, originate in the rumen of

these animals.

The primary health risk identified for trans

fat consumption is an elevated risk

of coronary heart disease (CHD). A

comprehensive review of studies of trans

fats was published in 2006 in the New

England Journal of Medicine reports a

strong and reliable connection between trans

fat consumption and CHD, concluding that

"On a per-calorie basis, trans fats appear to

increase the risk of CHD more than any

other macronutrient, conferring a

substantially increased risk at low levels of

consumption (1 to 3% of total energy

intake)"

Unsaturated fat is a fat molecule containing

one or more double bonds between the

carbon atoms. Since the carbons are double-

bonded to each other, there are fewer bonds

connected to hydrogen, so there are fewer

hydrogen atoms, hence

"unsaturated". Cis and trans are terms that

refer to the arrangement of chains of carbon

atoms across the double bond. The process

of hydrogenation adds hydrogen atoms to

unsaturated fats, eliminating double bonds

and making them into partially or

completely saturated fats. However, partial

hydrogenation, if it is chemical rather than

enzymatic, converts a part of cis-isomers

into trans-unsaturated fats instead of

hydrogenating them completely.

41. Among the following who are eligible to benefit

from the ―Mahatma Gandhi National Rural

Employment Guarantee Act‖?

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste

and scheduled tribe households

(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL)

households

(c) Adult members of households of all

backward communities

(d) Adult members of any household

Explanation : (Answer : d)

ELIGIBILITY FOR MNREGA

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural

Employment Guarantee Scheme is open to

all rural households in the areas notified by

the Government of India. The entitlement

of 100 days of guaranteed employment in a

financial year is in terms of a household.

This entitlement of 100 days per year can

be shared within the household.

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All adult members of the household who

registered can apply for work. To register,

they have to:-

Be local residents ―local― implies residing

within the gram panchayat.

Be willing to do un-skilled manual work.

Apply as a household at the local gram

panchayat.

SALIENT FEATURES OF THE ACT.

Adult members of a rural household, willing

to do unskilled manual work, may apply for

registration in writing or orally to the local

Gram Panchayat.

The Gram Panchayat after due verification

will issue a Job Card. The Job Card will bear

the photograph of all adult members of the

household willing to work under NREGA

and is free of cost.

42. With reference to ―Look East Policy‖ of India,

consider the following statements:

1. India wants to establish itself as an

important regional player in the East Asian

Affairs

2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by

the termination of cold War

3. India wants to restore the historical and

cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast

and East Asia

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

43. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by

the Lok Sabha,

(a) The Budget is modified and presented again

(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha

for suggestions

(c) The union Finance Minister is asked to

resign

(d) The Prime Minister submits the

resignation of Council of Ministers

44. Under the constitution of India, which one of

the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To vote in public elections

(b) To develop the scientific temper

(c) To Safeguard public property

(d) To abide by the constitution and respect its

ideals

45. With reference to the Finance Commission of

India, which of the following statements is

correct?

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital

for infrastructure development

(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of

finances among the Public sector

Undertakings

(c) It ensures transparency in financial

administration

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)

given above is correct in this context

Explanation : (Answer d)

The Commission shall make recommendations

as to the following matters, namely :-

(i) the distribution between the Union and the

States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to

be, or may be, divided between them under

Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution and the

allocation between the States of the respective

shares of such proceeds;

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(ii) the principles which should govern the

grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of

the Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to

be paid to the States which are in need of

assistance by way of grants-in-aid of their

revenues under article 275 of the Constitution

for purposes other than those specified in the

provisos to clause (1) of that article; and

(iii) the measures needed to augment the

Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the

resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities

in the State on the basis of the recommendations

made by the Finance Commission of the State.

46. Consider the following:

1. Right to education

2. Right to equal access to public service

3. Right to food

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human

Rights under ―Universal Declaration of Human

Rights‖?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : d)

The Universal Declaration of Human

Rights (UDHR) is a declaration adopted by

the United Nations General Assembly (10

December 1948 at Palais de Chaillot, Paris).

The Declaration arose directly from the

experience of the Second World War and

represents the first global expression of

rights to which all human beings are

inherently entitled. It consists of 30 articles

which have been elaborated in subsequent

international treaties, regional human rights

instruments, national constitutions and laws.

The International Bill of Human

Rights consists of the Universal Declaration

of Human Rights, theInternational Covenant

on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights,

and the International Covenant on Civil and

Political Rights and its two Optional

Protocols.

Article 21

(1) Everyone has the right to take part in the

government of his country, directly or through

freely chosen representatives.

(2) Everyone has the right to equal access to public

service in his country.

(3) The will of the people shall be the basis of the

authority of government; this will shall be

expressed in periodic and genuine elections which

shall be by universal and equal suffrage and shall be

held by secret vote or by equivalent free voting

procedures

Article 25

(1) Everyone has the right to a standard of living

adequate for the health and wellbeing of himself

and of his family, including food, clothing, housing

and medical care and necessary social services, and

the right to security in the event of unemployment,

sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other

lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his

control.

Article 26

(1) Everyone has the right to education. Education

shall be free, at least in the elementary and

fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be

compulsory. Technical and professional education

shall be made generally available and higher

education shall be equally accessible to all on the

basis of merit.

(2) Education shall be directed to the full

development of the human personality and to the

strengthening of respect for human rights and

fundamental freedoms. It shall promote

understanding, tolerance and friendship among all

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nations, racial or religious groups, and shall further

the activities of the United Nations for the

maintenance of peace.

(3) Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of

education that shall be given to their children

47. There is a concern over the increase in harmful

algal blooms in the seawaters of India: What

could be the causative factors for this

phenomenon?

1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries

2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.

3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : d)

Like land plants, algae need certain things to

grow – water, carbon dioxide, sunlight and

nutrients. Carbon dioxide is plentiful in the

marine environment, but sunlight and

nutrients can be scarce. Sunlight is available

near the surface of the water, so algae grow

readily when they can remain near the

surface. Nutrients are abundant in areas

of run-off where water flows over land and

picks up minerals that are then carried to the

sea. Nutrients are also plentiful in areas

where cool, deep, nutrient-rich waters are

brought to the surface due to upwelling,

tides or wind-driven mixing. When the algal

cells get everything they need to grow, they

can divide very rapidly and potentially

create a bloom.

Surface runoff from farming, as well

as urban runoff and runoff from the

construction of roads, buildings, ports,

channels, and harbours, can carry soil

and particles laden with carbon, nitrogen,

phosphorus, and minerals. This nutrient-rich

water can cause fleshy algae and

phytoplankton to thrive in coastal areas;

known as algal blooms, which have the

potential to create hypoxic conditions by

using all available oxygen.

48. Consider the following

1. Photosynthesis

2. Respiration

3. Decay of organic matter

4. Volcanic action

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the

carbon cycle on Earth?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation : (Answer : c)

Photosynthesis : Wrong - Photosynthesis

by plants removes about 120 billion tons of

carbon from the air per year, but plant

decomposition returns about the same

amount. Photosynthesis (synthesizing

starches and sugars using light) is a main

mechanism for cycling carbon by the

biosphere.

CH2O represents a unit of organic matter;

six of the CH2O unit would be

C6H1206 which makes the simple sugar

(glucose or fructose) and 11 of these units

make C11H22O11, a more complex sugar,

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sucrose, formed by the combination of one

glucose and one fructose. Thousands of

glucose molecules combine to form a

molecule of starch, or of cellulose.

(Molecule examples) Thus photosynthesis

takes the atmospheric carbon in CO2 and

"fixes" it into the biosphere. The subsequent

cycling of the carbon in the biomass is

created.

Respiration : When the organic matter is

oxidized through respiration, the reverse of

photosynthesis takes place.

Respiration releases CO2 into the

atmosphere. Respiration and photosynthesis

occur at nearly equal rates over one year.

The sediments including fossil fuels.

Volcanic Ash: Volcanic eruptions and

metamorphism release gases into the

atmosphere. Volcanic gases are primarily

water vapor, carbon dioxide and sulfur

dioxide. The carbon dioxide released is

roughly equal to the amount removed by

silicate weathering [citation needed]; so the

two processes, which are the chemical

reverse of each other, sum to roughly zero,

and do not affect the level of atmospheric

carbon dioxide on time scales of less than

about 100,000 years.

Carbon moves into the atmosphere from

decomposition of 1.organic matter,

2.respiration by living organisms,

3.combustion, 4.volcanic activity,5. burning

fossil fuels, 6.degassing of waterbodies, etc.

Carbon moves out of the atmosphere via

1.photosynthesis, 2.Rock weathering,

3.Dissolution in water, etc.

49. Recently, the USA decided to support India‘s

membership in multi-lateral export control

regimes called the ―Australia Group‖ and the

―Wassenaar Arrangement‖ What is the

difference between them?

1. The Australia Group is an imformal

arrangement which aims to allow exporting

countries to minimize the risk of assisting

chemical and biological weapons

proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar

Arrangement is a formal group under the

OECD holding indentical objectives

2. The Australia group Comprises

predominantly of Asian, African and North

American countries, whereas the members

countries of wassenaar Arrangement are

predominantly from the European Union

and American Continents

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : (Answer : a)

The principal objective of Australia Group

participants‘ is to use licensing measures to

ensure that exports of certain chemicals,

biological agents, and dual-use chemical and

biological manufacturing facilities and

equipment, do not contribute to the spread of

CBW. The Group achieves this by

harmonising participating countries‘

national export licensing measures. The

Wassenaar Arrangement was formally

approved by 33 countries,including 27 of

the 29 OECD Member countries, in July

1996. Prior to it‘s final adoption, the interim

agreement was provisionally called the

―New Forum‖. The Wassenaar

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Arrangement is a collaboration of countries

that defines a set of preliminary guidelines

covering both armaments and sensitive dual-

use goods and technologies which need to

be fully implemented at the national level.

It focuses on threats to international and

regional peace and security by providing for

greater openness through information

sharing about arms, dual-use goods and

technology transfers world-wide.

Australia Group Established in 1985

Membership: 41 Members — Argentina,

Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria,

Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic,

Denmark, Estonia, European Union,

Finland, France, Germany, Greece,

Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan,

Republic of Korea, Latvia, Lithuania,

Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, New

Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal,

Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain,

Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine,

United Kingdom, and United States.

{Of 41 Members Predominant Members are

From Europe hence this part of statement is

wrong}

Wassenaar Arrangement As of March

2009, the 40 participating states

Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bul

garia, Canada, Croatia, Czech Republic,

Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France,

Germany,Greece,Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Ja

pan, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta,

Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway,

Poland, Portugal, Republic of Korea,

Romania, Russian Federation, Slovakia,

Slovenia, South Africa, Spain, Sweden,

Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United

Kingdom and United States.

{ Of 40 members 33 are from American and

European Union Hence Predominantly is

correct)

50. The Surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter,

but the water art its bottom is still liquid. What

is the reason?

(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat

(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same

temperature as the air, no heat is lost

(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)

given above is correct

Explanation : (Answer : d)

When temperature starts reducing in winter,

lake water cools upto 4degree centegrade by

convection as density increase with

reduction in temp.On futher cooling, due to

abnoamal expansion og water , density

reduces & cold water remains at top .Then

top layer frezees.Water being bad conductor

of heat ,lake water below ice remains at 4

degrees & thus fishes sruvive in winter aslo

51. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of

an Indian animal species. The animal has no

predators in that area but its existence is

threatened due to the destruction of its habitat.

Which one of the following could be that

animal?

(a) Indian wild buffalo

(b) Indian wild ass

(c) Indian wild boar

(d) Indian gazelle

Explanation : (Answer : b)

The Indian wild ass also called khur, is

a subspecies of the Onagernative

to Southern Asia. The Indian wild ass, as

with most other Asian wild ass subspecies,

is quite different from theAfrican species.

The coat is usually sandy, but varies from

reddish grey, fawn, to pale chestnut. The

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Indian wild ass's range once extended from

western India, through Sindh and

Baluchistan, Afghanistan, and south-

eastern Iran. Today, its last refuge lies in

the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, Little Rann

of Kutch and its surrounding areas of the

Greater Rann of Kutch in

the Gujarat province.

The animal, however, is also seen in the

districts of Surendranagar, Banaskantha,

Mehsana, and other Kutch districts. Saline

desert, grassland in arid zone and shrubland

are its preferred homeland. It is unknown

how the Indian wild ass disappeared from its

former haunts in parts of western India

and Pakistan, since the animal was never a

hunting target of Indian Maharajas and

colonial British officials of the British Raj.

From 1958-1960, the wild ass became a

victim of a disease known as surra, caused

by Trypanosoma evansi and transmitted by

flies, which caused a dramatic decline of its

population in India. Besides disease, the

ass's other threats include habitat

degradation due to salt activities, the

invasion of the Prosopis juliflora shrub, and

encroachment and grazing by the Maldhari.

52. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent

floods in Australia. How is LaNina different

from El Nino?

1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold

ocean temperature in equatorial Indian

Ocean whereas El Nino is characterized by

unusually warm ocean temperature in the

equatorial Pacific Ocean.

2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west

monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect

on monsoon climate

Which of the statement given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : (Answer :d)

La Niña is a coupled ocean-atmosphere

phenomenon that is the counterpart of El

Niño as part of the broader El Niño-

Southern Oscillation climate pattern. During

a period of La Niña, the sea surface

temperature across the equatorial Eastern

CentralPacific Ocean will be lower than

normal by 3–5 °C. In the United States.

A La Niña, on the other hand, is often

beneficial for the monsoon, especially in the

latter half. The La Niña that appeared in the

Pacific in 2010 probably helped last year's

south-west monsoon end on the favourable

note.

53. The tendency for increased litigation was visible

after the introduction of the land settlement

system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason

for this is normally traced to which of the

following provisions?

(a) Making Zamindar‘s position stronger vis-à-

vis the ryot

(b) Making East India Company an overlord of

Zamindars

(c) Making judicial system more efficient

(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above

54. Which one of the following observations is not

true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?

(a) It was a non-violent movement

(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi

(c) It was a spontaneous movement

(d) It did not attract the labour class in general

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Explanation : (Answer : b)

True -On August 8, 1942 the Quit India

Resolution was passed at

the Bombay session of the All India

Congress Committee (AICC). In a

speech at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, Gandhi

told Indians to follow non-violent civil

disobedience. He told the masses to act as an

independent nation.

Untrue - Gandhi launched the Quit India

Movement in 1942, demanding immediate

independence for India. The entire Congress

leadership, and not merely at the national

level, was put into confinement less than

twenty-four hours after Gandhi's speech, and

the greater number of the Congress leaders

were to spend the rest of the war in jail.

Source : Bipin Chandra Book (Page No. 468)

55. Which amongst the following provided a

common factor for tribal insurrection in India in

the 19th

century?

(a) Introduction of a new system of land

revenue and taxation of tribal products

(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries

in tribal areas

(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders,

traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in

tribal areas

(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian

order of the tribal communities

Source : Bipin Chandra Book (Page No.45)

56. India maintained its early cultural contacts and

trade links with southeast Asia across the Bay of

Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime

history of Bay of Bengal, which of the

following could be the most convincing

explanation/explanations?

(a) As compared to other countries, India had a

better ship-building technology in ancient

and medieval times

(b) The rulers of southern India always

patronized traders, Brahmin priests and

Buddhist monks in this context

(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal

Facilitated sea voyages

(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations

in this context

57. What is the difference between Bluetooth and

Wi-Fi Devices?

(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency

band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5

GHz frequency band

(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area

Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is

used for Wireless Wide Area Networks

(WWAN) only

(c) When information is transmitted between

two devices using Bluetooth technology, the

devices have to be in the line of sight of

each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is

used the devices need not be in the line of

sight of each other

(d) The Statements (a) and (b) given above are

correct in this context

Explanation : (Answer : a )

Bluetooth networking transmits data via

low-power radio waves. It communicates on

a frequency of 2.45 gigahertz(actually

between 2.402 GHz and 2.480 GHz, to be

exact). Wi-Fi -IEEE 802.11 is a set of

standards for implementing wireless local

area network (WLAN) computer

communication in the 2.4, 3.6 and 5 GHz

frequency bands.

Bluetooth is used for WLAN - Wrong :

Wi-Fi is intended for resident equipment and

its applications. The category of applications

is outlined as WLAN, the wireless local area

networks. Wi-Fi is intended as a

replacement for cabling for general local

area network access in work areas.

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58. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the

following statements is/are correct?

1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced

2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land

farming

3. In some areas of farming, receding of

ground water table can be checked

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : (a) or (c) , Most probably answer is

(a).

59. With reference to the period of colonial rule in

India, ―Home Charges‖ formed an important

part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the

following funds constituted ―Home Charges‖?

1. Funds used to support the India Office in

London

2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of

British personnel engaged in India

3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by

the British

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

60. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to

organize a satyagraha on behalf on behalf of the

peasants of Kheda?

1. The Administration did not suspend the land

revenue collection in spite of a drought.

2. The Administration proposed to introduce

Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1and 2

(d) Neither 1nor 2

Explanation : (Answer : a)

However, a famine had struck the district

and a large part of Gujarat, and virtually

destroyed the agrarian economy. The poor

peasants had barely enough to feed

themselves, but the British government of

the Bombay Presidency insisted that the

farmers not only pay full taxes, but also pay

the 23% increase stated to take effect that

very year.

61. Biodiversity forms the basis for human

existence in the following ways:

1. Soil formation

2. Prevention of soil erosion

3. Recycling of waste

4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

DOUBT FUL

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

22 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

Explanation : (Answer d)

Biological diversity helps in the formation

and maintenance of soil structure and the

retention of moisture and nutrient levels.

The loss of biological diversity through

clearing of vegetation has contributed to the

salinisation of soils, leaching of nutrients,

laterisation of minerals and accelerated

erosion of topsoil, reducing the land's

productivity. Trees, on the other hand, lower

the water table and remove deposited salt

from the upper soil horizons.

Soil protection by maintenance of biological

diversity can preserve the productive

capacity of the soil, prevent landslides,

safeguard coastlines and riverbanks, and

prevent the degradation of coral reefs and

coastal fisheries by siltation.

Trees and other vegetation also assist in soil

formation. A significant contribution is the

introduction of organic matter through litter

formation and the decay and regeneration of

tiny fibrous roots, both of which facilitate

microbial activity. Another contribution is

through the effects of root systems which

break up soil and rock leading to, amongst

other things, penetration of water. Root

systems also bring mineral nutrients to the

surface through root uptake. Organic matter

formed by the decay of tiny fibrous roots

can also bind with minerals, such as iron and

aluminium, which can reduce the potential

deleterious effects of these minerals on other

vegetation

Biodiversity supports ecosystem services

including air quality, climate

(e.g., CO2sequestration), water

purification, pollination, and prevention

of erosion

Biodiversity supports many ecosystem

services that are often not readily visible. It

plays a part in regulating the chemistry of

our atmosphere and water supply.

Biodiversity is directly involved inwater

purification, recycling nutrients and

providing fertile soils.

62. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the

market. It consists of amino acids and provides

calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as

a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items.

What is the basis of this use ?

(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but

unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized

in human body due to lack of requisite

enzymes

(b) When aspartame is used in food processing,

the sweet taste remains, but it becomes

resistant to oxidation

(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after

ingestion into metabolites that yield no

calories

(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than

table sugar, hence food items made with

small quantities of aspartame yield fewer

calories on oxidation

63. What was the purpose with which Sir William

Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the

Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893 ?

(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the

House of Commons

(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the

Imperial Judiciary

(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s

Independence in the British Parliament

(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians

into the British Parliament

64. What is the difference between a CFL and an

LED lamp ?

1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury

vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp

uses semi-conductor material.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

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2. The average life span of a CFL is much

longer than that of an LED lamp.

3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared

to an LED lamp.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation : (Answer : c)

Fluorescent lamps (light bulbs) work by

passing electricity through mercury vapor,

which in turn emits ultraviolet light. The

ultraviolet light is then absorbed by a

phosphor coating inside the lamp, causing it

to glow, or fluoresce.

CFLs typically have a rated lifespan of

between 6,000 and 15,000 hours, A LED

light bulb can be expected to last 25–30

years under normal use.

A single LED is a low-voltage solid state

device and cannot be directly operated on

standard AC current without some circuitry

to control the voltage applied and the current

flow through the lamp. A

series diode and resistor could be used to

control the voltage polarity and to limit the

current, but this is inefficient since most of

the applied voltage would be dropped as

wasted heat in the resistor. LEDs are small,

solid light bulbs which are extremely energy-

efficient. New LED bulbs are grouped in

clusters with diffuser lenses which have

broadened the applications for LED use in

the home.

65. Recently, ―oilzapper‖ was in the news. What is

it?

(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the

remediation of oily sludge and oil spills

(b) It is the latest technology developed for

under-sea oil exploration

(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-

yielding maize variety

(d) It is the latest technology to control the

accidentally caused flames from oil wells

Explanation : (Answer : a)

The Oilzapper feeds on hydrocarbon

compounds present in crude oil and oily

sludge (a hazardous hydrocarbon waste

generated by oil refineries) and converts

them into harmless CO2 and water. The

scientific term for the above-mentioned

process is bioremediation. oilzapper's

uniqueness lies in the bio-friendly manner in

which it detoxifies oily sludges and cleans

up oil slicks.

66. A married couple adopted a male child. A few

years later, twin boys were born to them. The

blood group of the couple is AB positive, and O

positive. The blood group of the three sons is A

positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood

group of the adopted son is

(a) O positive

(b) A positive

(c) B positive

(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the

given data

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

24 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

67. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest

convictions were reflected in a book titled,

―Unto this Last‖ and the book transformed his

life. What was the message from the book that

transformed Mahatma Gandhi ?

(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the

moral responsibility of an educated man

(b) The good of individual is contained in the

good of all

(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are

essential for a noble life

(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct

in this context

68. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha

Mehta is well-known for

(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the

wake of Quit India Movement

(b) Participating in the Second Round Table

Conference

(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National

Army

(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim

Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Explanation : (Answer : a)

Usha Mehta (March 25, 1920 – August 11,

2000) was a

renowned Gandhian and freedom

fighter of India. She is also remembered for

operationalizing the Congress Radio, also

called the Secret Congress Radio, an

underground radio station, which functioned

for few months during the Quit India

Movement of 1942. In 1998,

the Government of India conferred on

her Padma Vibhushan, the second

highest civilian award of Republic of India.

69. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray

Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is

it different from the traditional DVD ?

1. DVD supports Standard Definition video

while BD supports High Definition video.

2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has

several times more storage capacity.

3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of

DVD is 1.2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : b)

Thickness BD is 1.1 mm while that of DVD is

1.2mm.

70. With reference to the period of Indian freedom

struggle, which of the following was/were

recommended by the Nehru report ?

1. Complete Independence for India.

2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for

minorities.

3. Provision of fundamental rights for the

people of India in the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

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71. Among the following States, which one has the

most suitable climatic conditions for the

cultivation of a large variety of orchids with

minimum cost of production, and can develop

an export oriented industry in this field ?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation : (Answer : b)

Around 800 species of orchids found in the

northeast region.

72. Which one of the following is not a site for in-

situ method of conservation of flora?

(a) Biosphere Reserve

(b) Botanical Garden

(c) National Park

(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

73. Consider the following statements :

In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

1. Is constituted under the provisions of the

Constitution of India.

2. Prepares the draft development plans for

metropolitan area.

3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing

Government sponsored schemes in the

metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : a)

Article 243ZE – Committee on Metropolitan

Planning does not have a sole responsibility for

implementing Government‘s sponsor schemes

in metropolitan area.

74. What is the difference between ―vote-on-

account‖ and ―interim budget‖?

1. The provision of a ―vote-on-account‖ is used

by a regular Government, while an ―interim

budget‖ is a provision used by a caretaker

Government.

2. A ―vote-on-account‖ only deals with the

expenditure in Government‘s budget‖

includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. Regarding the International Monetary Fund,

which one of the following statements is

correct?

(a) It can grant loans to any country

(b) It can grant loans to only developed

countries

(c) It grant loans to only member countries

(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a

country

Explanation : (Answer : c)

IMF is an Inter-Governmental organization that

overseas the global financing system by

following macro-economic policies of its

member countries (187), in particular those with

an impact on exchange rate mechanism and

balance of payment.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

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76. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that

mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge

against coastal calamities. How do mangroves

function as a safety hedge?

(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human

settlements from the sea by a wide zone in

which people neither live nor venture out

(b) The mangroves provide both food and

medicines which people are in need of after

any natural disaster

(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense

canopies and serve as an excellent shelter

during a cyclone or tsunami

(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted

by storms and tides because of their

extensive roots

77. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is

created and maintained by

(a) Universal law

(b) Universal Truth

(c) Universal Faith

(d) Universal Soul

78. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water

accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving

behind salts and minerals. What are the effects

of salinization on the irrigated land ?

(a) It greatly increases the crop production

(b) It makes some soils impermeable

(c) It raises the water table

(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

79. The ―red Data Books‖ published by the

International Union for Conservation of Nature

and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in

the biodiversity hotspots.

2. Threatened plant and animal species.

3. Protected sites for conservation of nature

and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Explanation : (Answer : b)

The red data book is contain only 8 lists of

threatened plant and animal species.

80. Why is the offering of ―teaser loans‖ by

commercial banks a cause of economic

concern?

1. The teaser loans are considered to be an

aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may

be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.

2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to

inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up

manufacturing or export units

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : (Answer : a)

Teaser loans are designed to attract a Home

Loan borrower in seeking a new loan. These

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

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loans are a relatively low, fixed interest rate

in initial 2 years, say around 8% - 8.5%.

However from the third year onwards, the

rates revert to a higher fixed or floating

interest rates which could be subject to the

then prevailing market rates.

SBI launched the Teaser Home Loan

Scheme in February 2009.

RBI feels ‗Floating rate Laons for a very

long tenure pose a risk because it is not

possible to predict interest for a very long

period.

81. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth

does not fall down. This is so because the

attraction of Earth

(a) Does not exist at such distance

(b) Is neutralized by the attraction of the moon

(c) Provides the necessary speed for its steady

motion.

(d) Provides the necessary acceleration for its

motion.

82. In the context of Indian economy, consider the

following statements.

1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily

increased in the last five years.

2. The growth rate in per capita income has

steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : (Answer : a)

Growth rate of GDP during recession years

(2007-09) has decreased.

Growth rate in per capita income has

steadily increased in the last 5 years. Viz..

2007 – 08 (Rs.33,131), 2008-09

(Rs.38,084), 2009-10 (Rs.44,345). 2010-

11(54,835).

83. In India, which of the following have the

highest share in the disbursement of credit to

agriculture and allied activities?

(a) Commercial Banks

(b) Cooperative Banks

(c) Regional Rural Banks

(d) Microfinance Institutions.

Explanation : (Answer a)

Source : Economic Survey page 107

Commercial Banks – 75%

Co-operative Banks – 15%

RRB - 10%

84. Which of the following can aid in furthering the

Government‘s objective of inclusive growth?

1. Promoting Self-Help Groups

2. Promoting Micro, small and Medium

Enterprises

3. Implementing the Right to Education Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

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85. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its

equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises

(CPSEs)?

1. The Government intends to use the revenue

earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay

back the external debt.

2. The Government no longer intends to retain

the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : (Answer : 2)

Source : White paper on Disinvestment of

Central Public Sector Enterprises (31, July

2007)

86. What is the difference between asteroids and

comets?

1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while

comets are formed of frozen gases held

together by rocky and metallic material.

2. Asteroids are found mostly between the

orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are

found mostly between Venus and Mercury.

3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail,

while asteroids do not.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation : (Answer : b)

Comets found beyond Neptune (i.e) kupier belt.

87. Economic growth is usually coupled with

(a) Deflation

(b) Inflation

(c) Stagflation

(d) Hyperinflation

Explanation : (Answer : b)

During deflation there is no demand, no

growth)

During Stagflation (inflation with

unemployment), means there is no growth.

88. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve

Bank of India leads to

(a) More liquidity in the market

(b) Less liquidity in the market

(c) No change in the liquidity in the market

(d) Mobilization of more deposits by

commercial banks

89. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger

and persistent than in northern hemisphere.

Why?

1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass are

compared to northern hemisphere.

2. Coriolis force is higher in southern

hemisphere as compared to northern

hemisphere

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

29 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

90. Between India and East Asia the navigation-

time and distance can be greatly reduced by

which of the following?

1. Deeping the Malacca straits between

Malaysia and Indonesia.

2. Opening a new canal across the Kraisthmus

between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman

Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : (Answer : b)

Deeping will not reduce the distance, it may

reduce the time.

91. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is

recommended in the diet since they are a good

source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants

help a person maintain health and promote

longevity?

(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for

vitamin synthesis in the body and help

prevent vitamin deficiency

(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of

carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body

and help avoid unnecessary wastage of

energy

(c) They neutralize the free radicals

produced in the body during metabolism

(d) They active certain genes in the cells of the

body and help delay the ageing process

Explanation : (Answer : c)

Oxidation reactions can produce free

radicals. In turn, these radicals can

start chain reactions. When the chain

reaction occurs in a cell, it can cause

damage or death. When the chain reaction

occurs in a purified monomer, it produces a

polymer resin, such as a plastic, a synthetic

fiber, or an oil paint film. Antioxidants

terminate these chain reactions by removing

free radical intermediates, and inhibit other

oxidation reactions. They do this by being

oxidized themselves, so antioxidants are

often reducing agents such as thiols,

ascorbic acid orpolyphenols.

92. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization,

consider the following statements:

1. It was predominantly a secular civilization

and the religious element, though present,

did not dominate the scene.

2. During this period, cotton was used for

manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by

humid climate with high temperature throughout

the year. Which one among the following pairs

of crops is most suitable for this region?

(a) Paddy and cotton

(b) Wheat and Jute

(c) Paddy and Jute

(d) Wheat and cotton

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

30 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

94. What could be the main reason/reasons for the

formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?

1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure

cells.

2. It is under the influence of warm ocean

currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct in this context?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither a nor 2

Explanation : (Answer : a)

It is under the influence of Cold ocean current.

So given second statement is wrong.

95. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in

the lower stratosphere. What could be the

appropriate explanation?

1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the

lower stratosphere.

2. There are no vertical winds in the lower

stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct in this context?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower

latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.

2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity

is normally greater in the lower altitudes as

compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers

originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and

parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches.

Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a ―U‖ turn

in its course to flow into India. This ―U‖ turn is

due to

(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series

(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young

Himalayas

(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary

folded mountain chains

(d) Both (a) and (b) above

GS MAINS CRASH COURSE

STARTS ON AUGUST FIRST

WEEK.

We Congratulate our Successful

Candidates.

All India 4th Rank (First Attempt)

holder : Abhiram G. Shankar

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

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98. A state in India has the following

characteristics:

1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.

2. Its central part produces cotton.

3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant

over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the

above characteristics?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Gujarat

(c) Karnataka

(d) Tamil Nadu

99. What is ―Virtual Private Network‖?

(a) It is a private computer network of an

organization where the remote users can

transmit encrypted information through the

server of the organization

(b) It is a computer network across a public

internet that provides users access to their

maintaining the security of the information

transmitted

(c) It is a computer network in which users can

access a shared pool of computing resources

through a service provider.

(d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c)

given above is correct description of

Virtual Private Network

100. The ―dharma‖ and ―rita‖ depict a central idea of

ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this

context, consider the following statements:

1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and

of the discharge of one‘s duties to oneself

and to others.

2. Rita was the fundamental moral law

governing the functioning of the universe

and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1nor 2

46 candidates

from our Institute have entered the Civil Services in

2010.

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

32 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th

MAINS 2010 AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS 2011 BATCH ADMISSION

STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS ON 20th JUNE.

Subjects offered

Mains :

1. GEOGRAPHY

2. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

3. SOCIOLOGY

4. HISTORY

5. PSYCHOLOGY

6. POLITICAL SCIENCE

7. TAMIL LITERATURE

AND GENERAL STUDIES

Prelims cum Mains

1. GEOGRAPHY

2. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

3. SOCIOLOGY

4. HISOTRY

AND GENERAL STUDIES