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Page 1: General Training Module

ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL

TRAINING MODULE

Page 2: General Training Module

GENERAL TRAINING LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 1

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 5

Complete the form below.Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

PAN ASIAN AIRWAYS

LOST PROPERTY REPORT FORM

Surname Allen

Address (1) ____________________ Windham Road RichmondPostcode (2) ____________________

Home tel. 020 8927 7651

Mobile tel. (3) ____________________

Flight Number (4) ____________________

Seat Number (5) ____________________

From New York

To London Heathrow

Page 1

Example Answer

First Name Kirsty

General Training Test 1; Page 1© ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL TRAINING MODULEPRACTICE TEST 1

Page 3: General Training Module

Questions 6 - 8

Circle THREE letters A - F.

What items did Kirsty’s bag contain?

A 17 pounds

B pens

C her passport

D a book E 200 dollars

F her house keys

Questions 9 and 10

Choose a letter (A - D) that correctly answers questions 9 and 10.

9 What has Kirsty done regarding the loss of her credit card?

A Informed the police but not the credit card company.

B Informed the credit card company but not the police.

C Informed both the police and the credit card company.

D Informed neither the police nor the credit card company.

10 What must Kirsty do after the call regarding her lost handbag?

A Call back after 11⁄2 hours.

B Just wait for a call back.

C Call back after 11⁄2 hours if she has heard nothing.

D Call back the next day if she has heard nothing.

General Training Test 1; Page 2© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 4: General Training Module

SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 14

Label the locations on the map below.

(14)_____________________________________________

Car Park

(11)___________________________________________________

(13) __________________________________________________

Hallof

Residence (12)____________________________________ Refectory

General Training Test 1; Page 3© ieltshelpnow.com

MainLecture

Hall

WE ARE HERE

Page 5: General Training Module

Questions 15 - 20

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Notes on Student Facilities

Students’ Union Very Cheap Bookshop Food and drink available Parties! Offices - travel, welfare etc. Open 8am - 12 midnight

Library Must register Tours every (15) ____________________ for 2 weeks. Open 9am - 9pm (later during (16) ____________________)

Refectory Cheap meals Lunch 12 noon - 3pm Dinner (17) __________ - 8.30pm Types of food - favourites healthy ethnic (18) ____________________ vegan

Sports Hall Must join Athletic Union which - lets me use facilities lets me play for teams (19) ______________ me all year

Discount Card Costs (20) £_______________ Gives me discounts on all uni. services

General Training Test 1; Page 4© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 6: General Training Module

SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 25

Complete the table below.Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

John JaneDay of Arrival Thursday (21) _______________________Subjects Studying economics

mathsfrench

(22) _______________________historymusic

Monday’s 9am lecture french historyMonday’s 2pm lecture maths (23) _______________________Wednesday afternoon sportselected

(24) _______________________ volleyball

Location of Sport sports hall (25) _______________________

Questions 26 - 29

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.26 Students can choose from how many essay titles for their first assignment?

_________________________________________________________________________

27 Where did John travel during the summer?

_________________________________________________________________________

28 What is the word limit for the essays?

_________________________________________________________________________

29 When must the first essay be handed in by?

_________________________________________________________________________

Question 30

Circle the correct letter A - C.

30 Where will John and Jane meet up later that day?

A the economics course office B the economics common room C the campus cafeteria

General Training Test 1; Page 5© ieltshelpnow.com

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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 34

Choose the correct letters A - C.

31 Japan relies on oil tankers because...

A the country consists of islands. B the country has no pipeline network. C the country has no natural oil resources.

32 Professor Wilson says that oil tankers are...

A very safe. B quite safe. C quite unsafe.

33 According to Professor Wilson, the main cause of oil slicks is...

A accidents while loading and unloading oil. B collisions. C deliberate releases of oil.

34 According to Professor Wilson, slicks are rarely burned off nowadays because...

A the oil is refined. B it usually doesn’t work. C it creates too much air pollution.

General Training Test 1; Page 6© ieltshelpnow.com

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Questions 35 - 39

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Oil exploration clean-up techniques

Techniques Advantages DisadvantagesThe Containment Boom Cheap and easy Only good when there are

(35) ____________________________________

Chemical Detergents Good for treating (36) ____________________________________

Chemicals remain in the water +kill marine life.

The Sponge Oil remains permanently in the sponge.

The sponge mats turn into(37) __________________________________________________

Bacteria CheapEasy to administerTotally (38) ____________________________________________

(39) _______________________

Question 40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Optional essay question.

Remember to check out the faculty’s notice boards. You will find:

* reading lists * essay questions * (40) __________________________________________________

General Training Test 1; Page 7© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 9: General Training Module

GENERAL TRAINING READING PRACTICE TEST 1

SECTION 1 Questions 1 – 12

Questions 1 – 6

There are 5 advertisements on the next page.

Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate advertisement in boxes 1 – 6 on your answer sheet. Your answer may require more than one letter.

1 Which is the most luxurious hotel?

2 Which advertisement is NOT for a hotel?

3 Which hotel offers the cheapest deal for 2 people for 1 night?

4 At which TWO hotels can you have a party?

5 Which hotel helps you with water sports?

6 At which place can you NOT make an advanced reservation?

Example Which TWO advertisments have a website?

Answer C + D

General Training Test 1; Page 8© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 10: General Training Module

THE HARBOUR VIEW HOTEL

Tourist Board ***

$100 PER PERSON PER NIGHT

• Tours arranged• Private car park• Restaurant• All bedrooms en suite• Short bus ride from Sydney City

Centre• Parties catered for

For reservations call:Tel 02 6412 5883Fax 02 4185 6622

SUNRISE GUEST HOUSE

1 STAR HOTEL

$49.99 Double room (shared bathroom)

• 15 mins from beach• on bus route to City Centre• surf equipment hire available• modestly priced restaurant

Tel 02 4113 6386 Fax 02 5834 2687

BA

CTHE ROYALE HOTEL

*****Sydney’s most famous hotel with high class

luxury rooms from $250 a night

• All airport transfers arranged• 4 different restaurants• Private beach• 2 swimming pools• Functions arranged

For the luxury stay of a lifetime, call: Tel 02 4173 0938 Fax 02 3156 2188

www.theroyalehotel.co.au

D SYDNEY’S BEST ACCOMMODATION AGENCY

We can arrange all your needs for accommodation from budget to five star. Call:

Tel: 02 4152 3116 Fax: 02 3852 1113

Or check our website at: www.stayinoz.com

STAY HERE

ESYDNEY YOUTH HOSTEL

ONLY $25 PER NIGHT!!

• Dormitory sleeping• Shared bathrooms• Cheap restaurant• Television room• Travel advice

No Booking 35 Gold Street Sydney Just turn up Tel: 02 8614 1738 Rated 1* hotel

General Training Test 1; Page 9© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 11: General Training Module

Questions 7 - 10

Look at the contents page of a local magazine on the following page.

Answer questions 7 – 10 by writing the appropriate page number or numbers where the information appears in the magazine, in boxes 7 – 10 on your answer sheet. Your answer may require more than one page number.

7 What page would you turn to for a crossword?

8 On what TWO pages can you read about sports?

9 On what page can you read about readers’ complaints?

10 What page would you turn to if you wanted to go to the cinema?

Questions 11 and 12

Look again at the contents page of the local magazine.

Answer Questions 11 and 12 by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in boxes 11 and 12 on your answer sheet.

11 What does Alan Richards write about?

12 What is the subject of Pierre Arlangue’s photographs in his new book?

General Training Test 1; Page 10© ieltshelpnow.com

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WHAT TO DO IN WESTLEY

JULY ISSUEWHAT TO DO IN WESTLEY

Features

Cover Story Cup Fever 20

The town is buzzing with our localfootball team’s advances in the countycup. We bring you interviews with theplayers and a preview of Westley FC’snext game, a local derby against Eastley.

Eating Out – Pub Grub 39

If you’re feeling too lazy to cook butdon’t want to dig too deep into yourpockets, we’ll tell you some of thebest places in town for good, pub food.

Regulars

First Word 5

All your rants and raves, and queries.

News 18

All the latest stories and news fromaround Westley.

Puzzle Corner 95

All your favourites to keep you busy.

CONTENTS

Art & Culture 62

The key cultural experiences to catch on your summer holidays. Why not take a painting course at Café des Artistes?

Body and Mind 65

What To Do Magazine reviews gyms, spas and health centers in Westley.

Books 67

French photographer Pierre Arlangue’s study of the most famous peaks in the Alps, local author John Roberts, and lots of international literary news.

Children 71

The Ferndale shopping center introduces Toy Town, the Gymboree Summer party and kiddies’ critics’ choice.

Film 73

New movies out and what our movie buff Alan Richards thinks about them.

Music 80

Info on live music around town plus all the latest singles and albums reviewed.

Nightlife 85

Catch the view at the Riverside Pub and the new band at the Jazz Bar.

Outdoor 90

The continuation of our “Wildlife near Westley”.

General Training Test 1; Page 11

© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 13: General Training Module

SECTION 2 Questions 13 – 27

Questions 13 – 17

Look at the Guide for Patients for Westley General Hospital on the following page and the statements (questions 13 – 17) below:

In boxes 13 – 17 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

13 Don’t bring any money to the hospital.

14 Radios can interfere with hospital electronic equipment.

15 Leave any false teeth at home.

16 You should pack a bag to stay for the night even if you intend only to be a day patient.

17 Telephone services are provided through coin or card operated telephones.

Questions 18 – 20

The Guide for Patients for Westley General Hospital has information divided into sections A – I. Which section best helps you with the following things that you want to know. Write the appropriate letter (A - I) in boxes 18 – 20 on your answer sheet.

18 You are allergic to some antibiotics.

19 Your brother wants to know when to come and see you.

20 You want to buy something to read at the hospital.

General Training Test 1; Page 12© ieltshelpnow.com

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WESTLEY GENERAL HOSPITALGUIDE FOR PATIENTS

When you come to hospital for a planned stay, please remember that space is limited. We also advise you to bring an overnight bag even if you are only expecting to spend a day in hospital.

A Clothing

Please bring a selection of light clothing and personal belongings that may include: night clothes, a track suit, a sweater or fleece, a bathrobe, slippers or socks, glasses, contact lenses, dentures, a hearing aid, bottled drinks (plastic only), tissues, books and magazines, contact details of friends, cash to purchase items during your stay.

B Toiletries

Please bring a selection with you including a shaving kit if you are male. The hospital also runs a shop and trolley service from which extra items (additional toiletries, magazines, stamps, newspapers etc.) can be purchased.

C Valuables

We strongly advise you not to bring any valuables with you as their security cannot be guaranteed. A closet is provided for some personal items.

D Electrical appliances

We ask that you do not bring electrical appliances with you. TV, radio and payphones are provided.

E Medicines

Please bring all your current medication with you, preferably in their original containers. On arrival the nursing staff will ask about your history and allergies.

F Maternity

Please bring the appropriate baby clothes and feeding equipment. For further information, please contact the Maternity Unit on 740648.

G What Not to Bring

Please do not bring any valuables (jewellery), personal computers, radios, TVs. The hospital cannot be held responsible for the loss of any items during your stay. Please note that the hospital does not allow the use of mobile telephones due to possible interference with patient monitoring equipment.

H Smoking and Drinking Policy

Smoking and alcohol are strictly prohibited in Westley Hospital. Patients wishing to smoke must do so outdoors. No alcohol is allowed on the premises.

I Visiting Hours

For details about when your friends and family can visit, see the list in your room or ward or check our website.

General Training Test 1; Page 13© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 15: General Training Module

Questions 21 – 24

Look at the Computer Services Training information leaflet from the University of Westley. Complete the following statements (Questions 21 – 24) with words taken from the leaflet.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21 – 24 on your answer sheet.

21 If a student has any further questions, he or she should ask someone at _______________.

22 Computer courses that are not instructor-led, for undergraduates and postgraduates, can last as long as students like because they are _______________.

23 All the materials provided for the courses are produced _______________.

24 Any previous computer course in the archives can be re-used and also changed to be _______________ to the requirements of students.

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University of WestleyComputing Services Training

Traditional Instructor–Led Courses

We run courses on software and techniques for which we see a significant need within the University amongst staff and research students. To see details of these courses, and the current schedule, please enquire at the computing centre.

Self-Paced Training Materials

These take various forms but the main materials are workbooks which are designed for use alongside applications software, and allow you to work your way through at your own pace.

These introductory workbooks are designed for undergraduates and postgraduates on taught courses, so that, if departments do not provide specific computer use training, students can still acquire the skills required to benefit from the main items of software provided on open access PCs. These workbooks are Westley University specific, written in-house, so they tell you precisely what you have to do on an open access PC, but they can also function as introductory material for staff and research students with office PCs. They cover basic computer use and IT-related library skills.

There are also workbooks for most of the current mainstream applications, so if there are no tutor-led courses at convenient times for you, or if you cannot spare the time to attend a course, or if we do not cover the application you wish to learn, or if you simply prefer to train at your own pace, you can use this material.

Workbooks and related course materials used on previous courses are still available, so if we have stopped giving a particular course, you can probably still obtain copies of the notes and exercises.

We can run any of our current or past courses, adapted to be tailor-made to the needs of particular groups, or we can develop courses to order if they are more or less in the areas of computer use we support. Providing there is sufficient demand, we will do our best to accommodate your requirements.

Computer staff can also contribute to academic departments’ teaching, but there are usually fees involved, particularly for significant amounts of course development or delivery. There is no fee if you want to incorporate any of our workbooks or other materials in courses you give yourself.

General Training Test 1; Page 15© ieltshelpnow.com

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Questions 25 – 27

Read the Computer Services Training information leaflet again from the University of Westley and look at the statements below (questions 25 – 27).

In boxes 25 – 27 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

25 Some departments at the university do not provide the computer training needed for their courses.

26 If you cannot come for a course at a suitable time, you can do the course at home over the internet using self-study materials.

27. Other departments at the university usually have to pay a charge if they want to use computer department staff for teaching.

General Training Test 1; Page 16© ieltshelpnow.com

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SECTION 3 Questions 28 – 40

Read the following passage and answer questions 28 – 40.

SOME SNAKES OF AUSTRALIA

The most deadly Australian snake is undoubtedly the taipan (oxyuranus scutellatus). There are two types of taipan found in Australia, the coastal taipan and the inland or western taipan, the latter being the most venomous land snake found on earth.

Growing to a possible length of 2.9 metres, the taipan has a light olive to dark brown back with a lighter coloured head. The underbelly is cream in colour. The taipan can be found in open forests, coastal heaths, grassy beach dunes and cultivated areas such as cane fields. It lives in the far north of Australia and down the Queensland coast, but has been found as far north as the Murray river in western New South Wales.

The taipan is an aggressive hunter, moving at speed through grasslands with ease. On finding its prey by scent, the reptile flings itself at the victim and inflicts several rapid bites. Like most other venomous snakes, the taipan uses its venom sparingly. As they don’t regard man as prey, they have been known to strike and bite without releasing any venom at all, leading to no adverse effects.

Although the taipan is the deadliest Australian snake, few snakes can match the sinister reputation of the eastern tiger snake (notechis scutatis). However, recent observations indicate that their ferocity and aggressiveness are not as bad as once thought and that actually they are fairly timid. There are different types of tiger snake found in Australia but they are all highly poisonous and should be avoided. Until recently tiger snakes held the record for the most snakebite fatalities (now overtaken by the eastern brown snake).

The body of the tiger snake has cross bands of yellow or cream on a background of grey, green or brown and this is what gives them their name. They have a heavy build and can grow up to 1.8 metres. In the wild they are mainly a swamp dwelling species and are often found around waterways. Their habitat is now threatened by the clearing of such areas for development. They have been known, though, to climb into surrounding vegetation to a height of about 1 metre. They mainly feed on frogs and mice as adults but will take the odd bird or lizard.

Another highly dangerous Australian snake is the copperhead (austrelaps superbus). Although it is non-aggressive, if provoked it raises its forebody from the ground and flattens its neck, angry and hissing, ready to strike. Like all other Australian poisonous snakes it is an elapid, which means it has a neurotoxic venom. This venom mainly attacks the nerves of the body, but it also contains blood destroying properties. The poison from elapids is generally very dangerous to humans and the copperhead is no exception having very potent venom.

Colour and size vary with where you find the snake. However, they can grow up to 1.8 metres in length and can be tan, brown or black. One feature of copperheads is that they are more tolerant to cold and can be found lying in the sun in mid-winter when other snakes are hibernating.

The food of the copperhead, like most snakes, is frogs and reptiles. What is unusual is that they are threats to each other because they are sometimes prone to cannibalism.

Pythons are also found in Australia, the carpet python (morlelia spilota) being the most General Training Test 1; Page 17

© ieltshelpnow.com

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common. There are several different types of carpet python in Australia. They are widespread and can be found in a variety of habitat from wet tropics to dry, nearly arid, desert. They can be found in variable colours but usually have lighter blotches on a darker background. Carpet pythons are also bigger than most Australian snakes and can grow up to a length of almost 4 metres.

The carpet python is largely nocturnal and preys mainly on mammals, birds and reptiles. Non-venomous, pythons bite into their prey and, when the prey struggles, it only sinks further onto the fangs. Next, the python coils around the animal to squeeze its breath out or, in some cases, to constrict its muscles and cause the main blood vessels to burst.

One of the easiest snakes to identify in Australia is the bandy bandy (vermicelli annulata). This is a distinctly marked elapid snake with black and white bands around it. It is found in 80% of mainland Australia. The bandy bandy averages about 60cm in length but can grow up to 80cm. It is found in all types of habitat from rainforest to swamps to deserts. It is usually found during the day under cover or on a mild night moving around the ground.

The bandy bandy is a crepuscular or after-dark hunter though it seldom feeds due to its low metabolic rate. Unlike many of its cousins in Australia, it only feeds on blind snakes. Being an elapid, the bandy bandy is definitely a poisonous snake and looks alarmingly dangerous as it resembles the Malay krait and, when threatened, will flatten its body and raise its body in an aggressive manner. However, the markings and behaviour are a bluff and its venom is only mild and virtually harmless to humans.

Questions 28 – 33

Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. Write

your answers in boxes 28 – 33 on your answer sheet.

28 Which snake is not an elapid?

29 Which snake will eat other snakes of the same species?

30 Which snake doesn’t require much food?

31 Which snake is potentially the largest?

32 Which snake’s primary food is other snakes?

33 Which snake can sometimes be found in trees?

General Training Test 1; Page 18© ieltshelpnow.com

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Questions 34 – 40

After reading the passage about Australian snakes, look at the statements below.

In boxes 34 – 40 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is not true

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

34 A bite from a taipan is always fatal to humans.

35 Tiger snakes got their name from their supposed aggressiveness.

36 Elapid snakes are always poisonous

37 Copperhead snake poison is not that harmful to humans.

38 The carpet python can kill humans.

39 Bandy bandy snakes are found outside Australia.

40 You’ll never find a bandy bandy over 1 metre long.

General Training Test 1; Page 19© ieltshelpnow.com

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GENERAL TRAINING WRITING PRACTICE TEST 1

WRITING TASK 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

Last week you were on a flight to London. Unfortunately, when you left the plane, you left a bag. You did not remember about the bag until you got to your hotel.

Write a letter to the airline. Explain what has happened, describe the bag and its contents and say what you would like them to do about it.

You should write at least 150 words.

You do NOT need to write your own address. Begin your letter as follows:

Dear Sir,

WRITING TASK 2

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

Children today are too dependent on computers and electronic entertainment. Itwould be better for them to be outside playing sports and taking part in moretraditional pastimes than spending all day indoors.

Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

You should write at least 250 words.

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GENERAL TRAINING SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 1Section 1

* Tell me about your family.* Where do they live?* What do you like doing when you are with your family?

Topic 1 Health and Exercise

* What sorts of things do you do to keep healthy?* What other sorts of things are popular in your country to keep healthy?* What sorts of exercise do you not like doing?* How can we get young people to do more exercise?

Topic 2 Music

* What is your favourite type of music and why?* Do you think that a country’s traditional music is important for its culture? (Why?)* Why do people’s tastes in music often change as they get older?* What are some of the different uses of music in your country?

Describe your favourite film or television programme. You should say: when you watch it who is in it what happens in it and explain why you particularly like it

Section 2

Section 3

Topic 1 TV and Radio

* Why do you think television has become so popular over the last 50 years?* Do you think that there is still a future for radio with television being so popular?* Which is better for presenting the news: television or radio? (Why?)* How can we stop young people today watching too much television?

Topic 2 Films and Cinema

* Can you compare television and cinema as forms of entertainment?* Do people in your country prefer American films or films from their part of the World?* How do you think World cinema will develop over the next 50 years?* Do you feel that “film stars” are overpaid for what they do?

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GENERAL TRAINING LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 2

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 6

Circle the correct letters A - C.

1 Mr. Griffin has been to the Sunrise Hotel..

A once previously. B twice previously. C three times previously.

2 Mr. Griffin is from...

A Melbourne. B Sydney. C Perth.

3 Mr. Griffin’s passport number is...

A 87647489. B 87637289. C 87637489.

4 Mr. Griffin wants to book...

A a single room for 2 nights. B a double room for 2 nights. C a single room for 1 night.

Example

Mr. Griffin is coming for...

A a holiday. B a business trip. C to see family.

General Training Test 2; Page 1© ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL TRAINING MODULEPRACTICE TEST 2

Page 24: General Training Module

Questions 7 - 10

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

7 What number room will Mr. Griffin be in at the Sunrise Hotel?

__________________

8 How much will Mr. Griffin pay per night at the Sunrise Hotel?

$_________________

9 Who will take Mr. Griffin’s food to his room?

__________________________________________________________

10 How much will Mr. Griffin pay for his food?

$_________________

5 Mr. Griffin will arrive at the Sunrise Hotel at...

A 9.15 pm. B 10.00 pm. C 9.35 pm.

6 When he gets to the Sunrise Hotel, The food Mr. Griffin will find in his room will be... A a cheese sandwich with fries. B a cheese sandwich. C a burger.

General Training Test 2; Page 2© ieltshelpnow.com

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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 15

Complete the descriptions below.

Below are descriptions that Police have released for the two men wanted in connection with the robbery at the local jewellery store, Nicholls.

Man 1

Height (11) ___________Build SlightHair DarkFace Small moustacheAge Early 20sClothing Blue jeans White t-shirt (12) ___________ Motorbike helmet

Man 2

Height 5 foot 8Build (13) ___________Hair RedFace (14) ___________Age (15) ___________Clothing Dark blue sweater Black jeans Motorbike helmet

PHOTOFIT PICTURES TO BE RELEASED LATER TODAY

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Questions 16 - 20

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

* CompTec blamed the job losses on reduced sales and (16) _____________________ _________________________.

* The airport route expansion will result in a (17) _________________________ of new jobs.

* The Oakley Woods development project was opposed by local residents and local (18) _____________________________________. George Finchly, the Westley (19) __________________________, gave the news to the media.

* East Moors CC will play their final on Sunday (20) _______________________ August.

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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 26

Complete the admission tutor’s notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

ADMISSION TUTOR’S NOTES

Student’s Name Robert Johnson

Subject to study (21) _________________________________________________

Why this subject Always interested Father’s field At school, good at mathematics and (22) ____________________

Gap year Worked and travelled in Australia and New Zealand

Jobs during Gap Year (23) _________________________________________________ Pub work (24) _________________________________________________ Building site

Why Westley University Department has (25) ___________________________________ Graduates from Westley get jobs in industry quickly Near Snowdonia for (26) ________________________________ Likes football - Westley has lots of teams

General Training Test 2; Page 5© ieltshelpnow.com

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Questions 27 - 30

Complete Robert’s notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

ROBERT JOHNSON’S NOTES

Type of Course (27) _______________________________ (3rd year in industry)

Assessment Year 1 5 exams

Year 2 (28) _________________________________

Year 3 No assessment

Year 4 Dissertation of (29) _______________________________ 8 final exams during (30) __________________________

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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 33

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

31 The lecture will be useful for any students who are writing ___________________________ _________________________________.

32 Modernised countries are described by the speaker as now being ____________________ _________________________________.

33 The size of a sample depends on the __________________________________________ required.

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Questions 34 - 40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Survey Size Depends on statistical quality needed and total population size A 1000 individual survey can reflect the total population

Types of Survey

Advantages DisadvantagesMail (34) _____________________

Good for particular groupsNot good for decent response rate

Telephone Good for when time and survey length are limited

(35) _____________________

In-Person Good for collecting complex information

Can mean lots of(36) _____________________

Street Interview (37) _____________________ Not scientific sampling

Survey Content Questions can ask about: opinions and attitudes factual characteristics or behaviour Questions can be open-ended or (38) __________________________ Questions can be from 5 mins long to 1 hour + Survey can be (39) ____________________________ - interviewees can be questioned on 2 or more occasions

Ethics Results must not be used commercially Individuals should not be mentioned Results should be in (40) ____________________________________ ie: statistical tables or charts

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GENERAL TRAINING READING PRACTICE TEST 2

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 13

Questions 1 – 6

There are 5 advertisements A – E on the next page.

Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate advertisement in boxes 1 – 6 on your answer sheet. Your answer may require more than one letter.

Example Which restaurant offers a price reduction on takeaways?

Answer C

1 Which advertisement is NOT for a restaurant?

2 Which restaurant can cater for parties?

3 Which restaurant does NOT offer a takeaway service?

4 Which restaurant will give you extra food if you give them a coupon?

5 Which restaurant cannot sell alcohol?

6 Which advertisement is valid for only 2 weeks?

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A SPECIAL OFFERBuy 1 pizza (any size)

Get another one free (same type)For 2 weeks only

We invite you to come over for a special treat at Zambino’s Pizzeria. All you have to do is show this voucher with your order and we will cook TWO of whatever pizza you order. The

second pizza will be completely FREE.

ZAMBINO’S PIZZERIA(Fully licensed)

Offer expires 8th July Eat in or takeaway Not be used in conjunction with any other offer 13 Station Road, Bournemouth Free Delivery Tel: 01202 836728

B The Beachcomber Fish and Chips Restaurant

Eating in or takeaway, you’ll be sure to love our full range of

chippie favourites.• Cod, plaice, rock salmon, monkfish• Sausages• Pies• A range of soft drinks (only)• The BEST chips on the south coast!

56 Sea Road, BournemouthTel 864256

C

DE

ZENJAPANESE RESTAURANT

Fine dining in the best Japanese traditions. Come and enjoy the renowned

creations of our chef, Kyoko. Choose from our set menus or a la carte

and try our fully licensed bar.

49 Bournemouth High Street, Bournemouth

Reservations 01202 945168

Cash and Carry OutThe low cost supplier of quality foodstuffs for

restaurants in the Bournemouth area.

• Fish and seafood• Quality meats• Fruit and vegetables• Dairy produce• Herbs and spices• Frozen goods

135 – 138 Church Road, BournemouthTel 01202 512075

Card holders only. Phone or drop in to apply.

Fully Licensed Tel 896542

The Taj MahalIndian Cuisine

• 10% discount on takeaways• Home delivery• Separate function room• Open for lunch and dinner

35 Dean Way, BournemouthTel 01202 745973

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Questions 7 – 13

Read the advertisements for events at the Sunshine Hotel below and then answer the questions that follow.

SUNSHINE HOTELCHILDREN’S ACTIVITIES SCHEDULE FOR WEEK BEGINNING 7th JULY

Monday 7.7

Kids Club on the beach with Kathy. Games and activities from 9.30 – 12.30 and then 2.00 – 5.00. Don’t forget your swimming costume! Evening video: Hercules Saves the Day. The intrepid pony saves his rider when he falls into a river.

Tuesday 8.7

Kids Club on the beach with Kathy. Timings as on Monday. Evening video: Jake’s Party. Jake throws a party for his friends when his parents go away.

Wednesday 9.7

Kids Club outing to Westlands Adventure Park. All day trip so, Mums and Dads, don’t forget to order the special kids packed lunches from the hotel the day before and $8 extra each entrance money. Leaving from in front of the Hotel at 10.00 and coming back at 4.30. Evening video: The Day of the Lion. Adventure yarn about a boy living on a farm in South Africa.

Thursday 10.7

Kids Club on the beach with Kathy. Timings as on Monday. In the evening, singing songs on the beach while sitting round the fire. Andrew will do some night fishing off the beach.

Friday 11.7

Sports Day Contests from 10.00 – 12.00. Running, swimming and a host of other races. Then trekking in the afternoon from 2.00 – 5.00. Evening video double bill: The Masked Sheriff followed by The Masked Sheriff Rides Again. The 2 Hollywood blockbusters on one night.

Saturday 12.7

Kids club on the beach with Kathy. Timings as on Monday. Snorkling lessons in the afternoon. Evening: fancy dress party round the pool (6.00 – 9.00). Prizes for best outfits. Games and gifts galore.

Sunday 13.7

Late start on the beach for Kids Club (10.00) and then normal timings. Evening video: The Lost Ship. Swashbuckling pirate movie.

* * * * *

All activities included in the week’s price ($45) except where indicated. All videos start at 7.00pm. In the case of bad weather, all outdoor activities will be held in the Hallows function room.

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Questions 7 – 10

Read the schedule for children’s events at the Sunshine Hotel on the previous page.

Answer the questions below by writing the appropriate day in boxes 7 – 10 on your answer sheet. Your answer may require more than one day.

Example On which TWO days are there no videos?

Answer Thursday + Saturday

7 On which TWO days are there competitions?

8 Which day’s afternoon activities finish the earliest?

9 Which day’s film is about a horse?

10 On which day are the food arrangements different?

Questions 11 – 13

Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 11 – 13 on your answer sheet.

11 Where will the kids go on Thursday morning if it’s raining?

12 What is the full, inclusive price for all activities for the week?

13 What time does Kids Club finish on Sunday?

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SECTION 2 Questions 14 – 27

Questions 14 – 17

Read the Information for Students notice for the Westley School of English on the next page and look at the statements below (Questions 14 – 17).

In boxes 14 – 17 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

14 Students may not use their own floppy discs in the school’s computers.

15 Students can go into the Language Lab at 8.30 on Thursday mornings.

16 Students can have a cooked breakfast in the cafe before their morning classes.

17 The police will visit any student not completing the required attendance levels.

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WESTLEY SCHOOL OF ENGLISH

Information for StudentsTimings

The school is open Mon – Fri from 7.30am to 9.00pm and on Saturday from 9.00am to 12.30pm.

CLASS TIMINGS (Mon – Fri) Lesson 1 8.45am – 10.15pm Lesson 2 10.45am – 12.15pm Lesson 3 2.00pm – 3.30pm

Computer Room

The school has a fully equipped computer lab with a free 24-hour internet connection. Students may use the computers at any time during school opening hours unless any class or activity is scheduled. In the evenings there is a booking system for the computers. Please read the rules for this in the computer room. Be advised that, due to the risk of viruses, students are not allowed to bring in and use their own disks or CDs.

Self Access and Language Lab

The lab is open and available for all students during school opening hours. There are tapes and self-study materials available for all levels. In the break times and the evenings there is a teacher on duty who can assist students with accessing material.

Cafeteria

The school cafeteria is open from 8.15am to 5.00pm. The cafeteria only sells hot food at lunchtime. A selection of sandwiches, snacks and hot or cold drinks are available at other times during the rest of the day.

Attendance

All students who come to the UK on student visas are required by law to attend a minimum of 85% of their scheduled courses. The school is required to inform the Department of Immigration of any student not fulfilling his visa obligations. A minimum attendance of 85% is also required for students to receive their course certificate.

Fees

All fees must be paid in full before the start of any course. A non-returnable deposit of 10% will secure a reservation on a course but the balance must be paid before classes begin.

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Questions 18 – 20

Read the Information for Students notice for the Westley School of English again. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 18 – 20 on your answer sheet.

18 What time does school open on Wednesday mornings?

19 Where are the computer booking rules?

20 What is the minimum deposit to book a place on a course?

Questions 21 – 24

Read the the Westley Central Surgery Information Leaflet on the next 2 pages and look at the statements below (Questions 21 – 24).

In boxes 21 – 24 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

21 Ten minutes is the maximum available length for an appointment.

22 If you have had an x-ray, call the surgery no earlier than one week following the date of the x-ray for the result.

23 You cannot order a repeat prescription over the phone.

24 One of the practice’s four doctors will conduct a New Patients Health Check with any new patients to the practice.

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Westley Central Surgery Information

Opening Hours

Monday to Friday 8.30am – 6.00pmSaturday 9.00am – 10.00am (emergencies only)

Surgeries

Ten-minute appointments are given, although longer periods can be allocated on request. Morning surgery is between 8.30am and 11.00am, and afternoon surgery between 3.00pm and 5.30pm. These times may change during holiday periods and for staff training. We will always see you the same day for an urgent problem, although we cannot guarantee that this will be with the doctor of your choice. An urgent appointment is intended for matters that cannot wait until the next available routine appointment. Giving our staff an outline of the nature of the problem may help them organize the most appropriate response. We will often ask the doctor to ring you back to help decide the most appropriate way to deal with your problem.If you are unable to attend an appointment, please let us know so that we can offer the appointment to someone else.

Results of Tests

If you are asked to phone for results, please ring between 11.30 and 12.30. Please allow at least three working days for the results to be available. X-ray results take two weeks to arrive back at the surgery.

Prescriptions

Please allow at least two full days’ notice of your prescription requirements.With every prescription issued a printed sheet is given showing details of all your medicines. Please retain this.When you require a further prescription, please use this sheet as a tick list to request the medicines you require or obtain a request slip from reception. You can come in to order your prescription or post or fax your request.If you would like us to post your prescription to you, please include a stamped, self-addressed envelope. We do not accept telephone requests for repeat prescriptions as this can result in errors.

Home Visits

If you require a doctor to visit you at home, please ring the surgery before 10.00am if possible. The doctors usually visit patients between 12.00pm and 3.00pm.

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New Patients

To register with the Practice, please attend reception with your medical card if you have it, as well as the details of your previous doctor. You will be encouraged to attend a “New Patients Health Check” with one of our practice nurses.

Emergency calls

To speak to the doctor urgently you can ring the main surgery telephone number or ring the emergency mobile phone. For the mobile, please allow 25 seconds for connection. If the mobile phone is in use, or the doctor is in an area of poor reception, your call will be transferred to an answer phone. The emergency doctor will be alerted and will call you back.

Practice Area

Unfortunately we can only accept registration from patients who live within our practice area. If you move outside this area, you will be asked to register with another doctor. If you are in any doubt as to whether you are in our area, please speak to the reception staff.

Charges

There is a charge for some medical services that fall outside those provided by the NHS. These services include private sick notes, passport forms, holiday cancellation forms, insurance reports and employment medicals. Some travel vaccinations are also charged for and we charge for issuing a private prescription.

Questions 25 - 27

Read the Westley Central Surgery Information Leaflet again. Complete the following statements (Questions 25 – 27) with words taken from the leaflet.Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.Write your answers in boxes 25 – 27 on your answer sheet.

25 When a prescription is given, the surgery will also provide a document detailing your _______________

26 If the main surgery telephone line is busy and you have an urgent problem, call the _______________.

27 Only patients who live in the _______________ can register at the Westley Central Surgery.

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SECTION 3 Questions 28 - 40

Read the following passage and answer Questions 28 – 40.

CHOCOLATE – THE FOOD OF THE GODSA

The story of chocolate begins with the discovery of America in 1492. Columbus was the first European to come into contact with cacao. On August 5th, 1502, on his fourth and last voyage to the Americas, Columbus and his crew met some natives in a canoe that contained beans from the cacao tree. Columbus was struck by how much value the Indians placed on them as he did not know the beans were used for currency. It is unlikely that Columbus brought any of these beans back to Spain and it was not until about twenty years later that Cortez grasped the commercial possibilities when he found the Aztecs using the beans to make the royal drink “chocolatl”.

B

The Spanish, in general, were not fond of the bitter drink so Cortez and his followers made it more palatable by adding cane sugar and later cinnamon and vanilla were added. Spanish monks let the secret out back home and, although the Spanish hid it from their neighbours for a hundred years, finally chocolate’s popularity grew until it was the fashionable drink at the French court and the discerning choice of customers at London meeting houses.

C

The cacao beans are harvested from pods grown on the cacao tree. The pods come in a range of types since cacao trees cross-pollinate freely. These types can be reduced to three classifications. The most common is Forastero, which accounts for nearly 90% of the world’s production of cacao beans. This is the easiest to cultivate and has a thick-walled pod and a pungent aroma. Rarest and most prized are the beans of the Criollo. These beans from the soft, thin-skinned pod have an aroma and delicacy that make them sought after by the world’s best chocolate makers. Finally, there is the Trinitario, which is believed to be a natural cross from strains of the other two types. It has a great variety of characteristics but generally possesses a good, aromatic flavour and the trees are particularly suitable for cultivation.

D

The cacao tree is strictly a tropical plant thriving only in hot, rainy climates. Thus, its cultivation is confined to countries not more than 20 degrees north or south of the equator. The cacao tree is very delicate and sensitive. It needs protection from the wind and requires a fair amount of shade under most conditions. This is true especially in its first two or three years of growth. A newly planted cacao seedling is often sheltered by a different type of tree. It is normal to plant food crops for shade such as bananas, plantain, coconuts or cocoyams. Rubber trees and forest trees are also used for shade. Once established, however, cacao trees can grow in full sunlight, provided there

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are fertile soil conditions and intensive husbandry. With pruning and careful cultivation, the trees of most strains will begin bearing fruit in the fifth year. With extreme care, some strains can be induced to yield good crops in the third and fourth years.

E

The process of turning cacao into chocolate hasn’t changed much since the Swiss made the major breakthroughs in the process in the late 1800s. First the beans (up to twelve varieties harvested from all over the world) go through a process of fermentation and drying. They are then sorted by hand before cleaning and then roasting. Winnowing follows which removes the hard outer hulls and leaves what is known as the “nibs”. A crushing and heating process known as Hunte’s Process is then used to remove nearly half of the cocoa butter from the nibs. This makes unsweetened chocolate (also known as cooking chocolate). Basic eating chocolate is made from a blending of the unsweetened chocolate with some of the cocoa butter along with other ingredients such as sugar and vanilla. The resulting product is then “conched” and this conching gives chocolate the velvet texture that we know so well. The finished result is then moulded, cooled, packaged by machine, distributed, sold and, of course, eaten!

F

Where methods of manufacturing are concerned, manufacturers have a completely free hand and have developed individual variations from the pattern. Each manufacturer seeks to protect his own methods by conducting certain operations under an atmosphere of security. No chef guards his favourite recipes more zealously than the chocolate manufacturer guards his formulas for blending the beans. Time intervals, temperatures and proportions are three critical factors that no company wants to divulge.

G

Apart from the taste, one of the most pleasant effects of eating chocolate is the “good feeling” that many people experience after indulging. Chocolate contains more than three known chemicals including caffeine, theobromine and phenlethylamine which are stimulants. Some researchers believe that chocolate contains pharmacologically active substances that have the same effect on the brain as marijuana and that these chemicals may be responsible for problems such as the psychoses associated with chocolate craving. However, eating too much of anything can obviously cause health problems and as long as moderation is exercised, chocolate should not cause the average person any harm.

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Questions 28 - 33

The reading passage on The Story of Chocolate has 7 paragraphs A – G.

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G.

Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 28 – 33 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

28 Paragraph B

29 Paragraph C

i Growing The Tree

ii Problems With Manufacture

iii Why We Like It

iv How the Aztecs Discovered Chocolatl.

v Chocolate Spreads to Europe

vi First Contact

vii The Countries that Grow Cacao Trees

viii Secrecy Issues

ix Recipes for Using Chocolate

x Varieties of Cacao

xi From Bean to Bar

Example Answer

Paragraph A iv

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30 Paragraph D

31 Paragraph E

32 Paragraph F

33 Paragraph G

Questions 34 – 37

Do the following statements agree with the information given in The Story of Chocolate?

In boxes 34 – 37 on your answer sheet write:

YES if the statement agrees with the information

NO if the statement contradicts the statement

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage

34 Most early Spaniards did not particularly like the chocolate that the Aztecs originally drank.

35 The Forastero bean is generally regarded as making the best chocolate.

36 Cacao trees need a lot of looking after to be used commercially.

37 Some chocolate companies have been known to steal chocolate recipes from other companies.

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Questions 38 – 40

Using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below.

Write your answers in boxes 38 – 40 on your answer sheet.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

The Chocolate Production Process

The beans are (eg) __________ at the farm and are then Answer fermented, dried, sorted and cleaned. harvested

The beans are winnowed after (38) __________ and these two processes produce the nibs.

Some of the (39) __________ is then extracted using Hunte’s Process to make cooking chocolate.

The cooking chocolate is then blended with other ingredients to make the various types of eating chocolate available today.

(40) __________produces the smoothness in the chocolate.

The chocolate is re-heated to melt it, put into moulds and then cooled to make its final shapes.

The finished product is wrapped automatically, sent to the shops and then sold. Finally the customer eats his or her bar of chocolate.

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GENERAL TRAINING WRITING PRACTICE TEST 2

WRITING TASK 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

You and your family are planning to spend a weekend at a seaside hotel.

Write a letter to the hotel making the arrangements. Let them know when you will be arriving and leaving, what type of rooms you would like and ask them how much the weekend will cost. Also enquire about activities and places of interest near the hotel.

You should write at least 150 words.

You do NOT need to write your own address. Begin your letter as follows:

Dear Sir,

WRITING TASK 2

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

It has been proved that smoking kills. In some countries it has been made illegal for people to smoke in all public places except in certain areas. All countries should make these rules.

Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

You should write at least 250 words.

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GENERAL TRAINING SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 2Section 1

* Tell me about the part of the country where you live.* What are the main ways of earning money in this area?* What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in this area?

Topic 1 Studying English

* Where have you studied English?* What do you find most difficult about studying English?* What’s the best way for you to study English?* How can speaking English well help you in your life?

Topic 2 Transport

* What is the best way to get around the place where you live?* How would you improve transport in your town or area?* How does transport cause pollution?* Do people prefer using public or private transport in your country?

Section 2

Describe what you think would be the perfect holiday. You should say: where it would be what activities you would do how long it would last and explain why this holiday would be perfect for you.

Section 3

Topic 1 Tourism

* What are some of the best places in your country for a tourist to visit?* What are some of the advantages and disadvantages that tourism brings to an area?* Could you compare the tourism industry in your country today with that of 50 years

ago?* What factors do you think could limit the expansion of tourism in the future?

Topic 2 Holidays

* Why do you think people need holidays?* How much holiday a year do you think a person needs?* How have people’s expectations about holidays changed over the last 50 years?* How do you think holidays will change in the next 50 years?

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GENERAL TRAINING LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 3

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY

MEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM

Example Answer

NAME Camden

FIRST NAME Peter

ADDRESS Flat 5 53 (1) _________________________________ Finsbury

POSTCODE (2) ____________________________________

DATE OF BIRTH 8th July (3) _____________________________

HOME TEL None

MOBILE TEL (4) ____________________________________

PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED (5) ____________________________________

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ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL TRAINING MODULEPRACTICE TEST 3

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Questions 6 - 8

Circle THREE letters A - F.

What type of books does Peter like?

A Wildlife books B Romance books C Travel books D Historical novels E Science Fiction novels F Mystery books

Questions 9 and 10

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

9 How much does it cost to join the library?

_________________________________

10 How much does it cost to rent a DVD?

_________________________________

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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 14

List FOUR reasons given for people needing blood transfusions.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 11 - 14 on your answer sheet.

11 ____________________________________________________________

12 ____________________________________________________________

13 ____________________________________________________________

14 ____________________________________________________________

Questions 15 - 20

Complete the 2 sets of notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Blood

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Types of Blood O, A, B + AB

Component Parts

PART USED FORred blood cells (15) __________________________ to cellswhite blood cells help patients’ (16) ______________________

_____________________________________platelets blood clottingplasma (17) ________________________ the other

blood parts

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GIVING BLOOD

DAYS Wednesday + next 2 days

WHERE Westley General Hospital, (18) ___________________________ Department

WHEN Between 9.00am and (19) ___________________________

MUST be healthy be (20) ______________________ or over weigh more than 110 pounds have had no tattoos this year not have donated blood within past 56 days

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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 27

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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Computer Labs

The 4 labs below can be used by undergraduates. Other computer labs can only be used by postgraduates and (21) _________________________

Lab Locations Wimborne Johnson Building Franklin Computer Sciences Building Salisbury (22) ____________________ Court Johnson Building

Reservations (23) ________________ a day unless computers are free Write reservation in book (24) ________________ (Penalty for erasing someone else’s reservation - 1 year ban)

User Name jamessmith2

Password (25) _________________

Printing Pick up print outs from (26) ______________ in Franklin Costs (27) ________________

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Questions 28 - 30

Choose the correct letters A - C.

28 The introductory computer course that James decides to take is...

A beginner. B intermediate. C advanced.

29 The computer laboratory for James’ introductory computer course is in...

A Wimborne B Franklin C Court

30 James will take his introductory computer course...

A on Thursday at 2.00pm. B on Tuesday at 4.30pm. C on Tuesday at 5.00pm

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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 35

The Shinkansen or Bullet Train

Safety No deaths (bar 1 from passenger misadventure) since its launch in (31) ___________________________.

Speed Holds world train record for (32) _______________________ of 261.8 kph. 500 series Nozumi’s fastest speed is 300kph.

Punctuality Punctual to within the second. All bullet trains for 1 year were a total of (33) __________ late.

History First used on Tokyo to Osaka route. Old models have now been retired. 300, 500 and 700 are recent models.

Services Nozomi trains stop at the (34) _________________________. Hikari stop more frequently. Kodama trains stop at (35) ____________________________.

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

36 French TGV locomotives pull the TGV trains from both ends using a _______________.

37 Japanese ground is unsuitable for the TGV type of train because it is _______________ and the tracks frequently curve horizontally and vertically.

38 An extra advantage of the Japanese electric car system is that it can act as a _______________.

39 Even after the power supply is cut off in the electric car system, electricity is still produced by _______________.

40 Huge improvements in power, operability and safety administration have been made possible by advances in _______________.

Questions 36 - 40

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GENERAL TRAINING READING PRACTICE TEST 3

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 13

Questions 1 – 6

There are 5 advertisements A – E on the next page.

Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate advertisements in boxes 1 – 6 on your answer sheet

1 Which advertisement is NOT offering a job?

2 Which advertisement specifically asks for someone to look good?

3 Which advertisement offers the chance of a job abroad?

4 Which advertisment doesn’t ask to be telephoned?

5 Which job advertisement wants someone for a part time position?

6 Which advertisement says that speaking a language will help the applicant?

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Example Which advertisment says that the successful applicant will be required to sell something?

Answer B

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ASECRETARY - URGENT

Busy High Street solicitors requires an experienced and efficient secretary. All applicants should have excellent

typing, shorthand and telephone skills.Good package.

Write with CV to:

Aldersley and Sons25 Charmin Street

Guildford GU4 7YD

BUSED CAR SALESMAN

REQUIRED

£ to be made

Busy town used car dealership urgently needs an experienced

salesman. Exhaustive knowledge of different makes of cars a must. Good

basic plus commission.

Call 020 8567 9634 and ask for Mike.

CDWANTED

URGENTLY BABYSITTER

1 weekday and 1 weekend a week.6.30pm – 11pm

Responsible young lady required

Call 020 8467 2635

SITUATION REQUIRED

Hard-working law student, 22 years old, is searching for a suitable placement for his coming summer vacation.

Anything considered.Please call Andrew Hall on 020

8746 3529.

F

ALPINE SKI The specialists in winter sports holidaysThis prestigious and busy tour operator is currently recruiting for next winter’s season. We require

a variety of enthusiastic and dedicated people to run our operations in Europe starting in November and running through to April. Salaries are based on experience, qualifications and suitability.

Knowledge of a suitable European language would be a strong advantage. Interviews this summer.

Posts available are:

Chalet girls and boys Airport Reps Holiday Reps

Ski instructors (relevant qualifications essential)

For details, ring 020 3947 9624 and ask Cathy for a relevant application form.

ESITUATIONS

VACANT NOWReceptionist

Chamber maidsBell Boys

Applicants must have relevant experience and a high standard

of personal appearance

Phone personnel on 02 7854 3724 for an application form

The Grand Hotel Manchester

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Questions 7 – 11

Read the Information leaflet about the Jamestown Hiking Centre on the following page. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 7 – 11 on your answer sheet.

7 How much would a hiker have to pay in total for the example hike?

8 On which day will the hikers come across ice?

9 On which day will the hikers have the chance to do a water sport?

10 On which day do the hikers have the option to not do any hiking and just take it easy?

11 On which day will the hikers get to sleep next to the sea?

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Jamestown Hiking Centre

We offer hiking trips led by experienced guides out into the mountains. The hikes can last from an afternoon’s hike up to the Josef Waterfall to a fortnight’s trek through the James Forest and up into the Williams mountains and the rugged adjoining coastline. Below is an example of the itinerary for our 10 day hiking safari.

Start Drake Visitors Centre, Jamestown 8.00amFinish Kingstown 7.00pmLength 10 daysGrade MediumPrice $ Canadian 1000 + $ 20/day kitty

Highlights Hike through beech forest, past limestone sinkholes and across tussock-covered mountain slopes. Watch the antics of the Longley Seal Pups at a breeding colony. Hike through the lush forest in a limestone canyon, wade across crystal clear rivers, and explore glowworm caves in Havely. Take a guided walk on the spectacular Franz Glacier and marvel at its crevasses and ice caves. Kayak the tranquil Okarto Lagoon and watch native birds feeding in the shallows. Hike through James forest to natural hot pools surrounded by mountain peaks in Westland. Watch for penguins and dolphins while strolling along isolated beaches.

ITINERARY

Day 1 Drive from Jamestown to Longley. Hike through beech forest, camp under natural rock shelter. 4 hours hiking

Day 2 Hike up above the bushline on Mt Arthurs. Drive to camp by the Bull River. 7 hours hiking

Day 3 Visit seal colony. Drive to Havely and hike while learning river crossing techniques. 3 hours hiking

Day 4 Explore limestone caves and hike down a river canyon. Visit the Caves at the Lemon Cliffs. 5 hours hiking

Day 5 Drive to Franztown and walk to the glacier terminal, or do the guided walk on the glacier ($35). 2 hours hiking

Day 6 Kayak ($40) across Okarto lagoon and up forested river channels, or hike along beach. 4 hours kayaking or 3 hours hiking

Day 7 Hike up the Knight’s Valley to Welley Flats hut and soak weary muscles in natural hot pools. 7 hours hiking

Day 8 Boulder-hop up to a waterfall with stunning mountain views, or have a rest day. 4 hours hiking

Day 9 Hike back down the Knight’s Valley, visit a penguin colony and camp on an isolated beach. 6 hours hiking

Day 10 Hike along a beach frequented by dolphins, drive over the Hast Pass and continue to Kingstown. 2 hours hiking General Training Test 3; Page 12

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Source: Hiking New Zealand .com

Page 59: General Training Module

WESTLEY TAXI SERVICES

* cheapest deals in town * established since 1979 * max 5 people * no destination too far * minivan available (max 9 persons)

Tel: 0684 639746

Questions 12 and 13

Read the advertisement below for Regent Taxi Services and look at the statements following it.

In boxes 12 and 13 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the advertisement

12 It will cost $50 for 2 people to go to Eastley town centre.

13 Westley Taxi Services will go to any destination.

$25 to Westley International Airport$50 to Eastley town centre

General Training Test 3; Page 13

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Page 60: General Training Module

SECTION 2 Questions 14 – 28

Questions 14 - 18

Read the Information Guide for Westley Public Library on the following page. Look at the following customer bills (Questions 14 - 18) that need to be worked out.

According to the Westley Public Library Information Guide, match the customer bills (Questions 14 - 18) with the prices given (A - I).

Write the appropriate letters (A - H) in boxes 14 - 18 on your answer sheet.

14 2 CD ROMs for 2 weeks.

15 11⁄2 hours on the internet.

16 6 internet sheet printouts.

17 2 books late for 1 week.

18 6 months library membership.

PRICES

A $3

B $2

C $20

D $12

E $2.50

F $1

G 30 cents

H 50 cents

I $1.50

General Training Test 3; Page 14

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Page 61: General Training Module

WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY

INFORMATION GUIDE

1 Only members of the Library may borrow items from the Library. Membership for this year is $24 for 12 month or pro rata monthly membership. Membership runs from 1st January to 31st December.

2 Library membership consists of the right to take out 6 hardbacks and six paperbacks. Extra borrowing may be added on at the librarian’s discretion.

3 Hardback books are taken out for a maximum of two weeks and paperbacks for a maximum of three weeks. Renewals are permitted. The books can be brought in and re-stamped for renewal or, in emergencies, members may phone in.

4 Overdue books will be charged at a rate of 50 cents per book per week or part of a week. Lost books will be charged at the current market price plus a postage/administration charge.

5 Popular books can be reserved on a waiting list. There is no renewal for books in this category.

6 The Library has a CD ROM section from which members are allowed to borrow. Members borrowing a CD ROM pay a charge of $1 per CD ROM for a period of two weeks – a maximum of 3 discs may be borrowed at any one time. The Library member will be liable for any loss or damage to the CD ROM.

7 The Library has a video and DVD section. Library members can borrow up to 2 DVDs at a time for a two day period. Members must pay a refundable $20 deposit to borrow DVDs.

8 The Library has 10 internet terminals. Use of the terminals is not restricted to members. Any person can reserve a 30 minute or 1 hour session on one computer in the Library for internet use at the rate of $1 for 30 minutes and $2 for an hour. 8 PCs will be available to be reserved and 2 will be there on a “first come, first served” basis. Printouts of internet pages will be charged 5 cents a sheet. All PCs are equipped with CD writer facilities.

9 Your suggestions for new books to be ordered are always most welcome and may be written in the suggestion book.

LIBRARY TIMINGS

Mon/Tues/Thurs/Fri 9.00 am - 6.00 pmWed 9.00 am - 8.00 pmSat 10.00 am - 1.00 pm

THE LIBRAY IS CLOSED ON SUNDAYS AND PUBLIC HOLIDAYS

Look again at the Information Guide for Westley Public Library. Complete the following statements (Questions 19 and 20) with words taken from the guide.Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.Write your answers in boxes 19 and 20 on your answer sheet.

19 If a book that you want is already taken out, put your name on the ____________ and the book will be kept for you when it is returned.

20 If library customers have any ideas on how to improve the library, they can leave a written note of their recommendation in the _______________.

General Training Test 3; Page 15

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Source: The Club, Abu Dhabi

Questions 19 – 20

Page 62: General Training Module

Halifax College

A

Halifax College is a school situated just outside the Nova Scotia capital city of Halifax. Opened in 1935, it was first privately run by the Halifax Church Council. In 1960 it was purchased by the provincial government and since then it has been enormously extended and now operates as a day school as well as keeping its original boarding element. Currently enrolment stands at 550 but this is expected to rise to 750 by 2005.

B

The school’s mission is the pursuit of excellence by its students both in academic and extracurricular fields. Prospective students are expected to show high academic potential and proficiency in any sporting or musical activity is also looked for. Entrance to the College is by an in house examination. Six scholarships are offered per year by the College in academic, sporting and musical areas (2 in each). Details of these scholarships and the entry procedure can be obtained from the Admissions Office.

C

Academic life at Halifax College is naturally geared towards students’ success in achieving their High School Diploma. Halifax College offers all the usual core and elective subjects and also offers a few unusual ones. See the prospectus for details.

D

The school is divided into three sub-schools:Elementary Years 1 - 6 Part 1 Secondary Years 7 - 9Part 2 Secondary Years 10 - 12Each sub-school has its own administration and is headed by its own principal. The School Council is the umbrella organization that administers the school as a whole.

E

As mentioned earlier, sports and music are considered very important at Halifax College. At the College we have our own facilities for football, baseball, hockey and lacrosse. In addition to these we have our own gymnasium, sports hall, indoor swimming pool, athletics track and indoor and outdoor tennis courts. Students also have the opportunity to row at our boathouse on the Iona River. Music is centred at our purpose-built music school which has facilities for learning a variety of instruments and its own performance hall.

F

The future of our students is of the greatest importance to us here at Halifax College. To cater for this the College has a Careers Office staffed by a full time careers officer. Students can see the officer at any time to discuss their future careers and tertiary education options. The College has a library with an enormous selection of information concerning further education institutes in Canada and abroad. Various career lectures are organized through out the school year and students can also book aptitude tests and mock university and job interviews. General Training Test 3; Page 16 © ieltshelpnow.com

Page 63: General Training Module

Questions 21 – 25

The reading passage on Halifax College has 6 paragraphs A – F.

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – F.

Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 21 – 25 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

i Student Prospects

ii Study Choices at Halifax College

iii The Teaching and Study Staff

iv College Buildings

v School Structure

vi The History of Halifax College

vii Working at Halifax College

viii Special Circumstances

ix Extracurricular Activities

x Competition at Halifax College

xi Joining Halifax College

Example Answer

Paragraph A vi

General Training Test 3; Page 17© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 64: General Training Module

Questions 26 - 28

Read the Information about Halifax College again. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 26 - 28 on your answer sheet.

26 What is the current school population?

27 How does the average student enter Halifax College?

28 Where can the students practise their skills in boats?

21 Paragraph B

22 Paragraph C

23 Paragraph D

24 Paragraph E

25 Paragraph F

General Training Test 3; Page 18

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Page 65: General Training Module

SECTION 3 Questions 28 - 40

Read the following passage and answer Questions 28 – 40.

The Royal Flying Doctor Service of Australia

A

The Interior of Australia is a sparsely populated and extreme environment and the delivery of basic services has always been a problem. One of the most important of these services is medical care. Before the inception of the Royal Flying Doctor Service (RFDS), serious illness or accidents in the Inland often meant death. The RFDS was the first comprehensive aerial organization in the world and to this day remains unique for the range of emergency services that it provides.

B

The story of the Flying Doctor Service is forever linked with its founder, the Very Reverend John Flynn. It is a story of achievement that gave courage to the pioneers of the outback. In 1911 the Reverend John Flynn took up his appointment at Beltana Mission in the north of South Australia. He began his missionary work at a time when only two doctors served an area of some 300 000 sq kms in the Northern Territory. In 1903 the first powered flight had taken place and by 1918 the aeroplane was beginning to improve itself as a means of transport. Radio, then very much in its infancy, was also displaying its remarkable capability to link people thousands of miles apart. Flynn saw the potential in these developments. The Service began in 1928 but it was not until 1942 that it was actually named the Flying Doctor Service and the Royal prefix was added in 1955.

C

In 1928 the dream of a flying doctor was at last a reality but Flynn and his supporters still faced many problems in the months and years to come. The first year’s service was regarded as experimental, but the experiment succeeded and almost miraculously the service survived the Great Depression of the late 1920s and early 1930s. By 1932 the Australian Inland Mission (AIM) had a network of ten little hospitals across the coverage area. A succession of doctors and pilots followed and operations continued to expand over the next few years.

D

The Service suffered severe financial difficulties in its early years. Flynn and his associates had to launch public appeals for donations. While some government financial aid was made available on occasions in the early days, regular government subsidies only became an established practice later on. Even today the Service continues to rely chiefly on money from trusts, donations and public appeals for its annual budget and raising money remains an integral part of the working day for the Service and its volunteers.

E

In 1922 Flynn began a campaign for funding to buy some aircraft for the AIM. The first flight, on 17th May 1928, was made using a De Havilland model DH50 aircraft. This plane, named

General Training Test 3; Page 19© ieltshelpnow.com

Page 66: General Training Module

“Victory”, went on to fly 110 000 miles in the service of the Flying Doctor until 1934 when it was replaced with a DH83 Fox Moth. In 1928 flying was still in its early days. Pilots had no navigational aids, no radio and only a compass and inadequate maps, if any. They navigated by landmarks such as fences, rivers, dirt roads of just wheel tracks and telegraph lines. They also flew in an open cockpit, fully exposed to the weather. Flights were normally made during daylight hours although night flights were attempted in cases of extreme urgency. Fuel supplies were also carried on flights until fuel dumps were established at certain strategic locations. Nowadays twin engine craft, speed, pressurization, the ability to fly higher and further with more space for crew and medical personnel have all improved patient care and safety problems. There are hardly any places now that the RFDS cannot reach though safe landing at the remote areas is another issue altogether. Many outstations now have some sort of airstrip lighting but even now car headlights are sometimes used. Landings are therefore still often made in hazardous circumstances on remote fields or roads and it is pilots who continue to be responsible for determining if the flight can be safely undertaken.

F

In the early 1900s basic telephone and telegraphic links existed only near larger towns. Radio communication was practically unknown and neighbours could be hundreds of miles away. What was needed was a simple, portable, cheap, and reliable two-way radio, with its own power source and with a range of 500 kms. In 1928 Alf Traeger, an Adelaide engineer, invented the Pedal Radio and over the next 10 years these were distributed around the stations and the operators were trained in Morse Code. Over the years radio developed with new technology and of course now telephones have taken its place. Whereas a few years ago, all calls for medical assistance were received by radio, today this represents only about 2% of all such calls.

G

Over the years, the RFDS has developed to take along medical specialists, dentists and various health related professionals. Sister Myra Blanche was the first nurse employed by the RFDS in 1945 undertaking home nursing, immunizations, advising on prevention of illnesses and, on occasion, filling in for the doctor. However, flight nurses as we know them were not used by the Service on a regular basis until the 1960s. Today, based on the judgement of the doctor authorizing the flight, up to 80% of medical evaluations are made with only the flight nurse and pilot on board.

General Training Test 3; Page 20

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Source: Royal Flying Doctor Service

Page 67: General Training Module

Questions 29 - 34

The reading passage on the Royal Flying Doctor Service of Australia has 7 paragraphs A – G.

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G.

Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 29 – 34 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

i RFDS Hospitals

ii Funding

iii Communication Issues

iv Navigation Issues

v The Birth of an Idea

vi Aviation

vii Why the RFDS was Founded

viii The First Pilot

ix The Growth of the Service

x Doctors’ Assistants

xi Refueling Problems

Example Answer

Paragraph A vii

29 Paragraph B

30 Paragraph C

31 Paragraph D

General Training Test 3; Page 21

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Page 68: General Training Module

32 Paragraph E

33 Paragraph F

34 Paragraph G

Questions 35 – 40

Read the the article about the Royal Flying Doctor Service of Australia again and look at the statements below.

In boxes 35 – 40 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

35 Test flights before 1928 proved that John Flynn’s ideas were possible.

36 The RFDS today gets most of its operational money from charities.

37 In the early years RFDS fliers had only compasses to help them find their way.

38 Today some landing areas still do not have proper lighting.

39 Telephones have now completely replaced radios for reporting emergencies to the RFDS.

40 Quite a few RFDS flights today don’t even have a doctor on board.

General Training Test 3; Page 22

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Page 69: General Training Module

GENERAL TRAINING WRITING PRACTICE TEST 3

WRITING TASK 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

2 weeks ago you bought a radio from a local branch of a well known chain of shops. It did not work properly. The shop took it back and said they would repair it. You have waited a week and still it is not ready.

Write a letter to the shop complaining. Tell what has happened and how you feel.

Ask them to repair the radio very soon or supply you with a new radio.

You should write at least 150 words.

You do NOT need to write your own address. Begin your letter as follows:

Dear Sir,

WRITING TASK 2

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

It is better for boys and girls to study separately rather than study in mixed sex classes. They are less distracted and this leads to better results.

Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

You should write at least 250 words.

General Training Test 3; Page 23

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Page 70: General Training Module

GENERAL TRAINING SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 3Section 1

* Tell me about the job or studies that you are doing.* Why did you choose this field?* Do you think you will ever change this job or study? (Why/Why not?)

Topic 1 Schooldays

* What were the good parts and the bad parts about your schooldays?* What was your favourite subject at school? (Why?)* How did your school teach sports?* How would you improve the school that you went to?

Topic 2 Rivers

* Describe a river in your country.* What kinds of things are rivers used for in your country?* Are there any pollution problems with rivers in your country? (What?)* What kind of problems do people face if they live near a big river?

Section 2

Describe your favourite restaurant You should say: where the restaurant is and how you found it what type of food it serves how often you go there and explain exactly why you like this restaurant so much.

Section 3

Topic 1 Fast Food

* Is fast food popular in your country? (Why?)* Why has fast food become so popular over the last 30 years?* Could you compare fast food with traditional meals?* How can we stop young people eating so much fast food?

Topic 2 Food Problems

* What are some of the problems that some countries have with food production?* Could you suggest any ways to solve these problems?* What other problems can you predict happening in terms of food in the next 50

years?* Could you compare methods of food production and distribution today with that of 50

years ago?General Training Test 3; Page 24

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Page 71: General Training Module

GENERAL TRAINING LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 4

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Oakham Surgery

New Patient Form

Example Answer

NEW PATIENT’S ROAD Dawson Road

FULL NAME Mike (1) _________________________________

WIFE’S FIRST NAME Janet

CHILDRENS’ FIRST NAMES 1st (2) ________________________________ 2nd 3rd 4th

ADDRESS 52 Dawson Road (3) ______________________________________ Melbourne

HEALTH CARD NUMBER (4) ______________________________________

WIFE’S HEALTH CARD NUMBER will give later

PREFERRED DOCTOR SELECTED (5) ______________________________________

General Training Test 4; Page 1

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ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL TRAINING MODULEPRACTICE TEST 4

Page 72: General Training Module

Questions 6 - 10

Circle the correct letters A - C.

6 When is Mike’s wife’s first appointment?

A Friday 21st at 2.00pm. B Friday 21st at 2.30pm. C Friday 21st at 3.30pm.

7 What is the surgery’s phone number?

A 7253 9819 B 7253 9829 C 7523 9829

8 What is the name of the girl with whom Mike is speaking at the surgery?

A Rachel B Elizabeth C Angela

9 What’s the night doctor’s mobile number?

A 0506 759 3856 B 0506 759 3857 C 0506 758 3856

10 Which of the following does the surgery NOT make a charge for?

A Travel vaccinations B Consultations C Insurance reports

General Training Test 4; Page 2

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Page 73: General Training Module

SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 16

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Notes on Library

General Training Test 4; Page 3

© ieltshelpnow.com

Joining You will need: A completed application form.Library (11) _____________________________________________ (12) ____________________________________________ Two passport photos.

Opening Library 8am - 10pm (13) ___________________________________Hours Reception 9am - 5pm (- 6.30 on (14) ___________________________) (Mon - Sat; closed on Sundays)

Borrowing Undergraduates 4 books Postgraduates (15) _________________________________ books Borrowing for 2 weeks + (16) _________________________ renewals (in person) No renewals over phone Late return penalty: ₤2 per week

Page 74: General Training Module

Questions 17 - 20

Label the library layout below below.

reception; (17) _______________________________bathrooms; (18) _______________________________

(19) _______________________ section

Science Section

Stack System

Ground Floor

First Floor

Second Floor

(20) ___________________

General Training Test 4; Page 4

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Page 75: General Training Module

SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 24

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

21 When will Simon begin writing his essay?

___________________________

22 According to Simon, what kind of problems did Jaguar have in the 1970s and 80s?

___________________________

23 What is the word limit for the essay?

___________________________

24 What is the preferable method for handing in the essay?

___________________________

Questions 25 - 27

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

25 Jennifer wants to write about how _______________ are used by supermarkets.

26 Jennifer found some publications in the library _______________ to help her analysis.

27 The tutor warned Jennifer about _______________ in her work.

General Training Test 4; Page 5

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Page 76: General Training Module

Complete the tutor’s summary notes on Melanie below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 28 - 30

Notes on Student Essays

Student Melanie needs an (28) _______________ as she has been

unwell with the flu. She will get a (29) _______________ from the

doctor. She’s going to write about (30) _______________ in the UK

and their effect on housing trends. She should be on track with the

essay by the end of the weekend.

General Training Test 4; Page 6

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Page 77: General Training Module

SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 33

Choose the correct letters A - C.

31 The Pacific is more prone to tsunami because...

A it has many faults. B its faults undergo subduction. C its tectonic plates are bigger than elswhere.

32 The biggest tsunami are usually created by...

A undersea volcanic eruptions. B undersea earthquakes. C undersea landslides.

33 Tsunami are difficult to detect in deep water because of...

A their wavelength. B their high speed. C their wave rate.

Questions 34 and 35

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

List the two ways which the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has set up to detect tsunami.

34 _____________________________________________________

35 _____________________________________________________

General Training Test 4; Page 7

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Questions 36 - 40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

TSUNAMI EXAMPLES

When Happened Cause Deaths Caused Wave Height1992 (36) _____________

_________________none 3 feet

1992 Underwaterearthquake

none (37) _____________

1998 (38) ______________________________

1200 23 feet

1998 Underwatervolcanic eruption

3000 40 feet

1896 Underwaterearthquake

(39) _____________ 35 feet

8000 years ago Underwaterlandslide

(40) _____________ 30 feet

General Training Test 4; Page 8

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Page 79: General Training Module

GENERAL TRAINING READING PRACTICE TEST 4

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 13

Questions 1 – 6

There are 5 advertisements on the next page.

Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate advertisement in boxes 1 – 6 on your answer sheet. Your answer may require more than one letter.

1 Which advertisement offers a flexible timetable?

2 Which advertisement is NOT for English tuition?

3 Which advertisement offers a school that has specialized its product?

4 Which advertisement boasts the newest school?

5 Which advertisement offers organized activities out of school hours?

6 Which advertisement says that you can visit and look around?

General Training Test 4; Page 9

© ieltshelpnow.com

Example Which TWO advertisements offer classes in London?

Answer B

Page 80: General Training Module

AQUEEN’S SCHOOL OF

ENGLISHEstablished 1975

• general English• business English• English for tourism• various exam courses• help with housing• recreation program

Contact us on 00 44 1202 395 132 orwww.thequeensenglish.com

Queen’s School, 12 Hintly Road. Bournemouth. UK

B

CJames Wilson MA 25 years of English teaching experience Residential English Tuition

Why waste your money on large classes in a school that doesn’t care? Come and live in London and study with James Wilson. You’ll get 100% individual attention and 24 hour care from a family that does care. Content and hours are wholly at your own choosing. Why not check my website at www.jameswilson.com or call 00 44 20 2740 8535 and ask for a brochure.

International English

Located in Central London, International English has been meeting students’ English language needs for 15 years. We can provide the right service whatever your English requirements.

Contact us on (00 44) 020 4732 9643Write to: International English,

13 Whitechapel Avenue. London. SW4

DBATEMAN’S UNIVERSITY PREPARATION

COLLEGEWith the huge number of foreign students

studying at the UK’s universities and colleges, we at Bateman’s recognized 10 years ago the

need to provide a specialized institute that provides English wholly aimed at supporting your study here in the UK. We can offer short and long courses that will get you to the level

that you need.Find out about us on our website

www.batemans.com or contact us for a brochure:

Bateman’s College,14 Worthing Road, Littlehampton

West Sussex

Tel: 01276 395 672 Fax: 01276 395 673

ESMITHSON’S ENGLISH LANGUAGE BOOKSHOP

We are stockists of all English language textbooks (for native & foreign language

speakers), grammar books, dictionaries, English language computer software, graded readers and a host of other study aids. Why not drop in some time and browse or check what we have on the

net.

45 Hunt Street, Southampton. HantsTel: 01233 734 628

www.smithsonsbooks.com

General Training Test 4; Page 10

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Page 81: General Training Module

Questions 7 - 10

Read the Product Information Leaflet for the Marchmain Copper kettle on the next page. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 7 – 10 on your answer sheet.

7 What can you use to clean stubborn tarnish and staining if your kettle doesn’t have a chrome finish?

8 What can using hard water cause in your kettle?

9 What causes a rattle in the kettle when you pour water?

10 Give ONE example of things that will invalidate the warranty?

Questions 11 - 13

Read the Product Information Leaflet for the Marchmain Copper kettle again. Look at the statements below (questions 11 - 13)

In boxes 11 -13 of your answer sheet write:

DO if the product information leaflet advises that you do it

DON’T if the product information leaflet advises that you do not do it

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the product information

leaflet

11 Before you use water from the kettle for the first time, fill it, boil it and pour the water away.

12 If your kettle is discoloured after use, send it to the manufacturer for cleaning.

13 It’s best to leave the kettle on a wooden surface after boiling.

General Training Test 4; Page 11

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Page 82: General Training Module

The Marchmain Kettle - The Traditional English Copper Kettle

Made from the finest solid copper, brass and pure tin, this newly designed kettle is now available worldwide. We are confident that you will not find a better kettle. By following the simple instructions closely, your Marchmain kettle will serve you efficiently for many years and of course, enhance your kitchen every day with quality rarely found in today’s marketplace. It must be remembered that your Marchmain kettle will require regular cleaning to remove tarnish and water staining which will appear on a daily basis during use (not applicable to chrome finishes which require only an occasional wipe with damp cloth and light “buff up” with a dry one). This is normal and we would therefore recommend regular cleaning to prevent a build up of stubborn staining, but even this can be removed with our copper polish.

DOS

* DO – clean the inside of your kettle thoroughly, fill to level with water, boil and discard before initial use.* DO – regularly clean your kettle to prevent severe tarnishing (not applicable to chrome finishes – see above).* DO – remove scale from your kettle as necessary if you live in a “hard water” area.* DO – place your kettle centrally over the burner, and use the low gas setting (Models 3, 4 & 4mw only).

DON’TS

* DON’T – fill the kettle with water above the center seam, which is clearly visible through the lid aperture (dome versions – just below the spout).* DON’T – use abrasive cleaners, which may harm the exterior or interior finish of your kettle.* DON’T – use “Wire Ball” type de-scaler products which will damage the pure tin or nickel plated lining of your kettle.* DON’T – Place “off centre” to the burner, or use more than a low gas setting (models 3, 3mw, 4 & 4mw only).* DON’T – put the kettle to boil with little or no water inside, this action could render the kettle unsafe.* DON’T – throw your receipt away; you will need it in the unlikely event of needing to return your kettle.* DON’T return your kettle for tarnish or discolouration as this can almost certainly be removed with copper polish.

POINTS TO NOTE

Marchmain kettles are entirely hand-made. Therefore no two are exactly alike and finishes may vary depending on the piece of copper used to create your kettle. Any minor blemish in finish can be regarded as an individual characteristic, which does not detract from the beauty or affect the function of your kettle.

All models have a patented whistling device built into them. Part of this device is a ball and valve assembly inside the spout. The ball should always be free and you will hear this move when you raise the kettle to pour. This “rattle” is normal and does not represent a fault. If you do not hear this “rattle”, a gentle shake when the kettle is cold will usually restore the movement. Always be sure the lid is fitted firmly into its place before use.

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Page 83: General Training Module

IMPORTANT

In the event of rotation or looseness in the handle, the holding nuts must be re-tightened.

WARRANTY/GUARANTEE

Marchmain Copperware guarantee this kettle for a period of twelve months from the date of purchase on your receipt, against any problem arising out of faulty material, workmanship or manufacture. Marchmain Copperware will repair or replace at their discretion, upon inspection, any kettle found to be faulty in any way (not including failure brought about by neglect or misuse). This guarantee does not affect your statutory rights.

PLEASE NOTE

Some characteristics of Marchmain kettles, varying factors of use and the effects of “hard water” areas, can sometimes lead to symptoms which may affect the kettles’ performance but do not represent a fault.

General Training Test 4; Page 13

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Source: Simplex Kettles

Page 84: General Training Module

SECTION 2 Questions 14 – 28

Questions 14 - 16

Read the First Aid instructions regarding bleeding on the following page. According to the text, which THREE of the following are true symptoms of internal bleeding?

Choose THREE letters (A - G) and write them in boxes 14 - 16 on your answer sheet. The order of your answers does not matter.

Questions 17 – 20

Look again at the First Aid instructions regarding bleeding on the following page and the statements (questions 17 – 20) below:

In boxes 17 – 20 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

17 If someone has a bad cut on their arm, lift the arm up above the rest of the body.

18 Tourniquets can be very dangerous.

19 You cannot see any physical signs of internal bleeding.

20 It’s important for people suffering internal bleeding to drink a lot of water.

A a headache

B a desire to drink

C a lack of strength

D half closed eyes

E pain in the heart area

F a sick feeling

G flushed skin

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FIRST AID

Bleeding

External Bleeding

1 Apply direct pressure. Place a clean, folded cloth over the injured area and firmly apply pressure. If blood soaks through, do not remove it. Instead, cover that cloth with another one and continue to apply pressure to the wound for 7 – 10 minutes. If the bleeding is from the ear, place a clean bandage over the ear, lay the victim on his side, and allow the blood to drain out of the bandage.

2 Elevate the injury. Position the wounded part of the body above the level of the heart if possible while you apply direct pressure.

3 Know the pressure points. If direct pressure and elevation do not sufficiently slow the blood flow, find a pressure point. Large arteries found close to the skin’s surface supply blood to the head and to each arm and leg. The most common pressure points used during first aid are located in the upper arms and in the creases above the upper legs. Apply pressure to the closest pressure point to the wound so that the artery is pressed between your fingers and bone directly behind the artery. If using the pressure point on a leg, you may need to use the heel of your hand instead of your finger.

4 Resort to a tourniquet. On very rare occasions everything above may fail. To prevent the victim from dying, you should apply a tourniquet. Once a tourniquet is applied, it should not be loosened or removed until the victim has reached medical help. Use a tourniquet ONLY if everything listed above has failed. If you use a tourniquet, write down somewhere on the victim the time it was applied, so medical personnel will know how long it has been in place.

Internal Bleeding

Internal bleeding results when blood vessels rupture allowing blood to leak into body cavities. It could be a result of a direct blow to the body, a fracture, a sprain, or a bleeding ulcer. If a victim receives an injury to the chest or abdomen, internal bleeding should be suspected. He will probably feel pain and tenderness in the affected area.

Other symptoms and signs to watch for:* cold clammy skin * pale face and lips* weakness or fainting * dizziness* nausea * thirstiness* rapid, weak, irregular pulse * shortness of breath* dilated pupils * swelling or bruising at the site of the injuryThe more symptoms that are experienced, the more extensive the internal bleeding.

What to do for the Victim

1 Check for an open airway and begin rescue breathing if necessary.2 Call for medical help as soon as possible and keep the victim comfortable until help

arrives.NB The victim may rinse his mouth with water, but DO NOT give a victim of internal

bleeding anything to drink.General Training Test 4; Page 15 © ieltshelpnow.com

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Questions 21 - 25

Read the Information Notice concerning Preparation Courses for students at the Westley Business School. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 21 – 25 on your answer sheet.

21 Which course is mostly without a teacher?

22 On which course can you NOT pre-book a place?

23 How many hours does Course 1 take?

24 How many places are there every week for students who want to study computers?

25 Which course takes place only on one day in a specified week?

Questions 26 - 28

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the Information Notice concerning Preparation Courses for students at the Westley Business School?

In Boxes 26 - 28 write:

YES if the statement agrees with the writer

NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

26 Students registered at Westley Business College don’t have to pay for the preparation course.

27 Most students at Westley Business School are older than the average college student.

28 All taught courses are held in the Westley Business School main building.

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Westley Business School

Preparation Courses for Students

80% of the students who take our courses are mature students who have not done any formal study for several years. Many of the courses at the Westley Business School require a good knowledge of various skills. If you feel you need some extra preparation before your course, look below and see if any of our preparation courses suit your needs. All courses take place in August, and for enrolled students all the courses listed below are free.

Course 1 STATISTICS

A grounding in statistics is a must for any prospective business student. This is a one week course (Mon - Fri) consisting of one lecture every night. The tutor will ensure that by the end of the course, you will have had a thorough introduction to all the statistical skills that you will need to start your course at Westley Business School. Each lecture runs from 6pm to 9pm.

Course 2 ESSAY WRITING

This is a self-study pack containing guidance, practice and tests. At the end of the course (it should take about 10 hours of self-study) you will receive a 1 hour tutorial with the essay writing tutor who will go over your work with you.

Course 3 BASIC MATHS

This is a one-off lecture of 3 hours aimed at reviewing all the basic maths that you will vaguely remember from school! This course is run on a “first come, first served” basis and there are only 20 places (every Monday in August from 5.45pm - 8.45pm) so don’t be late.

Course 4 COMPUTING

This 2 week course (Mon - Fri 6.30pm - 8.30pm) will give students all the basic computer skills that they will need for their courses at Westley Business School. There are two courses running concurrently with only 10 PLACES in each so book early!

NB UNLESS OTHERWISE STATED, YOU MUST BOOK IN ADVANCE FOR THESE COURSES AT THE MAIN WESTLEY BUSINESS SCHOOL RECEPTION

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SECTION 3 Questions 29 - 40

Read the following passage and answer Questions 29 – 40.

The Saltwater Crocodiles of AustraliaA

What’s the world’s largest reptile? It’s a saltwater crocodile. Crocodiles have been on this planet for tens of millions of years - far longer than us! Many animals are unfairly feared through ignorance as a danger to humans but the saltwater crocodiles wholly deserve the fear and the respect given to them by people living near them. The large saltwater crocodile has taken the lives of many unsuspecting men, women, children, their pets and livestock. By maturity saltwater crocs can reach between 20 and 23 feet. An average length for full grown males is about 17 feet and females rarely exceed 10 feet.

B

The saltwater crocodiles are native to many estuarine Indo Pacific regions and for this reason they are often known as Estuarine Crocodiles. They range from China all the way through Australia and up into the Indian Ocean. The saltwater crocodile is found along Australia’s northern coast and up to 200km inland. As the name suggests these crocodiles are mainly found in estuaries where tidal rivers meet the sea. This watery habitat is often mangrove lined. They can also be sometimes found in the open sea or inland in freshwater swamps and billabongs. Saltwater crocs are usually found though in brackish waters where the seawater meets freshwater.

C

Saltwater crocs hunt by waiting close to the water’s edge and pounce upon their victims in the blink of an eye. The usual prey of younger crocs is smaller animals such as fishes and crustaceans. Adults can also attack and eat larger animals by overpowering them and then drowning them. After the prey is dead, the croc will break up the prey into smaller pieces by violent flicking of the head to snap or break bones or twisting and rolling the body. Larger crocs will also take carrion (dead animals) if hungry.

D

Nesting takes place in freshwater areas in the wet season (Between November and March) after the males fight for the females. Raised nests are constructed and into these nests between 25 and 90 eggs will be deposited. Females will remain near the nests and the eggs take about 90 days to hatch. Males will be produced if the temperature remains at 31.6 degrees Celsius. Temperatures above or below that will result in females. When the female hears the young begin to hatch, she will assist them in emerging and carry them in her mouth to the water. Probably less then 1% of these hatchlings will reach adulthood.

E

In the post World War Two era many northern pioneers hunted the saltwater crocodile for its skin. Hunters combed the rivers and their tributaries, indiscriminately shooting the saltwater and freshwater crocodiles. Hides were sold wet salted to Europe. It is estimated that 270, 000

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saltwater crocodile hides plus 200 to 300, 000 freshwater crocodile hides were exported in the 15 years prior to 1972. The days of hunting slowly died as the hunters recognized that they had shot their way out of the market. There were so few crocodiles remaining in the late 60s that the hunters couldn’t make a living. This unsustainable harvest was brought to a halt by the Western Australian government in 1969. In 1971 the Northern Territory Government granted the Saltwater crocodile total protection and Queensland followed suit in 1974.

F

Over the next decade the crocodile populations made a remarkable comeback. Protection plus a nucleus of very wary but healthy breeding stock deep in inaccessible breeding grounds led to a crocodile revival. In the late 70s crocodile sightings became more common. After several well-publicised crocodile attacks fears that a growing crocodile population would interfere with and inhibit a growing human population led to a more proactive form of crocodile conservation in the Northern Territory. A major public education campaign was undertaken, to prevent people’s actions once again threatening one of the Northern Territory’s most valuable natural resources.

G

Crocodile farming licences were issued with the intention that young crocodiles harvested from the wild could be commercially utilized and the farms could provide a home for any larger animals threatening populations. Darwin Crocodile farm was first licensed in 1981, and provided a major public education facility in the form of a new and exciting tourist attraction, whilst being able to commercially utilize the crocodiles for their skins. Provisions were made for juveniles to be released if populations in the wild became threatened. Sustainable and successful breeding from the nucleus of problem crocodiles supplied to the farm has now led to the farm being able to selectively choose its own breeding stock. Monitoring of growth rates and temperaments of animals set aside for breeding is the basis of the selection of mature animals to be used in the farm’s breeding programme. Any male that shows excessive aggression towards other crocodiles, especially females, is removed from the breeding programme. Some may be used as single display males, but animals with excellent skin quality are now culled for their skins and heads.

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Source: Crocodile farms NY PTY Ltd

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Questions 29 - 34

The reading passage on The Saltwater Crocodiles of Australia has 7 paragraphs (A – G).

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G.

Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 29 – 34 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

Example Answer

Paragraph A vi

i Crocodile Exploitation in Australia’s North

ii Crocodile Attacks

iii Habitat

iv Crocodile Farming

v The Biggest Reptile in the World

vi A Fearsome Beast

vii Crocodiles and Tourism

viii Breeding

ix Feeding

x Dangers for Young Crocodiles

xi Stocks Recovery

29 Paragraph B

30 Paragraph C

31 Paragraph D

32 Paragraph E

33 Paragraph F

34 Paragraph G

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Questions 35 - 40

Below you will find a summary of paragraphs E, F and G. Complete the summary using words from the box below the summary and write them in boxes 35 – 40 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them at all.

Example Answer

The value of saltwater crocodile (eg) ______ led hidesto a massive...

The value of saltwater crocodile (eg) ______ led to a massive increase in (35) ______ after

the Second World war and by the early 1970s there were very few left. Finally the local

state governments arrested the (36) ______ in numbers by making the saltwater crocodile

a protected species. Within ten years stocks of crocodiles almost entirely recovered in spite

of worries that the (37) ______ human and crocodile populations were not (38) ______.

Crocodile farms were set up from 1981 for the purposes of breeding, education, tourism,

commerce (selling the skins) and finding a home for crocodiles (39) ______ humans in the

wild. Now if there is a danger to the crocodile populations in the wild, there are plenty of

(40) ______ crocodiles that can be released to replenish stocks.

threatening rise compatible equal

living educating average hunting

expanding young conservation decline

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General Training Test 4; Page 22

GENERAL TRAINING WRITING PRACTICE TEST 4

WRITING TASK 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

You are going to study in a college in the UK next year. You would like to stay in a college Hall of Residence.

Write a letter to the college giving your accommodation requirements. You should outline what your room and food needs are and also ask what alternatives are available if they cannot provide what you want.

You do NOT need to write your own address. Begin your letter as follows:

Dear Sir,

WRITING TASK 2

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

It is very clear now that English should be the primary foreign language taught in all schools around the world. Learning a different foreign language before English is, in today’s world, a waste of time.

Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

You should write at least 250 words.

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GENERAL TRAINING SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 4Section 1

* Describe the house or flat/apartment in which you live at the moment.* Do you think it is better to live in a house or a flat/apartment?* What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a garden?

Topic 1 Parks

* Do you visit parks? (Why/Why not?)* Do you think parks are important for towns and cities? (Why/Why not?)* Do you think that parks should be free or that people should pay to use them?* What are some of the disadvantages of parks in a town or city?

Topic 2 Free Time

* Do you have much free time in your life? (Why/Why not?)* What do you like doing in your free time?* What free time activities do you particularly dislike?* How much free time do you think a person should have every day?

Section 2

Describe one of your good friends You should say where you met what this person does what things you do together and why you particularly like this person

Section 3

Topic 1 Family and Friends

* Do you prefer spending time with your family or with your friends? (Why?)* Can you compare the activities that you do with your friends and your family?* Do you think it is important for your family and friends to like each other?* Can you compare the relationships that you have with friends and the ones you have

with family?

Topic 2 Living with Friends

* Do you live alone, with friends or with family? (Why?)* What are some of the advantages of living with friends?* What are some of the disadvantages of living with friends?* What are some of things that can break a friendship?

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GENERAL TRAINING LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 5

SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.

Example Answer

PASS APPLIED FOR 1 month

General Training Test 5; Page 1

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ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL TRAINING MODULEPRACTICE TEST 5

BUS PASS APPLICATION FORM

NAME Nathalie (1) ______________________________

ADDRESS 45 (2) ___________________________________ Newlands Adelaide

POSTCODE (3) _____________________________________

DATE OF BIRTH (4) 13th May 1982

TEL NUMBER (4) _____________________________

UNIVERSITY CARD SHOWN Yes

ZONES REQUIRED (5) _____________________________________

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Questions 6 - 10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.

Adelaide Day Trips on the Bus

1 The MacDonald Nature Park

Outward Journey Leaves 8.00am Length of Journey 2 hours Return Journey Leaves (6) ______________________________________ Things to do/see Walk nature trails + MacDonald River Bring A camera

2 Pearl Bay

Outward Journey Leaves 9.00am Length of Journey (7) ______________________________________ Return Journey Leaves 4.00pm Things to do/see Walk along (8) _____________________ + see view Lie on the beach + swim Bring Swimming gear + a towel

3 The Huron Gold Mine

Outward Journey Leaves 9.30am Length of Journey Half an hour Return Journey Leaves (9) ______________________________________ Things to do/see Go round the museum and tunnels Find some gold!! Bring (10) ______________________________________

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Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 16

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11 The highest point of the bridge is 134m above __________________________________.

12 The two pairs of pylons are made of __________________________________.

13 _______________________________% of the steel for making the bridge came from the UK.

14 800 families from __________________________________ homes were moved without compensation to accomodate the construction of the approaches to the bridge.

15 People _________________________________ was the main cause of death of workers while constructing the bridge.

16 Three __________________________________ were made to mark the opening of the bridge. One is worth several hundred dollars today.

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Questions 17 - 20

Which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true about the Sydney Harbour Bridge today?

Choose FOUR letters (A - J) and write them in boxes 17 - 20 on your answer sheet.

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A There are no more trams crossing the bridge.

B There are eight traffic lanes on the bridge.

C Trains still cross the bridge.

D People are allowed to walk across the bridge.

E Buses are allowed to cross the bridge.

F The Harbour Tunnel has not helped traffic congestion on the bridge.

G More than 182 000 vehicles cross the bridge daily.

H Horses can no longer cross the bridge.

I Bicycles are not allowed to cross the bridge.

J To go back and forward across the bridge costs $6.

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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 27

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

21 While waiting for Phil, Mel and Laura were ____________________________________.

22 A telephone survey was rejected because it would be ____________________________.

23 A mail survey was rejected because it would ___________________________________.

24 The best number of people to survey would be _________________________________.

25 If their survey only included 100 people, it would not be __________________________.

26 The number of people that Laura, Phil and Mel agree to survey was ________________.

27 The number of questions in the survey was agreed to be _________________________.

Questions 28 - 30

Circle THREE letters A - G.

What are the three locations that Laura, Phil and Mel chose for their survey?

A The town square

B The train station

C The university cafeteria

D Dobbins department store

E The corner of the High Street and College Road

F The bus station

G The corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road

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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 34

Complete the table below by matching the individual with their role (questions 31 - 34) in the lecture on the coelacanth.

Write the approprate letters (A - F) on your answer sheet.

NB There are more roles than individuals so you will not need to use them all.

INDIVIDUAL ROLEDr. J.L.B. Smith (31) _____________________Marjorie Courtney-Latimer (32) _____________________Dr. Mark Erdmann (33) _____________________Captain Goosen (34) _____________________

ROLES

A Paid fishermen for unidentified finds.

B Caught a strange looking fish.

C Contacted scientists in Indonesia.

D Photographed a coelacanth seen by accident.

E First recognised the coelacanth for what it was.

F Bought a specimen of a coelacanth in a market.

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Questions 35 - 40

Choose the correct letters A - C.

35 The coelacanth was...

A well known to Indonesian fishermen. B unknown to Indonesian fishermen. C a first in the market.

36 The only difference between the Comoros coelacanth and the Sulawesi coelacanth is...

A their intercranial joint. B their paired fins. C their colour.

37 Coelacanths seemed to have their greatest population...

A 360 million years ago. B 240 million years ago. C 80 million years ago.

38 Modern coelacanths probably left no fossilised remains over the past 80 million years because...

A of too much clay sediment. B conditions where they lived were not favourable for fossilisation. C volcanoes are needed for fossilisation.

39 Scientists had a better understanding of the coelacanth after 1991 because...

A the French government had previously limited study on the Comoros coelacanth. B the Comoros were far away and difficult to reach. C the Comoros opened an airport.

40 On the 1991 expedition, scientist studied the coelacanth...

A only from fishermen’s specimens. B through the windows of their submarine. C from diving down.

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GENERAL TRAINING READING PRACTICE TEST 5

SECTION 1 Questions 1 – 12

Questions 1 – 6

On the following page are 5 advertisements for Hall of Residence accommodation at the University of Westley. Read the requirements for 6 students below (questions 1 - 6) and then choose the Hall (A - E) that best meets their requirements.

Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate advertisements in boxes 1 – 6 on your answer sheet.

1 You are a male first year student who wants a single room, close to the University and with laundry services in the Hall.

2 You are a male, second year student who wants a single room and to cook your own meals. You want to be close to the University.

3 You are a first year girl who wants to share with another girl.

4 You are a first year girl who wants meals provided but you want to be able to cook sometimes too.

5 You are a male student who would like to share with another student for your first year.

6 You are a student with a late night job in the town centre so you want to live close to the town centre.

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Example You are a first year girl who is worried about her safety.

Answer D

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GWYN HOUSE(first year students only)

* single rooms* all rooms en suite* full board* mixed sex* shared kitchens* TV and video room* reasonably priced

PLAS HALL

Plas Hall provides single rooms for mixed sex students. It is self-catering and kitchens and bathrooms are all shared. There are no amenities but on the Hawley site you can find everything you need such as TV and laundry services.

Below you can find the Hall of Residence accommodation possibilities that Westley University offers its students. Gwyn House, Plas Hall and Rath Place are all situated on the Hawley Site which is only a 7 minute walk from the University. Read through and decide which hall would suit you best.

RATH PLACE

Male only single or double rooms. Fully catered and laundry services available at a modest fee.

MARY’S LODGE

This hall is situated on a hill overlooking the University and the town. It is self-catering accommodation and offers single rooms with shared bathrooms and kitchens. There are no buses but it is very close to the town centre so walking there is no problem but to the University site takes a good 25 minutes.

PIMMS HALL

Situated only 5 minutes walk from the University, Pimms Hall offers women only single or shared ensuite rooms with full catering and laundry supplied. With women only, security is taken very seriously and there is 24 hour security controlling the hall. As there is full board, there are no student kitchens.

E

D

B

C

A

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The Cleanex Washing Machine

Instructions for Using your Washer

Preparing Your Laundry

Divide your laundry by fabric and colour fastness. Wash white and coloured items separately. Remember to empty any pockets, removing especially those small items like coins, paper, pins and badges that might jam the pump. Fasten or remove loose buttons and fasten zippers. Turn shirts inside out for better results.

Check Wash Labels

Garments and laundry generally have wash instruction labels inside the garment (which may tell you if they should be dry-cleaned, hand washed or machine washed) showing the wash temperature, how to iron etc... Important: fabrics should only be machine washed if their labels show the appropriate symbol.

Alternate Items

For best results we recommend you alternate small and large items and, when you load your washer, remember to spread them out. Never overload your washing machine.

Detergents and Fabric Softeners Open the dispenser marked C by pulling it outwards. Fill with detergent and conditioner using the quantities indicated by the manufacturer on the packet according to the load you are washing, the water hardness and how soiled your laundry is. As you become more familiar with your washer, you will regulate the quantities according to your own personal experience.In the detergent dispenser, there are 3 compartments. Compartment 1 is for prewash cycle detergent, compartment 2 is for wash cycle detergent and compartment 3 is for fabric softener. Never fill compartment 3 above the grid.Use compartment 2 for liquid detergent, filling the compartment just before you start the washer. Remember that liquid detergent is ideal for wash cycles with temperatures up to 60°C and for the programmes with no prewash cycles.Dispensers for liquid and powder detergents which are placed inside the drum of the washer, are sold on the market. To improve the effectiveness of the washing cycle, we recommend that you insert a detergent dispenser in the drum before loading.Do not use hand washing detergents since these produce very heavy suds.When using cold wash cycles, remember to reduce the detergent dosage.

Questions 7 - 10

Read the Instructions for Use leaflet about the Cleanex Washing Machine below and then look at the questions following it.

General Training Test 5; Page 10

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Source: Merloni Elettrodomestici

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7 You must remove small items from the pockets or clothing or...

A they could be lost. B they could affect the colours of the wash. C they could break the action of the washing machine pump. D they could make holes in the clothing.

8 The washing label on a fabric garment will indicate machine washing by...

A writing on it. B displaying a particular symbol on it. C being of a particular colour. D being inside the garment.

9 When you have used the washing machine for a long time, you will know how much detergent to use because of...

A your experience. B the manufacturers indications. C the hardness of the water. D how dirty your laundry is.

10 The best way to use detergent is to...

A never overload the machine. B use with temperatures up to 60°C. C use a prewash cycle. D put it in a dispenser in the drum before putting the laundry in.

According to the Instructions for Use leaflet about the Cleanex Washing Machine, answer the following questions (7 - 10) choosing the appropriate letters A - D. Write your answers in boxes 7 - 10 on your answer sheet.

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QUICK KILL Bug Infestations???

If you are suffering from infestations of ants, wasps, hornets or any other creepy crawly that you want out of the house, here is the answer. Quick Kill is a low allergic, odourless insecticide. It has been developed with highly purified ingredients to provide the effectiveness that you need without the harsh smell. Quick Kill is deadly to all insects that you might find around you. Coming with a sample powder packet to test out, there is no better time to try out this new and effective answer to infestation.

Quick Kill - Now only the insects know that you have sprayed!

Questions 11 and 12

Now read the advertisement for Quick Kill below and answer the questions that follow.

ONLY $4.99

Complete the following statements (Questions 11 and 12) with words taken from the Quick Kill advertisement.Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.Write your answers in boxes 11 and 12 on your answer sheet.

11 Nobody can tell when you have sprayed Quick Kill because it is _______________.

12 The price for Quick Kill includes a _______________.

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SECTION 2 Questions 13 – 28

Questions 13 - 19

On the following page read the Information Guide from WestTel Communications listing 7 convenient methods (A - G) to pay your phone bill.

Answer questions 13 – 19 below by writing the appropriate letter (A - G) to indicate which method would best answer the questions. Write your answers in boxes 13 - 19 on your answer sheet.

13 Which method stresses that there is no waiting around?

14 Which method requires just one form to be completed to have all your WestTel bills paid every month?

15 With which TWO methods can you use the internet to pay?

16 For which THREE methods can you use a bank to pay?

17 For which method must you visit the WestTel offices in person?

18 Which method will soon be expanded?

19 For which method can you only use a cheque for payment?

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WESTTEL COMMUNICATIONS

7 CONVENIENT WAYS TO PAY YOUR PHONE BILLS

A Online Payment at WestTel.com

Pay from the convenience of your home or office - anytime you want! Just log onto WestTel.com and pay all your bills through a fast, reliable and secure online payment system.

B Automatic Cash Payment Machine

Just walk up to one of the automatic cash payment machines at WestTel offices and other strategic locations around town and pay your bills on the spot - no queues, no hassles. New machines are planned at other convenient locations.

C Payment via Telebanking and teller Machines

Pay our WestTel bills using telebanking, public teller machines or online at any major high street bank.

D Payment by Ordinary Mail

Just send a cheque for the total amount of your phone bill by ordinary mail to the Account manager of your local WestTel branch, making the process easy as you don’t have to visit the branch. Send only cheques - no drafts or cash please.

E Payment by Cash, Cheques and Credit Cards

Pay all your WestTel bills by cash, cheque or credit card at your nearest WestTel office. All major credit cards are accepted. Cheques can also be dropped off into specially marked boxes located in our lobbies.

F Cash Payment at Bank Counters

Just walk into any major high street bank and pay all your telephone bills by cash or at the counter.

G Direct Debit

Bank customers can pay their WestTel bills simply by opting for the direct debit facility with their bank. Only one application form for this facility needs to be filled out and submitted at the bank branch where you maintain an account. The amount due to WestTel is then deducted directly from your account each month.

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20 For which TWO courses will you have to pay extra for materials?

21 For which course must you be a beginner?

22 Which course specifies specific clothing to be worn?

23 For which TWO courses do you need some of your own equipment (not clothing)?

24 Which course will not wholly take place at the WCAE?

25 In which course will you learn things from other students?

26 For which course will you need to practise at home?

27 For which course do two people often register together?

Questions 20 - 27

Look at the Information sheet concerning courses offered at the Westley Centre for Adult Education on the following two pages and look at the questions below. Answer the questions by selecting the appropriate letter(A - F).

Write:

A if the question refers to Marketing for your Small Business

B if the question refers to Cooking

C if the question refers to Dance

D if the question refers to Wine Tasting

E if the question refers to Languages

F if the question refers to Beginning Piano

G if the question refers to Introduction to Photography

Your answer may require more than one letter.

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Courses at The Westley Centre for Adult EducationWhether it’s belly dancing, wine tasting, starting a business or fishing, the WCAE offers more than 100 courses that will improve your quality of life in more ways than one. Below there is a selection of some of the courses that we have on offer. Have a look and see if you find a course that might interest you. Check our website for the full list of courses on offer and tuition fees. All classes take place at the Centre unless specified.

Marketing for your Small Business

If you are a practicing entrepreneur or thinking about starting your own business, this is a practical course on how to adapt traditional marketing tools to various situations in small enterprises. Learn a general framework for developing entrepreneurial marketing. “Lessons learned” by other participants are shared to better understand marketing within the context of small business enterprises. Get a sense of the marketing competencies required for entrepreneurs and how to develop an entrepreneurial marketing plan.

Cooking

Dinner doesn’t have to involve a great time commitment and a kitchen stocked with many ingredients. Learn the fundamentals of the five basic cooking methods - sautéing, steaming, roasting, braising, and pan-frying - and expand your culinary creativity and save time in the kitchen. Master the five cooking principles, and get recipes utilizing these techniques. Also, discuss with the teacher how to use an ingredient in more than one recipe and see how the five recipes translate into dinners for the five workdays. Practice your newly mastered skills in our kitchens and so become more comfortable in your kitchen. The tuition includes a materials fee for food. (Demonstration and participation.)

Dance

Salsa is the hot, hot, hottest of the Latin American dances! Characterized by explosive movements, its beat is lively and sensuous and makes you want to get up and move. Come and enjoy this easy-to-learn, fun dance step and get hooked. Specify when you register if you are a “leader” or a “follower.” People commonly take the course in pairs but there are plenty of singles so come along. Expect to change partners during the class. Wear leather-soled shoes.

Wine Tasting

Whether it’s a glass of wine while watching a sunset or the perfect complement to a glorious meal, impress your friends with your newly acquired wine savvy. Learn what makes a good wine, whether expensive or inexpensive, and how to order with ease in any restaurant. Enjoy various red and white wines for tasting, and learn the ins and outs of pouring, reading wine labels, and more. The tuition includes a materials fee for wine. At the end of the course there is a trip to a local wine importer where you can test your new skills.

Languages

The WCAE offers two languages at beginner level, French and Spanish. These courses are not intended for students who have studied the languages in the past and want a refresher course but for those who are completely new to the language. Classes emphasize basic

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grammar, pronunciation, and oral exercises. The texts, not included in the tuition, are available at Borders Books and Music, 10-24 School Street, Westley, at the corner of School and Washington Streets.

Beginning Piano

If you once played the piano or you’re just dying to learn, here’s your chance. Playing at a digital keyboard, learn chords, note names, sharps and flats, musical forms, key signatures, basic rhythms, and meters. Receive individual attention as you play with an ensemble, and practice on your own with headphones. Also, develop good habits for the future. Purchase the text at the first class from the instructor for $20. You should own or be able to rent a keyboard or piano for at-home practice. Participants will need to practise for about an hour a day at home to properly exploit what they learn.

Introduction to Photography

Wish you had more control over the lighting and development of your photographs? Learn about basic 35mm camera operation; technical information, such as f-stops, shutter speed, depth-of-field, filters, and exposure techniques; and the basics of black-and-white film processing. Also, discover different strategies for composition and receive feedback. This course is for those who own a 35mm camera with manual settings.

General Training Test 5; Page 17

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Source: Boston Centre for Adult Education

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SECTION 3 Questions 28 - 40

Read the following passage and answer Questions 28 – 40.

Wind EnergyA

People have taken advantage of wind energy for years. Images of milling corn and transporting water present a familiar picture of English countryside and in the past innumerable wooden mills could be located around England. Now countries are planning for when fossil fuels run out and they are considering wind again to supply us with a future energy source. Using energy from the wind is also an easy and efficient method for countries to fulfil their commitments concerning emissions of greenhouse gases. Many European states, with their long winters and little sunshine, now favour wind power over solar-based methods of producing power. For example, last year Germany increased capacity by 44%. Denmark, the Netherlands, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom are examples of other countries with large wind power capacity.

B

As the windiest country in Europe, the United Kingdom’s wind power potential is larger than the rest of Europe put together. Half of this resource is in Scotland. The UK’s government has promised to generate 10% of their electricity using renewable resources. Wind power is seen to be the answer to doing this. The UK has issued wind farm licences to produce as much electricity as about six nuclear power stations. This policy has found favour with the public who support the search for cleaner energy sources.

C

Until 1989, Denmark was the only European state that had installed wind turbines for generating electricity. After 1989, other European countries followed suit developing support mechanisms for developing renewable energy and particularly wind power. Since 1994 the remaining European countries have also really started to support wind power station installation. Countries offer different levels of support. Some governments have paid companies premiums to maintain their competitive edge while others have given investment subsidies to foster the development of technology. Tax incentives have also been offered.

D

Nature provides us with indications for the best sites for wind turbine installation. Wind force and direction can be observed by leaning trees. This can most frequently be seen in open countryside and areas near coastlines and it is here, particularly in elevated spots clear of trees or buildings which obstruct the current of air, that wind farms have mostly been erected. Massive wind turbines, twice the size of conventional turbines, are also being developed for use offshore, as it is there that the strongest and most constant winds are found.

E

Believing that wind energy has no disadvantages is easy – it is clean, efficient and

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comparatively inexpensive and it creates no pollutants or emissions during operations. The electricity generated in the first 6 to 9 months of operation by a typical wind turbine will usually meet its manufacturing costs. However, wind farms are frequently regarded as a type of visual pollution because of their common locations on hilltops. It is inescapable that sites with the most wind are usually the most beautiful, and because they are built in wild, remote and untouched settings their impact is all the more noticeable. This is one of the most controversial questions when deciding on wind farm locations. Thus the siting of wind farms ought to be done with the greatest sensitivity. When turbines are due for decommission, the entire structure can be wholly recycled or removed and the cost of total site restoration can usually be completely met by the scrap value.

F

Wind turbines blades are made of glass fibre or wood epoxy and they can be of a diameter of 30 to 60 metres. The blades of the wind turbine generator are turned by the wind. The blades are joined to the hub that is in turn connected to the gear shaft. When the wind blows, the blades and hub turn the shaft that revolves within the generator; that then produces electricity. The power created is dependent on the blade size and the swept area. The speed of the wind and its availability are also key variables to be considered. The electricity is then moved to either the grid for regional use or to supply power to a stand-alone facility.

G

European operational capability was 2500 megawatts in total by the end of 1995. By the end of 1996 it had increased to 3400 MW and at the end of 1997 to 4600 MW. There were steady increases in growth (40% per annum) over the following 6 years and the forecast is that this growth rate will persist. This is in contrast to practically zero growth in traditional fossil fuel energy production. Nonetheless, even at existing production levels, only 2% of potential energy is being exploited. In due course therefore wind farms may well satisfy 20% of total European power requirements. The European country with the most operational capacity is Germany. This is mostly down to the level of support given to wind power by Germany’s government. It has also been helped by recent innovation in the field of turbine development.

General Training Test 5; Page 19

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Source: Energylinx Ltd

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28 Paragraph B

29 Paragraph C

30 Paragraph D

31 Paragraph E

32 Paragraph F

33 Paragraph G

i Industrial Considerations

ii Government Policy and Support

iii Current Installation of Wind Turbines in Europe

iv The New Alternative

v Location of Wind Power Turbines

vi Materials

vii Wind Power in Germany

viii Wind Power in the UK

ix Turning Wind into Energy

x Return on Investment

xi Environmental Considerations

Example Answer

Paragraph A iv

Questions 28 - 33

The reading passage on the Wind Energy has 7 paragraphs (A – G).

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G.

Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 28 – 33 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

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Questions 34 – 40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage on Wind Energy?

In boxes 34 – 40 on your answer sheet write:

YES if the statement agrees with the information

NO if the statement contradicts the statement

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage

34 The UK has also experimented with solar energy as well as wind energy.

35 Wind power is popular with the UK general public.

36 Wind power stations are better situated at sea than on land.

37 Wind farm generators only produce a minimal amount of air pollution.

38 After decommissioning, no visible sign of wind power stations can be left.

39 The towers of the wind turbines are made from fibre glass.

40 Denmark has the highest current wind power capacity in Europe.

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General Training Test 5; Page 22

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GENERAL TRAINING WRITING PRACTICE TEST 5

WRITING TASK 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

You celebrated your birthday with some friends last week in a restaurant. It was a great success and you and your friends enjoyed the evening very much.

Write a letter to the restaurant to thank them. Mention the food, service and the atmosphere. Also suggest any improvements to make things better.

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

You do NOT need to write your own address. Begin your letter as follows:

Dear Sir,

WRITING TASK 2

You should about 40 minutes on this task.

World travel was revolutionized in the 20th Century to the extent that the world has now become a global village. What factors will influence travel this century? Will travel continue to grow or will it become less popular?

You should write at least 250 words.

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GENERAL TRAINING SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 5Section 1

* Tell me a little about your country.* What are some of the good things and some of the bad things about living in your

country?* Where would be your favourite place to live in your country? (Why?)

Topic 1 Libraries

* Do you ever go to libraries? (Why/Why not?)* Do you think libraries should be free or that people should have to pay to use them?* How can we get more people to use libraries?* Do you think government money for libraries could be spent on better things?

Topic 2 Team Sports

* Do you play or watch a team sport? (Why/Why not?)* Why do you think people like playing or watching team sports?* What are some of the disadvantages of playing or watching team sports?* How can we encourage younger people to play more sport?

Section 2

Describe a place that you like You should say: where this place is when you first went there what you do or did there and explain why this place is so special for you.

Section 3

Topic 1 Places of Interest

* What kinds of places in your country are threatened by building or other types of progress?

* Do you think it is important to preserve historical areas in countries? (Why?)* How can governments protect places of interest?* What sort of places will be of interest to people in the future?

Topic 2 The Environment

* What kinds of pollution problems does your country face?* How can ordinary people help fight pollution?* Do you think that there should be stricter punishments for people and companies that

pollute the environment?* What sort of pollution problems do you think the world will face in the future?

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TEST 1 TEST 2 TEST 3 TEST 4 TEST 51. 48 1. B 1. Green Street 1. Jacobs 1. Jameson

2. R16 GH7 2. B 2. 7434 2. Rod 2. Forest Avenue

3. 07754 897 432 3. C 3. 1976 3. Highfield 3. 8490

4. PA 365 4. A 4. 06634 982 746 4. NH 87 18 12 C 4. 6249 7152

5. E6 5. B 5. (An addressed) letter 5. Dr. (Kevin) White 5. 1 - 5

6. B* 6. B 6. A˚ 6. A 6. 4.30pm

7. D* 7. 34 7. D˚ 7. B 7. 1 hour

8. E* 8. $100 8. F˚ 8. C 8. The cliffs

9. C 9. Room service 9. Free/nothing 9. A 9. 1.30pm

10. C 10. $9 10. $6 ($60 deposit) 10. B 10. A sweater

11. Student’s Union 11. (About) 6 foot 11. accidents*/ burns* 11. 5 pound fee 11. Mean sea level

12. University Library 12. (A) black leather jacket 12. heart surgery*/ organ transplants*

12. University card 12. Concrete and granite

13. Hall of Residence 13. Fat 13. patients with leukaemia* / cancer*

13. Daily 13. About 79

14. Sports Hall 14. Clean shaven 14. premature babies* 14. Friday(s) 14. 438

15. 2 hours 15. Early 20s 15. Carrying/carry oxygen 15. 6 15. Falling

16. Final exams 16. Increased competition 16. Immune/defence System 16. 1 week 16. (Postage) stamps

17. 6pm 17. Significant number 17. Carrying/carries/carry 17. Computers 17. D˚18. Vegetarian 18. Environmental groups 18. Outpatients 18. Non-lending section 18. F˚19. (Fully) insures 19. Mayor 19. 4.30pm 19. Arts 19. G˚20. £50 20. 30th 20. 17 20. Basement 20. J˚21. Tuesday 21. Civil engineering 21. Staff 21. Tomorrow 21. Chatting/talking

22. Economics 22. Physics 22. Library 22. Reliability 22. Too expensive

23. free/nothing 23. Delivered furniture/furniture delivery

23. 2 hours 23. 4000 words 23. Take too long

24. Squash 24. Hotel work 24. In pen 24. E-mail attachment 24. 1000

25. Main sports hall 25. (A very) good reputation 25. Biology 25. Market surveys 25. Statistically significant

26. About 10 26. Hiking/mountaineering 26. Tray 26. Stack system 26. 500

27. Africa and Asia 27. Sandwich 27. Nothing 27. Plagiarism/using their conclusions

27. 5

28. 4000 words 28. 5 exams 28. A 28. Extension 28. A*

29. 30th October 29. 15,000 words minimum 29. B 29. Doctor’s note / certificate 29. D*

30. B 30. June 30. C 30. Mortgage interest rates 30. E*

31. C 31. Dissertations and theses 31. 1964 31. B 31. E

32. B 32. Information societies 32. Fastest average speed 32. B 32. A

33. B 33. Statistical quality 33. 12 seconds 33. A 33. D

34. B 34. Low in cost/cheap 34. Most important stations 34. Seismic detection system 34. B

35. Very calm seas 35. Expensive/the cost 35. All stations 35. Buoys (at sea) 35. A

36. Larger slicks 36. Travelling (around) 36. Centralised power system 36. Offshore landslide 36. C

37. Toxic waste 37. Easy 37. Flimsy 37. No wave/zero feet 37. B

38. Eco-friendly 38. Closed 38. Brake 38. Submarine earthquake 38. B

39. No (discernable) drawbacks/none

39. Panel design 39. Magnetic Induction 39. 26,000 people 39. A

40. Deadline for submission 40. (Completely) anonymous summaries

40. Semiconductor technolo-gies

40. None 40. B

* Answers for qu. 11, 12, 13 + 14: any 4 from these answer boxes in any order.

˚ Answers for qu. 6, 7, + 8: these answers in any order.

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* Answers for qu. 6, 7, + 8: these answers in any order.

ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL TRAINING PRACTICE LISTENING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET

* Answers for qu. 28, 29, + 30: theseanswers in any order

˚ Answers for qu. 17, 18, 19 + 20:these answers in any order

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TEST 1 TEST 2 TEST 3 TEST 4 TEST 51. D 1. E 1. D 1. C 1. B

2. C 2. C 2. E 2. E 2. C

3. B 3. D 3. F 3. D 3. D

4. A + D 4. A 4. A 4. D 4. A

5. B 5. B 5. C 5. A 5. B

6. E 6. A 6. F 6. E 6. E

7. 95 7. Friday + Saturday 7. $1200 7. Copper polish 7. C

8. 20 + 65 8. Wednesday 8. 5 8. Scale 8. B

9. 5 9. Monday 9. 6 9. Patented whistling device/ ball (+ valve assembly)

9. A

10. 73 10. Wednesday 10. 8 10. Neglect/misuse 10. D

11. (new) films/movies 11. Hallows Function room 11. 9 11. DO 11. odourless

12. alps/peaks/mountains 12. $53 12. TRUE 12. DON’T 12. sample powder packet

13. FALSE 13. 5pm 13. TRUE 13. NOT GIVEN 13. B

14. NOT GIVEN 14. TRUE 14. B 14. B* 14. G

15. FALSE 15. TRUE 15. A 15. C* 15. A + C

16. TRUE 16. FALSE 16. G 16. F* 16. C + F + G

17. TRUE 17. NOT GIVEN 17. F 17. TRUE 17. E

18. E 18. 7.30 18. D 18. NOT GIVEN 18. B

19. I 19. The computer room 19. waiting list 19. FALSE 19. D

20. B 20. 10% (of fee) 20. suggestion book 20. FALSE 20. E + F

21. the computer centre 21. FALSE 21. xi 21. Course 2 (essay writing) 21. E

22. self-paced 22. FALSE 22. ii 22. Course 3 (basic maths) 22. C

23. in-house 23. TRUE 23. v 23. 15 hours 23. F + G

24. tailor made 24. FALSE 24. ix 24. 20 24. D

25. TRUE 25. (Details of) medicine 25. i 25. Course 3 (basic maths) 25. A

26. NOT GIVEN 26. Emergency mobile phone 26. 550 26. YES 26. F

27. TRUE 27. Area of practice 27. In-house examination 27. YES 27. C

28. carpet python 28. v 28. The Ione River 28. NOT GIVEN 28. viii

29. copperhead 29. x 29. v 29. iii 29. ii

30. bandy bandy 30. i 30. ix 30. ix 30. v

31. carpet python 31. xi 31. ii 31. viii 31. xi

32. bandy bandy 32. viii 32. vi 32. i 32. ix

33. tiger snake 33. iii 33. iii 33. xi 33. iii

34. FALSE 34. YES 34. x 34. iv 34. NOT GIVEN

35. FALSE 35. NO 35. NOT GIVEN 35. Hunting 35. YES

36. TRUE 36. YES 36. TRUE 36. Decline 36. YES

37. FALSE 37. NOT GIVEN 37. FALSE 37. Expanding 37. NO

38. NOT GIVEN 38. Roasting 38. TRUE 38. Compatible 38. YES

39. NOT GIVEN 39. Cocoa butter 39. FALSE 39. Threatening 39. NOT GIVEN

40. TRUE 40. Conching 40. TRUE 40. Young 40. NO

* Answers for qu. 14, 15 + 16 in any order

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ieltshelpnow.com GENERAL TRAINING PRACTICE READING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET

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Example Writing Answers for the ieltshelpnow.com General Training Practice Tests

Below you will find example writing answers for all the writing questions in the ieltshelpnow.com General Training Practice Tests. Some of these example essays were written by IELTS students and some were written by an IELTS examiner in order to give an example of a good answer. Please refer to the question papers while you are reading these answers so that you understand the question that is being answered. After each of the example answers, an IELTS examiner has written a short commentary analysing the good and bad points of the answer. We hope this will give you an insight into how the writing answers should be written for IELTS General Training module.

General Training Writing Practice Test 1

Task 1

Dear Sir,

I am writing in connection with a bag that I left on one of your planes. Last week on Tuesday 4th May I came to London on flight ABC from New York. My seat number was R5. The plane arrived late at night and I was tired. As a result when I got home, I remembered that I had left my bag on the plane under the seat in front of me.

My bag is small and made of black leather with a zip opening the top. Inside the bag there is a pen, a paperback I was reading, some car keys and my diary.

Therefore would your lost property department please check and see if they have my bag and contact me as soon as possible to let me know whether they have found it or not?

You can contact me on my mobile telephone number which is: 01753 853 736.

Thanking you in advance for your help, I look forward to hearing from you soon.

Yours sincerely, John Smith

(171 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9

IELTS Examiner Commentary

The letter was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.

The General Training Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Task Fulfilment This mark grades you on basically whether you have answered the question or not. A common mistake is to miss out in your letter one of things that it asks you to do. Has

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the letter above answered the question? It explained what happened. It described the bag and its contents. It says what the writer wants them to do. That is not all. The question asks you to write a letter. To answer the question the letter should be set in the appropriate way with a semi-formal opening and an ending that is appropriate to this type of letter. It uses correct language with the right degree of formality. Good paragraphing splits up the letter in easy-to-read chunks. The letter also provides information (such as the telephone number and flight details) that would be appropriate in a letter of this type. The letter is 171 words long so easily fulfils the 150 word limit. So finally, by doing all the above the letter would fulfil its function. The person receiving it would do what was wanted. Because of all the above reasons, this letter would get a very good Task Fulfilment band.

Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. The above letter has excellent cohesion. The structure helps this. The first paragraph introduces the subject, sets the scene and provides the basic information. The second paragraph describes the bag that is talked about in the first paragraph. The third paragraph explains what the writer wants to happen. Finally there is an appropriate ending. This logical progression of ideas in the structure of the three paragraphs gives the letter good cohesion and coherence. The choice of words also never causes any cohesion problems. For an example of bad cohesion, see the Free Help Tutorial for the General Training Task 1 Writing. Coherence is also very good in the letter. The letter makes the problem and what needs to be done quite plain. The reader never has a problem understanding what is said.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The Vocabulary of the letter is good though this Task 1 requires nothing complicated. All the words chosen are correctly and appropriately used with the correct degree of formality. The spelling is all correct. The Sentence Structure again is fine. The past tenses are used correctly to describe past events and the present tenses for description, all agreeing correctly. The singulars and plurals are all correctly used and everything is correctly punctuated including a list.

So, in conclusion, this letter fulfils all the things that an examiner looks for in a good answer in a letter for the General Training Task 1 Writing.

Task 2

It is true that children today spend far more time indoors than in previous generations. I would say that this has both a positive and negative side.

Children today seem to spend far too long inside with computer games, watching TV and videos. This is definitely bad in some ways because children should develop outdoor pursuits such as football, cricket and basketball that would make them healthy now and in their later lives. If they don‛t learn to play sports when they‛re young, it is unlikely that they will develop these healthy habits later in life and the results can be seen today in the higher levels of obesity and related illnesses such as diabetes. When I was young I had only sports to keep me occupied and I am grateful now that I still love and play the sports of my youth.

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On the other hand the world today is dominated by computers and electronics so it‛s important that children learn to like and understand computers and technology early in life. The older generation didn‛t have the opportunity to have this electronic entertainment and so don‛t understand the attraction.

In conclusion I would certainly agree that it is bad and unhealthy for children to spend all their time indoors with electronic entertainment. I don‛t think all children are too dependent on electronic entertainment but too many definitely are. We cannot expect though that children will totally ignore today‛s technologies and it is important that they grow up with awareness and understanding of these things that will dominate their later lives. I believe it is up to parents to guide and encourage a reasonable mixture of both indoor and outdoor pursuits.

(281 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9

IELTS Examiner Commentary

This essay was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.

The General Training Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. When you look at the above essay, you are first struck by how it is set out with paragraphs. Firstly there is a short introduction. Then there are 2 paragraphs that provide the ideas on both sides of the question of the essay. Finally there is a conclusion where the question is answered by the writer with his point of view. The writer examines both sides of the argument and shows that it is not an issue that is black or white. Example are given to backup his ideas – examples of sports, illnesses, the writer’s own childhood. The minimum word limit of 250 words has also been passed so that is not a problem. All these things would lead to a good band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence.

Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting communication would be linking words, prepositions and agreements. The paragraphing is the first thing that helps the communicative quality. As said above the paragraphing is very good. It splits the essay up into easy-to-read chunks and separates the ideas of the essay into these chunks. The grammar, punctuation and vocabulary are all very good and all the linking words, prepositions and agreements are all correctly used. The Communicative Quality in this essay therefore is very good.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. As pointed out in the section above, the Vocabulary and Sentence Structure are very good. All word usage is correctly used and spelt correctly. The grammar is all error free and the punctuation is good. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band would be very good.

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General Training Writing Practice Test 2

Task 1

Dear Sir,

I write to inquire about staying to your hotel with me family. Me family is consists of me wife, me two sons and me. We arrive on 14 August and want stay til 21 August – Therefore we will stay 6 nights. Me wife and me would like to take double room with view of sea and my sons will take room at back of the hotel. I would like to stay to the hotel with bed and breakfast. Please would you contact to me as soon as possible with the details of prices for this thing?

We not know the location where your hotel is very well so could you please write to us also in your letter give us some activities that my family like. Me two sons are 13 and 11 years old.

Thank you for your help, I look forward to hear from you.

Yours sincerly,

Alex Luchi

(151 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 7

IELTS Examiner Commentary

This letter was written by a Romanian IELTS student in the middle of an IELTS practice course.

The General Training Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Task Fulfilment This mark grades you on basically whether you have answered the question or not. A common mistake is to miss out in your letter one of the things that it asks you to do. Has the above letter answered the question? The question asks the candidate to write a letter, give the arrival and departure details, request the type of rooms and price for the weekend and ask about activities and places of interest. There are obviously language errors but nearly all these areas have been covered. The letter asks about activities but not places of interest but this is fairly minor. The letter is of 151 words so it fulfils the length requirement too. Also the letter is set out in a good way with an appropriate opening and ending. It has good paragraphing which splits up the letter into good easy-to-read chunks. So, this letter will get a fairly good task fulfilment band.

Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how the writing fits together. Does the writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. The above letter has reasonable cohesion. The flow of ideas through the letter is fairly logical but occasionally awkward (therefore is used correctly but a native speaker would have avoided its use). The faulty grammar takes away a bit from its coherence but it is an understandable letter and it would have the desired effect.

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Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary of this letter is mainly correct with the occasional awkward choice (take double room; contact to me). Spelling is fairly good with only occasional errors (sincerly; til). The Sentence Structure is the weakest part of the letter. There are numerous mistakes. Some verb tenses and patterns are faulty (write; is consists; want stay; to hear from; we not know) though other verbs are correct with correct use of would like. The writer also uses me instead of my and uses to the hotel instead of at the hotel twice. The grammar errors do not really affect communication in the letter though.

In conclusion, although the letter is at times a bit awkward, it is well set out, covers the main points, is fairly accurate and would fulfil its purpose.

Task 2

We have been known for some time now that smoking is a killer. I completely agree that all countries should make the rules that outlaws smoking in all the public areas.

That is a difficult subject though. Many of the smokers believe that they have the right to smoke where they will and that non-smokers can just go away from them. They have a point to some point but tobacco smoke is not the perfume. The smell get into your hairs, clothes and eyes and of course the smoke get into your lungs which make you feel bad the next day and can cause the illnesses over a long time. There are just too many things bad to let the people have the right to smoke anywhere.

It is of course only an optimist theory. It is not probable that all countries in the earth will disallow smoking in all of the public areas although Ireland has just done so and many part of US does. It is a good goal to try to do though. The more that it is prohibited then, slowly, the more people will realise how they kill them. People who would normally die would live and huge amounts of money will save on treating smoking diseases such as the cancer and the heart disease. If this lead to the fall of companies with losses of jobs and money for company owners then I can only say good. Governments will lose duties but I am sure that governments will think up other ways of making more duties!

So I completely believe in the statement that all countries should prohibit smoking in public places.

(277 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 7

IELTS Examiner Commentary

This essay was written by a German IELTS student studying in the UK.

The General Training Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. The above essay wholly addresses itself to the question and there is no irrelevance. From the first introductory paragraph the writer makes his

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position plain as regards the question. This is restated in the conclusion. The two paragraphs in between contain the writer’s argument looking at both sides of the question. Good examples back up the ideas that the writer puts forward. 250 words has also easily been passed so the word limit is not a problem. So this essay would get a good band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence.

Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on structure, accuracy in grammar, punctuation and vocabulary as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting communication would be linking words, prepositions and agreements. The paragraphing is the first thing that helps the communicative quality. As stated above, the introduction and conclusion are short and to the point and the main ideas for the essay are put into two separate paragraphs. These things help the “readability” of the essay and therefore help the communicative quality. There are a few errors with the grammar and word choice but this does not affect the communicative quality. The linking words and punctuation are both good and this really helps the communicative quality. So the communicative quality band here would be pretty good.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. As pointed out above there are a few errors in word choice (smoke where they will; too many things bad; optimist; a point to some point; disallow; good goal to try to do; duties) but none are serious. The errors are more the wrong form of the word or the choice of a synonym of the correct word. This makes it occasionally a bit unnatural but it is a minor effect. The grammar is mostly good but there are some errors. The is used wrongly on a number of occasions. There are a couple of plural problems as well (smell get into your hairs; many part of the US). The verb forms are mostly good but there are some slips (We have been known; rules that outlaws; the smoke get into; which make you; many part of the US does; money will save; If this lead). Finally there is one pronoun error (how they kill them). So, Vocabulary and Sentence Structure is the weakest area of this essay but it is not too bad. The essay would get a reasonable band for Vocabulary and Sentence Structure.

General Training Writing Practice Test 3

Task 1

Dear Sir,

I am writ in conection with radyo I buy before two week in your shop at London Road, when I go hme and play it I fiand it no work well, this very bad for me, I go holday soon and I buy radyo becus of this thing, I return radyo next day to your shop and shop man he say that they fix proplem and cal me soon. I wait one wek for cal from this man and I no hear nothing, I therefor ask you to call me very soon for tel me that you fix rayio or you give me new radio, I put copi of sale papr and fixing paper, I hope to hear yu soon Best regard,

Abdulaziz al Suwaidi

(122 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 4

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IELTS Examiner Commentary

This letter was written by an Arabic IELTS student at his college

The General Training Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Task Fulfilment This mark grades you on basically whether you have answered the question or not. A common mistake is to miss out in your letter one of the things that it asks you to do. Has the above letter answered the question? The first thing that one notices that the letter is considerably under length. By not writing the required 150 words the writer is not answering the question and so is penalised under Task Fulfilment. If less than 150 words is produced then only a maximum band of 5 (less than 5 can also be given) can be awarded for Task Fulfilment. Another omission is that the writer did not say how he feels about the situation and this is asked for in the question. Apart from these things the question is dealt with. The problems with the length and the feelings will give this letter quite a poor Task Fulfilment band.

Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how the writing fits together. Does the writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. Cohesion here is poor as well. The structure with no paragraphing and little punctuation makes it a badly joined together letter. Bad spelling causes understanding problems too. This leads to poor coherence for the reader also. It is often difficult to follow the letter and understand the meaning, although with some difficulty the point can be understood. This letter would get a low cohesion and coherence band.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The Vocabulary choices in this letter aren’t too bad in spite of some errors but there are lots spelling mistakes (radyo; therefor; becus; proplem; regard; etc…). Although the writer didn’t know the correct words for sales and repair receipts, he managed to paraphrase in a clumsy but understandable way in spite of the spelling errors. The Grammar is more of a problem. Most verb forms are faulty in tenses and negative forms (am write; buy; go; play; no work etc.). There are other grammar errors eg: (before two weeks; absence of the verb to be; absence of the and a (definite and indefinite articles); giving two subjects of verbs (the shop assistant he say); a double negative (I no hear nothing); an adjective in place of an adverb (it no work good); missing or wrong prepositions (at London Road; I hope to hear you soon). All these errors and others would ensure a poor Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band.

In conclusion the letter is quite poor in spite of being fairly relevant to the task set.

Task 2

I am agree with this. The study it is so importent now a days. The childrn is need the study for their lifes. The girls and boys no diffrent for this. They are need the study every day for get the bettr results. I think that evry day monday to friday the childrn must go to school for the classes. If they study then later they can be doctors or law or businessman. Then they get the muney for this for there famly and there famly they can be doctors or

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law or businessman. Nevertheless boys and girls some times are study togethar. I no think this is good idae. When the boys are yung they are like the girls too much and they are look too much the girls and no study. It is same with the girls becuse they are like also the boys and they are look too much the boys and they are no study. So for the boys and for the girls they are not get the results and no be doctors etc. So in conclusion I am believe that the study and the education is too much important for the boys and the girls so they can get the good results for help them in their lifes. The boys and the girls they must no study in mix sex classes or they are no study very well and they are no get the good results for help them. Therefor I am agree with this statment.

(251 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 5

IELTS Examiner Commentary

This essay was written by a Korean IELTS student doing an IELTS preparation course.

The General Training Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. Ones first reaction on seeing this essay is that it is badly structured. The length is no problem as it is over 250 words. Looking at the argument of the essay, more than a third of the essay is irrelevant. The writer opens by talking about how important education is to young people. This is of course true but it is not answering the question at all. The writer only starts to answer the actual question after Nevertheless. The remaining writing is also a bit repetitive and short on ideas and examples. The only real, relevant point that the writer makes in the whole essay is that girls and boys should not study together because they will look at each other. The Arguments, Ideas and Evidence band would not be very good here.

Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on structure, accuracy in grammar, punctuation and vocabulary as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting communication would be linking words, prepositions and agreements. The communicative quality here is not that good. There are quite a lot of grammar errors although the punctuation isn’t too bad. Nevertheless is used wrongly and causes the reader to stop and reread. The paragraphing is non-existent. The essay is all just in one big lump. This really affects how easy the essay is to read (see General Training Task 2 Tutorial for an example of good and bad paragraphing – Free Tutorials are available on the Home Page). So, the communicative quality band for this essay would not be very good.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary is not that bad though the spelling is not very good. Even when the writer has chosen a wrong word (law instead of lawyer; some time instead of sometimes) the writing can still be understood. Apart from that the vocabulary is a bit repetitive and needs a greater variety. The grammar is not very good. Most of the verb forms are faulty (tense choice, formation and agreement) (I am agree; the children is need; are need etc…) and the verb to be is used badly (girls and boys no diffrent). There are also lots of other mistakes scattered through the essay. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band would not be very good for this essay.

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General Training Writing Practice Test 4

Task 1

Respected Sir,

I have just recently been awarded a place at your esteemed college and I now write with respect to my accommodation requirements for my first initial year.

As I will not know anyone at the College, I would like to spend my first year in a Hall of Residence so that I can meet people in this place. I would prefer the Hall to be a single sex female only hall and with full board so that I won‛t have to worry about cooking for myself. In addition I also require a vegetarian choice as I am vegetarian. If there are no halls offering the above then I would be satisfied in a hall with kitchens so I can cook. In addition I would not like to share my room and I would prefer en suite facilities if you have halls offering this.

Thanking you for your assistance in advance, I look forward to hearing from you soon.

Yours sincerely,

Anna da Silva

(149 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9

IELTS Examiner Commentary

This letter was written by an Indian lady on an IELTS preparation course.

The General Training Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Task Fulfilment This mark grades you on basically whether you have answered the question or not. A common mistake is to miss out in your letter one of the things that it asks you to do. Has the above letter answered the question? The question asks the candidate to write a letter, give accommodation requirements, give room and food needs and ask for alternatives. It seems to me that all these questions have been answered. The letter is also set out well with good structure. One minus is that the question instructs the candidate to begin the letter with Dear Sir but this letter begins Respected Sir. This is not a serious problem but you should bear in mind that you should follow all instructions very carefully. Another problem is the length. In Task 1 you have to write 150 words. This letter is only 149 words. Now, 1 word short is not a problem but if a letter is noticeably short it will be heavily penalised in Task Fulfilment as is seen in the Task 1 example for General Training Test 3. The Task Fulfilment band for this letter would be fairly good.

Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how the writing fits together. Does the writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. The cohesion and coherence in this letter are both quite good. There is a good opening and ending and the important enquiry information is set out nicely in the

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middle paragraph. It is easy to read and well punctuated. The Cohesion and Coherence band for this letter would also be fairly good.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The Vocabulary is good and appropriate though it occasionally becomes over formal in a way that would be a little archaic in modern English (Respected Sir; esteemed college). The grammar is very good with virtually no errors. One thing that does stand out is the redundant use of in this place but that is about all. So, the Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band for this letter would again be pretty good.

Task 2

Everywhere people studies English. In my country too many people is study English. I think study other language is, in today‛s world, a waste of time.

English is Number 1 language in World today. Today everybody need English. English is the language for travel and business and other thing. If you want to stay in hotel, go restaurant, do money, you need English. America also most important economics and science country in world. When I go Dubai last year I only need English in hotel and shops.

Other language also important. The country that next to your country maybe you must know this language. Also China language, India language, Spanish language, Arab language very important and maybe more important later. So maybe this language also you can learn in school.

In my country we study English at school. Some people studies also other language but everyone say English is most important.

So I think English should be the primary foreign language taught in schools around the world. Learning a different foreign language is, in today‛s world, a waste of time.

(180 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 6

IELTS Examiner Commentary

This essay was written by a Thai IELTS student studying in the UK.

The General Training Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. The main problem with this essay is the length. If an essay for the General Training Task 2 Writing does not equal or exceed 250 words then the essay will be penalised on Arguments, Ideas and Evidence. In addition to being under length the writer has also used a small chunk of the question in the introduction and a larger chunk in the conclusion. The maximum band that can be awarded in this area for under length essays is 5 though it can be lower. So this essay’s maximum band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence would be 5. This is a shame as the writer makes a fair attempt to answer the question and is mostly

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relevant. The essay just needs some more ideas and evidence to back up the argument.

Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on structure, accuracy in grammar, punctuation and vocabulary as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting communication would be linking words, prepositions and agreements. First of all the structure of this essay is good and this helps the communicative quality. The information is set out into clear, separate paragraphs and this makes it easier for the reader to read it. The sentences are also short which also makes it more difficult for the writer to get mixed up. The punctuation is good which helps the communicative quality. On the other hand the grammar is fairly poor and this adversely affects the communicative quality. The sentences are also a bit awkward and unnatural. All in all this essay would get a reasonable band for communicative quality.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. In general the vocabulary in this essay isn’t bad. Quite often the wrong form of the word has been chosen (economics, science, China language etc.) but this does not affect intelligibility. There is only really one completely incorrect word choice (do money). The grammar in this essay is not that good. The only good areas are where the writer has copied the chunks from the question so these cannot be taken into account by the examiner. The verbs are often incorrect, the articles are a problem and there are other smaller, individual mistakes. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band would not be that good.

General Training Writing Practice Test 5

Task 1

Dear Sir,

Last week on Saturday night some friends and I had dinner in your restaurant to celebrate my birthday. I am writing to thank you for the great evening that we had.

All my friends remarked afterwards on the standard of the food and service that we received. All the food was very tasty and well presented. Our waiter, whose name was James, was fast and friendly and put with well with our bad jokes! The restaurant itself was warm and friendly and the atmosphere showed that all the diners there were enjoying their evening.

I would like though to suggest one improvement. One of my friends is a vegetarian and he felt that the choice for vegetarians was little small. If you could develop that, it would be a great advantage to your restaurant.

Once again I would like to thank you for my highly enjoyable birthday dinner.

Yours faithfully,

Rebecca Ahlinder

(152 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9

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IELTS Examiner Commentary

This letter was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.

The General Training Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Task Fulfilment This mark grades you on basically whether you have answered the question or not. A common mistake is to miss out in your letter one of things that it asks you to do. Has the letter above answered the question? The letter thanks the restaurant mentioning the food, service and atmosphere and also suggests an improvement. This is what the question asked. The letter also gives the relevant detail of the waiter’s name. The letter is set out in an appropriate way with a semi-formal opening and an ending that is appropriate to this type of letter. It uses correct language with the right degree of formality. The letter would certainly fulfil its function. The person receiving it would wholly understand its purpose. This letter would get a very good Task Fulfilment band.

Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. The above letter has excellent cohesion. The structure helps this. The first paragraph introduces the subject by mentioning the birthday meal and thanking the restaurant. The next paragraph details why the meal was so enjoyable. The third paragraph suggests the improvement. Finally there is an appropriate ending with another thank you. This logical progression of ideas in the structure of the three paragraphs gives the letter good cohesion. The choice of words also never causes any cohesion problems. For an example of bad cohesion, see the Free Help Tutorial for the General Training Task 1 Writing. Coherence is also very good in the letter. At no time does the reader have to stop because he does not understand.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary of the letter is good throughout. The Sentence Structure again is fine. The past tenses are used correctly to describe past events and the suggestions are all correctly presented. All other grammar is correct and everything is correctly punctuated.

So, in conclusion, this letter fulfils all the things that an examiner looks for in a good answer in a letter for the General Training Task 1 Writing.

Task 2

Many people travel nowadays; vastly more than at the start of the 20th Century. In the 20th Century this increase was due to the improvement in the means of travelling. In this century I believe that the numbers of people travelling will continue to grow. This will be due to various factors.

Just like last century I believe that travel technology will get more advanced and that it will become cheaper and therefore more people will have the opportunity to fly. In addition to

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this, lesser-developed and poorer nations today, such as China and other Southeast Asian and African countries, will become richer and more of the population will be able to afford to fly. Other factors will be a greater awareness in travel and travelling in order to obtain a better education. These I feel will be the factors most responsible for the future growth of travel.

On the other hand there will be factors negatively affecting the growth in travel. At present the most important one is probably the threat of terrorism leading to a fear of travelling by plane. Also the spread of wealth and opportunities around Southeast Asia and Africa will lessen the need for people to travel for a better life or education.

The reasons negatively affecting the growth of travel are certainly important but I believe that the ones that will positively affect its growth will prove far more powerful and so I believe that travel in the 21st Century will certainly continue to grow and become even more popular.

(257 words) Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9

IELTS Examiner Commentary

This essay was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.

The General Training Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.

Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. When you look at the above essay, you are first struck by how it is set out with paragraphs. Firstly the introduction sets out the writer’s opinion in relation to the question. Then there are 2 paragraphs that provide the ideas and examples that support the writer’s opinion. Finally the conclusion reiterates the writer’s opinion in light of what he has just written. The writer does not wholly look at one point of view but looks at factors affecting travel positively and negatively. The minimum word limit of 250 words has also been passed so that is not a problem. All these things would lead to a good band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence.

Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting communication would be linking words, prepositions and agreements. The paragraphing is the first thing that helps communicative quality. As pointed out above the paragraphing is very good. It splits the essay up into easy-to-read chunks and separates the ideas of the essay into these chunks. The grammar, punctuation and vocabulary are all very good and all the linking words, prepositions and agreements are all correctly used. The Communicative Quality in this essay therefore is very good.

Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. As pointed out in the section above, the Vocabulary and Sentence Structure are very good. All word usage is correctly used and spelt correctly. The grammar is all error free and the punctuation is good. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band for this essay would therefore be very good.

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Commentary on the Example Speaking Recordings for the ieltshelpnow.com General Training Practice Tests

Below you will find reports by an IELTS speaking examiner on three recordings of example IELTS test interviews. The questions asked in the recordings are the questions in the Speaking Test sections of ieltshelpnow.com General Training Tests 1, 2 and 3. While listening to the recordings, it would be helpful for you to have the question sheets with you to refer to.

The recordings are not real IELTS test recordings but the interviewer is a real IELTS examiner and the recordings are conducted in the exact way that an IELTS Speaking Test is done. The students interviewed were IELTS students who were doing an IELTS preparation course in the UK. The reports on each interview were written by the IELTS examiner who conducted the interviews. The examiner has tried to analyse the strong and weak parts of each of the students and this will give you a better understanding into how give a better performance in the IELTS Speaking Test.

To further help you, if you have not done so already, please look at the right hand side of the ieltshelpnow.com Home Page where you will find a series of free General Training Test Tutorials including Speaking. Here you will find advice on how to do and prepare for the IELTS Speaking Test.

Speaking Practice Test 1

Examiner’s Commentary

The student interviewed was Ilaria, an Italian female. The Speaking Test is in three sections. Let’s first look at the each of these sections in turn to identify the strong points as well as the weaknesses.

Section 1

Ilaria was very confident and gave full answers to all the questions. It started well when Ilaria gave a very full answer to the first question about her family and, without being prompted, went on to talk about where her family lived as well. This kind of full answer going further than the question asks is a good sign that the student is comfortable in English and can talk with easy fluency. The rest of Section 1 went equally well. Ilaria was not sporty so the questions from Topic 1 on Health and Exercise could not have suited her that well. In spite of this Ilaria gave full answers to all the questions. This is important as Ilaria showed that she could speak capably on a subject about which she knew little and had little interest in. On the other hand in Topic 2 Ilaria showed the examiner that she could answer the questions at length in English. Because of this Ilaria only needed 2 questions to be asked in Topic 2. Also in reply to the second question in Topic 2, Ilaria answers Yes, absolutely and then goes on to explain her answer without the need for the examiner to have to ask Why. This is often a good sign of a good, fluent candidate. Section 1 was very well answered by Ilaria and I do not feel that there were any bad points.

Section 2

Ilaria continued with the same fluency as Section 1. The examiner allowed Ilaria to talk for the full

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2 minutes and she had no problem doing this. Not all IELTS interviews are this long but it is always up to the examiner to decide the length of the interview and not the candidate. Ilaria hardly took any of the one available minute for preparation. This is absolutely no problem. It is wholly up to the candidate to decide to take all or part of the minute. It does not affect the marking of the test in any way. However, the longer that a student has to prepare the talk, then the easier it will probably be for the student to speak well. Therefore I would always advise candidates to take advantage of the full minute. Ilaria does not talk that fast, says erm quite a lot and has frequent, short hesitations. None of these is a problem. It is not a mistake to speak slowly. Indeed, if candidates talk slowly, then they are less likely to make any fluency, grammatical or vocabulary errors and subsequently are more confident and comfortable. The hesitations and erms are only normal features of someone who has to talk for 2 minutes on a quickly prepared subject. Ilaria talked with some fluency on the subject in the question and covered the areas that the question asked to be talked about with detail and relevant examples. Finally the examiner asked a question to finish off Section 2. Ilaria gave a short answer to this and that is all that is required. This Section 2 is shorter than a lot of others but this is because Ilaria did not use the minute available for preparation. Again there are no bad parts in this section.

Section 3

In Topic 1 Ilaria’s answers were not as full as earlier. She does say though often that she didn’t know much about the subject. Despite this she still managed full answers to all the questions. However, as long as a student answers each question to some extent, the student can then wait for the question(s) that they can really take advantage of and speak longer about. Then in Topic 2 she had more to say and spoke at greater length in reply to the questions. So, although some answers were shorter than others, there are no bad parts to Section 3.

Marking

The marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates this student.

Pronunciation

Ilaria’s pronunciation of English is excellent which allows her to be easily understood at all times. There is a trace of an accent in her English but this does not interfere with intelligibility at any time.

Grammatical Range and Accuracy

Ilaria accurately and appropriately uses a wide range of grammatical structures.

Lexical Resource

There is the occasional slightly inappropriate word choice but this does not happen very often and it does not affect the listener’s understanding.

Fluency and Coherence

Ilaria’s fluency and coherence is very good. Ilaria’s language is appropriate and the joining language is all correctly used. Ilaria’s answers to questions are logically developed and there is little

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repetition or self-correction.

Estimated IELTS Speaking Band: 9

Speaking Practice Test 2

Examiner’s Commentary

The student interviewed was Sandra, a Colombian female. The Speaking Test is in three sections. First of all let’s look at each of these sections in turn to identify the strong and weak parts of the interview.

Section 1

Sandra was a little bit nervous and not very confident in her speech. She answered all the questions but some of the questions, particularly in Topic 2, could have been longer and better developed. Most people find that Section 1 of the IELTS Speaking Test is the easiest section and therefore students should take the opportunity to talk as long and as fully as they can while the questions are at their simplest. For example, the examiner asks Sandra about the advantages and disadvantages of living in her area. She talks about the climate as an advantage, which is good, and then mentions that her area is near other good places but she does not talk more about this. She could talk about other good things regarding her area and she did not even mention one disadvantage. This was wasting an opportunity. On the other hand she answered most of the questions quite well and this was certainly no disaster.

Section 2

In Section 2 Sandra managed to get over the one minute mark without any problems but it appeared as though it would have been hard for her to go any longer than she did. Like Ilaria in the recording for the Academic Speaking Test 1, Sandra did not make use of the one minute preparation time. It sounds as though the examiner got her started early but it was Sandra who indicated that she was ready to begin. By not taking the time to make notes on each part of the question, Sandra’s talk was a bit disjointed and lost coherence at times. Here is an example where using the one minute preparation time would have had great benefit. On the other hand Sandra did manage to answer most parts of the question. Looking at her actual speaking, Sandra often had long hesitations as she searched for things to say and to connect her ideas. The connections were not always clear and she shifted subject a couple of times in one sentence. If she could have finished each of the sentences by developing the subjects of each sentence and then change the subject coherently, it would have been a much better talk. Again, preparation would have benefited her. She did not lose marks for not preparing but the lack of coherence in her talk that the lack of preparation caused affected her score.

Section 3

Section 3 started very well with Sandra giving long and full answers to the questions in Topic 1. In Topic 2 however the answers were not as long and could have been better developed, speaking about the subjects in more depth. For example the last question was not really answered properly at all with Sandra only saying that holidays would change by having more amenities. If

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Topic 2 could have been answered as fully as Topic 1 then she would have made a much better impression.

Marking

The Marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates this student.

Pronunciation

Sandra’s pronunciation was not that clear. There were areas where there were no problems but there were also times when her strong accent, intonation and stress problems caused difficulties for the listener.

Grammatical Range and Accuracy

Sandra’s grammar was often faulty. Sandra’s basic sentences were controlled fairly well but more complex grammar often broke down. There were lots of mistakes scattered throughout her speech as well, some of them quite basic.

Lexical Resource

Sandra’s vocabulary was good enough to discuss familiar and unfamiliar topics but she had limited flexibility. There were quite a few pauses where she had to stop to search for the right word and not always with success.

Fluency and Coherence

Sandra’s fluency and coherence was sometimes quite good and she showed the ability to talk independently and at some length to questions. On areas that she was not so sure about though her fluency and coherence sometimes broke down and this led to quite a lot of hesitation and a bit of repetition.

Estimated IELTS Speaking Band: 5

Speaking Practice Test 3

Examiner’s Commentary

The student interviewed was Tina, a Chinese female. The Speaking Test is in three sections. First of all let’s look at the each of these sections in turn to identify the strong and weak parts of the interview.

Section 1

Tina was a bit nervous and hesitant at the start but she gave full answers that addressed the questions. She talked quite slowly but that is no problem. In fact talking slowly allowed Tina to consider what she was saying and so she was less likely to make grammar mistakes and lose

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control of her coherence. The fact that Tina did not need all the questions from Section 1 to finish the section shows how well and fully she answered the questions.

Section 2

Tina is lucky as she says she is interested in this topic and so she finds it easy to talk about. Candidates in IELTS are not allowed to ask for a change in topic so, if you are given a topic you know little about, you will just have to do the best you can. The topics are all of general interest and anyone should be able to talk about the topics for 2 minutes. The first important thing in this interview was that Tina took full advantage of the 1 minute preparation time. This allowed Tina to make notes on all parts of the question. At one point at the end of her talk Tina had finished a sentence and did not know how to continue. She checked her notes and saw that she had written something about how often she went to the restaurant. Therefore, after the short gap to check her notes (which is fine) she was able to continue confidently with her talk. This shows the value of using the 1 minute preparation time and making the notes on the paper provided. In Section 2 Tina again spoke quite slowly and, as pointed out above, there is nothing wrong with this. Sometimes though she was a bit overly hesitant and stopped in the middle of sentences which affected the fluency of the talk a little. On the other hand, Tina covered the areas required in the question and talked without any problems until the examiner asked her to stop.

Section 3

Tina continued to give reasonable answers in Section 3. Where she sometimes went wrong was in trying to say too much. Occasionally she finished a sentence but wanted to continue in order to make a better impression. This is good of course but only if you have more to say. If you have no further ideas and you try to carry on, there will most likely be a lot of hesitations and eventually repetition of ideas. This is what happened sometimes to Tina. If you have no further ideas, it is better to stop with the good things that you have already said and wait for a new question. Nevertheless Tina had a lot of good things to say though she was more hesitant and had more breakdowns in fluency and accuracy due to the more complicated nature of the questions. She often hesitated at the start of answering questions while she thought momentarily about her answer. This is fine. The examiner does not expect everyone to be able to answer every question instantly without thinking for a short time.

Marking

The Marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates this student.

Pronunciation

Tina’s pronunciation was fairly clear. Most of her speech was easily understood and, although she has a Chinese accent, this does not interfere too much with the listener’s comprehension.

Grammatical Range and Accuracy

Tina’s grammar was often good but there were basic errors as well. The errors became more frequent in Section 3 as the questions became more demanding and the language became more complicated to answer them.

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Lexical Resource

Tina used quite a variety of vocabulary. It was easily sufficient to cope with familiar topics and some unfamiliar topics and, although sometimes she did not know the right word, she could come up with an acceptable alternative and attempted to paraphrase quite successfully.

Fluency and Coherence

Tina’s fluency and coherence was fine in Section 1 and parts of Section 2 but as the questions and language became more demanding, her speech broke down from time to time and hesitancy came in. However, she showed the ability to talk at length and clearly answered the questions asked her.

Estimated IELTS Speaking Band: 6

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IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 1. In the IELTS test you hear some recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now turn to Section 1.

Section 1. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman discussing the loss of a bag on board a plane.

First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.

(20 second gap)

You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be played first.

Man Pan Asian Airways. John speaking. Can I help you?

Wom Yes please. I left something on one of your planes last night. I got this number from the operator. Is this the right number to call?

M Yes, madam. This is the right number. I just need you tell me your name to start with so I can fill out a lost property form.

W Kirsty Allen. That’s K-I-R-S-T-Y A-L-L-E-N.

So, Kirsty is the correct answer.

Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.

Man Pan Asian Airways. John speaking. Can I help you?

Wom Yes please. I left something on one of your planes last night. I got this number from the operator. Is this the right number to call?

M Yes, madam. This is the right number. I just need you to tell me your name to start with so I can fill out a lost property form.

W Kirsty Allen. That’s K-I-R-S-T-Y A-L-L-E-N.

M Right. I’ve got that. Now what happened last night?

W Well, I was on a flight last night from New York to London that landed at 12.30am. We were delayed a while in New York so that when we eventually landed, I was so tired that I accidentally left my handbag on the plane.

M Did you report this to anyone last night?© ieltshelpnow.com

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W No, I’m afraid not. I didn’t notice until I got home and then it was really too late to phone.

M Very well madam. Let me take a few details for this form and I’ll see what I can do. OK, so the name was Kirsty Allen. And what’s the address please?

W 48 Windham Road, Richmond.

M The postcode?

W RI6 GH7.

M Good. I’ve got that. Now, your telephone number?

W Well, my home number is 020 8927 7651 and my mobile is 07754 897 432.

M I’m sorry. I didn’t catch the second one. What was the mobile again?

W 0 double 7 54 897 432.

M Thanks. Now, do you know the flight number of the plane that you were on last night?

W Oh yes, hang on a second. I’ve got my boarding pass stub right here. Err; the flight number was PA 356. No, I’m sorry, PA365. That’s it: 365.

M And does the boarding card stub say what seat you had?

W Oh yes. It was E6.

M And you said that it was New York to London Heathrow. Is that right?

W Yes, that’s right.

Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.

M OK then. Now I have to take some details about the bag that you lost. It was a handbag, yes?

W That’s right.

M Can you describe it to me?

W Well, I guess it just looks like any regular handbag. It’s very dark red with black handles and the catch on the top is gold coloured.

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M Does it have any distinguishing marks?

W Not really. It’s quite new you see so I haven’t scratched it or anything. It’s got a brand name but that’s just inside the bag when you open it, under the catch.

M OK. Now, can you tell me what was inside the bag?

W Quite a few things actually. Not my passport of course or I would never have got out of the airport. My purse is inside and that’s got about 200 dollars and about 70 pounds cash. There is also my credit card and some membership cards.

M Good. I’ll just write that down. Anything else in the bag?

W A small paperback that I was reading, some makeup, my work keys, but not my house keys thank God and a couple of pens.

M Have you informed the police about the loss of the card?

W Yes and I’ve also cancelled the card with the credit company.

M Right. Now what I’ll do is to contact the lost property, which is where your bag will have gone if it was found. I’ll give you a call back within an hour and tell you what the situation is. If you haven’t had a call within an hour and a half, call back this number and ask for me. My name is John. OK?

W Yes, that’s great John. I’ll speak to you later. Goodbye.

M Goodbye.

That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 2.

Section 2. You will hear a man giving a welcome speech to new students at the University of Westley. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 14.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully to the welcome speech and answer questions 11 to 14.

Hello and good afternoon. My name is John Walker and I’d like to welcome you new students to the University of Westley. What I am going to do today is just explain to you about some of thefacilities that you will find here on our main campus and where you will find them.

If you look at the map on the overhead projector, let me talk you through some of the locations before describing some of them in more detail. Well, at present we are in the University’s main

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lecture hall. If you go out of the main front entrance then you will see opposite across the car park the entrance for the focal point of a lot university life for most students. This is of course the Students’ Union. About 150 yards on the left of the Union, as you look at it from here, is another focal point for the students (though not as popular as the Union), the University library. Behind the library is the main University refectory where many students eat both lunch and dinner. On the other side of the Union is the college chapel and behind that there is a small hall of residence. There are three other halls of residence behind the Students’ Union. Behind the hall that we are in now is the sports hall and grounds and either side of us are academic departments with lecturers’ offices, lecture halls and various labs. You will find it all a bit confusing at first but you’ll get to know your way around fairly quickly.

You now have some time to look at questions 15 to 20.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the welcome speech and answer questions 15 to 20.

I’d like now to talk about a few important places on the Campus.

All students must belong to the Students’ Union if they wish to use any of its services. It is very cheap and we certainly recommend that you join. The Union provides a bookshop covering all the course books at the university plus lots of other titles for a range of interests. You can eat and drink at the Union. There is a Fat Phillips on the ground floor serving a wide range of fast foods and drinks. Then there is the main Union bar up on the First Floor. This is where the Union parties, dances and balls are held and there’s a pizza corner where cheap and large pizzas can be served up in a few minutes. Other areas that will be of interest to students are the Welfare Office, the Travel Office and the Clubs’ Office. The Clubs’ office will get you in touch with all the Clubs that are part of the Students’ Union. These clubs vary from football to drama to potholing to beer drinking. There really is something for everyone. The Union opens up at 8 am every day and closes at 12 midnight unless there are any functions going on later.

I’d like to move onto the library now. This is where a lot of you will, I hope, be spending a lot of time over the next three or four years working and doing research. Of course this isn’t as exciting as the social aspects of university life but of course it really is the main reason that you are all here. I therefore urge you to get over there as soon as you can as you have to register and then you can have a look around. During the first two weeks of the academic year, that is, now, there are tours every two hours aimed at familiarising new students to all the services that the library offers. The library’s open from 9am to 9pm though it stays open later during final exams.

As I said earlier, the refectory is behind the library. The refectory offers a range of cheap meals at lunchtime and in the evenings. It is open from 12 noon to 3 pm for lunch and from 6 pm to 8.30 pm for dinner. They try to offer a variety of food from favourites to healthy options to ethnic foods and there is always a choice for vegetarians and vegans.

The University Sports Hall is one of the most used buildings at the University. To use the hall or the grounds you must be a member of the Athletic Union, which is part of the Students’ Union. Again this costs very little and will allow you to use all University sports facilities, represent University teams and it fully insures you during your membership of the Athletic Union. This is really excellent value.

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For departments and academic facilities, there isn’t enough time to go through all of them but your respective departments should furnish you with maps and information that will satisfy your needs.

For all services offered at the university, I recommend that you purchase a discount plus card. This card costs £50 and lasts for the academic year. It will then give you discounts on all services at the university. For instance, a £4 meal at the refectory would be reduced to £2.50. It will also give free usage of the late night mini bus that the university runs to places off campus, which normally costs a pound. You can see that it wouldn’t take very long to make it worthwhile. The cards can be bought at the Students’ Union.

Well, that’s what I have to say for the moment. Now, are there any questions?

That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 3.

Section 3. You will hear 2 students discussing the new term at their university. First you have some time to look at questions 21 to 25.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 25.

Jane Hey John. I didn’t know you were here at the University yet. When did you get here?

John Oh just yesterday; Thursday. I’ve got some stuff to get sorted out for the start of my second year as I’ve just got some new subjects. Today I’ve had to sort out my timetable. It seems like I’ve got quite a lot to do this year. When did you get here?

Jane I’ve been here since Tuesday. What classes are you doing this year then?

John Well, I’m continuing economics of course as that’s my major but I’m taking an extra maths class and I’m dropping Spanish so I can take up French. What about you?

Jane My major’s the same as yours of course but I’m going to continue the same classes as last year as I liked them so much. They’re history and music. What’s your Monday timetable like?

John Well at 9, it looks like I’ve got French for 3 hours. That’s going to be a tough start to the week!

Jane Yeah. I can’t imagine it worse. I’ve got history for three hours which will kill me. The good thing for me is that I’ve got a free in the afternoon which will relax me after that morning.

John No such luck for me though. I’ve got that extra maths class starting then so I’ll be hard at work all day on Mondays.

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Jane Yeah, I don’t envy you that. Still the extra maths will really help your economics in the long run.

John I know. That’s why I’m taking it this year. Last year I really struggled with all the maths that I didn’t understand in the economics but hopefully, this year, that will all change.

Jane What about sport? What have you chosen to do on the Wednesday sports afternoons? Are you sticking with rowing?

John I’d love to but the rowing club storeroom got broken into and the boats were damaged so it’s not possible till the club can get enough money to repair or replace the boats. They’re really expensive so that’ll take quite a long time. So, as I can’t do that, I’m going to try out squash. What about you?

Jane I’m going to the same as last year. Volleyball.

John That’s good as it’s in the main sports hall like the squash. I’ll be able to see you a lot this year.Jane Yeah, it looks like that. You can help me with the maths that I don’t understand.

John (laughs) Maybe. For a small fee of course.

You now have some time to look at questions 26 to 30.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 26 to 30.

Jane I know it’s early but do you know anything about the first assignment that we have to do?

John Yes, it’s already up on the economics faculty notice board. There’s a choice of essays up there. I think there are about 10 you can choose from. I can’t remember any of the titles though apart from the one that I think I’m going to write about.

Jane What’s that one then?

John It’s about the short-term future of third world economies.

Jane Ooh. I don’t like the sound of that. It seems very wide-ranging.

John It is but remember that I spent some of the summer vacation travelling in Africa and Asia so that has made me more interested in the subject and I’ve also got some first hand ideas on the subject.

Jane Does the essay list mention how long the essays have to be and the deadlines?

John Yes. You remember that last year all the essays had to be 3000 words in length?

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Well, that’s gone up by a thousand words!

Jane Oh no! They’ll take ages.

John I know. I was hoping that they’d stay at 3000 words or only go up to 3500, but no luck I’m afraid.

Jane What about the deadline?

John The first one has to be in by the 30th October and the second by the 30th November. It looks like one essay a month like last year.

Jane Well at least that hasn’t changed but as it’s the end of September now, that leaves only a month to get the first one done. I’m going to have get onto that straight away.

John Yes, you’d better. If you want to talk about it, I’m going to be at the campus cafeteria at 1.30 for lunch. We could go over some questions.

Jane I can’t then, as I’ll be in the sports hall working out. How about 3 this afternoon at the economics common room?

John That seems OK. We’ll be right by the economics course office where the questions are, so that’ll be convenient for checking up on them.

Jane OK. See you then. Bye.

John Bye.

That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 4.

Section 4. You will hear part of an environmental sciences lecture. First you have some time to look at questions 31 to 40.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.

Good morning everyone. My name is Professor Wilson and I am lecturing you today as part of your environmental sciences course. Part of this course is concerned with pollution issues in our world today and part of this lecture will look at some of ways that the oil industry has developed to deal with oil spills around the world. Oil tankers are the largest ships to sail in the ocean. For countries such as Japan that have no oil deposits of their own, tankers are the only way that the oil needed to power their economies can be moved. They are designed to hold millions of barrels of crude or refined oil in reasonable

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safety and without damage to the environment. When oil is released from these ships, the oil spreads out over the surface of the water in a large slick. These oil slicks can cover hundreds of miles and they cause huge environmental damage. Oil is released for varying reasons. Accidents while loading and unloading and deliberate spills account for many slicks today, but it is ships hitting other ships or rocks, which is the major cause of slicks. Because oil slicks are so damaging to the environment, numerous ways of containing them and cleaning them up have been developed. In previous years, slick cleaners would sometimes try to set fire to the slicks and burn them off but this is rarely done nowadays because, surprisingly, nearly all oil slicks consist of compounds that aren’t flammable; combustibility comes after refining.

The four ways of cleaning up oil spills that we’ll look at today are as follows:

The Containment Boom.Chemical Detergents.The Sponge.Bacteria.

The containment boom is the most common method of cleaning up after an oil spill. Barriers are erected in the water and the oil is then sucked up. Basically a containment boom is just a large float that surrounds and contains the slick. This method is cheap and straightforward however it only functions in very calm seas.

Another method to clean slicks is to spray detergent solution from airplanes or boats directly onto the spill. Depending on the detergent, two things can happen. One possible result is that the oil can break up into clumps, which sink to the bottom of the ocean. Although these clumps are themselves hazardous, the problems caused by the clumps are much easier to deal with than the problems caused by oil slicks. The other possibility is that the oil then breaks down into tiny droplets, which are soon spread and become harmless. This method is well suited to dealing with the larger slicks. A negative aspect is that often the chemicals remain in the water and they can kill fish and other marine life.

A Berlin-based company has developed an alternative method for cleaning up oil spills. Eco.carbon has invented a giant sponge made of lignite resin that sucks up the oil, preventing it from harming the environment. The sponge comes as a mat, which contains crushed coal, whose small granules can soak up large amounts of oil. The process is safe and cheap. The sponges have so far withstood small-scale testing in pools of water with miniature oil slicks. A unique advantage is that once the oil is absorbed into the mat, it remains fixed there permanently. The downside, however, is that the mats become toxic waste.

Scientists are also trying to improve other methods to fight oil spills. At the scenes of oil spills around the world, they’ve found bacteria that seem to have an appetite for the toxic black sludge. Now, the scientists are breeding these bacteria and studying them to determine which is most effective at reducing oil levels. Eventually, they hope to put the best bacteria to work in helping clean up after oil spill disasters. The bacteria actually use the oil as food. As the bacteria reproduce, they eat more and more of the slick until it finally vanishes. Eventually this method should be cheap, easy to administer and be completely eco-friendly as when the slick is gone, the bacteria’s food source is gone and they die, leaving nothing behind at all. So far this method has no discernable drawbacks.

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Well, that’s the end of the section of the lecture on cleaning up spills. This subject is an optional question for your course. You’ll find the reading lists and essay questions on the faculty notice boards along with the deadline for submission. If you choose it, seminars will be held at a later date.

That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

That is the end of listening test 1. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.

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This recording is copyright.

IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 2. In the IELTS test you hear some recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now turn to Section 1.

Section 1. You will hear a telephone conversation between a man and a woman discussing a hotel reservation.

First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 6.

(20 second gap)

You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be played first.

Barbara Sunrise Hotel. Good Morning. Barbara speaking.

John Hello. My name is John Griffin. I’d like to make a booking for tonight please. Are there any rooms still available?

Barbara Yes, there are a few left. What were you wanting?

John Well, I’m on a business trip so I only need a single room.

Mr. Griffin is on a business trip so B is the correct answer.

Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 6.

Barbara Sunrise Hotel. Good Morning. Barbara speaking.

Man Hello. My name is John Griffin. I’d like to make a booking for tonight please. Are there any rooms still available?

Barbara Yes, there are a few left. What were you wanting?

John Well, I’m on a business trip so I only need a single room.

Barbara I don’t think that will be a problem. Let’s look. Yes…. There’s 1 single room left. Shall I book it for you?

John Yes please. That would be great.

Barbara Right then. Let me get a pen. So, what’s your name again please?

John John Griffin. That’s J-O-H-N G-R-I-F-F-I-N.

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Barbara OK. I’ve got that down. Wait a minute. You’ve been here before, haven’t you?

John Yes, that’s right. I’ve stayed with you twice before.

Barbara Well, we should have your details already. Let’s look at the cards. Here we are. So, John Griffin… from Sydney, right?

John Yes, that’s right.

Barbara So, tell me if I’m wrong. John Griffin, passport number 87637489. Age 30.

John Yes, that’s right.

Barbara So, it’s a single room for 2 nights. Is your credit card number the same to confirm the booking?

John Yes, it’s the same, but I’ll want you to forward the bill to my company again, if that’s OK?

Barbara Oh yes, Mr. Griffin. That’s no problem at all. Your company have always settled very promptly in the past. And, what time can we expect you tonight Mr. Griffin?

John Well, the plane lands at 9.15pm so by the time I get through the formalities… that should take about 20 minutes… I should be at your place at 10.00. Will the restaurant still be open at that time as I’ll be hungry – I hate plane food!

Barbara I’m afraid it’ll be closed by then Mr. Griffin. Can I organize some snacks to be left in your room? A burger? Fries? Sandwiches?

John Yes, that would be great. How about a cheese sandwich with fries?

Barbara No problem sir. I’ll see to that. Oh the fries might be cold when you get in.

John Ah yes. Just the sandwich then.

Barbara No problem. Anything else Mr. Griffin.

John No, that’s all. Thank you. See you tonight.

Barbara See you tonight Mr. Griffin. Goodbye.

John Goodbye.

Now you will hear a conversation between Barbara and another man, Mark. Before you hear this, you have some time to look at questions 7 to 10.

(20 second gap)

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Now listen carefully and answer questions 7 to 10.

Barbara Oh, Mark, That was Mr. Griffin. You know that nice man from Sydney who’s been here a couple of times before. He’s booked a single room for 2 nights from tonight.

Mark Ah good. Wait a moment which room have you put him in?

Barbara Err… I put him in number 22. Is that OK?

Mark I think so. Let me just check. Oh blast. There was a booking earlier this morning. All the singles are now gone.

Barbara Oh dear. I’m so sorry. I didn’t realize.

Mark Don’t worry it’s not a problem. We’ll stick him in number 34. It’s a double room but it shouldn’t matter.

Barbara What about the price? The double is $150 a night and he’s going to be expecting $100 a night for the single.

Mark Well, we don’t want to upset him. We want him to come back. Make a note that we’ll give him the single rate and he’s got a free upgrade.

Barbara I’m so sorry Mark. I should have let him know that there weren’t any singles left.

Mark No, it’s not your fault. I took the booking earlier but the computers were down. I should have made a note of the booking so that everyone knew. It’s my fault.

Barbara Mr. Griffin has ordered a cheese sandwich to be left I his room too as the restaurant will be closed when he gets in.

Mark That’s no problem. Just leave a message for my wife in the order book there. She’ll make sure that it’s prepared by the kitchen staff and then room service can take it to his room just before he arrives.

Barbara How much shall I charge him for the sandwich?

Mark What is it again. Ah yes cheese. Erm… well beef and chicken are both $10 and salad is $8. Just make it $9. That should be OK.

Barbara OK. Thanks Mark.

That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 2.

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Section 2. You will hear a news broadcast on a radio station. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 15.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully to the news broadcast and answer questions 11 to 15.

Good morning and welcome to 2RC, your local radio news service for the Westley area. And here are your headlines for this morning.

More news from the police into the jewellery robbery that occurred last Tuesday in the centre of town.

CompTec, the local computer hardware manufacturer has announced that it must cut 40 jobs.

New routes open up at the Westley International Airport.

Plans for the redevelopment of the Oakley Woods have been shelved.

A local cricket team make it to the regional finals.

And, get set for a heat wave.

First of all, police have released 2 descriptions for the two men wanted in connection with the robbery at the local jewellery store, Nicholls, in the centre of town last Tuesday. At 9am, just when the store was opening, 2 men burst through the door and demanded bags to be filled up with jewellery. Although the 2 men were armed with baseball bats, the shopkeepers bravely attacked them and beat them off. Although the 2 men had motorcycle helmets on, these were knocked off during the scuffle and the shopkeepers were able to get a good look at them.

The first man is said to be about 6 foot in height, slight build, dark hair and a small moustache. He was wearing blue jeans, a white T-shirt and a black leather jacket. The 2nd man is much shorter – around 5 foot 8 - with a fat build and red hair and clean-shaven. He was wearing a dark blue sweater and black jeans. They are both probably in their early 20s. The police hope to issue photo fit pictures later today. The public are urged to call Westley police if they think they recognise either of the 2 men.

You now have some time to look at questions 16 to 20.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the news broadcast and answer questions 16 to 20.

CompTec last night announced that they must release 40 workers. This was blamed on a downturn in sales and increased competition. The jobs to be lost will be a mixture of early retirement offerings and a spread from all departments in the company.

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routes into Europe. The new routes will be into 4 European countries though the details have not yet been released. When the deals have been finalised, this will lead to a significant number of jobs.

Environmentalists were delighted this morning by the news that plans by the local council to develop the Oakley Woods area have been shelved. The Woods were to have been developed into a shopping area but opposition from local residents and local environmental groups has led to a turn around by the local council and they will now look for an alternative site. Westley Green, a local pressure group, says they are ecstatic that the council has bowed to the wishes of people in the area. Mr. George Finchly, mayor of Westley, made the announcement and said that the committee responsible took all available information into account before taking the decision and he hopes that Westley residents are happy that the local council are sensitive to their wishes when making decisions.

East Moors CC, a local league cricket club has made it to the finals of the Sunday league knockout cricket competition. They will play the final at home on Sunday 30th August against Newbury CC. Go along and support if you’re around that day, as you’ll be assured a great Sunday afternoon’s sport.

And finally, get set for a heat wave for the remainder of the month of August. Weather experts have assured us that we will have 3 weeks of unbroken sunshine till the end of the month. Great news, but those of us who are experienced with the British weather will most likely greet this news with, “let’s wait and see!”

That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 3.

Section 3. You will hear an admissions tutor at a university interviewing a prospective student. First you have some time to look at questions 21 to 26.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 26.

Interviewer Hello there. It’s Robert Johnson, isn’t it?

Robert Yes, that’s right.

Interviewer First of all, thanks for coming to this interview and thanks for applying to the engineering department of Westley University. This is a fairly informal interview where I just get to know you and find out what kind of person you are. There won’t be any technical questions as we’ve got all your education background from your application form.

Robert Oh that’s good. (laughs)

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why you chose this field?

Robert It’s a mixture of reasons really. First of all I’ve always been fascinated by building things. Whenever the family was on holiday, I would always be interested in the local bridge and all that. My father is a civil engineer too so he’d always be able to explain things, and it was he, I suppose, who really fostered my interest in these things. I’m lucky as well because my best subjects at school were maths and physics, which are the ones that are of particular use for engineering.

Interviewer So, you’ll be keeping it in the family then?

Robert Yes. My brother wants to do the same thing as well so you’ll probably get an application from him in another two years!

Interviewer Great! Now then. I notice from your application form that you took a year off between school and university. What did you do during this year?

Robert Well, I’d like to say that I got plenty of work experience but what I did was travel. I went over to Australia for the year and spent the time travelling and working all around the country. At the end I went to New Zealand and travelled around there for a couple of months.

Interviewer What kind of work did you do out there?

Robert It was fairly menial stuff. I delivered furniture, worked in a pub, worked in a hotel and worked on a building site for a couple of months too.

Interviewer Working on a building site must have been some good experience for engineering?

Robert I suppose so. I mean it was interesting to see the brass tacks side of things and a good engineer has to get his hands dirty my father says.

Interviewer He’s absolutely right as well. Now, why did you choose Westley University to study Civil Engineering?

Robert Well, first of all I know that the department has a very good reputation in this field and, before applying, I checked out the stats and saw that the percentage of graduates going straight into industry was very good.

Interviewer Yes, we’re very proud of that.

Robert I’m also very interested in mountaineering and your campus here in the Midlands is within reasonable distance of Snowdonia so I’ll be able to go hiking at weekends when work allows it.

Interviewer That’s good. It’s very important for students to have interests outside of their studies. It helps deal with the stress.

Robert I also play a lot of football and the University runs quite a few teams in the local

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leagues so I’d like to get into that.

You now have some time to look at questions 27 to 30.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 27 to 30.

Interviewer Is there anything you’d like to ask me about the course?

Robert Yes. The information in the prospectus wasn’t very clear about assessment. How will I be assessed over the four years of the course?

Interviewer Well, as it’s a sandwich course you will be working in industry for the third year and there won’t be any exams for that year. In the first year you will have exams at the end of May. You’ll probably have 5 papers to sit then. The second year is identical to the first year. You have to pass the exams in these years but they won’t actually be part of your degree. In the fourth year you will have to write a dissertation of a minimum of 15 000 words and most people use their time in the 3rd year when they’re working to use as a basis for their dissertation. So, the 3rd year can be spent doing the hard work for the dissertation, leaving the fourth year to polish it, and study for your finals.

Robert What will I have to do for the finals?

Interviewer There will be eight papers in all during June and these will be based on work done throughout the entire course. It’s hard and a stressful time but students usually cope with it. Anything else?

Robert Yes, I’d like to ask about …

That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 4.

Section 4. You will hear part of a research methods lecture. First you have some time to look at questions 31 to 40.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.

Good afternoon ladies and gentlemen. Welcome to this auxiliary lecture on research methods. This lecture is not aimed specifically at one particular course but is a general lecture that will be relevant to any student who must conduct research into a topic for his or her course. For most of you, this will be the research that you need to do in order to write your dissertations and theses.

It has been said that first world societies are no longer industrial societies but information © ieltshelpnow.com

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societies. That is, our major problems and tasks no longer mainly centre on the production of goods and services necessary for survival and comfort, but rather require a prompt and accurate flow of information on preferences, needs and behaviour. This is why surveys today are regarded with so much importance.What, then, is a survey? Today the word survey is used most often to describe a method of gathering information from a sample of individuals. This way, the results can be projected from the sample to the larger population.

An important consideration to take at the start is to decide how large a survey to perform. The sample size required for a survey partly depends on the statistical quality needed and the size of the total population of the area in question. Even so, there is no simple rule for sample size that can be used for all surveys. Analysts, though, often find that a moderate sample size is sufficient statistically and operationally. A properly selected sample of only 1,000 individuals can reflect various characteristics of the total population but it is not always needed to sample the entire population for your needs.

I’d like now to look at some of the types of survey available to us and the focus here will be on methods for surveying individuals and companies. Mail, telephone interview, and in-person interview surveys are the most common ways for doing this. The latter can be in offices, homes or on the street.

Mail surveys can be relatively low in cost. A decent response rate though is the major problem. Mail surveys can be most effective when directed at particular groups, such as subscribers to a specialized magazine or members of a professional association.Telephone interviews are an efficient method of collecting some types of data and are being used increasingly. They lend themselves particularly well to situations where timeliness is a factor and the length of the survey is limited. For students such as you though, cost will be an issue.

In-person interviews in a respondent’s home or office are good when complex information is to be collected. It could involve a great deal of travelling around though. Street interviews could also be useful as they are easy but the sampling is not very scientific. We also need to the look at the content of our surveys. Surveys can focus on opinions and attitudes or on factual characteristics or behaviour. Many surveys combine types of question. Questions may be open-ended such as: “Why do you feel that way?” or closed such as: “Do you approve or disapprove?” The questionnaire may be very brief -- a few questions, taking five minutes or fewer -- or it can be quite long -- requiring an hour or more of the respondent’s time. Also because changes in attitudes or behaviour cannot be reliably ascertained from a single interview, some surveys employ a “panel design,” in which the same respondents are interviewed on two or more occasions.

There are also certain ethics to be looked at in conducting surveys. Some of you will see that the information that you will compile is of value to companies operating in that particular sector. Therefore you must always bear in mind a few guidelines.

Surveys should be carried out solely to develop statistical information about a subject. They should not be designed to produce predetermined results or as a ruse for marketing and similar activities. The industry standard for all reputable survey organizations is that individual respondents should never be identified in reporting survey findings. All of the survey’s results should be presented

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in completely anonymous summaries, such as statistical tables and charts.

That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

That is the end of listening test 2. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.

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This recording is copyright.

IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 3. In the IELTS test you hear some recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now turn to Section 1.

Section 1. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman as the man joins a local library.

First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.

(20 second gap)

You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be played first.

Peter Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.

Will That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we have to do is fill this in and then I’ll get you to sign it and you’ll be a member.

P Great

W Now then. What’s your full name?

P Peter Adrian Camden.

W How do you spell Camden?

P C-A-M-D-E-N

W C-A-M-D-E-N

P Yes, that’s right.

So, Camden is the correct answer.

Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.

Peter Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.

Will That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we have to do is fill this in and then I’ll get you to sign and you’ll be a member.

P Great

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P Peter Adrian Camden.

W How do you spell Camden?

P C-A-M-D-E-N

W C-A-M-D-E-N

P Yes, that’s right.

W Right, and what’s your address?

P Flat 5, 53 Green Street, Finsbury.

W Ok. Got that. That’s near here isn’t it?

P Yes, just 5 minutes walk.

W What’s the post code?

P 7424.. I..I mean, sorry, 7434.

W Got that now. Now, can you tell me your date of birth?

P 8th July 1976.

W And, what’s your telephone number?

P Well, I don’t have a home number but I’ve got a mobile.

W That’ll do fine.

P It’s 06634 982 746. Did you get that?

W Some of it. Can you say it again?

P The code’s 06634 and the number’s then 982 746

W Right. That’s almost it. Now I need some kind of identification to prove where you live. Do you have a driving license or a passport or anything like that?

P I’m afraid that everything I have, has got my old address on it. Do you need it now?

W No, not now, but you won’t be able to take anything out until we see that.

P Wait a minute. I’ve got a letter addressed to me here that arrived this morning. Will that do?

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W Oh yes. That’s a good idea. That will be fine…. Let’s look. Ok. Well, that’s that finished.

Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.

W Could I ask you a few questions? The Council that runs the library is running a survey to find out what kind of books people prefer so that they can direct their buying.

P Yeah, no problem.

W OK. So, what type of books do you like?

P Well, I’m very keen on mysteries. You know, when a detective is trying to find out who did the murder. Historical novels interest me too. Romance never! My sister loves them but they bore me to tears. I quite like books on animals too. I get them out sometimes. Not science fiction either. Too weird.

W Well, I think that’s it then.

P Good. Oh, do you charge anything?

W The library is free unless you want to rent out some of our videos or DVDs.

P How much is that?

W Well, we rent videos out for $4 each and DVDs are $6. You must leave us a deposit of $60 as well. That’s returnable of course.

P I don’t think I’ll get any of those just yet. Can I pay later?

W Sure, just give the money in when you’re ready to rent them out.

P Well thanks very much. You’ve been very helpful. I might take a book out now for the weekend, if that’s OK?

W Go ahead.

M Well, goodbye.

That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 2.

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Section 2. You will hear a radio presenter interviewing a doctor. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 14.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully to the interview and answer questions 11 to 14.

Interviewer Hello everyone. I’ve just been joined in the studio by Dr. Matthew Johnson. Dr. Johnson works at Westley General Hospital and he is here today to tell us all about giving blood. Good morning Matthew.

Matthew Good morning.

Interviewer So, Matthew. Why is it important for us to give blood?

Matthew Donating blood is not important. It’s actually vital that people do this. Without donated blood, thousands of people would die every year and it’s something that could affect everyone. We all expect blood to be there for us, but barely a fraction of those who can give, do. Yet sooner or later, virtually all of us will face a time of great vulnerability in which we will need blood. And that time is all too often unexpected. The need for blood is great. On any given day, an average of 38,000 units of red blood cells are needed. Blood transfusions are often needed for victims of things such as accidents and burns, heart surgery, organ transplants, and patients receiving treatment for leukaemia, cancer or other diseases. In 2002, nearly 29 million units of blood components were transfused. And with an aging population and advances in medical treatments and procedures requiring blood transfusions, the demand for blood continues to increase.

Interviewer We really need that much?

Matthew Yes. And we need it now. Blood supplies nationwide have reached critically low levels, with less than one day’s supply of several blood types. Thousands of accident victims, cancer patients, premature babies and countless others who need blood to stay alive are hoping you’ll care enough to help them. All blood types are needed.

You now have some time to look at questions 15 to 20.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 15 to 20.

Interviewer What are the different types?

Matthew It’s a bit more complicated than that. First we collect the whole blood from donors and then it’s sorted into the different types which are basically O, A, B or AB though there are also divisions here. Then the blood is split into its constituent parts. We divide it into 4 basic parts. First there are the red blood cells, then the white blood cells, then things called platelets and finally plasma. This is shipped off to hospitals where they use the blood parts that the patients need.

Interviewer What are the different parts used for?

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Matthew Well, as I said before the whole blood is your blood in its natural state and something we rarely use. It’s much more useful to us to have it separated into its component parts. Red blood cells are what everyone associates with blood, i.e.: it’s red. It’s widely used to replace lost blood during surgery or when people haemorrhage. Its main function is to carry oxygen to cells. White blood cells are the most important part of the body’s immune system and they’re used for patients whose normal defence systems aren’t working properly. Platelets are crucial for making your blood clot and we need to give them to patients who suffer from illnesses that deplete their natural levels of platelets or they will bleed to death. Finally, plasma is what carries the other parts of blood around and needs to be administered with any of the other components. Take away the red blood cells and this is actually yellow.

Interviewer So, that’s what blood is all about. Now, you’re here in Westley today to collect blood. Can you tell us where and when we can donate?

Matthew Of course! We’re set up here today, that’s Wednesday, and for the next two days at Westley General Hospital at the Outpatients Department. Come along between 9am and 4.30pm and we’ll be able to deal with you within one hour. And let me tell you a few things that will calm your fears about giving blood. Aside from a brief needle prick, it doesn’t hurt to give blood. Your body will replace the blood you donate within days of your donation. And finally you can’t catch AIDS, hepatitis or any other disease by giving blood. And of course, you get a cup of tea and a biscuit afterwards.

Interviewer And can anyone give blood?

Matthew Almost everyone. Donors must be in generally good health, be at least 17 years of age, weigh no less than 110 pounds, have not received a tattoo within the past year and not have donated whole blood within the past 56 days. We screen donors with a series of questions before we take the blood so, if you’re unsure, come down and we’ll let you know. Please come down and see us. Remember, if you can donate one pint of blood, this can save up to three lives.

Interviewer Well, thanks Matthew. I for one will definitely be going down to Westley General to donate.

That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 3.

Section 3. You will hear a conversation between 3 people about use of university computers. First you have some time to look at questions 21 to 27.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 27.

Jim Hello there. Do you work in the computer room?

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Jim Well, I’m a first year and I know that I’ll need to use the computer room for my work as I don’t have a computer of my own. So, I thought I’d get down here and see what I have to do in order to get time on one of the university’s computers.

Dave OK. There are 4 computer labs open to undergraduates. The others can only be used by the staff and postgraduates. The names of the 4 labs that you can use are Wimborne, Franklin, Salisbury and Court. Wimborne and Court are in this building, the Johnson building, Franklin is in the Computer Sciences building and Salisbury is in the library.

Jim So I can use them whenever I like?

Dave Well, you can use them but not whenever you like. As you can imagine they’re in quite a lot of demand so you have to reserve your time on a computer. In each of the labs there is a reservation book and you can reserve your time on a computer in that for 2 hours daily. If a computer is free though you can go on it straight away. It’s quite straightforward but be sure to always write your name in the reservation book in pen or someone can rub it out and put their name in instead.

Jim Oh my God! Does that really happen?

Dave I’m afraid so. And far more often than you would think. When people are stressed about their assignments, they’ll do anything to get some time on the computers. Better not try it yourself though or you’ll be banned from the computers for the rest of the academic year and your password and username will be taken away.

Jim That reminds me. I’ve got to get a username and password. How do I go about that then?

Dave Well, what I’ll do is pass you over to my colleague, Jane, as she’s in charge of all that. Jane!

Jane Yes Dave.

Dave I’ve got a new student here wanting to find out about usernames and passwords. Can you help him out with that?

Jane Yeah sure. Hi there.

Jim Hi.

Jane Well, it’s a straightforward process. First of all tell me your name and I’ll type it into the system.

Jim James Smith.

Jane Right, let me do that. You see all students are automatically given a username and then they just choose a password themselves. OK. So, your username is jamessmith2 – that’s all small case. That means there must be more than one of you at the university at the moment. Well,

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what do you want your password to be?

Jim I think I’ll choose biology, as that’s the subject that I’m studying though my girlfriend Mary will be upset that it’s not her name I’m using.

Jane Well, that’s all done. You can now use any of the four undergraduate computer labs.

Jim By the way, can I print out stuff at the labs?

Jane Yes you can but sometimes it’s not quick. When you print it goes into a queue and it will be left in a tray in Franklin, as that’s where all the main printers are. The good bit is that, although last year it cost 3 pence per page, now it doesn’t cost you anything.

You now have some time to look at questions 28 to 30.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the conversation and answer questions 28 to 30.

Jim I don’t really know much about computing. Is there any training available?

Jane Yes. We have introductory courses for all new students. There is beginner, intermediate and advanced. Which would you like to go for?

Jim Well, I have done some but I don’t know if I’m up to anything more than beginner. I’d better stick with that. Intermediate could be too tough.

Jane Well your course is in Franklin then. We’re in Court now. You know where that is?

Jim That’s in this building too, isn’t it?

Jane No that’s Wimborne you’re thinking about. Franklin’s over in the Computer Sciences Building. Anything else?

Jim I don’t know what time the course starts.

Jane Let’s have a look then. Advanced starts at 4.30 in the afternoon on Mondays but yours is the day after at 5 in the afternoon.

Jim Are there any other times as I’ve got a part time job then.

Jane Yes. You could try Thursday at 2.00 pm. How’s that?

Jim Even worse as I’ve a tutorial then. Anything else?

Jane No. That’s it.

Jim I’ll have to re-arrange work then. I can’t miss the tutorial.

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That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 4.

Section 4. You will hear part a university seminar given by a student. First you have some time to look at questions 31 to 40.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.

Tutor

Good afternoon everyone. In today’s seminar we are going to continue listening to different students giving us a presentation on the subject of their term paper. Now today is Hillary’s turn. So, what are you going to talk about today Hillary?

Hillary

Well, some of you will know that I was brought up when I was young in Japan and I’m going to do my term paper on Japan’s bullet trains, which have revolutionised their rail industry. Japan’s main island Honshu is covered by a network of high speed train lines that connect Tokyo with most of the island’s major cities and Fukuoka on the island of Kyushu. Japan’s high-speed trains are called shinkansen but are known to us bullet trains. The Japanese bullet train system is credited with being the world’s first purpose-built high-speed railway, and the model and inspiration for all other similar type systems running today such as the French TGV. The reputation it has earned for safety, speed and punctuality is unsurpassed. I’d like to give you some figures about that. As regards safety, there has never been a death on the bullet train system since it’s inception in 1964, other than that caused by deliberate passenger misadventure. As far as speed is concerned the bullet train holds the current world records for the fastest average speed between two station stops, which was 261.8kph between Hiroshima and Kokura. The train travelled 192.km in 44 minutes. This record is from the 500 series “Nozomi” trains running at a maximum speed of 300km/h between Shin-Osaka and Hakata. I’ll talk more about them later. The punctuality puts European train services to shame. Most trains arrive at their destination, after several hours, to within the second! In one year, the total time that all bullets trains were late by was 12 seconds! This statistic is hard to believe but it would be difficult to prove otherwise and that’s what the rail authorities in Japan have told us.

Now I’d like to tell you a bit about their history. The first bullet train was introduced in 1964 by Central & West Japan Railways for the Tokyo to Osaka route. Most of these old trains have now been discontinued. There have been several bullet train models since then. The most recent ones have been the 300, 500 and 700 series and it’s the 500 series one that can travel at 300 kph. The bullet trains operating in Japan today are of the three following categories: Nozomi, Hikari and Kodama. The Nozomi trains stop only at the most important stations, and reach Osaka from Tokyo in only about two and a half hours and it’s the most modern of bullet trains that serve as Nozomi. Hikari trains stop a little bit more frequently than Nozomi trains, and need roughly three

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hours to reach Osaka from Tokyo. Kodama trains stop at all stations and they are the local trains among bullet trains. Older models of bullet trains serve as Kodama.

I’d like now to talk a little bit about the technology involved in bullet trains. The Shinkansen bullet trains consist of electrically powered cars. That means basically all individual cars are equipped with electric motor driving systems. This is in contrast to locomotive trains in which the locomotive pulls the passenger coaches. The realization of the high-speed Shinkansen with the electric train system had a great significance. The French “Train a Grande Vitesse” or TGV runs on a centralized power system, in which the heavyweight, high-output locomotives at both ends pull the passenger coaches. It’s a system suitable to European railways, which run basically on straight tracks in wide plains with solid foundations. However it is unsuitable in Japan where the ground is flimsy and the tracks full of curves and undulations and inter-city distances are short, making it necessary for the trains to accelerate and decelerate frequently. One of the advantages of the electric car system is that the motor functions as a brake to reduce the speed of the train. When the power feed to the electric car motors is stopped, the wheels continue revolving, keeping the motors rotating, resulting in electricity generation by magnetic induction. As the force acts in the direction opposite to the axle’s motion, it functions as a brake to the train. All the motors equipped on each coach can be utilized effectively to reduce the speed, making the electric train system advantageous on Japanese railways, which involve frequent deceleration and acceleration. In addition, by virtue of the remarkable progress achieved recently in semiconductor technologies, the electric train system has undergone tremendous improvements in power, operability and safety administration, so the system is becoming increasingly advantageous.

That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

That is the end of listening test 3. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.

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This recording is copyright.

IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 4. In the IELTS test you hear some recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now turn to Section 1.

Section 1. You will hear a conversation between a man and a receptionist on the subject of joining a surgery.

First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.

(20 second gap)

You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be played first.

Mike (man) Hello. I’ve just moved to Melbourne for a new job and I’ve been advised to register with a new doctor for my family and myself. I think that this surgery is the nearest one to where I live.

Recep. What’s the name of the road that you live in sir?

M Dawson Road.

So, Dawson Road is the correct answer.

Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.

Mike (man) Hello. I’ve just moved to Melbourne for a new job and I’ve been advised to register with a new doctor for my family and myself. I think that this surgery is the nearest one to where I live.

Recep. What’s the name of the road that you live in sir?

M Dawson Road.

R Yes. That’s in our area. Would you like to register with us now?

M Yes please.

R Right. I’ll just have to take some details. First of all, could you give me your name?

M It’s Mike Jacobs. J-A-C-O-B-S.

R And your family?

M My wife’s name is Janet and I have one little boy whose name is Rod.

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R Ron?

M No, Rod. R-O-D.

R Good, that’s fine. And what is your address here in Melbourne?

M 52 Dawson Road, Highfield. Melbourne.

R Highfield. H-I-G-H-F-I-E-L-D. Good. And I’ll need to know your health card number.

M It’s NH 87 18 12 C. What about my family?

R Oh, only yours for now. Do you know the name of your old doctor?

M It was Dr. Graham McKenzie in Perth.

R Now, we’ve got 4 doctors here. There’s Dr. Susan Larkins, Dr. Kevin White, Dr. James Nicholson and Dr. Linda Williams. Which one would you like to register with?

M Oh! I didn’t think of that. Well, I think I would like a man as my doctor. I’ll go for the last one. Was that one a man?

R No, that was Dr. Linda. How about Dr. Kevin?

M Yes, that will be fine.

R Right. Dr. White it is. Will that be the same for your family?

M Oh yes. My wife might not want a man as her doctor. Well, we’ll leave it as it is for now and my wife can change if she wants to.

Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.

M I’d like to make an appointment now for my wife. She wants to come in at the end of the week.

R How about this Friday morning? That’s Friday the 21st.

M Mmm, I don’t think she can make the morning. Any openings in the afternoon?

R There are appointments available at 2.00, 2.30 and 3.30.

M We’ll take the first one please.

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R Ok. That’s done.

M Oh. And what shall my wife do if she wants to switch doctor?

R She can just give us a call here. Do you want to take the number down?

M Yes please.

R It’s 7253 9829

M Can you give me your name please?

R My name’s Angela but there are two other girls who might be on duty as well. Their names are Elizabeth and Rachel but it doesn’t matter who’s on duty. Anyone can take care of it.

M Now what do we do if we need to call out a doctor during the night?

R We’ve got a rotation system with the doctors in the area. There’s a mobile number you can call and that’ll get through to the doctor who’s on duty.

M What’s that number?

R It’s 0506 759 3856.

M Got that. I didn’t ask about any charges.

R Like all Australia, prescriptions have to be paid for at the chemist at the prevailing rate. Some things like vaccinations for travel and insurance reports we make a standard charge for and I can give you a price list for those. Consultations though are under the National Health Service so they’ll be free.

M Great. Well that’s all. Thanks and goodbye.

R Goodbye.

That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 2.

Section 2. You will hear a man giving a guide talk to new students at a university library. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 16.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully to the guide talk and answer questions 11 to 16.© ieltshelpnow.com

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Good morning everyone. I’d like to welcome you all to Westley University Library. This is a 20 minute tour around the library to show you all the facilities and all you will need to know to start off your life here as a student at the University. What I’ll start by doing is telling you about what you need to do to join the library. Then I’ll briefly tell you about our facilities and then I’ll guide you quickly round and show you everything.

So to join the Library you need to go to the reception between the hours of 9am and 5pm. After that the reception closes, though all the other facilities will stay open until 10pm. At the reception they’ll give you an application form. After you fill that in, you’ll have to give us the fee of 5 pounds, which you have to give us every year that you’re a member of the Library. We will also need to see your University Card to confirm that you’re a student of the University and finally we’ll need 2 passport photos – 1 for our records and the other for your Library card. You will need to do all this as soon as possible so you’ll be able to use the facilities at once. I’m sure your workload will begin to build up soon!

Now, let me tell you a bit about the facilities. The Library opens daily from 8am to 10pm though, as I told you earlier, the Reception operates only between the hours of 9am and 5pm, although this is extended to 6.30pm on Fridays to give students more time to organise their book requirements for the weekend. The reception is closed on Sundays. Undergraduate students are permitted to take out 4 books at any one time and each book may be borrowed for a period of two weeks. Postgraduates may borrow 6 books at a time. Borrowing time can be extended by a period of one week per book if the student comes into the Library in person with the book in question so it can be restamped. We do not renew book borrowing over the phone. If you are late in returning any book, then you will be charged a fine of 2 pounds for every week that you are late. You won’t be able to take out any other books until this fine is paid. This is not a method of earning money for the Library but merely what we have to do to ensure that all students have access to all the books that they will need.

You now have some time to look at questions 17 to 20.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the guide talk and answer questions 17 to 20.

Ok then. Onto the layout of the library. We’re on the ground floor of the library at the moment. Here we have the reception, the computers, which you can use to search for books and their location, and the bathrooms, which are behind the reception. The rest of the ground floor is taken up by the non-lending section of the library. Here we keep all the books, which are either too valuable or are used too much to lend out. You can reserve time with these books at reception and use them during any time that the library is open but, of course, you may not remove them from the Library.

On the first floor above us, we have the Arts section, which includes books that students will need for such subjects as languages, literature, art and history. On the second floor is the science section. We’ll see these in a minute. Of course, individual departments will usually have their specialist libraries in their buildings, though the computer catalogues here will list them so you know where to find everything, whether it’s here or in the specialist libraries.

Finally, in the basement we have the stack system, which contains the University collection of © ieltshelpnow.com

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magazines and journals that we have collected and to which we subscribe.

If there is anything that we do not have or that you can’t find, please go to reception and let them know the details. The University operates a swap system with other universities and we can arrange for volumes that we do not possess to be sent here on a limited loan.

Well, those are the basic details about the University Library.

That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 3.

Section 3. You will hear tutor and 3 students discussing their work. First you have some time to look at questions 21 to 27.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 27.

Tutor Good morning everyone. Well, in today’s tutorial we’re going to discuss the essays that you have to submit by the end of next week. Some of you will have already started them, which is good and if you haven’t, well that’s OK but you’ll have to get a move on. So, let’s begin with you Simon. What’s happening with you?

Simon Well, I’ve made a start on it. I’ve researched the background quite extensively last weekend and I should get to the writing stage tomorrow with a bit of luck and I’ll get it finished at the weekend.

Tutor What are you writing about?

Simon I decided to look at the car manufacturing company, Jaguar, examine the problems they had with reliability in the 1970s and 80s, how they dealt with it, and how it affected their marketing and sales strategy.

Tutor That sounds pretty interesting. Any problems with that?

Simon At the start I had problems getting information from that far back, but after rooting around in the library, I found some magazines which gave me information and also gave me references to find other stuff. It seems now the only problem is keeping to the 4000 word limit. It just seems that I have so much to write about. It seems I’ll need 5000 or even 6000 words to be able to cope.

Tutor Yes, your essay title seems to me to be very wide-ranging. Would you think about cutting out part of it? How about looking at their sales and marketing strategy but only mentioning the problems in the 70s and 80s and not going too far into it?

Simon That’s a good idea. That will make it much easier to handle. By the way, how do you © ieltshelpnow.com

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want us to hand in our work? Do you want us to drop in a hard copy to your office?

Tutor You could do that but I’d prefer it if you just e-mailed it to me as an attachment. You’ve all got my address. If not, give it to the secretary clearly marked that it’s for me. Right, Jennifer, how about you?

Jennifer I’ve not really got going on it yet but I’ve decided on a subject. I’ll try and do some research during the rest of this week and I should get writing this weekend.

Tutor OK, what are you writing about then?

Jennifer I want to look into how supermarkets use market surveys to develop their products.

Tutor Will you have enough time to find out what sort of things that the supermarkets do? You won’t have much time for that.

Jennifer I should be OK. I’ve had a look in the stack system in the library and I’ve found a magazine that surveyed all the UK major supermarkets and a trade publication that analysed the same things in Canadian supermarkets.

Tutor Be careful about using their conclusions too much. The university takes a tough stance on plagiarism. Make sure you properly list where you get your information from in a bibliography and try and do your own analysis. Get going too as that analysis will take a bit of time.

Jennifer OK, thanks.

You now have some time to look at questions 28 to 30.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 28 to 30.

Tutor And Melanie. How is your work going?

Melanie I’m a bit behind I’m afraid. I was sick all last week and weekend with flu. I’ve got a subject I think but I’ve not done any work on it yet. Is there any chance I can get an extension to the submittal date?

Tutor The policy of the department is not to give any extensions unless there are extenuating circumstances. Do you have a doctor’s certificate or anything?

Melanie I went to the doctor’s but I didn’t get a note as I didn’t realise I would need it. The doctor will have a record of me though as I got a prescription. I’ll go back and get one.

Tutor Yes, do. If you get one, then there shouldn’t be a problem getting an extension. Without it though, you’ll be in trouble. What subject are you considering anyway?

Melanie I thought I’d do an overview of the UK mortgage interest rates and their effect on © ieltshelpnow.com

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housing sales trends over the last 10 years. I thought it might be of interest because of the huge increases of house prices over the last decade.

Tutor Certainly an interesting subject and it should be no great problem getting information as this has been fairly well documented. It’s a lot of work again though and you’ll really need to get cracking on it even with the extension – if you get one.

Melanie Well, I’ve not got much on for the rest of the week and I’ve set aside the weekend to really get to grips with it.

Tutor Good. Now, is there anything else?

That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 4.

Section 4. You will hear part of an earth sciences lecture. First you have some time to look at questions 31 to 40.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.

Good afternoon and welcome to this Earth Sciences lecture. Today we’re going to look at tidal waves; or more correctly, tsunami.

Deep below the ocean’s surface tectonic plates collide, and every once in a while, these forces produce an earthquake. The energy of such submarine earthquakes can produce tidal waves, which radiate out in all directions from the epicentre of the quake, moving at speeds of up to 500 miles per hour. When these waves reach shore, they can cause enormous destruction and loss of life. Tidal waves are actually misnamed. They are not caused by tides. A more accurate word for them is the Japanese name tsunami, which means, harbour wave. They are also sometimes called seismic sea waves, since they can be caused by seismic disturbances such as submarine quakes. However, that name is not really accurate either, since tsunami can also be caused by landslides, volcanic eruptions, nuclear explosions, and even impacts of objects from outer space, such as meteorites, asteroids, and comets.

Earthquakes though are the largest cause of tsunami. Tectonic plates cover the world’s surface and their movement can be detected anywhere in the world. Some areas of the world are more prone to greater movement, and it is in these places that the largest waves can occur. Large vertical movements of the earth’s crust occur at plate boundaries which are known as faults. The Pacific Ocean’s denser oceanic plates are often known to slip under continental plates in a process known as subduction, and subduction earthquakes are the most effective in generating tsunamis.

A tsunami can be generated by any disturbance that displaces a large water mass from its equilibrium position. In the case of earthquake-generated tsunamis, the water column is disturbed

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by the uplift or subsidence of the sea floor. Submarine landslides, which often accompany large earthquakes, as well as collapses of volcanic edifices, can also disturb the overlying water column as sediment and rock slump down, and are redistributed across the sea floor. Violent submarine volcanic eruptions can create an impulsive force that uplifts the water column and generates a tsunami. Conversely, super marine landslides and cosmic-body impacts disturb the water from above, as momentum from falling debris is transferred to the water into which the debris falls. Generally speaking, tsunamis generated from these mechanisms, unlike the devastating Pacific-wide tsunamis caused by earthquakes, dissipate quickly and rarely affect coastlines distant from the source area. Tsunamis are very hard to detect, since they cannot be seen when they are in the deep ocean. The distance between two wave crests can be 500 km and, because of this, the wave height is only a few feet. Because the rate at which a wave loses its energy is inversely related to its wavelength, tsunamis not only propagate at high speeds, they can also travel great, transoceanic distances with limited energy losses. As the tsunami reaches shallow water however, its speed decreases, but the energy it contains remains about the same. Instead of travelling fast, the wave rises high.

The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has set up a seismic detection system to monitor earthquakes and predict the possible arrival of tidal waves for Pacific countries. Buoys at sea can also detect water-pressure changes that can indicate tsunamis moving through the ocean. But when tsunamis originate near the shore there is often little chance to warn people.

Let’s look at some examples of tsunami and their causes and effects.

Some can be relatively harmless. In 1992 an offshore landslide caused a tidal wave of only about three feet high that struck at low tide, so Humboldt County, where it hit, got off easy with no casualties.

On January 13th in 1992, a Pacific Ocean earthquake off the coast of San Salvador, registering 7.6 on the Richter scale, did not cause any ocean disturbance at all.

However, a recent tidal wave, which struck Papua New Guinea on July 17, 1998, was 23 feet high, and killed at least 1200 people. This wave was caused by a magnitude 7.1 submarine earthquake.

On July 17, 1998 a Papua New Guinea tsunami killed roughly 3,000 people. A huge underwater volcanic eruption 15 miles offshore was followed within 10 minutes by a wave some 40 feet tall. The villages of Arop and Warapu were destroyed.

One of the worst tsunami disasters engulfed whole villages along Sanriku, Japan, in 1896. An underwater earthquake induced a wave of 35 feet drowning some 26,000 people.

Finally, about 8,000 years ago, a massive undersea landslide off the coast of Norway sent a 30-foot wall of water barrelling into the uninhabited northern coast of Europe. If this were to recur today, as scientists say it could, almost anywhere in the world, it would cost billions if not tens of billions of dollars to repair the damage to coastal cities and kill tens of thousands of people.

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That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

That is the end of listening test 4. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.

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This recording is copyright.

IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 5. In the IELTS test you hear some recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now turn to Section 1.

Section 1. You will hear a conversation between two women as one of the women buys a bus pass.

First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.

(20 second gap)

You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be played first.

Woman 1 Good morning. I’m here to get a student bus pas please.

Woman 2 Of course Madam. Do you want to buy a month pass, a 6 month pass or a year pass?

Woman 1 Oh, just a month pass please.

So, 1 month is the correct answer.

Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.

Woman 1 Good morning. I’m here to get a student bus pas please.

Woman 2 Of course Madam. Do you want to buy a month pass, a 6 month pass or a year pass?

W 1 Oh, just a month pass please.

W 2 Right then. I’ll just have to take a few details.

W 1 Yes. Of course.

W 2 First of all, what’s your name?

W 1 Nathalie Jameson.

W 2 And how do you spell Jameson?

W 1 J-A-M-E-S-O-N.

W 2 Thank you. And what’s your address?

W 1 45 Forest Avenue, Newlands, Adelaide.

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W 2 Is that Forest with 1 R or 2 Rs?

W 1 Just 1.

W 2 And what’s the postcode please?

W 1 Oh yes… It’s 8490.

W 2 Thanks. Now what’s your date of birth … If you don’t mind me asking?

W 1 Not at all. It’s the 13th May 1982.

W 2 I also need to know your telephone number here in Adelaide.

W 1 OK. I just need to check that as I only moved here last week. Now, where is it. Here we are. It’s 6249 7152. Do you need a code or anything?

W 2 Oh no, that’s OK thank you. Can I see your university card please?

W 1 Yes, here it is.

W 2 Good. That’s fine. Now, for which zone do you need a pass?

W 1 Well, I’m not sure. I was hoping you’d be able to help me as I don’t really know my way around here yet. As you know, I live in Newlands and I have to get to the university campus in the centre of town every day.

W 2 Well, the university is in Zone 1 and Newlands has 2 zones. The side nearer to the town centre is Zone 5 but the far side is Zone 6. What road is it you live in again?

W 1 Forest Avenue.

W 2 Let’s see on this map. There it is. The nearest bus stop is in Zone 5. That’s lucky. Zones 1 – 6 are $15 more expensive

W 1 Great! Make the pass out for Zones 1 – 5 then please.

Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.

W 1 I’ve got some other questions too if you don’t mind.

W 2 Sure. Go ahead.

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W 1 Well, this weekend my friend and I aren’t doing anything so we thought we’d take a trip out of town and visit somewhere new. Does the bus service run any trips like that?

W 2 Yes, we’ve got a selection of trips. I’ll tell you about some of them.

W 1 Thanks.

W 2 Right the first one goes up to MacDonald Nature Park. The bus leaves at 8.00am and takes about 2 hours to get there and leaves for the return at 4.30 in the afternoon. Once there you can walk around the nature trails. It’s really nice and the Macdonald River runs through there and that’s really beautiful so take a camera with you. Then there’s the Pearl Bay trip. The bus leaves at 9.00am and goes up the coast to Pearl Bay.

W 1 How far is that?

W 2 It’s an hour away. Once there you can walk along the cliffs up to Rocky Point, which has a famous view up the coast, or you can just lie on the beach and swim. Don’t forget to take your swimming gear and a towel! The water’s pretty safe there and there are always lifeguards. The bus arrives back in Adelaide at 5.00pm.

W 1 Mm. That sounds nice. What else?

W 2 Well there’s the Huron Gold Mine. It’s just a half-day trip leaving here at 9.30am and arriving back at 2.00pm. It only takes half an hour to get there which is good. It’s an old worked out mine that has been changed into a sort of museum. They have all the old equipment and a guide takes you round some of the tunnels and shows you some of the techniques they used to use. You might even find some gold they missed.

W 1 Yeah. I could do with that.

W 2 It’s pretty interesting but the mines can be quite cold so take a sweater. So, how do those three sound?

W 1 Quite interesting. I really like the idea of going up the coast and spending a day on the beach but my friend Karen will like the idea of the nature park. I’d better wait and check out with her what she wants to do before booking.

W 2 No problem at all. You just need to pop in some time during the week and we’ll make the booking.

W 1 Thanks very much. You’ve been very helpful.

W 2 No problem. See you later.

That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 2.© ieltshelpnow.com

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Section 2. You will hear a radio presenter interviewing a man about the Sydney Harbour Bridge. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 16.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully to the interview and answer questions 11 to 16.

Anne Well, good morning again everyone and welcome to “Perspectives”, the weekly New South Wales Radio programme on subjects of general interest from our local area. Today I have in the studio Mr. George Symonds. Good morning George.

George Good morning Anne.

Anne So, what are you going to talk to us about today George?

George Well, for people from New South Wales and particularly Sydney, this will be of great interest – I hope. I’m going to tell you a little about Sydney Harbour Bridge.

Anne Wow. That’ll be so interesting.

George I think so. To start with I’d like to tell you a little about the size of the bridge. The arch span is 503 metres and the weight of the steel arch is 39,000 tons. The summit is 134m above mean sea level, though it can actually increase by as much as 18 cm on hot days as the result of steel expanding in heat. The two pairs of pylons at each end are about 89 metres high and are made of concrete and granite. The steel used for the bridge was largely imported. About 79% came from the United Kingdom but the rest was Australian-made. The granite was quarried in Moruya down the coast, and the concrete is also Australian.

Anne So, most of the steel used to make our great bridge actually came from England?

George Yes, I’m afraid so. However the work force were all Aussie!

Anne Thank God for that. When was the bridge actually built?

George The bridge was opened in 1932 but work first began in 1924, with the construction of the bridge approaches and spans, with two separate teams building the arch on each side working towards each other. The arch was successfully joined on August 19, 1930. I’m afraid that working practices weren’t very fair in those days and the local government demolished 438 homes which were in the way of the approaches, and as many as 800 families living there were displaced without compensation. The standards of industrial safety were inadequate too. 16 workers died during its construction, mainly from falling off the bridge.

Anne I didn’t realise that.

George Yes. The bridge was formally opened on the 19th March 1932 by the Premier of New South Wales, Mr Jack Lang. When it was opened, it was the longest single span steel arch bridge in the world and it was one of the greatest engineering masterpieces of its time. Several songs

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were also composed in advance for the occasion but these have now been largely lost or forgotten. However, three postage stamps were issued to commemmorate the opening of the bridge and these still exist. One of these stamps, with a face value of five shillings, is now worth several hundred dollars today.

You now have some time to look at questions 17 to 20.

(20 second gap)

Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 17 to 20.

Anne So, that’s the history of the bridge. Is the bridge still the same today as when it was built?

George No, it’s quite different. The basic structure is the same of course. Originally the bridge was constructed to carry a road, two sets of tram lines and railways. In 1957, the two tram lines were removed when Sydney abolished its trams, thus giving the bridge two more traffic lanes. Today it carries eight traffic lanes, two railroad lanes and a footpath along its eastern side. One of the eastern traffic lanes is now a dedicated bus lane. The bridge is often crowded and in 1992 the Harbour Tunnel was opened to help carry the traffic load. More than 160,000 vehicles cross the bridge each day. Before the Harbour Tunnel was opened this figure was as high as 182,000 and would be much higher today if it were not for the Tunnel. Pedestrians, horses and pushbikes are not allowed on the bridge anymore.

Anne Wow. The bridge actually carries that much?

George Oh yes. Actually, before the Harbour Bridge opened, it was completely packed with railway carriages, trams and buses to stress test its load bearing capacity. While it has had many traffic jams since and half a million people walked across it on its 50th anniversary, it has probably never been asked to carry that much of a load since.

Anne Amazing. And I suppose the toll for crossing the bridge has changed a bit too?

George I’m afraid so!! The initial toll charged for a car was 6 pence while a horse and rider was charged 3 pence. Today the toll costs $3.00 but is only charged when travelling to the South as an efficiency measure to speed up traffic flow.

That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 3.

Section 3. You will hear 3 students discussing a survey they are going to do. First you have some time to look at questions 21 to 27.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 27.© ieltshelpnow.com

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Phil Hi Mel. Hi Laura. Sorry I’m a bit late. I got held up by the bus. It just didn’t come for ages.

Mel Don’t worry. You’re only a couple of minutes behind and we’ve only just been chatting.

Laura Right then. We’re here to organise the survey that we’re going to do. Mel, you said that you’d discuss with Professor Donald Walker what type of survey we were going to do.

Mel Yes. I spoke to Professor Walker two days ago and I told him that the surveys that we were considering were a telephone survey, a street survey and a mail survey. He thought that the phone one would be too expensive for us and the postal one would take too long so we decided we should do the street one.

Phil I think that’s right. If we do the street one then we can get the whole thing done in one day and we can get on with analysing the results.

Mel Yes, that’s right. Now, there are some other things that Professor Walker wanted to know about. How big should the survey be?

Laura Well, the ideal figure for a survey such as this should be about 1000 people but that will take us about a month to get that many people and we just don’t have that much time. On the other hand, if we just choose 100 people, the survey won’t be statistically significant.

Phil So, what about something in the middle. What about 600?

Mel Still too many. That’ll take us ages. 400?

Laura Let’s split the difference and say 500.

Mel/Phil OK

Laura And how many questions? If there are too many we’ll just have the same problem.

Mel Professor Walker said we should have no more than 10 or people get bored. 10 then?

Phil I think even fewer. 8.

Laura I think 3 fewer again to make sure we can get the numbers done quickly.

Phil OK, I agree with that.

Mel I’m not sure but I suppose so.

You now have some time to look at questions 28 to 30.

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Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 28 to 30.

Mel Now, Professor Walker asked where we were going to do the survey.

Laura Does he want to avoid that area then?

Mel Probably! Now we can either all stay together or split up and do different locations.

Laura Well, if we split up then I think we’ve got a better chance of getting more people surveyed.

Phil Yes. I agree with Laura.

Mel OK. Now, I made a list of the possible locations in Westley where we could station ourselves. There’s the town square, at the entrance to the train station, at the University cafeteria, outside Dobbins department store, on the corner of the High Street and College road, the bus station and the corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road. What do you think?

Phil I think the square is great but the people at the train station will be travelling and often in a hurry.

Laura I agree with all that and I think the bus station will have the same problem as the train station.

Mel OK, that’s those two out then.

Laura I think the other ones in town were good too. The cafeteria will have too many students and that will create too great a bias to our survey. We need a good cross section of the population and anywhere too close to the university won’t give us that.

Phil Laura’s right. So, out of the other town ones, I think that the two on the High Street corners are good.

Mel I don’t agree. The High Street corner with College Road will be good but the corner with Wilkins Road is too far out. Not enough people will come by there.

Laura Yes, Mel’s right there. We should use Dobbins department store instead.

Phil I can see your point. OK, that’s settled then. All three of us will be stationed in town then but not the Wilkins Road position.

That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

Now turn to section 4.

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some time to look at questions 31 to 40.

(20 second gap)

Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.

Good morning everyone and welcome to this further education lecture on marine biology. Today we are going to look at the coelacanth. The discovery of the coelacanth has been compared to finding a dinosaur walking around today over 85 million years after it went extinct.

The story began a few days before Christmas in 1938 when the first living coelacanth was discovered off the east coast of South Africa, at the mouth of the Chalumna River. The fish was caught in a shark gill net by Captain Goosen and his crew who, recognising the bizarre nature of their catch, alerted the local museum in the small South African town of East London. The Director of the East London Museum at the time was Miss Marjorie Courtney-Latimer after whom the Coelacanth was eventually named. Miss Courtney-Latimer offered bounties to fishermen for unfamiliar fish. It was Miss Courtney-Latimer who alerted the prominent South African ichthyologist Dr J.L.B. Smith, who initially identified the fish, and subsequently informed the world about this amazing discovery. This first coelacanth led to the discovery of the first documented population, off the remote Comoros Islands, between the mainland of Africa and Madagascar. For 60 years this was presumed to be the only coelacanth population in existence. Originally it was a concern that the Coelacanth might have a very limited range and that overfishing along the Comoros Islands might wipe it out. However, scientists were amazed when, on July 30th 1998, an American scientist discovered a Coelacanth population in Indonesia. Dr. Mark Erdmann was on a honeymoon trip to the area investigating a coral reef research site when he spotted a strange fish being wheeled into the fish market. He recognized the fish as a coelacanth and snapped a picture before it was sold.

Dr. Erdmann’s subsequent research revealed that the people from Sulawesi had a name for it, raja, ‘king of the sea’. The Sulawesi coelacanth colony is about 10,000 km east of where the Coelacanths were previously known to occur in the Western Indian Ocean.

Both Sulawesi and Comoros coelacanths are quite different from all other living fish. But perhaps the most interesting feature of the Coelacanth is that it has paired, lobed fins, which move in a similar fashion to our arms and legs. Coelacanths also have an extra lobe on their tail and a vertebral column that is not fully developed. They are the only living animal to have a fully functional intercranial joint, a division that separates the ear and brain from the nasal organs and eye, and allows the front part of the head to be lifted when the fish is feeding. The brown Sulawesi coelacanth and the steel blue Comoros coelacanth share these unusual characteristics.

The discovery of the Coelacanth in 1938 is still considered to be the zoological find of the century. This living fossil comes from a lineage of fish that was thought to have been extinct since the time of the dinosaurs. Coelacanths are known from the fossil record dating back over 360 million years, and peaked in abundance about 240 million years ago. Before 1938 they were believed to have become extinct approximately 80 million years ago, after mysteriously disappearing from the fossil record.

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Page 182: General Training Module

How could the Coelacanth disappear for over 80 million years and then turn up alive and well in the twentieth century? The answer seems to be that fossil Coelacanths appeared to live in environments with clay sedimentation with plenty of volcanic activity. Modern coelacanths, both in the Comoros and Sulawesi inhabit caves and overhangs in vertical marine reefs, at about 200m, environments not conducive to fossil creation. In 1991 scientists got a better understanding of the fish when the Comoros got their independence from France and French restrictions on research were lifted. This allowed scientists to study the fish off the Comoros Islands. As the animal hides in underwater caves some 300 to 700 feet down during the day and comes out at night to feed, diving is not an option and previously only fishermen’s specimens had been available for study. But this time the scientists had their own submarine so they could study the coelacanth in its natural habitat through portholes.

That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.

(30 second gap)

That is the end of listening test 5. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.

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