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GATE Previous Year Question Papers for Instrumentation [In] by AglaSem.ComFor All Subjects Free GATE Solved Papers visit: http://admission.aglasem.com/gate-previous-year-solved-papers/For GATE Complete Information visit: http://admission.aglasem.com/gate/For GATE Exam Preparation visit: http://gate.aglasem.com

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  • SOLVED PAPERS

    GATEINSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING (IN)

    aglaem.comA comprehensive study guide for GATE

  • CONTENTS

    Introduction Question Paper Pattern Design of Questions Marking Scheme Syllabus Previous Year Solved Papers

    o Solved Question Paper 2014o Answer Key 2014o Solved Question Paper 2013o Answer Key 2013o Solved Question Paper 2012o Answer Key 2012

  • IntroductionThe Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examinationconducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology(IITs).

    A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATEpapers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exampattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.

    While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in asimulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown totest time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as ifhe / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions youcould get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, andaccordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areaswhere in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.

    Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on thebasis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.

    To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

  • Question Paper PatternIn all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).

    In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF andXE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the GeneralAptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of thetotal marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.

    In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitudesection will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks isdevoted to the subject of the paper.

    GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:

    (i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers andsections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of fouranswers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).

    (ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. Forthese questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using thevirtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by________________________________________________________

  • Design of QuestionsThe questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:

    (i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of thepaper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/hermemory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.

    (ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of thebasics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamentalideas.

    (iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/herknowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.

    (iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesisquestion might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstatedassumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by__________________________________________________________

  • Marking SchemeFor 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wronganswer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.

    General Aptitude (GA) Questions

    In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questionscarrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total10 marks).

    Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL

    These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist ofquestions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a realnumber, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. Anappropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer typequestions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.

    GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper

    Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in PartA and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.

    Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marksand some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).

    XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

  • In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This sectioncontains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questionsmay be of numerical answer type questions.

    Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questionscarrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be ofnumerical answer type.

    XL Paper (Life Sciences)

    In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be ofnumerical answer type.

    Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questionscarrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be ofnumerical answer type.

    Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers

    For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negativemarking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wronganswer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for awrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numericalanswer type questions.

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

  • Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoningand data interpretation.

    Syllabus for Instrumentation Engineering (IN)ENGINEERING MATHEMATICSLinear Algebra: Matrix Algebra, Systems of linear equations, Eigen values and eigenvectors.Calculus: Mean value theorems, Theorems of integral calculus, Evaluation of definiteand improper integrals, Partial Derivatives, Maxima and minima, Multiple integrals,Fourier series. Vector identities, Directional derivatives, Line, Surface and Volumeintegrals, Stokes, Gauss and Greens theorems.Differential equations: First order equation (linear and nonlinear), Higher order lineardifferential equations with constant coefficients, Method of variation of parameters,Cauchys and Eulers equations, Initial and boundary value problems, Partial DifferentialEquations and variable separable method.Complex variables: Analytic functions, Cauchys integral theorem and integralformula, Taylors and Laurent series, Residue theorem, solution integrals.Probability and Statistics: Sampling theorems, Conditional probability, Mean, median,mode and standard deviation, Random variables, Discrete and continuousdistributions, Poisson,Normal and Binomial distribution, Correlation and regressionanalysis.Numerical Methods: Solutions of non-linear algebraic equations, single and multi-stepmethods for differential equations.Transform Theory: Fourier transform,Laplace transform, Z-transform.INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERINGBasics of Circuits and Measurement Systems:Kirchoffs laws, mesh and nodalAnalysis. Circuit theorems. One-port and two-port Network Functions. Static and

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

  • dynamic characteristics of Measurement Systems. Error and uncertainty analysis.Statistical analysis of data and curve fitting.Transducers, Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation: Resistive,Capacitive, Inductive and piezoelectric transducers and their signal conditioning.Measurement of displacement, velocity and acceleration (translational and rotational),force, torque, vibration and shock. Measurement of pressure, flow, temperature andliquid level.Measurement of pH, conductivity, viscosity and humidity.Analog Electronics: Characteristics of diode, BJT, JFET and MOSFET. Diode circuits.Transistors at low and high frequencies, Amplifiers, single and multi-stage. Feedbackamplifiers. Operational amplifiers, characteristics and circuit configurations.Instrumentation amplifier. Precision rectifier. V-to-I and I-to-V converter. Op-Amp basedactive filters. Oscillators and signal generators.Digital Electronics: Combinational logic circuits, minimization of Boolean functions. ICfamilies, TTL, MOS and CMOS. Arithmetic circuits. Comparators, Schmitt trigger, timersand mono-stable multi-vibrator. Sequential circuits, flip-flops, counters, shift registers.Multiplexer, S/H circuit.Analog-to-Digital and Digital-to-Analog converters. Basics ofnumber system.Microprocessor applications, memory and input-output interfacing.Microcontrollers.Signals, Systems and Communications: Periodic and aperiodic signals. Impulseresponse, transfer function and frequency response of first- and second order systems.Convolution, correlation and characteristics of linear time invariant systems. Discretetime system, impulse and frequency response. Pulse transfer function. IIR and FIR filters.Amplitude and frequency modulation and demodulation. Sampling theorem, pulsecode modulation. Frequency and time division multiplexing. Amplitude shift keying,frequency shift keying and pulse shift keying for digital modulation.Electrical and Electronic Measurements: Bridges and potentiometers, measurementof R,L and C. Measurements of voltage, current, power, power factor and energy. A.C &D.C current probes. Extension of instrument ranges. Q-meter and waveform analyzer.Digital voltmeter and multi-meter. Time, phase and frequency measurements. Cathoderay oscilloscope. Serial and parallel communication. Shielding and grounding.Control Systems and Process Control: Feedback principles. Signal flow graphs.Transient Response, steady-state-errors. Routh and Nyquist criteria. Bode plot, root loci.

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

  • Time delay systems. Phase and gain margin. State space representation of systems.Mechanical, hydraulic and pneumatic system components. Synchro pair, servo and stepmotors. On-off, cascade, P, P-I, P-I-D, feed forward and derivative controller, Fuzzycontrollers.Analytical, Optical and Biomedical Instrumentation: Mass spectrometry. UV, visibleand IR spectrometry. X-ray and nuclear radiation measurements. Optical sources anddetectors, LED, laser, Photo-diode, photo-resistor and their characteristics.Interferometers, applications in metrology. Basics of fiber optics. Biomedicalinstruments, EEG, ECG and EMG. Clinical measurements. Ultrasonic transducers andUltrasonography. Principles of Computer Assisted Tomography.

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

  • GATEPrevious Year Solved Papers

    Instrumentation Engineering - IN

    2012 - 14

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

  • Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

    Read the following instructions carefully.

    1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.

    2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.

    3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.

    4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

    5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.

    6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.

    7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer

    type. 9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the

    correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed before the choice.

    10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse.

    11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.

    12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

    13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

    Declaration by the candidate:

    I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by__________________________________________________________

    GATE 2014 Solved PaperInstrumentation Engineering - IN

  • Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following

    sentence.

    A person suffering from Alzheimers disease short-term memory loss.

    (A) experienced (B) has experienced (C) is experiencing (D) experiences

    Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.

    ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.

    (A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

    Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?

    As a woman, I have no country.

    (A) Women have no country. (B) Women are not citizens of any country. (C) Womens solidarity knows no national boundaries. (D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

    Q.4 In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years.

    Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate?

    (A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years

    Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

    Q.6 In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group? Statements

    1. Shiv is younger to Riaz. 2. Shiv is elder to Som.

    (A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child. (B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child. (C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child. (D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.

    GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

  • Q.7 Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis. From BIG DATA Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier

    The main point of the paragraph is:

    (A) The twenty-first century is a digital world (B) Big data is obsessed with exactness (C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data (D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

    Q.8 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

    (A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1

    Q.9 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2

    Q.10 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV individuals 89% of the time. A particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the individual is actually positive is _______

    END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

    Item 111%

    Item 220%

    Item 319%Item 4

    22%

    Item 512%

    Item 616%

    Exports

    Item 112%

    Item 220%

    Item 323%

    Item 46%

    Item 520%

    Item 619%

    Revenues

    GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

  • Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 Given () = 3 sin(1000 )and () = 5 cos1000 +

    4

    The x-yplot will be

    (A) a circle (B)a multi-loop closed curve

    (C)a hyperbola (D)an ellipse

    Q.2 Given that x is a random variable in the range[0,]with a probability densityfunction 2 , the value of the constant K is___________.

    Q.3 The figure shows the plot of y as a function of x

    The function shown is the solution of the differential equation (assuming all initial conditions to be zero) is :

    (A) 2

    2 1d ydx

    = (B) dy xdx = (C) dy x

    dx= (D) dy x

    dx=

    Q.4 A vector is defined as y x z= + +f i j k

    where , and i j k are unit vectors in Cartesian (x,y,z) coordinate system. The surface integral . over the closed surface S of a cube with vertices having the following coordinates: (0,0,0), (1,0,0), (1,1,0), (0,1,0), (0,0,1), (1,0,1), (1,1,1), (0,1,1) is ___________.

    GATE 2014 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

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  • Q.5 The figure shows the schematic of a production process with machines A, B and C. An input job needs to be pre-processed either by A or by B before it is fed to C, from which the final finished product comes out. The probabilities of failure of the machines are given as:

    PA=0.15, PB=0.05, PC=0.1.

    Assuming independence of failures of the machines, the probability that a given job is successfully processed (up to the third decimal place) is ___________.

    Q.6 The circuit shown in figure was at steady state for < 0 with the switch at position A. The switch is thrown to position B at time = 0. The voltage (volts) across the 10 resistor at time = 0+ is___________.

    A B+

    _

    V10 6 V

    2

    5 Ht=0

    Q.7 The average real power in watts delivered to a load impedance = (4 2) by an ideal current source () = 4 sin( + 20)A is ___________.

    Q.8 Time domain expressions for the voltage 1() and 2() are given as 1() = sin(10 130)and2() = cos(10 + 10). Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

    (A)1()leads 2() by 130o (B)1() lags 2() by 130o

    (C)1() lags 2() by 130o (D)1() leads2()by 130o

    Q.9 A pHelectrode obeys Nernst equation and is being operated at 25C. The change in the open circuit voltage in millivolts across the electrode for a pH change from 6 to 8 is ___________.

    A

    B C Input job Finished product

    GATE 2014 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

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  • Q.10 The pressure and velocity at the throat of a Venturi tube, measuring the flow of a liquid, are related to the upstream pressure and velocity, respectively, as follows:

    (A) pressure is lower but velocity is higher

    (B) pressure is higher but velocity is lower

    (C) both pressure and velocity are lower

    (D) pressure and velocity are identical

    Q.11 Semiconductor strain gages typically have much higher gage factors than those of metallic strain gages, primarily due to :

    (A) higher temperature sensitivity

    (B) higher Poissons ratio

    (C) higher piezoresitive coefficient

    (D) higher magnetostrictive coefficient

    Q.12 For a rotameter, which one of the following statements is TRUE? (A) the weight of the float is balanced by the buoyancy and the drag force acting on the float

    (B) the velocity of the fluid remains constant for all positions of the float

    (C) the measurement of volume flow rate of gas is not possible

    (D) the volume flow rate is insensitive to changes in density of the fluid

    Q.13 For the op-amp shown in the figure, the bias currents are Ib1= 450 nA and Ib2=350 nA. The values of the input bias current (IB) and the input offset current (If) are:

    (A) IB= 800 nA, If=50 nA (B) IB= 800 nA, If=100nA

    (C) IB= 400 nA, If=50nA (D) IB= 400 nA, If=100nA

    GATE 2014 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

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  • Q.14 The amplifier in the figure has gain of 10 and input resistance of 50 k. The values of Ri and Rfare:

    +

    Ri

    Rf

    VinV0

    (A) Ri= 500 k, Rf = 50 k (B) Ri= 50 k, Rf = 500 k

    (C) Ri= 5 k, Rf = 10 k (D) Ri= 50 k, Rf = 200 k

    Q.15 For the circuit shown in the figure assume ideal diodes with zero forward resistance and zero forward voltage drop. The current through the diode D2 in mAis ___________.

    Q.16 The system function of an LTI system is given by () = 1 1311 1

    41

    The above system can have stable inverse if the region of convergence of H(z)is defined as (A) || < 1

    4 (B) || < 1

    12 (C) || > 1

    4 (D) || < 1

    3

    GATE 2014 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

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  • Q.17 The figure is a logic circuit with inputs A and B and output Y.Vss = + 5 V. The circuit is of type

    (A) NOR (B) AND (C) OR (D) NAND

    Q.18 The impulse response of an LTI system is given as :

    [ ]0

    sin 0

    c

    c

    n

    h nn

    nn

    ==

    It represents an ideal

    (A)non-causal, low-pass filter

    (B) causal, low-pass filter

    (C) non-causal, high-pass filter

    (D) causal, high-pass filter

    Q.19 A discrete-time signal [] is obtained by sampling an analog signal at 10 kHz. The signal []is filtered by a system with impulse response [] = 0.5{[] + [ 1]}. The 3dB cutoff frequency of the filter is:

    (A) 1.25 kHz (B) 2.50 kHz (C) 4 .00 kHz (D) 5.00 kHz

    Q.20 A full duplex binary FSK transmission is made through a channel of bandwidth 10 kHz. In each direction of transmission the two carriers used for the two states are separated by 2 kHz. The maximum baud rate for this transmission is:

    (A) 2000 bps (B) 3000 bps (C) 5000 bps (D) 10000 bps

    GATE 2014 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

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  • Q.21 A loop transfer function is given by : ()() = ( + 2)2( + 10) The point of intersection of the asymptotes of ()()on the real axis in the -plane is at ___________.

    Q.22 The resistance and inductance of an inductive coil are measured using an AC bridge as shown in the figure. The bridge is to be balanced by varying the impedance Z2.

    For obtaining balance, Z2 should consist of element(s): (A) R and C

    (B) R and L

    (C) L and C

    (D) Only C

    Q.23 A plant has an open-loop transfer function, ( ) ( )( )( )

    200.1 2 100p

    G ss s s

    = + + + . The approximate model obtained by retaining only one of the above poles, which is closest to the frequency response of the original transfer function at low frequency is

    (A) 0.10.1s + (B)

    22s + (C)

    100100s + (D)

    200.1s +

    Q.24 In order to remove respiration related motion artifacts from an ECG signal, the following filter should be used:

    (A) low-pass filter with fc = 0.5 Hz

    (B) high-pass filter with fc = 0.5 Hz

    (C)high-pass filter with fc = 49.5 Hz

    (D)band-pass filter with passband between 0.1 Hz and 0.5 Hz

    Q.25 In a time-of-flight mass spectrometerif is the charge and the mass of the ionized species,then the time of flight is proportional to

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    GATE 2014 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

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  • Q. 31 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

    Q.26 A scalar valued function is defined as ( ) T Tf c= + +x x Ax b x , where A is a symmetric positive definite matrix with dimension n n ; b and x are vectors of dimension n1. The minimum value of ( )f x will occur when x equals (A) ( ) 1T A A b (B) ( ) 1T A A b

    (C)A-1b2 (D)A-1b2

    Q.27 The iteration step in order to solvefor the cube roots of a given number Nusing the Newton-Raphsons method is

    (A) ( )31 13k k kx x N x+ = + (B) 1 21 23k k kN

    x xx

    + = +

    (C) ( )31 13k k kx x N x+ = (D) 1 21 23k k kN

    x xx

    + =

    Q.28 For the matrix A satisfying the equation given below, the eigenvaluesare

    [ ]1 2 3 1 2 37 8 9 4 5 64 5 6 7 8 9

    = A

    (A)(1,, )

    (B)(1, 1, 0)

    (C)(1, 1,1)

    (D)(1, 0, 0)

    Q.29 In the circuit shown in the figure, initially the capacitor is uncharged. The switch S is closed at = 0. Two milliseconds after the switch is closed, the current through the capacitor (in mA) is ___________.

    5 V

    S2 k

    2 k 4 Ft= 0

    ic(t)

    GATE 2014 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

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  • Q.30 A capacitor C is to be connected across the terminals A and B as shown in the figure so that the power factor of the parallel combination becomes unity. The value of the capacitance required in F is___________.

    4

    j1

    60 V50 Hz

    A

    B

    Q.31 The resistance of a wire is given by the expression = 42 , where, is the resistivity (-meter),L is the length (meter) and D (meter) is the diameter of the wire. The error in measurement of each of the parameters , L, and D is 1.0% . Assuming that the errors are independent random variables, the percent error in measurement of R is ___________.

    Q.32 The circuit shown in the figure contains a dependent current source between A and B terminals. The Thevenins equivalent resistance in kbetween the terminals C and D is ___________.

    A

    B

    10 V

    5 k 5 kC

    D

    +

    _

    vx104 Vx

    Q.33 A thermistor has a resistance of 1 k at temperature 298 Kand 465 at temperature 316 K. The temperature sensitivity in K-1[i.e. (1/R)(dR/dT), where R is the resistance at the temperature T(in K)], of this thermistor at 316 K is ___________.

    Q.34 A barium titanate piezoelectric crystal with d33=150 pC/N, Ccrystal = 25 pF and Rcrystal = 1010 is used to measure the amplitude of a step force. The voltage output is measured using a digital voltmeter with input impedance 1013 connected across the crystal. All other capacitances and resistances may be neglected. A step force of 2 N is applied from direction 3 on the crystal. The time in milliseconds within which the voltmeter should sample the crystal output voltage so that the drop from the peak value is no more than 0.12V is ___________.

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  • Q.35 A thermopile is constructed using 10 junctions of Chromel-Constantan (sensitivity 60V/C for each junction) connected in series. The output is fed to an amplifier having an infinite input impedance and a gain of 10. The output from the amplifier is acquired using a 10-bit ADC, with reference voltage of 5 V. The resolution of this system in units of C is ___________.

    Q.36 A transit time ultrasonic flowmeter uses a pair of ultrasonic transducers placed at 45 angle, as shown in the figure.

    The inner diameter of the pipe is 0.5 m. The differential transit time is directly measured using a clock of frequency 5 MHz. The velocity of the fluid is small compared to the velocity of sound in the static fluid, which is 1500 m/s and the size of the crystals is negligible compared to the diameter of the pipe. The minimum change in fluid velocity (m/s) that can be measured using this system is ___________.

    Q.37 Assuming an ideal op-amp in linear range of operation, the magnitude of the transfer impedance 0 in M of the current to voltage converter shown in the figure is ___________.

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  • Q.38 For the circuit shown in the figure, the transistor has = 40, = 0.7 V, and the voltage across the Zener diode is 15 V.The current (in mA) through the Zener diode is ___________.

    +30 V

    330 100

    Q.39 In the figure, transistors T1 and T2 have identical characteristics. ( )of transistor T3 is 0.1 V. The voltage 1 is high enough to put T3 in saturation. Voltage of transistors T1, T2 and T3is 0.7 V. The value of (1 2) in Vis ___________.

    9 V

    5 k3 k

    V2

    V1

    T1 T2

    T3

    Q.40 The figures show an oscillator circuit having an ideal Schmitt trigger and its input-output characteristics. The time period (in ms) of ( )ov t is___________.

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  • Q.41 An N-bit ADC has an analog reference voltage V. Assuming zero mean and uniform distribution of the quantization error, the quantization noise power will be:

    (A) 2

    12(21)2

    (B)2

    12(21) (C)

    12(21) (D) 212

    Q.42 A microprocessor accepts external interrupts (Ext INT) through a Programmable Interrupt Controller as shown in the figure.

    Assuming vectored interrupt, a correct sequence of operations when a single external interrupt (Ext INT1) is received will be :

    (A) Ext INT1 INTAData ReadINT

    (B) Ext INT1 INTINTAData Read

    (C) Ext INT1 INTINTAAddress Write

    (D) Ext INT1 INT Data ReadAddress Write

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  • Q.43 The circuit in the figure represents a counter-based unipolar ADC. When SOC is asserted the counter is reset and clock is enabled so that the counter counts up and the DAC output grows. When the DAC output exceeds the input sample value, the comparator switches from logic 0 to logic 1, disabling the clock and enabling the output buffer by asserting EOC. Assuming all components to be ideal, ref , DAC output and input to be positive, the maximum error in conversion of the analog sample value is:

    (A)directly proportional toref (B) inversely proportional to ref

    (C)independent ofref (D)directly proportional to clock frequency

    Q.44 ()is the Discrete Fourier Transform of a 6-point real sequence ().

    If (0) = 9 + 0, (2) = 2 + 2, (3) = 3 0, (5) = 1 1, (0) is (A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 15 (D) 18

    Q.45 The transfer function of a digital system is given by: 0

    1 1+ 22 ; where2 is real.

    The transfer function is BIBO stable if the value of 2 is:

    (A) 1.5 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.5

    Q.46 The transfer function of a system is given by () = 500 + 500 The input to the system is () = sin 100. In periodic steady state the output of the system is found to be () = sin(100 ). The phase angle () in degree is ___________.

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  • Q.47 In the microprocessor controlled measurement scheme shown in the figure, xR is the unknown resistance to be measured, while

    ref ref and R C are known. refC is charged from voltage VL to VH (by a constant DC voltage source VS), once through Rref in Tref seconds and then discharged to VL . It isagain charged from voltage VL to VH throughRxin Tx seconds.

    xIf then refT kT=

    (A) x ref 1 LH

    VR kRV

    = (B) x ref ln H

    L

    VR kRV

    =

    (C) x refR kR= (D) x ref lnR R k=

    Q.48 Frequency of an analog periodic signal in the range of 5kHz - 10kHz is to be measured with a resolution of 100Hz by measuring its period with a counter. Assuming negligible signal and transition delays the minimum clock frequency and minimum number of bits in the counter needed, respectively, are:

    (A) 1 MHz, 10-bits (B) 10 MHz, 10-bits

    (C) 1 MHz, 8-bits (D) 10MHz, 8-bits

    Q.49 The loop transfer function of a feedback control system is given by ( ) ( ) ( )( )

    11 9 1

    G s H ss s s

    = + + Its phase crossover frequency (in rad/s), approximated to two decimal places, is ___________.

    Q.50 Consider a transport lag process with a transfer function () = . The process is controlled by a purely integral controller with transfer function () =

    in a unity feedback configuration. The value of for which the closed loop plant has a pole at = 1, is ___________.

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  • Q.51 Consider the control system shown in figurewith feedforwardaction for rejection of a measurable disturbance ( )d t . The value of K, for whichthe disturbance response at the output () is zero mean, is:

    (A) 1 (B)1 (C) 2 (D) 2

    Q.52 A mixture contains two mutually inert solutions X and Y in equal volumes. The mixture is examined in a spectrophotometer using a cuvette. It is observed that the transmittance is 0.40. With only the solution X in the same cuvette, the transmittance is 0.20. With only solution Y in the cuvette the transmittance is___________.

    Q.53 Monochromatic light from a step index (n1 = 1.500; n2 = 1.485), multimode optical fiber of core diameter 100 m is incident through air (n = 1.000) onto a linear photo-detector array placed at 1 mm distance from the tip of the fiber. The tip of the fiber is polished and its exit plane is perpendicular to the axis of the fiber. The detector array is oriented parallel to the exit plane of the tip. The array consists of photo-detector elements each of 5 m diameter. The distance between the edges of two adjacent elements can be assumed to be zero. The number of elements illuminated by the light coming out of the fiber is___________.

    Q.54 An image of the chest of a patient is taken with an X-ray machine on a photographic film. The Hurter-Driffield (HD) curve of the film is shown in the figure. The highly absorbing parts of the body (e.g. bones), show up as low exposure regions(mapped near A) and the less absorbing parts (e.g. muscles) show up as high exposure regions(mapped near B).

    If the exposure time is increased 10 times, while keeping the voltages and currents in the X-ray machine constant, in the image,

    (A)contrast decreases since B moves into the shoulder region

    (B)contrast decreases since both A and B move into the shoulder region

    (C)contrast increases sinceA moves into the toe region

    (D)contrast decreases since both A and B move into the toe region

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  • Q.55

    For the given low-pass circuit shown in the figure, the cutoff frequency in Hz will be ___________.

    END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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  • GATE 2014 - Answer KeysGeneral Aptitude GAQ. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 D 5 A 9 C2 A 6 A 10 0.48 to 0.493 C 7 C4 25 to 25 8 D

    Instrumentation Engineering - INQ. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 D 20 B 39 5.5 to 5.82 2 to 2 21 -4 to -4 40 8.0 to 8.53 D 22 B 41 A4 1 to 1 23 A 42 B

    50.890 to0.899 24 B 43 A

    6 -30 to 30 25 A 44 A7 32 to 32 26 C 45 C8 A 27 B 46 67 to 699 117 to 120 28 C 47 C10 A 29 1.5 to 1.6 48 C11 C 30 186 to 188 49 0.30 to 0.3412 A 31 2.3 to 2.5 50 0.36 to 0.3813 D 32 20 to 20 51 D

    14 B 33-0.042 to0.038 52

    0.795 to0.805

    15 10 to 10 34 2.48 to 2.52 53 106 to 108

    16 C 350.800 to0.833 54 A

    17 D 36 0.45 to 0.45 55 15 to 1618 A 37 0.6 to 0.619 B 38 40 to 43

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  • Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

    Read the following instructions carefully.

    1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal

    and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either: a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with

    the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not IN,

    then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet. 3. On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the appropriate

    bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.

    4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.

    5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

    6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.

    7. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

    8. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

    9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.

    10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the

    Question Booklet for rough work. 12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided

    below using a black ink ballpoint pen.

    Name

    Registration Number IN

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  • Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.

    Q.1 The dimension of the null space of the matrix 0 1 11 1 01 0 1

    is

    (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

    Q.2 If the A-matrix of the state space model of a SISO linear time invariant system is rank deficient, the transfer function of the system must have

    (A) a pole with a positive real part (B) a pole with a negative real part (C) a pole with a positive imaginary part (D) a pole at the origin

    Q.3 Two systems with impulse responses 1( )h t and 2 ( )h t are connected in cascade. Then the overall impulse response of the cascaded system is given by

    (A) product of 1( )h t and 2 ( )h t (B) sum of 1( )h t and 2 ( )h t (C) convolution of 1( )h t and 2 ( )h t (D) subtraction of 2 ( )h t from 1( )h t

    Q.4 The complex function tanh ( )s is analytic over a region of the imaginary axis of the complex s-plane if the following is TRUE everywhere in the region for all integers n

    (A) ( ) 0Re s = (B) ( )Im s npi (C) ( )

    3nIm s pi (D) (2 1)( )

    2nIm s pi+

    Q.5 For a vector E, which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE? (A) If 0, =E E is called solenoidal. (B) If 0, =E E is called conservative. (C) If 0, =E E is called irrotational. (D) If

    0, =E E is called irrotational.

    Q.6 For a periodic signal )4/500(63001010030)( pi+++= tsintcostsintv , the fundamental frequency in rad/s is (A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500

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  • Q.7 In the transistor circuit as shown below, the value of resistance RE in k is approximately,

    +10 V

    RE

    Vout

    1.5 k

    0.1F

    0.1F

    I C = 2.0 mA

    VCE =5.0 V

    6k

    15k

    (A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5

    Q.8 A source ( ) cos100sv t V tpi=

    has an internal impedance of

    4 + j3 . If a purely resistive load connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in should be

    (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

    Q.9 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable LTI system?

    (A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the j

    axis. (B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane. (C) All the poles must lie within 1s = . (D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the

    j axis.

    Q.10 The operational amplifier shown in the circuit below has a slew rate of .s/Volts8.0 The input signal is .)(sin25.0 t The maximum frequency of input in kHz for which there is no distortion in the output is

    (A) 23.84 (B) 25.0 (C) 50.0 (D) 46.60

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  • Q.11 Assuming zero initial condition, the response )(ty of the system given below to a unit step input )(tu is

    (A) )(tu (B) )(tut (C) )(22

    tut (D) )(tue t

    Q.12 The transfer function )()(

    1

    2

    sVsV

    of the circuit shown below is

    (A) 1

    15.0+

    +

    s

    s (B)

    263

    +

    +

    s

    s

    (C) 12

    +

    +

    s

    s (D)

    21

    +

    +

    s

    s

    Q.13 The type of the partial differential equation 2

    2f ft x

    =

    is

    (A) Parabolic (B) Elliptic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Nonlinear

    Q.14 The discrete-time transfer function 1

    11 2

    1 0.5z

    z

    is

    (A) non-minimum phase and unstable. (B) minimum phase and unstable. (C) minimum phase and stable. (D) non-minimum phase and stable.

    Q.15 Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their applications

    P : Otoscopy U : Respiratory volume measurement Q : Ultrasound Technique V : Ear diagnostics R : Spirometry W : Echo-cardiography S : Thermodilution Technique X : Heart volume measurement

    (A) P-U, Q-V, R-X, S-W (B) P-V, Q-U, R-X, S-W (C) P-V, Q-W, R-U, S-X (D) P-V, Q-W, R-X, S-U

    Q.16 A continuous random variable X has a probability density function ,)( xexf = XP is

    (A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0

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  • Q.17 A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is (A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20

    Q.18 The differential pressure transmitter of a flow meter using a venturi tube reads 2.5 105 Pa for a flow rate of 0.5 m3/s. The approximate flow rate in m3/s for a differential pressure 0.9 105 Pa is (A) 0.30 (B) 0.18 (C) 0.83 (D) 0.60

    Q.19 A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles

    (A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate (C) an XOR gate (D) a NAND gate

    Q.20 The impulse response of a system is )()( tutth = . For an input ,)1( tu the output is

    (A) )(22

    tut (B) )1(2

    )1(

    tutt

    (C) )1(2

    2)1(

    tut

    (D) )1(2

    12

    tut

    Q.21 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown. If all elements of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k> 0, the elements of the corresponding star equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

    RBRCRb

    RaRc

    RA

    (A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k

    Q.22 An accelerometer has input range of 0 to 10g, natural frequency 30 Hz and mass 0.001 kg. The range of the secondary displacement transducer in mm required to cover the input range is

    (A) 0 to 2.76 (B) 0 to 9.81 (C) 0 to 11.20 (D) 0 to 52.10

    Q.23 In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage )( outV in Volts if a silicon transistor Q and an ideal op-amp are used?

    (A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15

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  • Q.24 In the feedback network shown below, if the feedback factor k is increased, then the

    A0

    k

    vin voutv1+

    +

    +

    +

    +

    vf =kvout

    (A) input impedance increases and output impedance decreases (B) input impedance increases and output impedance also increases (C) input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases (D) input impedance decreases and output impedance increases

    Q.25 The Bode plot of a transfer function )(sG is shown in the figure below.

    The gain (20 log ( ) )G s is 32 dB and 8 dB at 1 rad/s and 10 rad/s respectively. The phase is negative for all . Then )(sG is

    (A) s

    8.39 (B)

    2

    8.39

    s

    (C) s

    32 (D)

    2

    32

    s

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  • Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.

    Q.26 While numerically solving the differential equation 22 0,dy xydx + = 1)0( =y using Eulers predictor-corrector (improved Euler-Cauchy) method with a step size of 0.2, the value of y after the first step is

    (A) 1.00 (B) 1.03 (C) 0.97 (D) 0.96

    Q.27 One pair of eigenvectors corresponding to the two eigenvalues of the matrix

    0110

    is

    (A)

    1,

    1 jj (B)

    01

    ,

    10

    (C)

    10

    ,

    1j (D)

    1,

    1 jj

    Q.28 The digital circuit shown below uses two negative edge-triggered D-flip-flops. Assuming initial condition of Q1 and Q0 as zero, the output Q1Q0 of this circuit is

    D1Q1 D0 Q0

    Q0Q1

    clock

    D-Flip-flop D-Flip-flop

    (A) 00,01,10,11,00 (B) 00,01,11,10,00 (C) 00,11,10,01,00 (D) 00,01,11,11,00

    Q.29 Considering the transformer to be ideal, the transmission parameter A of the 2-port network shown in the figure below is

    1:2

    5555 5555

    22222222 2

    2222

    V2

    I2

    1

    1111

    V1

    I1

    (A) 1.3 (B) 1.4 (C) 0.5 (D) 2.0

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  • Q.30 The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an attenuator, which attenuates by a factor of 0.8. An ac voltage 1WXV = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit voltage

    1YZV across YZ. Next, an ac voltage 2YZV = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open circuit voltage 2WXV across WX. Then, 1 1/YZ WXV V , 2 2/WX YZV V are respectively,

    W

    X

    Y

    Z

    1:1.25

    (A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100 (C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100

    Q.31 The open-loop transfer function of a dc motor is given as ssV

    s

    a 10110

    )()(

    +=

    . When connected in

    feedback as shown below, the approximate value of aK that will reduce the time constant of the closed loop system by one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop system is

    (A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100

    Q.32 Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating frequency. Their respective resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in series, the effective Q factor of the series combination at the same operating frequency is (A) 1 2q q+ (B) 1 2(1/ ) (1/ )q q+ (C) 1 1 2 2 1 2( ) / ( )q R q R R R+ + (D) 1 2 2 1 1 2( ) / ( )q R q R R R+ +

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  • Q.33 For the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V across ,LR the minimum value of the load resistor LR in and the minimum power rating of the Zener diode in mW, respectively, are

    100

    ILoad

    VZ=5V

    10V

    RL

    (A) 125 and 125 (B) 125 and 250 (C) 250 and 125 (D) 250 and 250

    Q.34 The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by ( ) ( 1) ( 3)h t t t = + . The value of the step response at t = 2 is

    (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

    Q.35 Signals from fifteen thermocouples are multiplexed and each one is sampled once per second with a 16-bit ADC. The digital samples are converted by a parallel to serial converter to generate a serial PCM signal. This PCM signal is frequency modulated with FSK modulator with 1200 Hz as 1 and 960 Hz as 0. The minimum band allocation required for faithful reproduction of the signal by the FSK receiver without considering noise is

    (A) 840 Hz to 1320 Hz (B) 960 Hz to 1200 Hz (C) 1080 Hz to 1320 Hz (D) 720 Hz to 1440 Hz

    Q.36 Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 whose values are 10F, 5F, and 2F respectively, have breakdown voltages of 10V, 5V, and 2V respectively. For the interconnection shown below, the maximum safe voltage in Volts that can be applied across the combination, and the corresponding total charge in C stored in the effective capacitance across the terminals are, respectively,

    C3

    C1

    C2

    (A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119 (C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80

    Q.37 The maximum value of the solution )(ty of the differential equation 0)()( =+ tyty with initial conditions 1)0( =y and ,1)0( =y for 0t is

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) (D) 2

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  • Q.38 The Laplace Transform representation of the triangular pulse shown below is

    (A) ]1[1 22 ses+ (B) ]1[1 22 ss ees

    +

    (C) 221 [1 2 ]s se es

    + (D) ]21[1 22 ss ees +

    Q.39 In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage VS = 10053.13 Volts, then the Thevenins equivalent voltage in Volts as seen by the load resistance RL is

    VS

    j4 j6 55553333

    RL=10 10VL1j40I2

    I2I1

    VL1

    (A) 10090 (B) 8000 (C) 80090 (D) 10060

    Q.40 A signal ttttVi pipipi 100000sin104000sin10100sin1010)( +++= is supplied to a filter circuit (shown below) made up of ideal op-amps. The least attenuated frequency component in the output will be

    F0.10.10.10.1

    Vi(t)

    750750750750 F0.10.10.10.1

    V0(t)

    1111FF0.10.10.10.1

    1k

    2k

    (A) 0 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 2 kHz (D) 50 kHz

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  • Q.41 The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The transfer function )()(

    sUsY

    for this system is

    given as

    (A) 265

    12 ++

    +

    ss

    s (B)

    261

    2 ++

    +

    ss

    s

    (C) 24

    12 ++

    +

    ss

    s (D)

    2651

    2 ++ ss

    Q.42 A voltage Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured across WX in Volts, is

    1k

    _+ 1k

    W XZY

    (A) (B) 2/)sin(sin tt + (C) 2/)sin(sin tt (D) 0 for all t

    Q.43 In the circuit shown below the op-amps are ideal. Then outV in Volts is

    +15V

    15V

    +

    +15V

    15V

    +

    1k 1k

    1k1k

    1k

    +1V

    2V

    Vout

    (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

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  • Q.44 In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is +5 V, X and Y are digital signals with 0 V as logic 0 and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is

    (A) X Y (B) (C) X Y (D) XY

    Q.45 The circuit below incorporates a permanent magnet moving coil milli-ammeter of range 1 mA having a series resistance of 10 k. Assuming constant diode forward resistance of 50 , a forward diode drop of 0.7 V and infinite reverse diode resistance for each diode, the reading of the meter in mA is

    mA

    _

    +

    5V, 50Hz

    10k

    10k

    Vo

    (A) 0.45 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.9

    Q.46 Measurement of optical absorption of a solution is disturbed by the additional stray light falling at the photo-detector. For estimation of the error caused by stray light the following data could be obtained from controlled experiments. Photo-detector output without solution and without stray light is 500 W. Photo-detector output without solution and with stray light is 600 W. Photo-detector output with solution and with stray light is 200 W. The percent error in computing absorption coefficient due to stray light is

    (A) 12.50 (B) 31.66 (C) 33.33 (D) 94.98

    Q.47 Two ammeters 1A and 2A measure the same current and provide readings 1I and 2I , respectively. The ammeter errors can be characterized as independent zero mean Gaussian random variables of standard deviations 1 and 2 , respectively. The value of the current is computed as :

    1 2(1 )I I I = + The value of which gives the lowest standard deviation of I is

    (A) 22

    2 21 2

    + (B)

    21

    2 21 2

    +

    (C) 21 2

    + (D) 1

    1 2

    +

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  • Common Data Questions Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

    A tungsten wire used in a constant current hot wire anemometer has the following parameters :

    Resistance at 0 C is 10, Surface area is 4 210 m , Linear temperature coefficient of resistance of the tungsten wire is 34.8 10 /C, Convective heat transfer coefficient is 225.2 /W m /C, flowing air temperature is 30C, wire current is 100 mA, mass-specific heat product is 52.5 10 J /C

    Q.48 The thermal time constant of the hot wire under flowing air condition in ms is (A) 24.5 (B) 12.25 (C) 6.125 (D) 3.0625

    Q.49 At steady state, the resistance of the wire in is (A) 10.000 (B) 10.144 (C) 12.152 (D) 14.128

    Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

    A piezo-electric force sensor, connected by a cable to a voltage amplifier, has the following parameters :

    Crystal properties : Stiffness 910 N/m, Damping ratio 0.01, Natural frequency 510 rad/s, Force-to-Charge sensitivity 910 C/N, Capacitance 910 F with its loss angle assumed negligible

    Cable properties : Capacitance 2 910 F with its resistance assumed negligible Amplifier properties : Input impedance 1 M, Bandwidth 1MHz , Gain 3

    Q.50 The maximum frequency of a force signal in Hz below the natural frequency within its useful mid-band range of measurement, for which the gain amplitude is less than 1.05, approximately is,

    (A) 35 (B) 350 (C) 3500 (D) 16 103

    Q.51 The minimum frequency of a force signal in Hz within its useful mid-band range of measurement, for which the gain amplitude is more than 0.95, approximately is,

    (A) 16 (B) 160 (C) 1600 (D) 16 103

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  • Linked Answer Questions

    Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: Consider a plant with the transfer function ( ) ( )31 1G s s= + . Let uK and uT be the ultimate gain and ultimate period corresponding to the frequency response based closed loop Ziegler-Nichols cycling method, respectively. The Ziegler-Nichols tuning rule for a P-controller is given as : 0.5 uK K= .

    Q.52 The values of uK

    and uT , respectively, are

    (A) 2 2 and 2pi (B) 8 and 2pi (C) 8 and 2 3pi (D) 2 2 and 2 3pi

    Q.53 The gain of the transfer function between the plant output and an additive load disturbance input of frequency 2 uTpi in closed loop with a P-controller designed according to the Ziegler-Nichols tuning rule as given above is

    (A) 1.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

    Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

    A differential amplifier with signal terminals X,Y,Z is connected as shown in Fig. (a) below for CMRR measurement where the differential amplifier has an additional constant offset voltage in the output. The observations obtained are: when 02 , 3iV V V mV= = , and when 03 , 4 .iV V V mV= =

    Fig. (a) Fig. (b) Q.54 Assuming its differential gain to be 10 and the op-amp to be otherwise ideal, the CMRR is

    (A) 210 (B) 310 (C) 410 (D) 510

    Q.55 The differential amplifier is connected as shown in Fig. (b) above to a single strain gage bridge. Let the strain gage resistance vary around its no-load resistance R by 1%. Assume the input impedance of the amplifier to be high compared to the equivalent source resistance of the bridge, and the common mode characteristic to be as obtained above. The output voltage in mV varies approximately from

    (A) +128 to 128 (B) +128 to 122 (C) +122 to 122 (D) +99 to 101

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  • General Aptitude (GA) Questions Q.56 to Q.60 carry one mark each. Q.56 Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.

    Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?

    (A) Because I have a nice caller tune. (B) Because I have a better telephone facility. (C) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed. (D) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.

    Q.57 Complete the sentence: Dare _______________ mistakes.

    (A) commit (B) to commit (C) committed (D) committing

    Q.58 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence: (A) Two and two add four. (B) Two and two become four. (C) Two and two are four. (D) Two and two make four.

    Q.59 They were requested not to quarrel with others. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?

    (A) make out (B) call out (C) dig out (D) fall out

    Q.60 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of Monday, then the temperature in C on Thursday was

    (A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49 Q.61 to Q.65 carry two marks each. Q.61 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10+84+ 734 + .....

    (A) ( ) 110

    199+

    +n

    (B) ( ) 18

    199+

    n

    (C) ( ) nn +8

    199

    (D) ( ) 28

    199n

    n

    +

    Q.62 The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2+2x+p(p1) = 0 are of opposite sign is (A) (, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ) (D) (0, )

    Q.63 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is (A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24

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  • Q.64 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays? (A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7

    Q.65 Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on. Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?

    (A) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence. (B) Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism. (C) Nationalism in India is homogeneous. (D) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.

    END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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  • GATE 2013 - Answer KeysInstrumentation Engineering - INQ. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 B 23 B 45 A2 D 24 A 46 B3 C 25 B 47 A4 D 26 D 48 B5 D 27 Marks to All 49 D6 A 28 B 50 C7 A 29 A 51 B8 C 30 B 52 C9 C 31 C 53 D10 A 32 C 54 C11 B 33 B 55 B12 D 34 B 56 C13 A 35 D 57 A14 D 36 C 58 D15 C 37 D 59 D16 A 38 D 60 C17 A 39 C 61 D18 A 40 C 62 B19 C 41 A 63 C20 C 42 D 64 A21 B 43 C 65 D22 A 44 B

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  • Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

    Read the following instructions carefully.

    1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.

    2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.

    3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.

    4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.

    5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

    6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.

    7. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

    8. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

    9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.

    10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

    11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work.

    12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen.

    Name

    Registration Number IN

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  • Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 If 1x , then the value of xx is

    (A) 2/e (B) 2/e (C) x (D) 1

    Q.2 With initial condition 5.0)1( x , the solution of the differential equation, tx

    dtdx

    t is

    (A) 21 tx (B)

    212 tx (C)

    2

    2tx (D) 2

    tx

    Q.3 Two independent random variables X and Y are uniformly distributed in the interval [1, 1]. The probability that max[X, Y] is less than 21 is

    (A) 43 (B) 169 (C) 41 (D) 32

    Q.4 The unilateral Laplace transform of f (t) is 1

    12 ss . The unilateral Laplace transform of )(tft is

    (A) 22 )1( sss

    (B) 22 )1(12ss

    s

    (C) 22 )1( sss

    (D) 22 )1(12ss

    s

    Q.5 Given

    32

    11)( zzzf . If C is a counterclockwise path in the z-plane such that 11 z , the value of

    C dzzfj )(2 1 is (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 2

    Q.6 The average power delivered to an impedance )34( j by a current )100100(cos5 t A is (A) 44.2 W (B) 50 W (C) 62.5 W (D) 125 W

    Q.7 In the circuit shown below, the current through the inductor is

    1

    1

    j1

    - j1

    A

    A

    V

    + -- +

    V1 0

    1 0

    1 0

    1 0

    (A) A1

    2j (B) A1

    1j

    (C) A

    11

    j (D) 0 A

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  • Q.8 In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors. C1 has been charged to 12 V before the ideal switch S is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is

    C1

    t = 0

    C2i(t)

    S

    (A) zero

    (B) a step function (C) an exponentially decaying function (D) an impulse function

    Q.9 The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is ib

    99ib

    9k

    100

    1k

    1

    2

    (A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 5 k (D) 10.1 k

    Q.10 The i-v characteristics of the diode in the circuit given below are

    V7.0,A0

    V7.0,A500

    7.0

    v

    vv

    i

    The current in the circuit is

    +

    1k

    10V-

    i

    +

    -

    v

    (A) 10 mA (B) 9.3 mA (C) 6.67 mA (D) 6.2 mA

    Q.11 A system with transfer function

    )4()3()1()2()9()(

    2

    sss

    sssG

    is excited by )(sin t . The steady-state output of the system is zero at (A) rad/s1 (B) rad/s2 (C) rad/s3 (D) rad/s4

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  • Q.12 The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2-bit input A is greater than the 2-bit input B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1, is

    (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

    Q.13 In the sum of products function )5,4,3,2(),,( ZYXf , the prime implicants are (A) YXYX , (B) ZYXZYXYX ,, (C) YXZYXZYX ,, (D) ZYXZYXZYXZYX ,,,

    Q.14 Consider the given circuit. A

    B

    CLK

    In this circuit, the race around

    (A) does not occur (B) occurs when CLK = 0 (C) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 1 (D) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 0

    Q.15 If ][)2/1()3/1(][ nunx nn , then the region of convergence (ROC) of its Z-transform in the Z-plane will be

    (A) 331 z (B) 2131 z (C) 321 z (D) z31

    Q.16 A capacitive motion transducer circuit is shown. The gap d between the parallel plates of the capacitor is varied as m)]1000(sin1.01[10)( 3 ttd . If the value of the capacitance is 2pF at

    ms0t , the output voltage OV at ms2t is 1M

    5 Volts DCd

    VOCapacitivetransducer

    (A) mV2

    (B) mV (C) 2 mV (D) 4 mV

    Q.17 A psychrometric chart is used to determine (A) pH (B) Sound velocity in glasses (C) 2CO concentration (D) Relative humidity

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  • Q.18 A strain gauge is attached on a cantilever beam as shown. If the base of the cantilever vibrates according to the equation tttx 21 sinsin)( , where rad/s3,rad/s2 21 , then the output of the strain gauge is proportional to

    x

    y

    Mass=0.001Kg

    Cantilever beam: Stiffness=8N/m

    Damping=0.1Ns/m

    Strain gauge

    Base

    (A) x (B) dtdx

    (C) 22

    dtxd

    (D) dt

    yxd )(

    Q.19 The transfer function of a Zero-Order-Hold system with sampling interval T is

    (A) )1(1 sTes

    (B) 2)1(1 sTes

    (C) sTes

    1 (D) sTe

    s

    2

    1

    Q.20 An LED emitting at 1 m with a spectral width of 50 nm is used in a Michelson interferometer. To obtain a sustained interference, the maximum optical path difference between the two arms of the interferometer is

    (A) 200 m (B) 20 m (C) 1 m (D) 50 nm

    Q.21 Light of wavelength 630 nm in vacuum, falling normally on a biological specimen of thickness 10 m, splits into two beams that are polarized at right angles. The refractive index of the tissue for the two polarizations are 1.32 and 1.333. When the two beams emerge, they are out of phase by

    (A) 0.13 (B) 74.3 (C) 90.0 (D) 128.6

    Q.22 The responsivity of the PIN photodiode shown is 0.9 A/W. To obtain outV of 1 V for an incident optical power of 1 mW, the value of R to be used is

    R

    Vout

    +5V

    -5V

    (A) 0.9 (B) 1.1 (C) 0.9 k (D) 1.1 k

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  • Q.23 A periodic voltage waveform observed on an oscilloscope across a load is shown. A permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) meter connected across the same load reads

    (A) 4 V (B) 5 V (C) 8 V (D) 10 V

    Q.24 For the circuit shown in the figure, the voltage and current expressions are )3(sin)(sin)( 31 tEtEtv and )5(sin)3(sin)(sin)( 53311 tItItIti . The average power measured by the Wattmeter is

    +

    i(t)

    Load

    Wattmeter

    v(t)

    (A) 111 cos21 IE (B) ]coscos[

    21

    51331111 IEIEIE

    (C) ]coscos[21

    333111 IEIE (D) ]coscos[21

    113111 IEIE

    Q.25 The bridge method commonly used for finding mutual inductance is (A) Heaviside Campbell bridge (B) Schering bridge (C) De Sauty bridge (D) Wien bridge

    Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for the first time. The probability that the number of

    required tosses is odd, is

    (A) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 3/4

    Q.27 Given that

    0235

    A and ,1001

    I the value of 3A is

    (A) 15 A + 12 I (B) 19 A + 30 I (C) 17 A + 15 I (D) 17 A + 21 I

    Q.28 The direction of vector A is radially outward from the origin, with nrkA where 2222 zyxr and k is a constant. The value of n for which 0A is

    (A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0

    10V

    5V

    v(t)

    0 10 12 20

    -5V time (ms)

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  • Q.29 The maximum value of 5249)( 23 xxxxf in the interval [1, 6] is (A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 41 (D) 46

    Q.30 Consider the differential equation

    )()()(2)(22

    ttydt

    tdydt

    tyd with 2)( 0 tty and 00

    tdt

    dy.

    The numerical value of 0tdt

    dy is

    (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 1

    Q.31 If V,6VV BA then DC VV is

    10 V

    2

    R1

    VA VB

    VC VD2 A5 V+ -

    R

    R

    R R

    R

    R

    +

    -

    R

    (A) 5 V (B) 2 V (C) 3 V (D) 6 V

    Q.32 Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

    2 R

    Circuit A

    +

    -

    Circuit B

    +

    -

    10 V 3 V- j1

    (A) 0.8 (B) 1.4 (C) 2 (D) 2.8

    Q.33 The voltage gain vA of the circuit shown below is

    vo

    13.7 Volts

    12k

    b=100

    100k

    10kvi

    CC

    (A) 200vA (B) 100vA (C) 20vA (D) 10vA

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  • Q.34 The state variable description of an LTI system is given by

    u

    x

    x

    x

    a

    a

    a

    x

    x

    x

    100

    0000

    00

    3

    2

    1

    3

    2

    1

    3

    2

    1

    3

    2

    1

    001x

    x

    x

    y

    where y is the output and u is the input. The system is controllable for

    (A) 01 a , 02 a , 03 a (B) 01 a , 02 a , 03 a (C)

    01 a , 02 a , 03 a (D) 01 a , 02 a , 03 a

    Q.35 The state transition diagram for the logic circuit shown is

    D Q

    CLKSelect

    2-1 MUX

    X1

    X0Y

    A

    Q

    (A)

    A=1

    A=0

    A=0

    A=1

    Q=1Q=0

    (B)

    A=0

    A=1

    A=0

    A=1

    Q=1Q=0

    (C)

    A=0

    A=1

    A=1

    A=0

    Q=1Q=0

    (D)

    A=1

    A=0

    A=1

    A=0

    Q=1Q=0

    Q.36 The Fourier transform of a signal h(t) is /)2(sin)cos2()( jH . The value of h(0) is (A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

    Q.37 Let y[n] denote the convolution of h[n] and g[n], where ][)2/1(][ nunh n and g[n] is a causal sequence. If y[0] = 1 and y[1] = 1/2, then g[1] equals (A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 3/2

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  • Q.38 The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2 rad/s when

    R(s) Y(s)+-

    12)1(

    23

    sass

    sK

    (A) K = 2 and a = 0.75 (B) K = 3 and a = 0.75 (C) K = 4 and a = 0.5 (D) K = 2 and a = 0.5

    Q.39 The circuit shown is a

    -

    +

    + +

    --

    +5V

    -5V

    Input Output

    C R1

    R2

    (A) low pass filter with f3dB = CRR )(1

    21 rad/s

    (B) high pass filter with f3dB = CR11

    rad/s

    (C) low pass filter with f3dB = CR11

    rad/s

    (D) high pass filter with f3dB = CRR )(1

    21 rad/s

    Q.40 The input x(t) and output y(t) of a system are related as

    t

    dxty )3(cos)()( . The system is

    (A) time-invariant and stable (B) stable and not time-invariant (C) time-invariant and not stable (D) not time-invariant and not stable

    Q.41 A double convex lens is used to couple a laser beam of diameter 5 mm into an optical fiber with a numerical aperture of 0.5. The minimum focal length of the lens that should be used in order to focus the entire beam into the fiber is

    (A) 1.44 mm (B) 2.50 mm (C) 4.33 mm (D) 5.00 mm

    Q.42 An analog voltmeter uses external multiplier settings. With a multiplier setting of 20 kit reads 440 V and with a multiplier setting of 80 kit reads 352 V. For a multiplier setting of 40 k the voltmeter reads

    (A) 371 V (B) 383 V (C) 394 V (D) 406 V

    Q.43 The open loop transfer function of a unity negative feedback control system is given by

    )25()9(150)( ssssG . The gain margin of the system is

    (A) 10.8 dB (B) 22.3 dB (C) 34.1 dB (D) 45.6 dB

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  • Q.44 A dynamometer arm makes contact with the piezoelectric load cell as shown. The g-constant of the piezoelectric material is Vm/N1050 3 and the surface area of the load cell is 4 cm2. If a torque

    Nm20 is applied to the dynamometer, the output voltage OV of the load cell is

    Torque

    0.5 m

    Load celld= 1mm

    Area A=4cm2

    VO

    Dynamometer

    (A) 4 V (B) 5 V (C) 10 V (D) 16 V

    Q.45 Water (density: 1000 kgm3) stored in a cylindrical drum of diameter 1 m is emptied through a horizontal pipe of diameter 0.05 m. A pitot-static tube is placed inside the pipe facing the flow. At the time when the difference between the stagnation and static pressures measured by the pitot-static tube is 10 kPa, the rate of reduction in water level in the drum is,

    (A) 1ms5200

    1 (B) 1ms

    10751

    (C) 1ms1050

    1 (D) 1ms

    5401

    Q.46 A U-tube manometer of tube diameter D is filled with a liquid of zero viscosity. If the volume of the liquid filled is V, the natural frequency of oscillations in the liquid level about its mean position, due to small perturbations, is

    (A) VgD

    22 (B) 222

    DgV

    (C) 3/121

    VgD

    (D) Dg

    1

    Q.47 The open loop transfer function of a unity gain negative feedback control system is given by

    )8()2(84)(

    2

    sss

    sssG . The angle , at which the root locus approaches the zeros of the system,

    satisfies

    (A)

    41

    tan 1 (B)

    31

    tan4

    3 1

    (C)

    41

    tan2

    1 (D)

    31

    tan4

    1

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  • Common Data Questions Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

    With 10 V dc connected at port A in the linear nonreciprocal two-port network shown below, the following were observed:

    (i) 1 connected at port B draws a current of 3 A (ii) 2.5 connected at port B draws a current of 2 A

    +

    -

    A B

    Q.48 With 10 V dc connected at port A, the current drawn by 7 connected at port B is (A) 3/7 A (B) 5/7 A (C) 1 A (D) 9/7 A

    Q.49 For the same network, with 6 V dc connected at port A, 1 connected at port B draws 7/3 A. If 8 V dc is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage at port B is

    (A) 6 V (B) 7 V (C) 8 V (D) 9 V

    Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

    The deflection profile )(xy of a cantilever beam due to application of a point force F (in Newton), as a

    function of distance x from its base, is given by m3

    1001.0)( 2

    xxFxy . The angular deformation at the end of the cantilever is measured by reflecting a laser beam off a mirror M as shown in the figure.

    M

    F1 m

    Laser Photodetector90

    3 m

    x

    y(x)Cantilever

    beam

    S

    Q.50 The translation S of the spot of laser light on the photodetector when a force of N1F is applied to the cantilever is (A) 1 mm (B) 3 mm (C) 6 mm (D) 12 mm

    Q.51 If linear variable differential transformers (LVDTs) are mounted at m21x and m

    41x on the

    cantilever to measure the effect of time varying forces, the ratio of their outputs is

    (A) 12/7 (B) 40/11 (C) 176/23 (D) 112/15

    GATE 2012

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

    Instrumentation Engineering - IN

  • Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

    The transfer function of a compensator is given as

    bsas

    sGc )( .

    Q.52 )(sGc is a lead compensator if (A) a =1, b = 2 (B) a = 3, b = 2 (C) a = 3, b = 1 (D) a = 3, b = 1

    Q.53 The phase of the above lead compensator is maximum at (A) 2 rad/s (B) 3 rad/s (C) 6 rad/s (D) 3/1 rad/s

    Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

    In the circuit shown, the three voltmeter readings are V2201 V , V1222 V , V1363 V .

    V3V1

    V2

    Loa

    dR

    RL

    X

    I

    Q.54 The power factor of the load is (A) 0.45 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.55 (D) 0.60

    Q.55 If 5LR , the approximate power consumption in the load is (A) 700 W (B) 750 W (C) 800 W (D) 850 W

    GATE 2012

    GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

    Instrumentation Engineering - IN

  • General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory) Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each.

    Q.56 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence:

    If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.

    (A) should take (B) shall take (C) should have taken (D) will have taken

    Q.57 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 = (A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64

    Q.58 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT?

    I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.

    (A) requested that (B) should be given (C) the driving test (D) instead of tomorrow

    Q.59 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

    Latit