fl test 1 self study

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Solutions-Full Length Sample Test 1

Number of questions: 100 Maximum Marks: 200 Time: 2 hours

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1. With reference to ecosystem stability, consider the following statements:

1. A diverse and complex ecosystem is more stable.

2. Ecosystem stability increases with decrease in number of links in food web.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanation

a) 1 only. Diversity increases the resilience of the system to outside invasions of

exotic organisms. So statement 1 is correct. A large number of interacting feeding

links provide alternative channels for energy flow and this generates a wide variety of

adjustments of population to environment changes and stresses within the ecosystem.

Therefore, ecosystem stability increases with INCREASE in number of links in food

web.

2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a central figure of the social and cultural awakening in

the first half of the 19th century. Which of these is/are correct about him?1. he was opposed to worship of idols.

2. he was against monotheism.

3. he opposed the prevalence of meaningless rituals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only


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b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


b) 1 and 3 only. RRMR stood for the defence of monotheism. Roys monotheisticideas were formed as early as 1804, when he published his Persian tract Tuhfat ul

muhwahhiddin (A Gift to Monotheists). Roys study of the Upanishads had convinced

him that Hinduism taught the existence of a single God, or Absolute Reality and that

the development of the many deities, and of venerating their images, was a corruption

of originally monotheistic Hinduism.

3. Swine flu can be transmitted by

1. shaking hands with an infected person.

2. inhaling droplets of virus from sneeze of an infected person.

3. eating pork products.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only


b) 2 only. Swine flu is transmitted from person to person by inhalation or ingestion of

droplets containing virus from people sneezing or coughing; it is not transmitted byeating cooked pork products or shaking hands with an infected person.

4. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by

a) Government via a resolution

b) President

c) Parliament

d) (b) or( c) depending on the type of extension.


c) Parliament. The additional functions relating to the services of the Union can be

conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any

authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC.

Hence the jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made by the Parliament

5. Receipts in budget can be capital or revenue. Which of these is/are capital receipts?


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1. Loan recoveries

2. Provident funds deposits

3. Grants


a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


a) 1 and 2 only. Loan recoveries are the money, which the government had lent out in

past, their capital comes back to the government when the borrowers repay them as

capital receipts. long-term capital accruals to the government through the Provident

Fund (PF), Postal Deposits, various small saving schemes (SSSs) and the government

bonds sold to the public (as Indira Vikas Patra, Kisan Vikas Patra, MarketStabilization Bond, etc.) are also capital receipts. Grants are revenue receipts.

6. The seismic weaves helps in understanding the interior of earth. Which of the

following about seismic waves is/are correct ?

1. P waves travel with fastest speed and are most destructive.

2. S waves cannot pass through liquid.

3. The surface waves (L) are analogous to light waves.


a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only


b) 2 only. Though P waves travel with fastest speed, they are not most destructive. L

waves are most violent and destructive. Its the S waves that are analogous to light

waves because S waves are transverse in the nature and the particle moves at right

angles to the direction of propagation.

7. The brown haze dome formed in cities is because of which gas?

a) sulphur dioxide.

b) nitrogen oxide.

c) carbon dioxide.

d) volatile organic compounds (VOCs).


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b) nitrogen oxide. Nitrogen oxides (NOX), especially nitrogen dioxide, are emitted

from high temperature combustion and can be seen as the brown haze dome above or

plume downwind of cities. ( refer this link for more information

http://www.rbcaa.org.za/about_air_pollution.html )

8. Which of the following is/are part of the biosphere?

1. water

2. soil

3. plants


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. Many people mistakenly believe that biosphere only comprises of the

living components. But this is not true. Biosphere, relatively thin life-supporting

stratum of Earths surface, extending from a few kilometres into the atmosphere to the

deep-sea vents of the ocean. The biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living

organisms (biotic) and the abiotic (nonliving) factors.

9. The British government sent the Cripps Mission in 1942 to:

a) provide for Indias independence.b) secure cooperation of Indians in second world war.

c) help Indians frame a constitution.

d) none of the above


b) secure cooperation of Indians in second world war. The Cripps mission was an

attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure full Indian

cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. Cripps Mission promised to

give dominion status as well as elections to be held after the war.

10. With reference to Kalaripayattu, a martial art, consider the following statements:

1. It is practicised only by men.

2. It emphasises on the ability to strike at vital points.


a) 1 only


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b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. It is practiced by both men and women. Kalaripayattu, the martial art formof Kerala is regarded as the oldest and most scientific of its kind in the world. Feats

like chaattom (jumping), ottam (running), marichil (somersault), use of weapons such

as daggers, swords, spears, maces, and ability to strike at vital points are taught.

11. Lifestyle diseases are associated with the way a person or group of people lives.

Which of the following is/are example/s of such diseases?

1. Cirrhosis

2. Malaria

3. Swimmers ear4. TB


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 4 only


b) 1 and 3 only. Malaria and TB are not lifestyle disease. Swimmers ear is

inflammation, irritation, or infection of the outer ear and ear canal. Buzzing or ringing

ears, or difficulty in understanding speech patterns are its symptoms. Swimmers ears

results due to loud music and constant use of headphones. Cirrhosis refers to a group

of liver disorders. Heavy alcohol consumption can cause it.

12. Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single

layer of cloth with double the thickness. This is because

a) air gets encapsulated between the two layers.

b) effective thickness of two layers is more

c) air is a bad conductor of heatd) both (a) and (c)


d) both (a) and (c). Two layers of cloth of equal thickness enclose between them a

layer of air which is a bad conductor of heat and it prevents the heat of the body from


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going out. On the other hand a single layer of double thickness is not able to provide

sufficient insulation.

13. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), consider the following statements :

1. As the FC is a constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the

government.

2. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


d) Neither 1 nor 2. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are onlyof advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union

government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

Chairman of FC is eligible for re-appointment.

14. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts?

1. Special officer for linguistic minorities

2. Advocate general

3. Solicitor general


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


a) 1 and 2 only. Special officer for linguistic minorities is provided for in article 350-

B. Advocate general of a state is provided under article 165. Solicitor general is not a

constitutional post. Article 76 provides only for attorney general and not solicitor

general.

15. If a government is unable to pass the budget in Lok Sabha, then:

a) a totally new budget is presented.

b) the budget is revised and presented again.

c) the government has to resign.



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c) the government has to resign. This is an important point to be noted. Although,

UPSC has asked a question on this in 2011, it may still resurface as a part/statement in

a question.

16. With reference to contribution from taxes, consider the following statements:1. Contribution from direct taxes is more than that from indirect taxes.

2. Corporation tax is the largest contributor.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


c) Both 1 and 2. Since 2007-08, the contribution of direct tax has been more than

indirect tax. Before this, the trend was opposite. Corporation tax is the largest

contributor among the taxes.

17. Consider the following statements :

1. A positive Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) indicates a good Indian monsoon.

2. A negative SOI is often seen in the El-Nino years.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


c) Both 1 and 2. The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is an index that is based on the

difference in air pressure between Darwin and Tahiti. The SOI is closely related to the

El Nino/La Nina climate phenomenon. A consistently negative SOI often indicates the

presence of an El Nino. A consistently positive SOI often indicates the presence of a

La Nina. This also indicates a good Indian monsoon.

18. Igneous rocks are also caused primary rock because

a) They are formed due to cooling and solidification of magna

b) They were the first rock to originate during formation of earth s crust

c) All other rocks are subsequently formed from igneous rock

d) Both (b) and (c)


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d) Both (b) and (c). Although its true that igneous rocks are formed due to cooling

and solidification of magna, this however does not lead to it being called primary

rocks. Igneous rocks were the first rock to originate during formation of earth `s crust.

All other rocks are subsequently formed from igneous rock.

19. When acid rain falls on buildings made of marble, what is the final product that

flakes off easily?

a) calcium carbonate

b) gypsum

c) dolomite

d) epsom


b) gypsum. The sulfuric acid ( in acid rain) reacts with limestone( or marble ) in a

neutralization reaction. . Limestone and marble buildings sometimes show blackened

crusts that have peeled off to reveal crumbling stone beneath it.This black crust is

called gypsum. Gypsum is a mineral that forms from the reaction between calcite,

water and sulfuric acid. Gypsum is soluable in water. It is usually washed away with

time. Limestone: CaCO3 + H2SO4> CaSO4 (gypsum) + H2CO3

20. The development of vegetation community in any ecosystem is affected by:

1. sunlight

2. soil texture

3. relief4. human


a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1 ,3 and 4 only

c) 2 ,3 and 4 only

d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4


d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4. Straight forward question. Sunlight helps in photosynthesis, soil

provides minerals, water etc; relief helps in development of soil. Human activities can

alter or fully destroy a vegetation community.

21. The British had introduced the permanent settlement in many areas. Which of

these was a feature of permanent settlement?

1. fixed land revenue


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2. non-transferable ownership of lands

3. cultivators reduced to the status of tenants


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 onlyc) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


b) 1 and 3 only. Under permanent settlement, zamindars and revenue collectors were

converted into landlords. Their right of ownership was made hereditary and

transferable. On the other hand the cultivators were reduced to the low status of mere

tenants and were deprived of long-standing rights to the soil and other customary

rights. The zamindars were to give 10/11th of the rental they derived from the

peasantry to the state, keeping only 1/11th for them. But the sums to be paid by themas land revenue were fixed in perpetuity.

22. Which of these empowered the Constituent Assembly of India to frame and adopt

any constitution of its choice?

a) Cripps Mission

b) Dickie Bird Plan

c) Indian Independence Act, 1947

d) Cabinet Mission Plan


c) Indian Independence Act, 1947. It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of India

and Pakistan to frame and adopt any constitution for their respective nations and to

repeal any act of the British Parliament, including the Independence act itself. Dickie

Bird Plan was mooted by Mountbatten in which he proposed that Indian provinces

would first become independent and then decide to whether they will join India or

Pakistan. It was rejected as it would lead to balkanization of India.

23. Formation of colors in a soap bubble is due to:

1. diffraction of light

2. interference of light

3. dispersion of light


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only


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c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only


b) 2 only. The beautiful spectrum of colors reflected from soap bubble are produced

by the interference of light waves. This phenomenon is often called iridescence and isobserved in transparent films. Diffraction and dispersion of light has no role to play

here.

24. The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because

1. tungsten has high light emitting power.

2. tungsten has high melting point.

3. tungsten is cheap compared to other similar elements.



c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only


b) 2 only. The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because it has

high melting point. The other two points about light emitting power and cheapness is

incorrect.

25. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the

following statements :

1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.

2. The chairman can be reappointed.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


a) 1 only. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC. After

their tenure, the chairman and members of NHRC are not eligible for further

employment under the Central or a state government


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26. Consider the following statements:

1. The supreme court hears only those who petition or appeal in English.

2. The constitution has specified the official language of different states.


a) 1 onlyb) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


a) 1 only. The Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English. In

1971, a petitioner insisted on arguing in Hindi a habeas corpus petition in the Supreme

Court. But, the Court cancelled his petition on the ground that the language of the

Court was English and allowing Hindi would be unconstitutional. The constitution has

not specified the official language of different state and its left for the states to do so.

27. The Economic Survey is complied by:

a) Office of economic advisor.

b) Central Statistical office ( CSO )

c) National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO)

d) Department of economic affairs.


d) Department of economic affairs. The Economic Survey is complied by Department

of economic affairs, Ministry of Finance. Office of economic advisor publishes WPI,while CSO publishes IIP and CPI.

28. Gross capital formation will increase if:

1. gross domestic savings increases

2. gross domestic consumption increases

3. GDP increases


a) 1 only


d) None


d) None. Gross capital formation, in simple terms is equivalent to investment made. It

was earlier called gross domestic investment. The part of GDP that is used is called


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gross domestic consumption, while the part that is saved is gross domestic savings

(GDS). Some part of this GDS will be re-invested back, and that is called gross capital

formation. Now, an increase in GDP or GDS will not necessarily lead to an increase in

capital formation. Because how much in invested back will depend on many other

factors.

29. The saline soils can be reclaimed by

1. providing good drainage.

2. applying lime or gypsum.

3. cultivating salt resistant crops.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. The saline soils can be reclaimed by providing good drainage, applying

lime or gypsum and cultivating salt resistant crops.

30. Generally saline lakes are found in semi-arid/ arid regions because

a) Large number of crustaceans make water salty.

b) Rate of evaporation is very high in these regions.

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None


b) Rate of evaporation is very high in these regions. The water gets evaporated thus

increasing the salt concentration in the remaining water. Crustaceans helps in

decreasing salinity.

31. Consider the following statements about Indian Council Acts, 1909 (also called

Morley Minto reforms):

1. it provided separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians and Anglo-

Indians.

2. it introduced direct elections in the country for the first time.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only


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c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


d) Neither 1 nor 2. Both are features of the Government of India Act, 1919 also called

MontFord reforms. 1909 Act introduced separate electorates only for Muslims. Thiswas extended by the 1919 act to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Europeans and Anglo-

Indians. GOI 1919 Act introduced direct elections in the country for the first time.

32. The national leadership got divided into no-changers and pro-changers after the

withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement. Who among the following was a no-

changer?

a) C.R.Das

b) Sardar Patel

c) Motilal Nehrud) both (a) and (c)


b) Sardar Patel. The sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement encouraged

an alternative political approach within the Congress. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

advocated that the Congress must give up its boycott of Legislative Councils. Once

elected to these Councils, Congressmen should obstruct their working from within and

bring out their shortcomings. They were known as Swarajists or pro-changers and

those who opposed this change within Congress were termed as no-changers. Sardar

Patel was a no-changer.

33. Subsidiary alliance as a policy was extremely advantageous to the British because

it helped them in:

1. controlling defence and foreign relations of the Indian ally.

2. helping them fight the French onslaught.

3. maintaining large army at the cost of Indian states.


a) 1 and 2 only


d) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. The Subsidiary system helped the British East India company to

effectively counteract any possible French move in India. It enabled the company to


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maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states. By signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an

Indian state virtually signed away its independence. It lost the right of self defenses, of

maintaining diplomatic relations, of employing foreign experts, and of setting its

disputes with its neighbors.

34. Artificial blood is a product made to act as a substitute for real blood. Whichcomponent of the blood does an artificial blood mimic?

1. RBC

2. WBC

3. Platelet


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


a) 1 only. Artificial blood is a product made to act as a substitute for red blood cells.

While true blood serves many different functions, artificial blood is designed for the

sole purpose of transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body.

Currently, artificial blood products are only designed to replace the function of red

blood cells. It might even be better to call the products being developed now, oxygen

carriers instead of artificial blood.

35. With reference to tube-lights, consider the following statements :

1. It works on the principle of fluorescence to produce visible light.

2. White lime coating is done inside the tube to produce white light.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanationa) 1 only. Phosphorous coating is done inside the tube to produce white light. To

produce light in the visible range, the inside of the tube is coated with a phosphor

powder. When the ultraviolet light ( generated by electrons from mercury atoms)

strikes the powder, it produces excitation of the electrons of the phosphor which then

produce visible light by a process called fluorescence. The central element in a

tubelight is a sealed glass tube. The tube contains a small bit of mercury and an inert


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gas, typically argon, kept under very low pressure. The tube also contains a phosphor

powder, coated along the inside of the glass.



36. Fasting has been an essential component of lifestyle in India. During fasting, in

which order is the following energy sources used?

1. Proteins

2. Fats

3. Carbohydrates

a) 1 > 2 > 3

b) 1 > 3 > 2

c) 3 > 2 > 1

d) 3 > 1 > 2


c) 3 > 2 > 1. The process is called ketosis. At the start, carbohydrates provide energy,

then fats come into the scene. Lastly, the energy is provided by protein.

37. The Indian constitution has defined which of the following?

1. Scheduled Castes

2. Scheduled Tribes

3. Anglo-Indians


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only


c) 3 only. The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called

the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes ortribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. Thus, the

lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory.

Unlike in the case of SCs and STs, the Constitution has defined the persons who

belong to the Anglo-Indian community. Accordingly, an Anglo-Indian means a

person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was

of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was


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born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established

there for temporary purposes only.

38. A person can file a suit against which of the following

1. Union of India.

2. Union Government of India.

3. State Government of India.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


a) 1 only. Article 300 of the Constitution deals with the suits by or against theGovernment in India. It lays down that the Government of India may sue or be sued

by the name of the Union of India and government of a state may sue or be sued by

the name of that state, eg, State of Andhra Pradesh or State of Uttar Pradesh and so on.

Thus, the Union of India and states are legal entities (juristic personalities) for

purposes of suits and proceedings, not the Government of the Union or government of

states.

39. With reference to defections, consider the following statements :

1. An independent member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party

after 6 months from the date on which he take his seat.

2. A nominated member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party

anytime.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanationd) Neither 1 nor 2. Interchange both statements to get the correct one. A nominated

member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from

the date on which he take his seat. If he joins before 6 months, then not disqualified.

An independent member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party

anytime.


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1. The area recorded as forests in the government records is called forest cover.

2. A forest cover may or may not be a part of forest area.


a) 1 onlyb) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. The area recorded as forests in the government records is called forest area

not forest cover. Forest cover refers to all lands more than one hectare in area, with a

tree canopy density of more than 10 percent irrespective of ownership and legal status.

Such lands may not necessarily be a recorded forest area. It also includes orchards,

bamboo and palm.

41. Ecotone is best defined as:

a) the most extensive ecosystem unit which is convenient to designate.

b) the vegetation community developed at the last stage of biotic succession.

c) transition area between two biomes.

d) None of the above.


c) transition area between two biomes. An ecotone is a transition area between two

biomes. It is where two communities meet and integrate. It may be narrow or wide,and it may be local (the zone between a field and forest) or regional (the transition

between forest and grassland ecosystems). The most extensive ecosystem unit which

is convenient to designate is called biome. The vegetation community developed at

the last stage of biotic succession is called climax community.

42. Persistent organic pollutants (PoPs) are harmful for health and environment

because:

1. they are resistant to environmental degradation.

2. they can undergo bioaccumulation.3. they can cause global warming.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only


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c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


a) 1 and 2 only. PoPs do not cause global warming. Persistent Organic Pollutants

(POPs) are chemical substances that persist in the environment, bio-accumulatethrough the food web, and pose a risk of causing adverse effects to human health and

the environment. The international community has called for urgent global actions to

reduce and eliminate releases of these chemicals, because they are : * Highly toxic to

humans and the environment * Persistent in the environment, resisting bio-

degradation * Taken up and bio-accumulated in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems *

Capable of long-range, transboundary atmospheric transport and deposition.


1. Indias GDP is more than its GNP.

2. Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is positive for India.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


a) 1 only. GNP = GDP + NFIA. Indias NFIA is negative. Thus Indias GDP is more

than its GNP. NFIA = Factor income earned from abroad by residents Factor incomeof non-residents in domestic territory.

44. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme aims to provide many

services to children that includes:

1. school education

2. Nutrition support

3. Immunization



c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3



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c) 2 and 3 only. ICDS provides Supplementary nutrition, Immunization, Primary

healthcare (Health check-up, referral services.) and preschool education to children

under 6 years of age and their mothers.

45. Gross budgetary support means:

a) centres contribution to budget

b) expenditure in budget on social schemes

c) assistance provided by the Centre to five year plan.



c) assistance provided by the Centre to five year plan. The Governments support to

the Central plan is called the Gross Budgetary Support. In the recent years the GBS

has been slightly more than 50% of the total Central Plan. The share of the GBS in

Central Plan has been rising since 2008-09.

46. With reference to plate margins, consider the following statements :

1. New oceanic crust is continuously formed at convergent plate margins.

2. At divergent plate margin crust is neither created nor destroyed.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


d) Neither 1 nor 2. New oceanic crust is continuously formed at divergent ( or

constructed ) plate margin because of continuous upwelling of lava. It is at

conservative plate margin that crusts is neither created nor destroy as two plate slides

pass each other.

47. The land not available for cultivation under land use categories includes

1. lands used for settlement.

2. barren lands like deserts.

3. fallow lands

4. grazing lands.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only


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c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 4 only


a) 1 and 2 only. Fallow lands are a separate category. Grazing lands are included

under the category of other uncultivated lands.

48. With reference to weathering, consider the following statements :

1. Weathering involves large-scale transport of weathered materials.

2. Weathering is a static process.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. Weathering is a static process because the breakdown of rocks occurs at the

place of rocks (in-situ). There is no large scale transport of weathered materials except

mass movement down the slope under the force of gravity.

49. During the Delhi Sultanate, who among the following first started to pay his

soldiers fully in cash?

a) Balban

b) Illtutmishc) Qutub-udin-Aibak

d) Allauddin Khilji


d) Allauddin Khilji. Khilji was the first Sultan to have permanent army, paid soldiers

fully in cash, imported horses, detailed description of each soldier ( Chehra ) and each

horse ( Dagh ) was also kept.

50. With reference to Mathura School of art, consider the following statements:

1. It was influenced by the Greek arts.2. Red sandstone was primarily used.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only


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c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. Mathura School of art was primarily indigenous. It was the Gandhara

School of art that was influenced from the Greeks. The sculptures of Mathura deserverecognition for creating the earliest, exclusively Indian representations of the Lord

Buddha. Mathura school of art draws inspiration from the ancient Indian arts of

Bharhut and Sanchi. The artists of Mathura used spotted red sandstone as the material

for making images and statues.

51. With reference to Regulating Act, 1773, Consider the following statements :

1. It completely subjected the activities of the East India Company to the supervision

of the British Government.

2. It established a board of control.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


d) Neither 1 nor 2. Board of control was established by Pitts India Act, 1784.

Regulating Act, 1773 only partially subjected the activities of the East India Company

to the supervision of the British Government. The main provisions of the act were theappointment of a governor-general of Fort William in Bengal with supervisory powers

over the presidencies of Madras and Bombay. The governor-general had a council of

four and was given a casting vote but no veto.

52. AMOLED screens are now increasingly used in mobile phones. They offer the

following advantages

1. they use an organic electroluminescent material.

2. they can be viewed even in direct sunlight.

3. they have higher refresh rates that improves the quality of display.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


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b) 1 and 3 only. AMOLED (active-matrix organic light-emitting diode) is a display

technology. In this, organic compounds form the electroluminescent material, and

active matrix refers to the technology behind the addressing of pixels. AMOLED

displays provide higher refresh rates than their passive-matrix OLED counterparts

improving response time often to under a millisecond, and they consume significantly

less power. However, AMOLED displays may be difficult to view in direct sunlight

compared with LCDs because of their reduced maximum brightness.

53. In robotics technology, the actuator is used for

a) providing movement

b) balancing the robot

c) receive information about a certain measurement of the environment

d) None of the above


a) providing movement. Actuators are like the muscles of a robot, the parts which

convert stored energy into movement. By far the most popular actuators are electric

motors that spin a wheel or gear, and linear actuators that control industrial robots in

factories.

54. Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are two standards for wireless communication. With respect

to the difference between the two, which of the following is/are correct?

1. Bluetooth is more secure than Wi-Fi.

2. While Bluetooth works at 2.45 GHz Wi-Fi works at 1.8 GHz.3. Bluetooth consumes less power than Wi-Fi.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 3 only


d) 3 only. Wi-Fi is more secure than Bluetooth. Unlike Wi-Fi, which uses wireless

access devices that connect clients, each Bluetooth device is an access point itself. The

potential for abuse is a lot greater for Bluetooth than for Wi-Fi, as every Bluetooth

device is a potential entry point to the local network. Wi-Fi works at 2.45 , 3.6 and 5

GHz frequencies, while Bluetooth works only at 2.45 GHz. Bluetooth consumes less

power than Wi-Fi.


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55. In India, which of the following modes of voting take place

1. Direct voting by being present in person.

2. Voting through postal ballot.

3. Voting through a proxy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. Direct voting by being present in person is valid for everybody. In 1999,

a provision was made for voting by certain classes of persons through postal ballot.

Thus, any class of persons can be notified by the Election Commission, in

consultation with the government, and the persons belonging to such notified class can

give their votes by postal ballot, and not in any other manner, at elections in their

constituency or constituencies. In 2003, the facility to opt to vote through proxy was

provided to the service voters belonging to the Armed Forces and members belonging

to a Force to which provisions of the Army Act apply.

56. Consider the following statements about delimitation commission:

1. Delimitation commission is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

2. The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. Delimitation commission is a statutory body formed under Delimitation

commission act,1972 . The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be

challenged in any court.

57. The Election Commission of India consists of Chief Election Commissioner

(CEC) and two election commissioners (EC). With regard to these two officials,

which of the following is/are correct?

1. CEC and EC receive equal salary.

2. CEC and EC are provided with security of tenure.


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3. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 onlyd) 2 and 3 only


a) 1 only. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners

have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites. In case

of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other

election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority. Only

the chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. Election

commissioners can be removed from office on the recommendation of the chief

election commissioner.

58. Water in a wetland can be:

1. Fresh

2. Brackish

3. Static


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. The Ramsar definition of wetlands is fairly wide, including areas of

marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters as well as

fish ponds, rice paddies and salt pans. wetlands can be freshwater as well. Freshwater

wetlands are not connected to the ocean. They can be found along the boundaries of

streams, lakes, ponds or even in large shallow holes that fill up with rainwater.

Freshwater wetlands may stay wet all year long, or the water may evaporate during

the dry season.

59. Which of the following is responsible for maximum GHGs emission?

a) Industrial processes

b) Agriculture

c) Thermal power stations

d) Transportation fuels


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c) Thermal power stations. Thermal power stations > Industrial processes >

Agriculture > Transportation fuels is the order of emission of GHGs.

60. With reference to ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. Organisms at higher trophic level receive energy from more than one trophic level.2. Higher trophic levels tend to be more discrete than the lower ones.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


a) 1 only. In an ecosystem, organisms at higher trophic level receive energy from

more than one trophic level. Further, higher trophic levels tend to be less discrete than

the lower ones as they have varied sources of food. They thus, tend to be generalists

in their feeding habits.

61. Consider the following data:

1. Revenue deficit (RD) = 3% of GDP |

2. Grants for capital formation = 1.8% of GDP

3. Primary deficit (PD) = 1.2%

4. Non-plan expenditure = 1.5%

In the above scenario, effective revenue deficit (ERD) will be:

a) 1.2%

b) 1.5%

c) 1.8%

d) cannot be calculated


a) 1.2%. ERD = RD Grants for capital formation. Therefore, here ERD = 3% 1.8%

= 1.2%. The rest two data about primary deficit and non-plan expenditure is not

needed to calculate ERD. Effective Revenue was first introduced in the Union Budget2011-12. While revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue

expenditure, this accounting system includes all grants from the Union Government to

the state governments as revenue expenditure, even if they are used to create assets.

Such revenue expenditures contribute to the growth in the economy and therefore,

should not be treated as unproductive in nature.


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62. Which of the following interest rates is still regulated?

1. Savings account interest rate

2. Fixed deposit interest rate

3. Current account interest rate


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None


d) None. All the interest rates in India have been deregulated. The last one wassavings interest rate which was deregulated in 2011.

63. Fiscal consolidation is one of the objectives of Indias economic policy. Which of

the following would help in fiscal consolidation ?

1. increasing taxes

2. getting more loans

3. reducing subsidies



c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


b) 1 and 3 only. Fiscal consolidation is a reduction in the underlying fiscal deficit. So,

by increasing revenues and decreasing expenditure, we can undertake fiscal

consolidation. While getting more loans may increase receipts, it will not help in fiscal

consolidation as that loan has to be repaid back along with interest. So loans add more

to the expenditure than it contributes to receipts. Increasing taxes and reducingsubsidies will ofcourse increase revenues and decrease expenditure respectively

contributing to fiscal consolidation.

64. Which of these pairs about rivers and their tributaries are correctly matched ?

1. Purna : Narmada

2. Tungabhadra : Godavari


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3. Betwa : Yamuna


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 onlyd) 2 and 3 only


c) 3 only. Purna is a tributary of river Tapi. The Purna River is a river of Western

India. It is one of the chief tributaries of Tapti river and empties in it at Changdev in

Jalgaon, Maharashta. Tungabhadra is Krishnas tributary. The Tungabhadra River is a

river in southern India that starts and flows through the state of Karnataka, before

flowing along the border between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh and ultimately

joining the Krishna River along the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

65. The products from forests are classified as major and minor. Which of the

following is/are MAJOR forest produce?

1. Wood

2. Bamboo

3. Tendu Leaves


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 onlyd) None


a) 1 only. Bamboo and tendu leaves are minor forest produce. Only Wood (timber) is

a major forest product. All other products are minor. Minor forest products include all

products obtainable from the forests other than wood and thus comprise products of

vegetable and animal origin

66. Erosion in coastal areas forms different types of landform. Which of the following

is/are erosional landform of coastal areas?1. wave-cut platforms

2. Beaches

3. Capes and bays


a) 1 and 2 only


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b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


b) 1 and 3 only. Beaches in coastal areas are a depositional landform and noterosional. A wave-cut platform is the narrow flat area often found at the base of a sea

cliff. They along with capes and bays are erosional landform.

67. Various events of Buddhas life are represented by different objects. Which of the

following pairs is/are correctly matched ?

1. Buddhas birth : Lotus

2. First Sermon : Wheel

3. Death : Bodhi Tree


b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3.


a) 1 and 2 only. Buddhas birth which is symbolized by a lotus.

Dhammachakraparivartan This was Buddha giving his first sermon in Deer Park

close to Varanasi. This is symbolized by a wheel. Mahaparinirvana Buddhas death.

This is symbolized by a stupa.

68. Consider the following statements :

1. Ghadar revolutionists recognized Lala Hardayal as their leader to organize the

revolt in India

2. Ghadar movement remained largely unorganized.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. Ghadar revolutionists recognized Rash Behari Bose as their leader to

organize the revolt in India.Rash Behari Bose played a crucial role in the Ghadar


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Revolution, a plan to attack British army from the inside. Lala Hardayal was its leader

in San Francisco.

69. Which of the following opposed the Simon Commission ?

1. moderate nationalists

2. extremist nationalists

3. Muslim league


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. Congress, both moderates and extremists decided to boycott theCommission at every stage and in every form. The Muslim League and the Hindu

Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision. In fact, the Simon Commission

united, at least temporarily, different groups and parties in the country.

70. The French failed compared to British in India. This was because of :

1. French company was subjected to excessive government control.

2. French did not possess great naval power like the British

3. French officers were corrupt, while British officers were honest.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


a) 1 and 2 only. British officers were also corrupt. Infact, some sources mention that

they were even more corrupt than French. Thus corruption was not the reason for

French failure. Unlike the English East India Company, the French East India

Company was a State concern, depending for anything and everything on the homegovernment its freedom of action was very much limited by the charter and the whims

and fancies of the rulers.

71. With reference to induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), consider the following

statements :

1. They are originally embryonic stem cells.


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2. Tissues derived from iPSCs can avoid rejection by the immune system.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. iPSCs are originally adult cells. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are

adult cells that have been genetically reprogrammed to an embryonic stem celllike

state by being forced to express genes and factors important for maintaining the

defining properties of embryonic stem cells. Tissues derived from iPSCs will be a

nearly identical match to the cell donor and thus probably avoid rejection by the

immune system.

72. Water disinfectants used to kill or deactivate pathogenic microorganisms. Which

among the following can be used as a disinfectant?

1. Chlorine

2. Hydrogen peroxide

3. Ultraviolet rays


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. Chlorine is one of the most widely used disinfectants. It is very

applicable and very effective for the deactivation of pathogenic microorganisms.

Chlorine can be easily applied, measured and controlled. Is is fairly persistent and

relatively cheap. The disinfection mechanism of hydrogen peroxide is based on the

release of free oxygen radicals: H2O2 H2O + O2. UV as a disinfectant has many

advantages UV does not alter taste, odour, colour or pH of the water UV does not

require the addition of chemicals UV does not impart toxic by-products into thewater UV systems are compact and easy to install UV systems require very little

maintenance.

73. Consider the following statements about additive manufacturing:

1. In this, an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the

entire object is created.


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2. It can be used in reconstructing heavily damaged evidence acquired from crime

scene investigations.


a) 1 only

b) 2 onlyc) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


c) Both 1 and 2. Additive manufacturing is just the other name of 3D printing. It is a

process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. In an additive

process an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the

entire object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal

cross-section of the eventual object. Applications include design visualization,

prototyping/CAD, metal casting, architecture, education, geospatial, healthcare andentertainment/retail. Other applications would include reconstructing fossils in

paleontology, replicating ancient and priceless artifacts in archaeology, reconstructing

bones and body parts in forensic pathology and reconstructing heavily damaged

evidence acquired from crime scene investigations.

74. Kessler syndrome is

a) a disease in which the number of chromosomes in human body increases.

b) is a condition in which there is hypersecrition of insulin.

c) collisional cascading effect in low earth orbits.

d) a rare eye condition in which eye balls move involuntarily.


c) collisional cascading effect in low earth orbits. Kessler Syndrome is not related to

any disease of the human body. It is related to possible collision of objects in low

earth orbit. The Kessler Syndrome is a theory proposed by NASA scientist Donald J.

Kessler in 1978, used to describe a self-sustaining cascading collision of space debris

in LEO. Its the idea that two colliding objects in space generate more debris that then

collides with other objects, creating even more shrapnel and litter until the entirety of

LEO is an impassable array of super swift stuff. At that point, any entering satellite

would face unprecedented risks of headfirst bombardment.

75. Suppose Bihar legislative assembly passes a bill and forwards it to legislative

council which rejects it. What happens to the bill then ?

a) a joint sitting is called for by the Governor.

b) the bill ends and become dead.


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c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


d) Neither 1 nor 2. Both the statements are true for President and not VP. If the Vice-

President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy should be held as soon aspossible. The constitution mentions no ground for removal of VP.

78. In India, the council of ministers have:

1. Individual responsibility

2. legal responsibility

3. collective responsibility


a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 onlyc) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


a) 1 and 3 only. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their

acts of ommission and commission. Article 75 contains the principle of individual

responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the

president. In India there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal

responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a publicact should be countersigned by a minister.

79. Which of the following are required for the formation of Ground-level ozone (

GLO) ?

1. Carbon dioxide

2. Volatile Organic Compounds

3. Sunlight



c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3



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c) 2 and 3 only. Ground-level ozone is a colorless and highly irritating gas that forms

just above the earths surface. Ground level or bad ozone is created by chemical

reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOC) in

the presence of sunlight. Emissions from industrial facilities and electric utilities,

motor vehicle exhaust, gasoline vapors, and chemical solvents are some of the major

sources of NOx and VOC.

80. For creation of which of these, a legislation is required ?

1. National Parks

2. Wildlife Sanctuaries

3. Biosphere Reserves


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only


b) 1 and 2 only. Both National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries are created under the

Wildlife (Protection ) Act, 1972. The Act provides for four type of protected areas viz.

Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves and Community

Reserves. The boundaries of the all 4 kinds of Protected Areas are notified by

legislation. Biosphere Reserves can be created by notification and do not require a

legislation.

81. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to

control the production and use of :

1. Dichloromethane

2. CFCs

3. HFCs


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3


b) 2 only. Montreal protocol aims to phase out several groups of halogenated

hydrocarbons that have been shown to play a role in ozone depletion. All of these

ozone depleting substances contain either chlorine or bromine (substances containing


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only fluorine do not harm the ozone layer). These include CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs

replaced CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer because, unlike

CFCs and HCFCs, they do not contain chlorine. The Montreal Protocol therefore does

not address HFCs. But HFCs cause global warming. Dichloromethane is a new entry

among gases that depletes ozone layer, but at present it has not been included under

Montreal Protocol.

82. Endosulphan has been banned under the Stockholm Convention because:

a) it depletes ozone

b) it causes global warming

c) it is an endocrine disruptor



c) it is an endocrine disruptor. Endosulfan is an off-patent organochlorine insecticide

and acaricide that is being phased out globally. Endosulfan became a highly

controversial agrichemical due to its acute toxicity, potential for bioaccumulation, and

role as an endocrine disruptor.

83. With reference to pulses, consider the following statements :

1. India is the largest producer of pulses.

2. India imports pulses to meet its domestic demand.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


c) Both 1 and 2. India is the worlds largest producer and consumer of pulses. It

imports about 3.5 million tonnes of pulses every year from the U.S., Australia,

Myanmar, East Africa and Ukraine, besides Canada to meet its domestic demand.

84. The government provides subsidies in various sectors. Which of the following are

the effects of subsidies ?

1. it increases inflation

2. it increases fiscal deficit

3. it decreases export competitiveness


a) 1 and 2 only


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b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3


b) 2 only. There is no direct relation between subsidies given and inflation. It mayincrease inflation ( eg. subsidies on LPG helping people save more thus increasing

their capacity which can cause demand pull inflation. ) or decrease inflation by

making accessible low cost subsidized goods. Subsidies ofcourse increases fiscal

deficit. Subsidies INCREASES not decreases export competitiveness of goods as it

decreases their cost of production.

85. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act aimed for

1. eliminating both revenue deficit and fiscal deficit

2. giving flexibility to RBI for inflation management


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. FRBM Act had the objective of ensuring prudence in fiscal management by

eliminating revenue deficit, REDUCING ( and not eliminating ) fiscal deficit,

establishing improved debt management and improving transparency in a mediumterm framework with quantitative targets to be adhered by the state with regard to

deficit measures and debt management. The act was also expected to give necessary

flexibility to Reserve Bank of India(RBI) for managing inflation in India.

86. With reference to deficit financing, monetized deficit is the part that is financed

through

a) borrowings from public sector scheduled commercial banks

b) external commercial borrowings

c) borrowings from RBI



c) borrowings from RBI. Monetized deficit indicates the level of support extended by

the Reserve Bank of India to the governments borrowing programme. Since

borrowings from Reserve Bank of India directly add to money supply, this measure is


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termed monetized deficit. It is obvious that monetized deficit is only a part of fiscal

deficit.

87. With reference to ownership of forests in India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the forests are owned by corporate bodies.

2. A negligible portion of less than one percent is privately owned.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


b) 2 only. Most of the forests are owned by Government through various departments

such as forest department. Corporate owned forests are lesser than government owned.A negligible portion of less than one percent is privately owned.

88. Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earths surface measured from the:

a) equator

b) prime meridian

c) centre of earth

d) poles


c) centre of earth. Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earths surfacemeasured from the centre of earth. It specifies the north-south position of a point on

the Earths surface. Latitude is an angle which ranges from 0 at the Equator to 90

(North or South) at the poles.

89. Some areas in India receive very high annual rainfall of more than 200 cm. These

include:

1. major parts of Assam.

2. West coast from Thiruvananthapuram to Mumbai.

3. Ladakh region of Jammu Kashmir.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


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a) 1 and 2 only. Easy one. Ladkah region receives very low rainfall and is an example

of cold desert.

90. River rejuvenation can occur due to:

1. uplift of land over which the river is flowing.2. rise in sea-level.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


a) 1 only. River rejuvenation involves a renewed period of vertical erosion to achieve

a new and lower base level. Rejuvenation occurs when the rivers base level falls (i.e.

when sea level falls). This can be a consequence of either a fall in the amount of sea

water or the land rising. Uplift of land over which the river is flowing steepens the

slope so that active down cutting is renewed. A fall in sea-level (and not rise ) causes

river rejuvenation. A fall in sea level leaves the flood plain at an increased altitude

above the sea level. The river with its renewed vigour cuts into the former flood plain,

leaving behind terraces on both sides of the river.

91. Consider the following statements regarding Illbert bill :

1. It was strongly opposed by the Indians.2. It violated the principle of natural justice.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


d) Neither 1 nor 2. It was Rowlatt act that violated the principle of natural justice and

thus Indians opposed it. Illbert bill allowed Indian judges to try the cases involving the

Europeans. Immediately, the whole European community began an agitation to

oppose the bill.

92. The famous Madhubani paintings have their own unique features. Which among

the following are features of Madhubani paintings ?


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1. use of natural dyes and pigments

2. three dimensional effect

3. depiction of themes like birth, marriage and festivals.



c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


b) 1 and 3 only. It was Mughal paintings that had three dimensional effects. In

madhubani paintings, the artists prepared the colors that are used for the paintings.

Black color is made by adding soot to cow dung; yellow from combining turmeric (or

pollen or lime) with the milk of banyan leaves; blue from indigo; red from the kusam

flower juice or red sandalwood; green from the leaves of the wood apple tree; whitefrom rice powder and orange from palasha flowers.

93. Touchscreen mobile phones have become common these days. In this respect,

which of the following is/are correct?

1. Resistive touchscreen are quick to respond compared to a capacitive touchscreen.

2. Resistive touchscreen are expensive compared to a capacitive touchscreen.

3. Resistive touchscreen allow for multi-touch gestures such as pinch to zoom.



c) 2 and 3 only

d) None


d) None. Resistive touchscreen require slight pressure in order to register the touch,

and are not always as quick to respond as capacitive touchscreens such as the

iPhones. Resistive screens dont allow for multi-touch gestures such as pinch to

zoom, although they can register a touch by one finger when another finger is already

touching a different location on the screen. As expected Capacitive touchscreens are

expensive.

94. Reusing cooking oil is unhealthy because

a) bacteria feeds on food particles left in the oil and can cause food poisoning.

b) reused oil contains free radicals that can damage cells and lead to increased cancer


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risk

c) both (a) and (b)

d) None of the above


c) both (a) and (b). In a used oil bacteria feeds on food particles left in the oil. Theseoften lead to the growth of Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism, a

potentially fatal food poisoning. Used oil contains free radicals, molecules that can

damage cells and lead to increased cancer risk, as well as affect the quality of your

food.

95. The Union executive of India consists of :

1. President

2. Vice-President

3. Prime Minister

4. Council of Ministers


a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1 ,3 and 4 only

c) 2 ,3 and 4 only

d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4


d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4. All four are the parts of the union executive of India. Some of you

might have excluded VP, but please remember the VP is also a part of unionexecutive.

96. With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission,

consider the following statements :

1. they can be removed for misbehaviour.

2. they can be removed only by the President.


a) 1 only


d) Neither 1 nor 2


c) Both 1 and 2. Although the chairman of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they

can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). They can be removed


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on the grounds of misbehaviour. The Constitution states that the chairman or any other

member of a SPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he (a) is concerned or

interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the

government of a state, or (b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or

agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common

with other members of an incorporated company.

97. Consider the following statements about jet streams:

1. Easterly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in winter.

2. The easterly jet stream is replaced by the westerly jet stream during summer.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


d) Neither 1 nor 2. Westerly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in

winter. The westerly jet stream is replaced by the easterly jet stream during summer.

This helps in the onset of monsoon.

98. The movement of ocean currents is influenced by many factors which include:

1. temperature

2. salinity

3. earths rotation


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


d) 1, 2 and 3. All the above factors affect ocean current. The ocean currents are

generated from the forces acting upon the water like the earths rotation, the wind, thetemperature and salinity differences and the gravitation of the moon.

99. All banks are mandated to lend to priority sector. Which of the following would

come under Priority Sector Lending ( PSL ) ?


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1. loans to corporations

2. loans to Self Help Groups

3. loans to small and marginal farmers

4. loans to state government


b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2,3 and 4 only


c) 2 and 3 only. Priority sector refers to those sectors of the economy which may not

get timely and adequate credit in the absence of this special dispensation. Typically,

these are small value loans to farmers for agriculture and allied activities, micro and

small enterprises, poor people for housing, students for education and other low

income groups and weaker sections. So, loans to corporations and state government

does not come under PSL.

100. Consider the following statements about Index of Industrial Production ( IIP )

1. It is released monthly by Central Statistical Organisation ( CSO )

2. It shows the volume of industrial activity.


a) 1 only


d) Neither 1 nor 2


a) 1 only. IIP or the index of industrial production is the number denoting the

condition of industrial production during a certain period ( month for eg. ). It does not

show the volume of industrial activity but only its growth with respect to a reference

period. As IIP shows the status of industrial activity, one can find out if the industrial

activity has increased, decreased or remained same.




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fl test 1 self study

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