gs paper 1 - set a question and answers history questions(a) increase in the export of indian...

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UPSC 2018 Civil Services Preliminary Exam - Question Paper Analysis GS Paper 1 - SET A Question and Answers

History Questions

S No

Q. No

Section

Question Ans

Difficulty

Nature of Question

Source and Explanation Web links

1 11 History

He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was (a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Bipin Chandra Pal (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Motilal Nehru

C Difficult Freedom Fighters

"Elected to central Assembly" leaves two options, Lala lajpat Rai and Motilal Nehru. Eliminating further is difficult unless the writer is known.

2

19

History

Regarding: Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ? 1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 2. Establishment of universities was recommended. 3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

A Easy Modern

India

The Wood’s Despatch (1854) gave importance to teaching of English, but at the same time, it also stressed on the teaching of Indian languages

http://www.kkhsou.in/main/education/wood_despatch.html

3

22

History

Consider the following pairs: Traditions State 1. Chapchar Kut festival : Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba ballad : Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance : Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3

B Difficult

Traditional Dance

and Festivals

Thang Ta - Manipur (easy) Kongjom Parba - Manipuri singing style using Dholaks Chapchar Kut is Mizoram's agricultural festival.

http://mizoram.nic.in/about/chapcharkut.htm

http://neostencil.com/

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2


4

38

History In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the (a) Federal Legislature (b) Governor General (c) Provincial Legislature (d) Provincial Governors

B Easy Modern

India

Indian Polity by M. Lakshmikant - Chapter 1, Residuary powers were given to the Governor General

http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/Geo5and1Edw8/26/2/section/104/enacted

5

42

Art and Culture

The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the (a) Bundi school (b) Jaipur school (c) Kangra school (d) Kishangarh school

D Easy Art &

Culture

Bani Thani painting of Kishangarh School of Rajasthan by Nihal Chand is a famous miniature painting known as Mona Lisa of India. It is characterized by idealized distinct features such as arched eyebrows, lotus-like elongated eyes and pointed chin

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/bani-thani-paintings-to-welcome-passengers-at-kishangarh-airport/articleshow/58451262.cms

6

44

Art and Culture

With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

B Modera

te Art &

Culture

1. Most of Thyagaraja's songs were in the praise of Lord Rama. Hence, statement 1 is false. 2. Thyagraja is credited with creation of many new Ragas in his time. 3. Amanacharya (1408-1503) and Thyagraja (1767-1847), Hence they aren't contemprories. 4. Amanacharyas keerthanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara a form of Lord Vishnu.

http://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/vijay-siva-on-how-tyagaraja-kritis-echo-sundara-kandam/article18384089.ece

7

51

History

After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government ? 1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

C Modera

te Modern

India

New NCERT - Themes in Indian History Part III, Chapter 10 It was after the Santhal Revolt (1855-56 ) that the Santhal Pargana was created, carving out 5,500 square miles from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.

http://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lehs301.pdf



3


8

52

History Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the (a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts (b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories (c) commercialization of Indian agriculture (d) rapid increase in the urban population

C Easy Fundamental Basic

History of Modern India by Bipin Chandra Commercialisation of agriculture is a phenomenon where agriculture is governed by commercial consideration i.e. certain specialised crops began to be grown not for consumption in village but for sale in national and even in international market. During the British rule, the promotion to Indigo, cotton and other cash crops lead to change in the nature of Agriculture in the country,

http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/3378/9/09_chapter%205.pdf

9

54

Art and Culture

Consider the following pairs : Craft Heritage of 1. Puthukkuli shawls - Tamil Nadu 2. Sujini embroidery - Maharashtra 3. Uppada Jamdani Saris - Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3

A Difficult Current Affairs Based

Geographical Indicators - Sujini Embroidery - Bihar Uppada Jamdani Saris - Andhra Pradesh

https://www.utsavpedia.com/motifs-embroideries/sujani-embroidery/

10

68

History

The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were (a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium (b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead (c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

D Modera

te Fundamental Basic

History of Modern India by Bipin Chandra India's most important article of export was Cotton Textile... India also exported Raw Silk and Silk fabric, hardware, indigo, Saltpetre, Opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper and other spices, precious stones and drugs.

http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/eighteenth-century/people-in-the-18th-century-in-india-indian-history/6346

11

69

History

Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ? (a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement (b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement (d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

C Modera

te Fundamental Basic

History of Modern India by Bipin Chandra Champaran Satyagrah in April 1917, was undertaken by Mahatma Gandhi against the Tinkathia system, which forced Champaran tenants to plant Indigo on three out every twenty parts of his land. This was first successful experiments with Satyagrah in India and made problems of peasants a central part of Indian National Movement.

http://www.dailypioneer.com/sunday-edition/agenda/spirituality/the-significance-of-champaran.html

12

70

History

Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948 ? (a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George (b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy (c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

D Difficult Modern

India

A not very famous organisation of Independent India with difficult options to work with. Please check the web link for the more details about Hind Mazdoor Sabha.

https://spiritofhr.wordpress.com/industrial-disputes-act-trade-unions-act-factories-act-plantation-labor-act/history-of-trade-india-in-india/



4


13

71

History With reference to the religious practices India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism (c) Vaishnavism (d) Shaivism

B Difficult Art &

Culture

Sitankvasi is one the sub-sect of the Svetambara sect of Jaininsm. Sthanakvasi, meaning those who do not have their religious activities in temples but carry on their religious duties in places known as Sthanakas which are like prayer-halls.

https://www.jainworld.com/jainbooks/antiquity/svetsubs.htm

14

72

Art and Culture

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri. 2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Difficult Art &

Culture

1. Buland Darwaja at Fatehpur Sikri is made of Red Sandstone and is decorated by White and Black marble. 2. Bara Imambara was build in later phase of Mughal rule and was made of brick and lime.

15 73 History

Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India? (a) Francois Bernier (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (c) Jean de Thevenot (d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

B Difficult Medieval India

Jean Baptiste Tavernier was a French jewel merchant and came to India in 17th century.

https://www.wdl.org/en/item/17760/

16

74

History

With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world? (a) Avalokiteshvara (b) Lokesvara (c) Maitreya (d) Padmapani

C Difficult Art & Culture

In the world of Buddhist eschatology, Maitreya literally means the future Buddha. Maitreya Buddha is considered as the 5th Buddha that is believed to appear in this Kalpa or era. Thus, Maitreya Buddha is considered as the Future Buddha that is yet to appear in this age. In various Buddhist sutra such as Amitabha Sutra, as well as Lotus Sutra, Maitreya Buddha is believed to be called as Ajita

https://www.burmese-art.com/blog/maitreya-buddha

17

75

History

Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley ? (a) To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense (b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger (c) To secure a fixed income for the Company (d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

C Moderate

Modern India

1. An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British had to accept British forces within his territory and also agreed to pay for their maintenance. (Ensuring a Large standing British Army at other's expense). 2. An Indian ruler who entered into a subsidiary alliance would not enter into any further alliance with any other power, nor would he declare war against any power without the permission of the British. (To keep any Indian state from making allaince with Napolean and other European Powers). 4. The ruler would acknowledge the East India Company as the paramount power in India.(Establishing British paramountcy)

https://ipfs.io/ipfs/QmXoypizjW3WknFiJnKLwHCnL72vedxjQkDDP1mXWo6uco/wiki/Subsidiary_alliance.html



5


18

76

History

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ? 1. Charter Act of 1813 2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

D Moderate

Modern India

1. Charter Act of 1813, required Governor General to keep a sum of not less than one lac of rupees each year for the growth of education, science and literature in India. 2. In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education 3. The controversy was to decide on the language of medium of the education in India.

http://www.kkhsou.in/main/education/charter_act.html

19

79

History

In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha” ? (a) All India Home Rule League (b) Hindu Mahasabha (c) South Indian Liberal Federation (d) The Servants of India Society

A Difficult Modern India

All India Home Rule League was recognised as "Swarajya Sabha" and merged with Indian National Congress to present a united Indian political front in 1920.

20

80

History

Which among the following events happened earliest ? (a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj. (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan. (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath. (d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

B Moderate

Modern India

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj - 1875 (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan - 1858 (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath. - 1882 (d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination - 1863

https://scroll.in/article/879040/a-politician-questioned-the-credentials-of-bengals-most-respected-living-poet-everyone-jumped-in

21

89

History

With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: Institution Founder 1. Sanskrit College at Benaras - William Jones 2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren Hastings 3. Fort William College - Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only B Difficult

Modern India

1. Sanskrit College at Benaras - Jonathan Duncan (1791) 2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren Hastings (1781), also known as Madarasa Aliya 3. Fort William College - Lord Richard Wellesley (1800)

http://en.banglapedia.org/index.php?title=Calcutta_Madrasa,_The

22

91

History

Consider the following events : 1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India. 2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’. 3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier. 4. Goa became a part of independent India. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ? (a) 4 — 1 — 2 — 3 (b) 3 — 2 — 1 — 4 (c) 4 — 2 — 1 — 3 (d) 3 — 1 — 2 — 4 B

Moderate

India After Independence

1. First elected communist Government - 1957 2. ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’ - 1955 3. Air India was nationalised - 1953 4. Goa became part of independent India - 1961



6


Geography Questions

S. No

Q. No

Question Ans

Difficulty

Nature of Question

Source and Explanation Web links

1 13

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ? 1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

D Difficult Current Affairs Based

https://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2014/10/141001-aral-sea-shrinking-drought-water-environment/ https://www.unian.info/world/1278829-tass-shrinking-baikal-dries-wells-300-kilometers-away-from-unique-lake.html

2 27

Consider the following statements : 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines. 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

D Modera

te

Mix of Polity and Geography

1. State governments can auction non-coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand both have gold mines 3. In Rajasthan, iron ore is found at Bhilwara.

http://indianexpress.com/article/india/348-non-coal-mines-supply-squeeze-likely-as-leases-near-expiry-5112382/ https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/jharkhand-ready-to-auction-gold-mines-next-month/articleshow/51926010.cms

3 29

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi? (a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad (c) Nagpur (d) Pune

A Difficult Map Based

Close Options, Delhi - 77.10° E Bengaluru - 77.59 E Hyderabad - 78.48 E Nagpur - 79.09 E Pune - 73.85 E

4 37

Consider the following pairs : Towns sometimes Country mentioned in news 1. Aleppo - Syria 2. Kirkuk - Yemen 3. Mosul - Palestine 4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

B Modera

te Map Based

Aleppo - syria Kirkuk - Iraq Mosul - Iraq Mazar - i - sharif - Afghanistan



7


5 57

Consider the following statements : 1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. 3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


NCERT Class XI - Physical Geography Chapter 2 The planet earth initially was a barren, rocky and hot object with a thin atmosphere of hydrogen and helium. The composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis.

https://www.earthchangesmedia.com/mars-had-oxygen-rich-atmosphere-4000-million-years-ago

6 77 7. Which one of the following is an artificial lake? (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) (b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh) (c) Nainital (Uttarakhand) (d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)


Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake created in 1863 and is located in the Kodaikanal city in Tamil Nadu.

http://www.tamilnadutourism.org/HillStation/TNHillStations/Kodaikkanal1.aspx

7 85

Consider the following statements: 1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. 2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. 3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3

A Modera

te Map Based

Barren Island volcano is the only active volcanno in Indian territory. It is located in Andaman Sea, which is north of Great Nicobar. Since 1991, continuous erruptions have been recorded here.

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/goa/barren-island-volcano-erupts-again-in-andaman-sea/articleshow/57207274.cms

8 90

Consider the following pairs Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country 1. Catalonia - Spain 2. Crimea - Hungary 3. Mindanao - Philippines 4. Oromia Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

C Easy Map Based

Catalonia in Northern Spain and Crimea in Black Sea were in News recently. These two can lead to the answer. Mindanao - Philippines Oromia - Ethiopia

9

94

In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Nagaland

A Moderate

Map Based

This wild life sanctuary also have Pakke Tiger Reserve and is in Arunachal Pradesh

http://www.arunachaltourism.com/pakhui-wildlife-sanctuary.php



8


Environment Questions

S. No

Section

Question Answer

Difficulty

Nature of Question

Source and Explanation Web Links

1 2

Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss ? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

D Easy Fundamental Basic

Special adaptations of plants in desert areas - 1. Little leaves — small leaves, spikes for leaves, or no leaves at all. The smaller or fewer leaves a plant has, the less water is lost during transpiration since it has less surface area open to the sun and wind. For desert plants with small leaves or none at all, the twigs and stems help to carry out photosynthesis. 2. Waxy cover - The leaves and stems of many desert plants have a thick covering that is coated with a waxy substance, allowing them to seal in and protect what moisture they already have.

http://idahoptv.org/sciencetrek/topics/deserts/facts.cfm

2 59

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ? 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices 2. Adopting minimum tillage 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

C Difficult Baisc + Current Affairs

Three principles of Conservation Agriculture: 1. Minimum mechanical soil disturbance (i.e. no tillage) through direct seed and/or fertilizer placement. 2. Permanent soil organic cover (at least 30 percent) with crop residues and/or cover crops. 3. Species diversification through varied crop sequences and associations involving at least three different crops.

http://www.fao.org/conservation-agriculture/en/

3 60

The term “sixth mass, extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of (a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and largescale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems. (b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs. (c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

D Easy Baisc + Current Affairs

A “biological annihilation” of wildlife in recent decades means a sixth mass extinction in Earth’s history is under way. Scientists analysed both common and rare species and found billions of regional or local populations have been lost. They blame human overpopulation and overconsumption for the crisis and warn that it threatens the survival of human civilisation, with just a short window of time in which to act.

https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2017/jul/10/earths-sixth-mass-extinction-event-already-underway-scientists-warn



9


(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/ misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

4 63

With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements : 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. 2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization. 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the TART and Punjab Agricultural University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

B Moderate

Baisc + Current Affairs

GM Mustard has been developed by Delhi University not Punjab University. https://www.biotecharticles.com/Biotech-Research-Article/Genetically-Modified-Mustard-Dhara-Mustard-Hybrid-11-3986.html

5 65

Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization” ? (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

A Difficult Baisc + Current Affairs

The carbon fertilization effect (CFE) is in principle simple: the larger amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect ought to increase crop yields – and that is some good news for farmers, amid the overwhelmingly gloomy forecasts for other aspects of climate change. In detail, however, carbon fertilization is not so simple. It tends to have a greater effect on plants when soil moisture is low, and it affects some plants more than others

http://environmentalresearchweb.org/cws/article/news/54347

6 81

Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds? 1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution of groundwater 3. Lowering of the water-table Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

B Moderate


1. Mining can cause salinity intrusion into the rivers, damaging riverine ecosystems. According to the Geological Survey of India (GSI), riverbed mining causes several alterations to the physical characteristics of both a river and riverbed. 2. Excessive pumping out of groundwater during sand mining, especially in abandoned channels, generally results in depletion of groundwater resources causing severe scarcity and affecting irrigation and potable water availability

https://www.internationalrivers.org/blogs/257/the-struggle-over-riverbed-mining-in-india



10


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

7 82

With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements: 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

B Easy Fundamental Basic

Statement 1: Organic matter in soil increases soil moisture by enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff Statement 2: Decomposition of organic molecules, weathering of sulfur-containing rocks and direct fall from atmosphere can release sulfur in soil. Terrestrial ecosystems can then make use of these soil sulfates (SO4−), and upon the death and decomposition of these organisms, release the sulfur back into the atmosphere as hydrogen sulfide (H2S) gas. Statement 3: This happens mostly in arid and semi-arid areas.

http://www.fao.org/docrep/009/a0100e/a0100e08.htm https://courses.lumenlearning.com/wm-biology2/chapter/the-sulfur-cycle/

8 86

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news ? (a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics. (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows. (c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides. (d) None of the above

B Moderate

Current Affairs Based

Prosopis Juliflora is an invasive tree that causes enormous damage to the environment and inhibits the growth of indigenous plants.

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/a-saviourturnedvillain-whose-tentacles-spread-far-and-wide/article17379253.ece

9 87

Consider the following statements: 1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

D Moderate

Fundamental Basic

All three statements are correct. Please check the source for more information.

http://coral.unep.ch/atlaspr.htm https://www.iucn.org/content/coral-reefs-facts-and-figures https://www.coral-reef-info.com/where-are-coral-reefs-located.html



11


10 98

Consider the following statements: 1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. 2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights. 3. Union Ministry of Environment,Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

A Moderate

Current Affairs Based - Govt. Scheme

Statement 1 - The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and not in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 2 and 3 - As per the second source - "In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas.". So statement 2 is correct while statement 3 is wrong as clearly the right here was deckared by a state government.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=69806 http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/baiga-tribals-become-india-s-first-community-to-get-habitat-rights-52452

11 99 Consider the following: 1. Birds 2. Dust blowing 3. Rain 4. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

D Easy Fundamental Basic

The pathogen can be carried independently by natural agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds etc. Splashing rain drops mostly transmit the foliar diseases. Plant pathogens requiring high humidity conditions like the fungi causing downy mildew diseases or bacteria causing canker of citrus are well adapted to short distance water dispersal.

https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2015/02/why-does-rain-cause-disease-outbreaks-in-plants/ https://www.indiaagronet.com/indiaagronet/Disease_management/content/transmission_of_plant_diseases.htm



12


12 100

With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements : 1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. 2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. 3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

B Moderate

Current Affairs Based - Government Bodies

Statement 1 - NPOP is operated under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement 2 - APEDA functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP, Check source 2. Statement 3 - In January 2016, Sikkim became India’s first “100 per cent organic” state.

http://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/organic/index.htm http://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/organic/organic_contents/Chapter_2.pdf http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/organic-trial-57517



13


Polity Questions S. No

Section

Question Answer

Difficulty

Nature of Question

Source and Explanation Web Links

1 1

Consider the following statements 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

B Easy Baisc + Current Affairs

Statment 3 - the minimum number of members required for the recognition as the Leader of the Opposition is 10% of the total strength of Loksabha, i.e. 55. Hence, statement 3 is wrong, which eliminates all options except B.

https://factly.in/history-indian-elections/

2 4

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) ? 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

B Moderate


CPCB, statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.

http://cpcb.nic.in/Introduction/ http://www.greentribunal.gov.in/

3 5

Consider the following statements 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Moderate


In I R Cohelo vs State of Tamil Nadu case supreme court held that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws inserted in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. Any law placed in Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 can be examined by the court for violation of Basic Structure of the Constitution.

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/IX-Schedule-laws-open-to-review/article14705323.ece http://www.legalserviceindia.com/articles/nineth.htm



14


4 9

Consider the following statements: 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023 comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. 2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

C Moderate

Baisc + Current Affairs (Govt Committee)

N K Singh Committee on FRBM review was in news. The Committee suggested using debt to GDP as the primary target for fiscal policy. Statement 3 - Article 293 (3) Indian Constitution."

https://dea.gov.in/sites/default/files/Status%20Paper%20final%2028.3.18.pdf http://www.prsindia.org/administrator/uploads/general/1493207354_FRBM%20Review%20Committee%20Report%20Summary.pdf

5 12

Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

D Moderate


Aadhar is only a proof of residence not of citizenship. Sections 27 and 28 of the Aadhaar Act 2016 allow cancellation or deactivation of Aadhaar of an individual if there are multiple Aadhaars issued on a person’s name or their are discrepancies in the biometric data or documentation.

http://indianexpress.com/article/how-to/how-to-check-if-your-aadhaar-card-is-valid-4801239/, https://www.news18.com/news/india/aadhar-not-a-valid-proof-of-citizenship-or-domicile-calcutta-high-court-1327791.html

6 20

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc.conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ? (a) Committee on Government Assurances (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation (c) Rules Committee (d) Business Advisory Committee

B Moderate


Indian Polity by M Lakshmikant Chapter 23 - Parliamentary Committees Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it.

https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/committees/committ_sub_rules.asp

7 21

Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

B Difficult Current Affairs Based

National Council of Teacher Education has laid down guideline for minimum qualification and for conducting Teacher Eligibility test. There are number of Teacher education institutes providing B.Ed and M.Ed degrees under private ownership.

http://mhrd.gov.in/teacher-education-overview



15


Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

8 25

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013; consider the following statements : 1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains. 2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘takehome ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

B Moderate

Baisc + Current Affairs (Govt. Scheme)

Statement 1 - NFSA 2013 aims to provide subsidised food to 75% population in rural areas and 50% in urban areas. State governments are free to decide the eligibility criteria for subsidised food grains and it isn't limited to BPL. Hence statement is False Statement 2 is true.

https://www.firstpost.com/economy/all-you-need-to-know-about-national-food-security-bill-1063107.html

9 31

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax. (b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

A Difficult Fundamental Basic

Difficult options. While option 1 is a part of the Article 110 but in that article the phrase "only if" corresponds to a number of provisions, which aren't present in this option.

http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Money_Bill

10 32

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements : 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

A/C Moderate


Doubtful Question - If the statement 2 is comparing value of one single MP of Lok sabha and Rajya sabha then its false but if it is comparing Total Value of vote of All MPs of the two houses then its correct. Value of vote of each MP - 708 Elected Members of Lok Sabha - 543 Elected Members of Rajya Sabha - 233

http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/parliament.aspx



16


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

11 39

Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and (d) 2 Neither 1 nor 2

A Easy Fundamental Basic

Indian Polity by M Lakshmikant Chapter 22, ...Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases: 1. if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;... ...It should be noted here that, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly- elected Lok Sabha meets

https://indiankanoon.org/doc/139447/

12 40

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ? (a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty. (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty. (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people. (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

B Moderate

Conceptual Question

Where there are no laws to protect or provide freedom and liberty, violations of the same take place. Where the law and law makers do not support liberty then its existence gets endangered.

https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/law-liberty/

13 41

Consider the following statements : 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


Indian Polity by M Lakshmikant Chapter 26, Conditions of Governor's Office - ...His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office... ...He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned...


14 45

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People’s responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Rule of Law, limits arbitrary use of power by executives People's responsibility to the Government isn't a feature of Rule of Law.

http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/1403/Rule-of-Law-in-India.html



17


15 53

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved. (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State. (d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

B Moderate

Fundamental Basic

Indian Polity by M Lakshmikant Chapter 16 - Emergency Provisions (a) During its operation, the state executive is dismissed and the state legislature is either suspended or dissolved (b) President can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. When the state legislature is thus suspended or dissolved, the Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or to any other authority specified by him in this regard (c) No effect on the Fundamental Rights (d) President can make laws only if Parliament has delegated such powers to him.


16 92

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement ? (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution


Right to Privacy is one of the implicit right under the Right to dignified Life guaranteed in Article 21 of Indian Constitution.

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/right-to-privacy-the-impact-of-the-privacy-verdict-on-the-common-man/article19551786.ece



18


Science and Tech Questions

S. No

Section

Question Answ

er Difficul

ty

Nature of

Question Source and Explanation Web Links

1 55

In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ? 1. Mobile phone operations 2. Banking operations 3. Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

D Easy Current Affairs Based

ATMs in Banking Operations and Protective relays for Controlling Power Grids are synchronized with respect to the common time source of a GPS clock.

https://link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1007%2F978-3-642-18336-2_3.pdf

2 61

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : 1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. 2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. 3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None

A Easy Baisc + Current Affairs

Statement 1 - Correct Statement 2. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary. Hence incorrect

https://www.isro.gov.in/irnss-programme

3 62

Consider the following phenomena : 1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

D Moderate

Current Affairs Based

1. a light beam passing near a massive object (say, the sun) would be deflected from its course. 2. When Einstein applied his equation to the entire universe, he found that the universe would be unstable, easily disturbed into a state in which spacetime would be either expanding or collapsing. So he added a term that came to be called the cosmological constant, symbolized by the Greek letter lambda. It represents a constant amount of energy density throughout space that would supposedly keep the universe stable and changeless. Later, evidence that the universe was indeed expanding led Einstein to renounce lambda. 3. A massive object generates a gravitational field by warping the geometry of the surrounding spacetime

https://www.sciencenews.org/article/einsteins-genius-changed-sciences-perception-gravity



19


4 64

Consider the following pairs : Terms sometimes Context /Topic seen to news 1. Belle II - Artificial experiment Intelligence 2. Blockchain - Digital/ technology Cryptocurrency 3. CRISPR-Cas9 - Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

B Easy Current Affairs Based

Question can be answered with the knowledge of Blockchain (Bitcoin is based on it) and CRISPR-CAS9 (Genome Editing Technology), which were in news quite often

https://www.belle2.org/ https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/blockchain.asp https://www.neb.com/tools-and-resources/feature-articles/crispr-cas9-and-targeted-genome-editing-a-new-era-in-molecular-biology

5 66

When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario ? (a) Border Gateway Protocol (b) Internet of Things (c) Internet Protocol (d) Virtual Private Network

B Easy Current Affairs Based

The Internet of Things (IoT) is a system of physical things embedded with sensors, software, electronics and connectivity to allow it to perform better by exchanging information with other connected devices, the operator or the manufacturer.

https://disruptiveviews.com/the-internet-of-things-iot-in-laymans-terms/

6 84

“3D printing” has applications in which of the following? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

D Easy Current Affairs Based

3D printing technology can be used for creation or production of tools and items for all the given options.

https://www.forbes.com/sites/forbestechcouncil/2018/02/06/11-tech-pros-share-their-favorite-applications-of-3d-printing-technology/#387e41587545



20


7 95

With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements : 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 only

A Easy Fundamental Basic

Statement 1 - PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. Statement 2 - It is GSLV launched satellites that appear to remain fixed in same position in the sky. Statement 3 - GSLV Mk III is a three staged launch vehicle.

http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-the-difference-between-gslv-and-pslv/article6742299.ece



21


Economy Questions

S. No Section Question Answer Difficulty

Nature of Question Source Web Links

1 6

Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news ? (a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank. (b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services. (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards. (d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

C Easy Current Affairs Based

With the demonatisation, the e-payment systems and processes were in news quite often. Both The Hindu and Indian express covered MDR as well

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/spend/what-is-merchant-discount-rate/articleshow/62390733.cms

2 8

With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

D Difficult Current Affairs Based

While Equalisation Levy was in news. It was levied in 2016-17 budget. Recalling the perticular detail on its impact on DTAA is difficult in the examination Equalisation levy has been deliberately kept outside the ambit of the Income tax Act to avoid applicability of double tax treaties.

https://taxguru.in/income-tax/equalisation-levy-equal.html https://www.indianeconomy.net/splclassroom/recommendations-of-the-nk-singh-frbm-review-committee/

3 10

Consider the following statements: 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Moderate Current Affairs Based

ICRA report on Edible oil - Although domestic production is on an increasing trend, imports meet ~70-72% of consumption. Hence import is more than domestic consumption.

https://www.icraresearch.in/Home/GetMethodologyPdf/530



22


4 15

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India? (a) Indian Banks’ Association (b) National Securities Depository Limited (c) National Payments Corporation of India (d) Reserve Bank of India

C Moderate Current Affairs Based

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization for all retail payments in India created under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Its products - Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), RuPay Card, National Financial Switch (NFS), Cheque Truncation System (CTS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) and National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC). National Financial Switch provides for the interlinking of ATMs in India

https://www.npci.org.in/ https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/atm-transactions-npci-lowers-switching-fee/article7181463.ece

5 16

Consider the following statements : 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Moderate Baisc + Current Affairs

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. This refers to the amount of Bank's capital required to offset any risk due to non- payment. 2. It is decided by Central Bank to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/capital-adequacy-ratio

6 28

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements : 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Easy


The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication. 1. The app binds with a device’s ID and mobile number, 2. A user needs to sync bank account 3. UPI pin created by user is required for the transaction

https://www.bhimupi.org.in/what-we-do http://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/bhim-app-narendra-modi-upi-online-transaction-safety-4453599/



23


7 36

Which of the following is/are the aim/ aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ? 1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the\ code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

B Moderate


The government has approved the “Digital India” Plan that aims to connect 2.5 lakh villages to the Internet by 2019 and to bring Wi-Fi access to 2.5 lakh schools, all universities and public places in major cities and major tourist centres.

http://digitalindia.gov.in/content/programme-pillars http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/big-data-big-dangers/article19050181.ece

8 46 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ? (a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims (c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc. (d) The metallic money in circulation in a country

B Easy Baisc + Current Affairs

Concept of "legal tender money" was discussed by major newspapers aftermath of Demonatisation. ‘Legal tender’ is the money that is recognised by the law of the land, as valid for payment of debt. It must be accepted for discharge of debt.

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/all-you-wanted-to-know-about-legal-tender/article9345780.ece

9 47

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then (a) the opportunity cost is zero. (b) the opportunity cost is ignored. (c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public. (d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

B Difficult Fundamental Basic

Opportunity Cost stands for the potential benefit forgeone for carrying out an activity. When a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, the Government has ignored the potential benefit or the Opportunity Cost. The consumers of free products have No opportunity cost for the free commodity, so it cannot be transferred from them to anyone. If the question has only cost as expression, then the answer would have been C.



24


10 48

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output. (b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output. (c) poverty and unemployment increase. (d) imports grow faster than exports.

C Moderate Fundamental Basic

Increase in GNP and per capita GNP may not result in equitable distribution of income in the economy, resulting in increase in Poverty and Unemployment. Hence, a positive quantitative growth may not conote a higher level of Economic Development.

https://www.oecd.org/innovation/research/1824740.pdf

11 49

Consider the following statements : Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. 2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. 3. accumulation of tangible wealth. 4. accumulation of intangible wealth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4


Statement 2 provides the basic definition of the term Human Capital. An intangible wealth gets accumulated with the formation of Human Capital like Music, Patents, Dance forms etc.

https://www.isid.ac.in/~planning/O%20and%20P.pdf

12 50

Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to (a) weak administrative machinery (b) illiteracy (c) high population density (d) high capital-output ratio

D Moderate Fundamental Basic

When capital to output ratio (COR) is high, the amount of capital required for producing one unit of output is high. With increasing COR, the output efficiency reduces. Hence, In case of high Capital to Output ratio, the increased capital may not result in significant increase in output.

http://www.economicsdiscussion.net/articles/capital-formation-meaning-process-and-other-details/1543



25


13 56

Consider the following statements : 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities. 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments. 3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Government. RBI acts as the debt manager for the Centre and the States. As a debt manager, RBI is not only the issuer but also procedurally maintains a record of ownership and the transactions that take place in Government securities. RBI is also the regulator of the market for Government securities.

http://mospi.nic.in/106-government-securities-market

14 67

With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements : 1) India is largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units 2) The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ? a)1 only b)2 only c)Both 1 and 2 d)Neither 1 nor 2

D Moderate


Statement 1 - Largest manufacturer is China. Statement 2 - Solar Power Tariffs are determined by auction

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/solar-power-tariff-drops-to-historic-low-at-rs-2-44-per-unit/articleshow/58649942.cms

15 93

Consider the following: 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

B Moderate Current Affairs Based

MSP is announced majorly for Cereals, Oil seeds, Pulses. That means 2,4,5 and 6 should be included. If one knows that MSP isn't there for coffee than correct answer can be reached in the examination. Please check link for the list of all commodities.

https://cacp.dacnet.nic.in/ViewContents.aspx?Input=1&PageId=36&KeyId=0



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16 96

With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements : 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

C Moderate


The first sentence from the Indian Express link provided says "Even as the government has progressively stepped up its capital infusion in state-owned banks throughout the last decade, the lenders have seen their bottomlines take a steady slide."

http://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/10-year-review-of-psu-banks-equity-return-bank-profitability-fails-to-keep-pace-with-govt-capital-infusion-4765680/

17 97

Consider the following items 1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspapers material containing advertising Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Newspaper Materials with advertisement attracts GST of 5% while it is nill for Cereal grains hulled.

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/government-clarifies-on-gst-on-newspaper-ad-space-sale/articleshow/60196560.cms http://www.techguruplus.com/gst-rate-on-cereal-grains-hulled/



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Current Affairs Questions

S. No Section

Question Answer Difficulty Nature of Question

Source and Explanation Website

1 3

As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment - Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements : 1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households. 2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent; belong to OBCs. 3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

C Difficult Govt. Report

1. Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households. 2. about 45 percentout of the total agricultural households in the country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of agricultural households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were from Scheduled Tribes (ST). 3. Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have earned maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities http://mospi.nic.in/sites/default/files/publication_reports/KI_70_33_19dec14.pdf

2 7

What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’ ? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Easy International Organisations and Bodies

1. Membership of the NSG means among other things access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG. That is one of the major reason for India's push for NSG membership. 2. While NSG has the aim of ensuring non-proliferation of nuclear weapons and nuclear technology but it's membership doesn't mean automatic membership of NPT. India's refusal to sign NPT is one of the hurdle behind India's membership to NSG.

3 14 “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ? (a) Amnesty International (b) International Court of Justice (c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights (d) World Justice Project

D Difficult International Organisations and Bodies

Direct report based question. World Justice Project (WJP) Rule of Law Index measures rule of law adherence in 113 countries and jurisdictions worldwide. It measures performance on eight factors: Constraints on Government Powers, Absence of Corruption, Open Government, Fundamental Rights, Order and Security, Regulatory

https://worldjusticeproject.org/our-work/wjp-rule-law-index/wjp-rule-law-index-2017%E2%80%932018



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Enforcement, Civil Justice, and Criminal Justice.

4 17

The identity platform Aadhaar provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply ? 1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 2. Online authentication using iris is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

B Moderate


1. "Any electronic device" can mean anything like a simple diode circuit, gaming devices, smart watches etc on which integrating Aadhaar API isn't feasible. 2. Aadhar API can be used for online authentication by four methods including Iris.

https://uidai.gov.in/images/FrontPageUpdates/aadhaar_authentication_api_2_0.pdf

5 18

Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ ethnic conflicts ? (a) Angola and Zambia (b) Morocco and Tunisia (c) Venezuela and Colombia (d) Yemen and South Sudan

D Moderate International Events

The World Food Program (WFP) said on its website that of the 13 largest food crises in the world today, 10 crises in Afghanistan, Burundi, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Iraq, Nigeria, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Syria and Yemen are conflict-related.

http://www.xinhuanet.com/english/2018-05/25/c_137204570.htm

6 23

Consider the following statements : 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Difficult National Organisations and Bodies

While FSSAI is under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, it isn't under the charge of Director General of Health Services

https://barandbench.com/india-law-connect/legal-briefing/shift-from-the-prevention-of-food-adulteration-act-1954-to-food-safety-and-standards-act-2006/

7 24

The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (a) China (b) Israel (c) Iraq (d) Yemen

B Easy International Events

Two state solution is used for the States of Israel and Palestine.

https://www.washingtonpost.com/news/posteverything/wp/2018/02/28/why-a-two-state-solution-for-israel-and-palestine-is-closer-than-you-think/?noredirect=on



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8 26 India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to (a) ILO (b) IMF (c) UNCTAD (d) WTO

D Moderate International Organisations and Bodies

As per the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPs) under WTO, countries are required to provide minimum set of protection to many forms of intellectual property (IP). Geographical Indication (GI) is one of the intengible asset and intellectual property of the special geographic region and community.

http://www.ipc-eui.org/sites/default/files/events/files/GI-Presentation%20-CGPDTM_Part%20-%201.pdf

9 30 International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (a) Child labour (b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change (c) Regulation of food prices and food security (d) Gender parity at the workplace

A Easy International Organisations and Bodies Both of these ILO conventions were

ratified by India in 2017. International Labour Organization’s (ILO) Conventions 138 is regarding admission of age to employment and Convention 182 relates to worst forms of child labour.

http://www.ilo.org/ipec/facts/ILOconventionsonchildlabour/lang--en/index.htm

10 33

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the `International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) ? (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. (b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA. (c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). (d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

A Moderate International Organisations and Bodies

An Additional Protocol (AP) to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014. Under the protocol - 1. The IAEA is given considerably more information on nuclear and nuclear-related activities, including R&D, production of uranium and thorium (regardless of whether it is traded) and nuclear-related imports and exports. 2. IAEA inspectors have greater rights of access. This includes any suspect location, at short notice (eg. two hours), and the IAEA can deploy environmental sampling and remote monitoring techniques to detect illicit activities. 3. States must streamline administrative procedures so that IAEA inspectors get automatic visa renewal and can communicate more readily with IAEA headquarters

https://www.iaea.org/newscenter/news/indias-additional-protocol-enters-force



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11 34

Consider the following countries : 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ? (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

C Easy International Events

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) in news, is between ASEAN and 6 of its Free Trade Partners. India, China, Australia, New Zealand, Japan, South Korea

https://www.aseanbriefing.com/news/2017/12/07/aseans-free-trade-agreements-an-overview.html

12 35

With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/ are correct ? 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

B Difficult International Organisations and Bodies

http://www.fao.org/gacsa/events/details/en/c/279460/

13 43

What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ? (a) An Israeli radar system (b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme (c) An American anti-missile system (d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea


Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is a United States Army antiballistic missile system. US deployed THAAD to South Korea to protect South Korea from North Korea

https://www.businessinsider.in/The-US-military-is-reportedly-looking-to-install-anti-missile-defenses-in-Germany-and-its-sure-to-rankle-Russia/articleshow/64421798.cms

14 58 The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (a) Exoplanets (b) Cryptocurrency (c) Cyber attacks (d) Mini satellites


1. WannaCry was a ransomware attack. It locked people out of their computers and demanded payment to let them back in. 2. Petya is a family of encrypting ransomware that was first discovered in 2016. The malware targets Microsoft Windows-based systems. 3. EternalBlue is the name given to a software vulnerability in Microsoft's Windows operating system. It can read and write files on the computer. The exploit was possibly used as part of wannacry ransomware attack.

https://www.theguardian.com/technology/2017/dec/30/wannacry-petya-notpetya-ransomware



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15 78

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. 2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. 3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

C Moderate


Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 1. Flagship scheme of Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) launched in July 2015. 2. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. 3. PMKVY has a crucial role to improve productivity through creation of a pool of industry and National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF) aligned skilled workforce

http://www.skilldevelopment.gov.in/pmkvy.html

16 83

The Partnership for Action on GreenEconomy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at (a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro (c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris (d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

B Moderate International Organisations and Bodies

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.

http://www.un-page.org/about/who-are-we

17 88

“Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by Climate Change (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (b) The UNEP Secretariat (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat (d) The World Meteorological Organization

C Moderate International Organisations and Bodies

Climate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by the UN Climate Change in 2015, aiming at encouraging and supporting all levels of society to take climate action to achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement

https://unfccc.int/climate-action/momentum-for-change/climate-neutral-now



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