fiitjee common test paper class 7.pdf4 fiitjee ltd., b –4, sec 16, noida (u.p), 201301, ph : 0120...

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FIITJEE Ltd., B – 4, Sec – 16, Noida (U.P), 201301, Ph : 0120 – 4754800/804/811/814 www.fiitjeenoida.com

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class – VII (1618 A LOT Batches)

PHASE – I NN SS EE JJ SS

SET-A

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

A. Question Paper Format 1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics- Section-III

and Biology- IV) and each part consists of four sections.

2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its

answer, out of which only one is correct.

B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)

mark will be awarded.

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Paper Code

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SECTION – I (PHYSICS) 1. Which of the following substances have greatest specific heat? (A) Iron (B) Water (C) Copper (D) Mercury 2. A temperature difference of 27°C on Kelvin scale is (A) 27 K (B) 300 K (C) –246 K (D) Zero 3. „M‟ gm of ice at 0°C is to be converted to water at 0°C. If L is the latent heat of fusion of ice, the

quantity of heat required for the above operation would be (A) ML cal (B) M/L (C) M/L cal (D) None of these 4. When air is saturated, it cannot hold (A) more water vapour (B) more air (C) more carbon dioxide (D) more oxygen 5. If a substance contracts on heating, its coefficient of linear expansion is (A) +ve (B) –ve (C) zero (D) infinity 6. Maximum density of water is (A) 0°C (B) –273°C (C) 4°C (D) 100°C 7. If we decrease the pressure of the surroundings the water will boil at (A) 100°C (B) above 100°C (C) below 100°C (D) None of these 8. Find the Fahrenheit reading for 10°C (A) 50°F (B) 45°F (C) 33.8°F (D) 44.8°F 9. On a hot day, beach sand is hotter than the ocean water because of difference in (A) texture (B) conductivity (C) colour (D) specific heat 10. The normal temperature of human body is (A) 37°C (B) 38°C (C) 36.8°C (D) None of these 11. 5 g of ice at 0°C and 20 g of water at 45°C are mixed. The temperature of the mixture will be (latent

heat of ice = 80 cal/gm) (A) 10°C (B) 20°C (C) 28°C (D) 40°C 12. In summer the clock (A) become slow (B) become fast (C) gives correct time (D) lose time 13. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 2000 g of water from 10°C to 50°C is (A) 80 cal (B) 80,000 cal (C) 8000 cal (D) none of these 14. Water in a container is heated from 0°C to 10°C. Its volume (A) increases for the full given range (from 0°C to 10°C) (B) decreases upto 4°C, then increases (C) increases upto 4°C, then decreases (D) decreases for the full range (from 0°C to 10°C) 15. At what temperature do the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales give the same reading? (A) –40°C (B) 0° (C) 574.25° (D) 273°

Space for rough work

3



SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY) 1. Which of the following is acidic in nature? (A) apple juice (B) Soap solution (C) slaked like (D) None of these 2. Which of the following acids is present in sour milk? (A) Lactic acid (B) Glycolic acid (C) Citrus acid (D) Tartaric acid 3. Virgin wool is obtained from (A) lamb (B) dead sheep (C) camel (D) adult sheep 4. Natural fibre which is called as “queen of fibres” is : (A) wool (B) jute (C) silk (D) nylon 5. Which of the following bacteria causes sorter‟s disease in sorters ? (A) Anthrax (B) Rhizobium (C) Coliform (D) Clostridium 6. The process of removal of greases and dirt from wool by washing it with water containing alkali

called (A) Oiling (B) Scouring (C) Carding (D) None of these 7. What is the percentage of Carbon in wool? (A) 80 % (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 20% 8. Which is the only natural fibre which has Sulphur in its composition? (A) Tussar (B) Wool (C) Muga (D) Eri 9. The property of wool fibres to interlock and contract when exposed to heat is (A) Felting (B) Crimp (C) Unshrinkable wool (D) Both (A) and (B) 10. Tussore silk is obtained from are ____________ feeding moth. (A) Mulberry (B) Castor leaves (C) Oak (D) None of these 11. Japanese and Italian silk are ____________ and _________ in colour respectively (A) White, Yellow (B) Yellow, White (C) White, Pink (D) Pink, White 12. Fine merino wool has _________ crimps per inch (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35 13. The extra gum from silk fibre is removed by treating it with (A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Sulphur dioxide (C) Water (D) Both (A) and (B) 14. NaOH is a (A) acid (B) base (C) salt (d) none of these 15. NaCl is

(A) acid (B) base (C) salt (d) none of these


4



SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

1. The solution of the equation 2

7 153

y is

(A) 12 (B) 0 (C) 15 (D) 8 Direction (2 – 3): There are two positive integers x and y . When x is divided by 237, the remainder is

192. When y is divided by 117, the quotient is same but the remainder is 108. 2. The remainder when the sum of x and y is divided by 118 is (A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 72 3. The remainder when the difference of x and y is divided by 15 is (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12 Direction (4 – 6): A bag contains 6 white, 5 red and 4 black balls. 4. If one ball is drawn randomly, find the probability that the bal is white (A) 2/5 (B) 3/5 (C) 1/15 (D) 4/15 5. If one ball is drawn randomly, find the probability ball is red? (A) 1/2 (B) 1/15 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/5 6. If one ball is chosen, find the probability that it is not a black ball.

(A) 11

15 (B)

4

5 (C)

1

3 (D)

1

5

Direction (7 – 8): A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads are 40 and number of legs are 128, then 7. Determine number of cows in the group. (A) 16 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 24 8. If man purchased 5 more hens, then how many hens does he has now? (A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 21 (D) none of these

9. The mean of 31 results is 60. If the mean of first 16 results is 58 and that of last 16 results is 62.

Find the 16th result.

(A) 60 (B) 70 (C) 50 (D) none of these 10. The ages of 10 persons (in years) are 34, 24, 28, 31, 30, 26, 27, 25, 29, 30. The median age is (A) 28 yrs (B) 29 yrs (C) 28.5 yrs (D) 32.5 yrs


5



11. Find the quotient when 2.66 divided by 100. (A) 266 (B) 0.266 (C) 0.0266 (D) none of these 12. Closure property does not hold good in integers for (A) addition (B) subtraction (C) multiplication (D) division 13. Which property is reflected in the following 7 × 5 = 5 × 7 (A) Closure (B) Commutative (C) Associate (D) Distributive 14. A data can have _______ mode. (A) One (B) Zero (C) More than one (D) All of these

15. Write an expression: Raju‟s father age is 5 years more than 3 times Raju‟s age. If Raju‟s age is x years, then father‟s age

is

(A) 3 5x (B) 5 3x (C) 3 5x (D) 15x


6



SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY) 1. Cud-chewing animals are called: (A) Ruminants (B) Cannibals (C) Frugivous (D) Sanguivores 2. Green plants are (A) Herbivores (B) Autotrophs (C) Heterotrphs (D) Saprotrophs 3. Leguminous plants can obtain nitrogen from the soil in the presence of Rhizobium. This is an

example of (A) Parasitism (B) Saprotrophism (C) Symbiosis (D) Commensalism 4. In which portion of chloroplast does light reaction takes place: (A) Thylakoid membrane (B) Thylakoid lumen (C) Stroma (D) All of these 5. The inner walls of small intestine have millions of small finger like projection called (A) Villi (B) Junctions (C) Appendix (D) Mucus 6. An Amoeba ingests food with the help of (A) Cilia (B) Tentacles (C) Pseudopodia (D) Flagella 7. Amylase enzyme is present in (A) Bile juice (B) Saliva (C) Gastric juice (D) Intestinal juice 8. Grass is rich in ________ which can only be digested by some animals. (A) Glucose (B) Cellulose (C) Sucrose (D) Starch 9. During light reaction in photosynthesis the following are formed: (A) ATP and sugar (B) ATP and O2 (C) ATP and hydrogen (D) Hydrogen and O2 10. Dark reaction is called so because (A) It can occur in dark only (B) It does not depend on light energy directly (C) It cannot occur during light (D) It occurs rapidly at night 11. Which of the following is not required for photosynthesis? (A) Chlorophyll (B) Water (C) Sunlight (D) Oxygen 12. The largest gland in human body is (A) Pancreas (B) Stomach (C) Liver (D) Salivary gland 13. Pepsin acts in (A) Acidic medium (B) Basic medium (C) Neutral medium (D) In all media 14. Iodine turns ___________ in colour, in presence of ___________ (A) red, acid (B) green, sugar (C) black, protein (D) blue-black, starch

15. Dark reaction occurs in: (A) Cytoplasm (B) Stroma (C) Grana (D) Thylakoid


7



FIITJEE COMMON TEST


PHASE – I NN SS EE JJ SS

SET-A

ANSWERS

SECTION – I (PHYSICS) 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6 B 7 C 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. C


1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A

SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY)

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. B

Paper Code

8



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

for


PHASE – I

SET-A Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 90

Scholastic Aptitude Test

INSTRUCTIONS The question paper consists of 90 multiple choice questions divided into four sections.

Section – I contains 45 questions of Mathematics.

Section – II contains 15 questions of Physics.

Section – III contains 15 questions of Chemistry.

Section – IV contains 15 questions of Biology.

Each question carries +1 marks.

There is No negative marking.

Attempt All questions.

Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.

All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.

The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….………………………………….. Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

9



SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS) 1. A telephone number has a form ABC–DEF–GHIJ where each letter represents different digit. The

digit in each part of the number are in descending order, further more D, E and F are consecutive even digits. G, H, I, J are consecutive odd digits and A + B + C = 9. Find A

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 2. 186 × 186 + 159 × 159 – 2 × 186 × 159 (A) 119025 (B) 729 (C) 1369 (D) 218645

3. If 2 2 180a b and 72ab , then value of

a b

a b

is

(A) 18 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) None of these 4. If there are 25% girls in the class and there are 45 boys in the class, then find the number of

students in the class. (A) 60 (B) 45 (C) 100 (D) 50 5. Value of (largest 3-digit integer) – (smallest 3 digit integer) + [–(largest 2-digit integer which is

multiple of 2)] (A) 1998 (B) 801 (C) –98 (D) 98

6. Evaluate 2 2 54 18 51 16 3/ /

(A) –4 (B) 4 (C) +2 (D) –2 7. What least value must be assigned to * so that the number 63576*2 is divisible by 9? (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 7 8. The difference between numbers is 1510. If larger number is divided by smaller one, the quotient is

7 and remainder is 58. Then the smaller number is ? (A) 58 (B) 1752 (C) 1452 (D) 242


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9. Find the next integer in the given sequence 125, 64, 27, 8, ____, ? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) can‟t be determined

10. If 3 2

2 2 3 3a b a b and 0ab , then find the value of 2 23 3 2a b ab

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

11. From question 10, find the value of a b

b a

(A) 3

2 (B)

2

3 (C)

1

3 (D)

4

3

12. Tony requires 4 pieces of wood, each of which are 68 cm long. If wood is sold in 2m or 3 m length.

Find the length of wood he must buy. (A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 4

13. If 3

32

11

23

x

, then find value of x.

(A) 1 (B) 18/13 (C) 13/18 (D) 13/36

14. Simplify 1 1 1

20 30 152 3 6 _________

(A) 2

353

(B) 1

356

(C) 3

352

(D) 66

15. Making maggi requires 1

72

cups of boiling water. Your measuring cup holds 1

14

of water. How

many times you need to fill the cup? (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10


11



Direction (16–18): A man spends 2

5 of his salary on house rent,

3

10 of his salary on food and

1

8 of his

salary on conveyance. If he saves Rs.2800 per month, then 16. Find his monthly salary (A) Rs.16000 (B) Rs.12000 (C) Rs.15000 (D) Rs.24000 17. How much he spend on food? (A) Rs.4800 (B) Rs.1600 (C) Rs. 4000 (D) None of these 18. His expenditure of conveyance is how much percent of his house rent? (A) 32% (B) 35% (C) 40% (D) None of these 19. Monty brought 3 kg 300 gm mangoes that cost him Rs.110. Mona bought 4 kg 400 gms of mangoes

at Rs.130. Who bought mangoes at cheaper rate? (A) Monty (B) Mona (C) Both bought at equal price (D) Can‟t be determined 20. Find the median of 38, 34, 36, 32, 37, 31, 33, 35 (A) 34 (B) 36 (C) 34.5 (D) 35.5 21. If mean = 30 and median = 25, its mode is (A) 27.5 (B) 50 (C) 30 (D) 15 22. If the mean of frequency of distribution is 50. Find the value of P.

Variable 10 30 50 70 90

Frequency 17 P 32 24 19

(A) 28 (B) 56 (C) 32 (D) None of these


12



Direction (23–25): Sale of books (in thousand numbers) from five branches B1, B2, B3, B4 and B5 of publishing company in 2014 and 2015

Sale

s

Branches

23. Total sales of branches B1, B3, B5 together for both the years (in thousand number) is (A) 250 (B) 310 (C) 435 (D) 560 24. What is the percentage increase in sales of B from 2014 to 2015 ? (A) 32% (B) 31.25% (C) 35% (D) 39% 25. What is the average sale of all the branches (in thousand) for year 2014? (A) 80 (B) 78°C (C) 82 (D) none 26. The average of 50 numbers is 32. If two numbers 22 and 18 are discarded, then find the average of

remaining numbers? (A) 32.5 (B) 40 (C) 60.5 (D) can‟t be determined 27. A student was asked to find the average of 12, 19, 16, 15, 32, 8, x. He finds the average 18. What would be the value of x. (A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 30 (D) 20 28. A labour got engaged for 20 days on the condition that he will receive Rs.60 for each day‟s work

and he will be fined Rs.5 for each day, he is absent. If he receives Rs.745 in all, for how many days he remained absent?

(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) none of these


13



Direction (29 – 31):One mango, one orange and one banana will together cost Rs.55. One banana and one orange together cost Rs.40. Rohit buys a mango on Monday, one banana and one orange on Tuesday, one banana each on Thursday and Friday, one orange each one Wednesday and Saturday. On Sunday, he buys all three items. 29. What is the cost of one mango? (A) Rs.12 (B) Rs.10 (C) Rs.15 (D) can‟t say 30. What is the cost of one banana? (A) Rs.18 (B) Rs. 8 (C) Rs.9 (D) cant‟say 31. What does Rohit pay for his entire week‟s purchases? (A) Rs.285 (B) Rs.190 (C) Rs.95 (D) Can‟t say 32. Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by

children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to him?

(A) mean (B) mode (C) median (D) any of the three 33. Which one of the following is improper fraction? (A) 2/3 (B) 5/7 (C) 7/4 (D) 1/2 Direction (34 – 38): Read the bar graph which shows number of computers sold by a store during five consecutive years.

34. How many computers were sold in 1989? (A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 600 35. In which year were 400 computers sold? (A) 1990 (B) 1991 (C) 1993 (D) 1989

36. In which year were fewer than 200 computers sold? (A) 1989 (B) 1991 (C) 1993 (D) 1992 37. What will be the difference of number of computers sold in 1993 and 1990? (A) 600 (B) 200 (C) 400 (D) 100 38. How many computers were sold from 1991 to 1993? (A) 1300 (B) 1000 (C) 900 (D) 800


100

200

300

400

500

600

700

1989

1990

1991

1992

1993

14



39. A dice is thrown once. What will be the probability of getting prime number? (A) 1/2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 1/6 40. Which of the following has same mean, median and mode? (A) 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 4, 1 (B) 4, 2, 2, 1, 3, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3, 7, 3, 8, 3, 2 (D) 4, 3, 4, 3, 4, 6, 4

41. Which of the following can be formed starting with 0x ?

(A) 2 1 1x (B) 5 72

x (C) 3 1 1x (D) 3 1 1x

42. The ascending arrangement of 2 6 13

3 7 21, , is

(A) 6 2 13

7 3 21, , (B)

13 2 6

21 3 7, , (C)

6 13 2

7 21 3, , (D)

2 6 13

3 7 21, ,

43. One packet of biscuit requires 1

22

cups of flour and 2

13

cups of sugar. Estimated total quantity of

both ingredients used in 10 such packets of biscuits will be (A) less than 30 cups (B) between 30 cups and 40 cups (C) between 40 cups to 50 cups (D) above 50 cups 44. Simplify:

1 2 3 4

888 888 888 8885 5 5 5

______

(A) 1

8886

(B) 888 (C) 3554 (D) None of these

45. The average of A, B and C is 10. If the average of A and B is 11 and that of B and C is 14. Find the

value of B? (A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 36 (D) None of these


15



SECTION – II (PHYSICS)

1. Two bodies are said to be in thermal or equilibrium if (A) there is a heat flow between them (B) both of them lose equal amounts of heat to the atmosphere (C) there is no heat flow between them (D) none of these 2. The unit of specific heat is (A) cal °C (B) cal / g°C (C) cal / g (D) °C 3. Fahrenheit scale divides two fixed points into (A) 180 parts (B) 212 parts (C) 100 parts (D) 273 parts 4. The movement of water being heated in a pot on a stove is an example of (A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) condensation 5. Water evaporates under atmospheric pressure without changing the temperature, the same water is

placed under partial vacuum. The rate of evaporation will (A) increase (B) drop to zero (C) decrease (D) remains unaffected. 6. A thermometer is used to measure (A) heat (B) thermal capacity (C) water equivalent (D) temperature 7. Absolute zero temperature corresponds to (A) –273 K (B) 273 K (C) 0 K (D) –100°C 8. Steam at 100°C causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because (A) Steam is a gas (B) Steam cannot do work (C) Steam can provide more neat (D) steam is highly combustible 9. –40°F on absolute scale is equal to (A) 0 K (B) 233 K (C) 273 K (D) 313 K 10. When the temperature of water rises, the rate of evaporation (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains the same (D) first decreases the increases 11. A piece of ice at 0°C is added to a vessel containing water at 0°C, then (A) all the ice will melt (B) some ice will melt (C) no ice will melt (D) the temperature will decrease further 12. When we cool a gas below is condensation point, the KE of its molecules (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains the same (D) first increases then decreases 13. In hot water bottles, water is used because (A) its specific heat is low (B) its specific heat is high (C) it is cheap (D) it is easily available 14. The temperature of water at the bottom of a large waterfall is higher than that of the water at the

top, because (A) the falling water absorbs heat from sun. (B) the KE of the falling water is converted into heat. (C) the water at the bottom has greater PE. (D) rocks on the bed of the river give out heat.

15. The unit of thermal capacity is (A) cal/°C (B) cal /g (C) cal/g/°C (D) none of these

16



SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY) 1. Which of the following type of medicine is used for treating indigestion? (A) antibiotic (B) analgesic (C) antacid (D) antiseptic 2. Which of the following is not an organic acid? (A) acetic acid (B) sulphuric acid (C) formic acid (D) citric acid 3. The substance can turn blue litmus to red is (A) milk of magnesia (B) baking soda solution (C) lemon juice (D) calamine solution 4. Wool is obtained from the animals that grow long lustrous hairs like: (A) Angora goat (B) Angora rabbit (C) Cashmere goat (D) all of them 5. The wool of Merion sheep belongs to (A) medium wool (B) long wool (C) carpet wool (D) fine wool 6. The process of removing the vegetable matter like seeds and burrs form wool is known as (A) carding (B) roving (C) crimp (D) carbonizing 7. The composition of wool fibre has elements (A) C, N, O and H (B) C, N, O, H and S (C) C, N, S and O (D) C, N, O and S 8. The acid present in tea is (A) lactic (B) tannic (C) tartaric (D) citric 9. Find the odd one out (A) Wool (B) Polyester (C) Silk (D) Cotton 10. Cocoons are prepared from silk worms at which of the following stage of its life cycle? (A) Larva (B) Pupa (C) Nymph (D) Adult 11. The pH of an orange juice is (A) Between 0-7 (B) Equal to 7 (C) More than 7 (D) None of these 12. The egg of silk worm are stored in (A) Wooden box (B) Metal box (C) Strips of cloth (D) Plastic box 13. Which of the following parts swing side to side in the form of during the formation of cocoon around

the caterpillar? (A) Head moves (B) Neck moves (C) Abdomen moves (D) Thorax moves 14. On body of sheep the hair part of fleece is called (A) Kemp (B) Camp (C) Fibre part (D) None of these 15. Which type of wool is common in Tibet and Ladhak? (A) Yak wool (B) Angora wool (C) Sheep wool (D) Pashmina wool


17



SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY) 1. Acidic medium of stomach is maintained by (A) sulphuric acid (B) oxalic acid (C) citric acid (D) hydrochloric acid 2. Thylakoids occur in (A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplasts (C) Golgi appratus (D) ER 3. Human saliva contain ptyalin which digest:- (A) lipids (B) glycerol (C) lactose (D) starch 4. The walls of large intestine absorb: (A) Water (B) Proteins (C) Roughage (D) None of these 5. Which cycle in plants reduces CO2 to form sugar? (A) Kreb cycle (B) Urea cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) Citric acid cycle 6. Water is transported from roots to leaves through: (A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Cortex (D) Epidermis 7. The hardest constituent of tooth is: (A) Bone (B) Dentine (C) Enamel (D) Pulp 8. The gastric juice contains protein splitting enzymes namely: (A) Pepsin and Trypsin (B) Pepsin and Amylase (C) Pepsin and Rennin (D) Trypsin and Amylase 9. The tiny pores present in the leaves of the plants for exchange of gases are called: (A) Stomata (B) Trachea (C) Chloroplast (D) Spiracles 10. Amarbel (Cuscuta) is an example of (A) Autotroph (B) Parasite (C) Saprotroph (D) Host 11. The pointed teeth which are required for tearing are called: (A) Incisors (B) Canines (C) Premolars (D) Molars 12. Which of the following is incorrect? (A) Saprotrophic organisms depend on dead and decaying organisms. (B) Mushroom is saprotrophic (C) Saprotrops generally do not contain chlorophyll (D) Saprotrophic nutrition involves intracellular digestion 13. Which of the following is not a part of nutrition? (A) Digestion (B) Excretion (C) Assimilation (D) Absorption 14. Enzymes required for starch digestion in humans are secreted by (A) Mouth and pancrease (B) Mouth and stomach (C) Mouth and liver (D) Mouth and intestine

15. Which of the following is an insectivorous plant? (A) Venus fly trap (B) Parkinsonia (C) Wolffia (D) Epipogium

18



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

for


PHASE – I

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE Test QP CODE: XXXX.0

SET – A

ANSWERS

SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS) 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. C 45. B

SECTION – II (PHYSICS) 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. A

SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY) 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. B

SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY) 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. A

19



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

for


PHASE – I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

SET - A

Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

Directions (1-20): Find the missing number in the series given below: 1. 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43, ? (A) 55 (B) 57 (C) 59 (D) 61

A: General :

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point

pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer

Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and

electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work

8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test

Booklet with them.

B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :

1. The question paper consists of 90 questions.

2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.

Enrollment No. : Batch : Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

20



2. 10, 33, 102, 309, ? (A) 1030 (B) 1050 (C) 928 (D) 930 3. 3, 11, 23, 39, ? (A) 58 (B) 59 (C) 60 (D) 61 4. 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ? (A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 33 (D) 36 5. 17, 43, 81, 131, ? (A) 375 (B) 468 (C) 300 (D) 193 6. 6, 42, ?, 1260 , 5040, 15120, 30240 (A) 546 (B) 424 (C) 252 (D) 328 7. 15, 17, 20, 22, 27, 29, ?, ? (A) 31, 28 (B) 36, 38 (C) 36, 43 (D) 38, 45 8. 4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294 (A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 40 9. 3, 5, 7, ?, 13, 17, 19, 23 (A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 8 (D) 10 10. 4, 9, 20, 43, ? (A) 90 (B) 84 (C) 96 (D) 95 11. 20, 29, 38, 47, ? (A) 59 (B) 56 (C) 52 (D) 58


21



12. DF, GJ, KM, NP, RT, ? (A) UW (B) YZ (C) XZ (D) UW 13. PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ? (A) LUP (B) LVP (C) LVR (D) LWP 14. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? (A) XKW (B) ZAB (C) ZKU (D) ZKW

15. NOA, PQB, RSC, ? (A) TUD (B) DTU (C) ENO (D) FNQ

16. DFI, KMP, ?, YAD (A) QSV (B) RTW (C) SUX (D) RTU 17. CFL, EIK, GLJ, IOI, ? (A) KRH (B) KRJ (C) IRU (D) KOV 18. EDBA, KJHG, QPNM, ? (A) ZXUV (B) WVTS (C) KIGS (D) QOMK 19. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ? (A) MQORN (B) MQNRO (C) NQMOR (D) QMONR 20. ABCDEFZYXWVUABCDEZYXWVUABCDZYXWV? (A) U (B) A (C) B (D) Z


22



Directions (21-30): In each of the following questions, continuous pattern series is given. Some of the letter of the series is given. Some of the letter of the series are missing. Find the missing term. 21. adb_ac_da_cddcb_dbc_cbda (A) bccba (B) cbbaa (C) ccbba (D) bbcad 22. b_acbda_bd_cb_a_ (A) baadc (B) dcadc (C) cbdca (D) cdacb 23. ab_d_bc_a_c_ab_d (A) cadbdc (B) cabbcd (C) abbcdd (D) caddbc 24. a_a_abab_ba_ (A) abab (B) baab (C) abba (D) bbab 25. a_cdaab_cc_daa_bbb_ccddd (A) bdbda (B) bddca (C) abdcb (D) bbdac 26. _A_A_ _BAB_B_BABA (A) BBABAA (B) BBBAAA (C) ABABBA (D) BBAABB 27. abc_ea_ _dd_bcc_ _ (A) bbbbb (B) abbbb (C) dcbbb (D) None of these 28. ab_d_ _b_dm_ _x (A) abmdx (B) xmaxab (C) axdbm (D) abxmd 29. xyzu_yz_v_ _uv_ _ (A) uvxyzu (B) vuxzxy (C) vuvzyx (D) zvuxyz 30. r_ttp_ s_tp_s_ _ (A) rstqp (B) tsrqp (C) rstpq (D) none of these


23



Directions (31 to 40): In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 31. 87, 54, 28, 13, 5, 2, 2 (A) 28 (B) 54 (C) 13 (D) 2 32. 22, 37, 52, 67, 84, 97 (A) 52 (B) 84 (C) 97 (D) 67 33. 10, 41, 94, 1624, 2516, 3625 (A) 1624 (B) 2516 (C) 3625 (D) 4936 34. 258, 130, 66, 34, 18, 8, 6 (A) 130 (B) 66 (C) 34 (D) 8 35. 2, 5, 11, 27, 58, 121, 248 (A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 27 (D) 58 36. 1, 2, 6, 21, 86, 445, 2676 (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 21 (D) 86 37. 864, 420, 200, 96, 40, 16, 6 (A) 420 (B) 200 (C) 96 (D) 40 38. 6072, 1008, 200, 48, 14, 5, 3 (A) 1008 (B) 200 (C) 48 (D) 14 39. 2, 6, 12, 27, 58, 121, 248 (A) 12 (B) 27 (C) 6 (D) 2 40. 7, 10, 12, 14, 17, 19, 22, 22 (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 19


24



Directions (41 – 43): Read the following statements and find the answer of the question that follows. A B means „A is the father of B‟. A * B means „A is the sister of B‟. A + B means „A is the brother of B‟. A – B means „A is the mother of B‟. A B means „A is the son of B‟. A = B means „A is the daughter of B‟. 41. Which of the following means X is the grandfather of Y?

(A) X Z Y (B) Y Z X (C) Z X Y (D) X Y Z 42. Which of the following means Y is the mother of X and Z?

(A) X Y Z (B) Y X Z (C) Y X Z (D) Y X Z 43. Which of the following means Z is the grandson of Y?

(A) Z X Y (B) Z X Y (C) Y X Z (D) Z X Y

44. 6 6 6 .... is equal to

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3 45. Of three numbers, the second is thrice the first and the third number is three-fourth of the first. If the

average of the three numbers is 114, the largest number is (A) 72 (B) 216 (C) 354 (D) 726 46. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is

Suresh related to that boy? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Father 47. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of

B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

(A) Q - N + M x P (B) P + S x N – Q (C) P - M + N x Q (D) Q - S % P 48. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A? (A) Brother (B) Sister (C) Nephew (D) Cannot be determined 49. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the

father of B Which of the following means that C is the son of M? (A) M - N x C + F (B) F - C + N x M (C) N + M - F x C (D) M x N - C + F


25



50. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the

boy related to the girl? (A) Brother (B) Nephew (C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law 51. Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the

man in the photograph related to Lata? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Data is inadequate 52. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the

daughter of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N? (A) M + O x N (B) M % O x N + P (C) M + O % N (D) None of these 53. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the statements

is/are necessary? 1. The son of D is the grandson of C. 2. B is the sister of D. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Either 1 or 2 (D) 1 and 2 both are required Directions (54 – 57) : A is son of B; C, B‟s sister has a son D and a daughter E; F is the maternal uncle of

D. 54. How is A related to D? (A) Nephew (B) Cousin (C) Uncle (D) Brother 55. How is F related to E? (A) Brother (B) Maternal uncle (C) Nephew (D) Paternal uncle 56. How many nephews does F have? (A) Nil (B) Two (C) Three (D) One 57. How is E related to F? (A) Sister (B) Daughter (C) Wife (D) Niece


26



Directions (58 – 61) : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family. B is the only son of A. D has two children and is the wife of B. The siblings are of different sex. G is the husband of F. B‟s son is married and has a son H. 58. How is B related to G? (A) Father (B) Father-in-law (C) Mother (D) Son-in-law 59. Who is the son of B and D? (A) E (B) C (C) F (D) Cannot be determined 60. How is D related to A? (A) Daughter (B) Granddaughter (C) Daughter-in-law (D) Grandson 61. How is D related to H? (A) Grandmother (B) Grandfather (C) Mother (D) Daughter-in-law

62. If A means „×‟ B means „‟ C means „–‟ and D means „+‟, then 4 D 16 A 5 B 8 C 5 = ? (A) 9 (B) 16 (C) 13 (D) 7.5 63. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following

equation: 8 * 8 * 1 * 7 = 8

(A) × + (B) + × (C) × + (D) + × 64. If 4 – 4 = 12, 6 – 6 =30, 2 – 2 =2, then 8 – 8 =? (A) 8 (B) 38 (C) 56 (D) 16

65. 4 × 6 × 2 = 351, 3 × 4 × 8 = 237, 9 × 5 × 6 = ? (A) 270 (B) 845 (C) 546 (D) 659

66. 9 * 7 = 32, 13 * 7 = 120, 17 * 9 = 208, 19*11 = ? (A) 64 (B) 160 (C) 240 (D) 210


27



67. 16(27)43, 29(?)56, 36(12)48 (A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 27 (D) 37 68. If 73 + 82 = 14, 91 + 21 = 11, then 86 + 24 = ? (A) 9 (B) 62 (C) 8 (D) 6 69. If 264 * 2 = 6, 870 * 3 = 11, then 735 * 5 = ? (A) 05 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 03 70. If 2463 = 36 and 5552 = 30 then 6732 = ? (A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 34 (D) 39 Directions:- Q. No. (71 -80). Find the missing number.

71. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, _______ (A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15 72. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, _______, 49 (A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 34 (D) 36 73. 4, 9, 14, 19, _____, 29 (A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26 74. 1, 8, 27, _____, 125 (A) 40 (B) 44 (C) 64 (D) 72 75. 12, 24, 36, 48, ______, 72 (A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64 76. 6, 8, 18, 16, 24, ?, 30

(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 25

77. 3 8 18 33

?4 10 22 40

(A) 25

24 (B)

35

48 (C)

45

58 (D)

53

64

78. 1 1 2 2

11 12 14 16 ?9 2 7 3

(A) 1

83

(B) 1

92

(C) 20 (D) 10

79. Which of the following choices is not the number of the series :

1 8 27 64 125 ?

(A) 256 (B) 512 (C) 729 (D) 1000

80. 2 4 3 9 ? 16

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12

Directions:- Q. No. (81). the terms have been arranged in some order. One term is missing find the missing term out of the given five alternatives?

81. cx, fu, ir, ?, ol, ri

(A) lo (B) mn (C) no (D) cp

28




29



Directions (82 – 85): A family has six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are four males and two females in the family. A has two sons and is married to C. One of the sons of A is married and has a son F. B is the mother of F. C is the mother of E. 82. How if F related to A? (A) Father (B) Son (C) Grandson (C) can‟t say 83. Which two persons are siblings? (A) D and E (B) D and B (C) E and B (D) A and B 84. How is B related to A? (A) Daughter (B) Niece (C) Daughter –in-law (D) Can‟t say 85. How if F related to D? (A) Son (B) Nephew (C) Niece (D) Can‟t say 86. If 5 * 3 = 16, 9 * 8 = 73 and 6 * 7 = 43, then 7 * 8 = ? (A) 72 (B) 58 (C) 85 (D) 57

87. If = 12, = 15, O = 3 and = 6 then O =?

(A) O (B) (C) (D)

88. If 2 = 6, 4 = 12 and 8 = 24 then 10 = ? (A) 30 (B) 20 (C) 15 (D) 27 89. If 4 – 4 = 17, 6 – 6 = 37, 2 – 2 = 5, 5 – 5 = ? (A) 27 (B) 26 (C) 20 (D) 24 90. 10(150)15, 14(224)16, 13(?)15 (A) 205 (B) 195 (C) 178 (D) 197


30



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

for


PHASE – I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

SET - A

ANSWERS

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. D 47 C 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. A 52. D 53. D 54. A 55. D 56. B 57. D 58. B 59. D 60. C 61. A 62. A 63. C 64. C 65. B 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. B 70. A 71. D 72. A 73. B 74. D 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. D 81. A 82. C 83. A 84. C 85. D 86. D 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. B

31



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for Class –VII (UTYCRP 1618 A LOT Batches)

NN SS EE JJ SS SSEETT –– AA

(PHASE – II)

Time: 1.30 Hours Maximum Marks: 180





B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble



Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Paper Code

32



Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol

1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol

1

= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol

1

Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023

Planck‟s Constant h = 6.626 10–34

Js

= 6.25 x 10-27

erg.s

1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb

1 calorie = 4.2 Joule

1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27

kg

1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19

J

Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2,

O=8,

Au=79.

Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,

Mn=55,

Pb=207,

Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6

Useful Data Physics:

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 2m/ s

33



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– III ::: PPPHHHYYYSSSIIICCCSSS

1. Region BC & DE represents

-5oC

A

0oC

100oC

Temperature

Heat

B

C

D

E

F

(A) melting & evaporation (B) fusion & temperature rise (C) evaporation & temperature rise (D) all of these

2. Condensation is reverse process of (A) vaporisation (B) fusion (C) freeze (D) all of these

3. Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg-1

oC

-1. The same in CGS system will be

(A) 2 cal g-1

oC

-1 (B) 3 cal g

-1 oC

-1 (C) 3 cal g

-1 oC

-1 (D) none of these

4. One degree interval on centigrade scale is equivalent to

(A) o9F & 1K

5 (B) o 9

1 F & K5

(C) o o91 F & K

5 (D) o o9

F& 1 K5

5. Normal temperature of human body is 37oC. Find this temperature in

oF & K.

(A) 98 oF & 300

oK (B) 98.6

oF & 310 K (C) 310

oF & 98

oK (D) all of these

6. Out of excitement a cricketer throws a ball in air up & reaches it after 4 sec. Its initial speed was (A) 9.8 ms

-1 (B) 19.8 ms

-1 (C) 19.6 ms

-1 (D) none of these

7. A student goes school with 40 kmh-1

in 1 hr stay there for 6 hrs. Then he came back with 40 kmh-1

in 1 hr. Find his average speed & average velocity.

(A) 10 kmh-1

, 0 kmh-1

(B) 0 kmh-1

, 10 kmh-1

(C) 10 kmh-1

, 10 kmh-1

(D) 0 kmh-1

, 0 kmh-1

Space for rough

work

34



s

t

s

ts

t

s

t

8. What will be its corresponding displacement time graph. v

t (A) (B)

(C) (D) 9. A driver is moving his car with constant speed of 45 kmh

-1. The brakes produce retardation of 1 ms

-2.

What will be his stopping distance (approximately)? (A) 80 m . (B) 70 m (C) 78 m (D) 60 m 10. 1 man walks 30 km North, 40 km East & then 60 km South. Find his displacement & distance (A) 130 km, 50 km (B) 50 km, 130 km (C) 80 km, 130 km (D) 100 km, 90 km 11. Speed of weak Tordano in (kmh

-1) is

(A) 60 (B) 300 (C) 700 (D) 1100 12. In India which coastal area is more vulnerable to cyclone. (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 13. Heavy rain falls during (A) earthquake (B) lighting (C) cyclone (D) tsunami 14. Barometer, thermometer, speedometer & odometer are used to measure these quantities respectively. (A) pressure, temperature, speed, distance (B) pressure, speed, distance, temperature

(C) distance, temperature, speed, pressure (D) all of these 15. Tsunami is a tidal wave came from which language (A) Hindi (B) English (C) Urdu (D) Japanese


35



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– IIIIII ::: CCCHHHEEEMMMIIISSSTTTRRRYYY

(Single Correct Answer Type) This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Among the following which one change the colour of Turmeric powder

(A) Lemon Juice (B) Milk of Magnesia (C) Vinegar (D) Sugar Syrup

2. An acid is a substance___________

(A) Sour in taste (B) Gives proton in aqueous solution

(C) May react with active metal to give hydrogen (D) All of these

3. About neutralization reaction which one is essentially true:-

(A) Evolution of gas (B) Evolution of Heat (C) Formation of water (D) change in colour

4. Among the following which one is not an example of base

(A) Milk of magnesia (B) Lunar caustic (C) Aniline (D) Alum

5. Which of the following is not an example of Neutralization reaction.

(A) Calcium oxide + Nitric acid (B) Calcium oxide + Hydrochloric acid

(C) Sodium Hydroxide + Sulphuric Acid (D) Sodium chloride + Silver Nitrate

6.

Substance Acid Present

A Tamarind P Oxalic

B Curd Q Lactic

C Spinach R Formic

D Amla S Tartaric

E Ant sting T Ascorbic

The correct match base on above table.

(A) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D – S, E – T (B) A – S, B – Q, C – S, D – T, E - Q

(C) A – S, B – Q, C – P, D – T, E – R (D) A – R, B – Q, C – T, D – P, E – S

Space for rough

work

36



7. Which of the following is chemical change

(A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Neutralization

8. Chemical change can be best defined by.

(A) Evolution of heat during change

(B) Change in colour

(C) Consumption of any substance to produce another substance

(D) Change of state

9. Which of the following activity is expected as chemical change.

(A) Quenching of quick lime

(B) Iron Nail in copper sulphate solution

(C) Heating of blue vitriol at 1000C for some time

(D) Copper metal dipped in dilute hydrochloric acid

10. Which of the following physical change is not reversible

(A) Melting of Ice (B) Torning of paper

(C) Dehydration of Blue vitriol (D) Sublimation of Iodine

11. Which one is considered as chemical property of the substance involving chemical change.

(A) Testing sugar (B) Sublimation (C) Melting Ice (D) None of these

12. Evolution of Heat account for the following

(A) Only Physical change (B) Only Chemical Change

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

13. The process involve both physical and chemical change.

(A) Dissolution of sugar in water (B) Burning of Coal

(C) Burning of candle (D) None of these

14. Which of the following is chemical change

(A) Twinkling of Stars (B) Cooking of vegetable

(C) Boiling of Water (D) Cutting of fruits

15. Some process is given

(i) Photo synthesis (ii) Making sugar syrup

(iii) Burning of coal (iv) Melting of wax

(v) Beating aluminium sheet to make foil (vi) Digestion of food

Now the correct combination for chemical change is.

(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III, VI (C) II, III, V, VI (D) I, III, V, VI


37



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– IIIIIIIII ::: MMMAAATTTHHHEEEMMMAAATTTIIICCCSSS


1. From the given figure find the value of x if y = 2x

80o

x y

(A) 100

3 (B)

25

3 (C)

32

3 (D) none of these

2. The bisectors of any pair of corresponding angles are ….. when a pair of parallel lines are intersected

by a transversal in two distinct points. (A) parallel (B) intersecting (C) non-parallel (D) none of these

3. Which of the following is incorrect for the given figure.

2 1

3 4

6 5

7 8

p

l

m

(A) 1 + 2 = 180

o (B) 2 + 3 = 1 + 4 = 6 + 7

(C) 3 + 8 = 180o (D) 1 = 8


38



4. Three persons A, B and C are sitting on the circumference of the circle at equal distances forming a triangle inside the circle. Find the angle subtend by side BC at the centre of the circle. (A) 150 (B) 120 (C) 60 (D) none of these

5. In the given figure, the arrangement of sides in ascending order is

xc

A

B Ca

b

x + 10 70

(A) c > b > a (B) b > c > a (C) a > c > b (D) none of these

6. In the given figure 1: 2 4 : 5 . Find 2 4 6 8 1 3 5 7

2 1

3 4

6 5

7 8

p

l

m


7. In the given figure CO and BO are the bisectors of exterior angles and interior angles ABC. The measure of angle BOC is

A

BC D

120o

O

80o

(A) 20

o (B) 30

o (C) 50

o (D) none of these


39



8. For a triangle ABC, 5A = 3B and B = 5C, find the value of 3 times the largest angle.

(A) 75o (B) 150

o (C) 250

o (D) 300

o

9. If x = 2 and y = 4, then

x y y xx y

y x

is

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 2

10. If n5 125 , then n 645

(A) 25 (B) 1

125

(C) 625 (D) 1

5

11. The temperature at 12 noon was 10

oC above zero. If it decreases at the rate of 2

oC per hour until

midnight at what time would the temperature be 8oC below zero?

(A) 9 pm (B) 10 pm (C) 11 pm (D) none of these

12. A rectangular sheet of paper is 1

122

cm long and 2

103

cm wide. Its area in square m is

(A) 21m

75 (B) 21

m90

(C) 21m

105 (D) none of these

13. If x1, x2, x3, x4, …. xn are the n different observations of data and N, a positive real number is subtracted

from each observations, the new mean will differ by

(A) N

2 (B) N (C) N – 2 (D) none of these

14. Fill in the blank place.

Mode = ….. Median − 2 Mean (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) none of these

15. If , are the possible solutions of the equation 2x 5 10 then + =



40



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– IIIVVV ::: BBBIIIOOOLLLOOOGGGYYY


1. Trachea of man is made up of

(A) Bone (B) Cartilage (C) Muscles (D) Phospholipid

2. During anaerobic respiration done by yeast how many ATP is formed from one molecule of

glucose.

(A) 38 (B) 42 (C) 2 (D) None

3. During night oxygen enters in mature plant through

(A) Stomata (B) Lenticel (C) Both (D) None

4. The swollen part of trachea in man which you can see from outside is

(A) Pharynx (B) Adams apple (C) Oesophagus (D) None

5. Aerobic respiration takes place in two phases. Its first phase which occurs in cytoplasm is called as

(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) Meiosis

6. Anaerobic respiration done by lower plants are also called as

(A) Pasteurisation (B) Fermentation

(C) Artificial Insemination (D) Cryopreservation

7. Which of the following is a respiratory disease

(A) Emphysema (B) Asthama (C) Bronchitis (D) All of above

8. Which organism has longer intestine

(A) Herbivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Parasites (D) All of the above

9. Haemoglobin contains which element in abundance

(A) Iron (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Cu


41



10. Which part of the Gut secrets HCl

(A) Oesophagus (B) Stomach (C) Small Intestine (D) Colon

11. Photolysis of water takes place in

(A) Light reaction (B) Dark reaction

(C) Glycolysis (D) None

12. Which of the following is not an element of weather?

(A) Humidity (B) Temperature (C) Soil (D) Rain

13. Which of the following is an adaptation for cold climates?

(A) Thick fur (B) Long ear (C) Sweating gland (D) Light bones

14. The special features and habits of an animal survive in its environment are known as

(A) Evolution (B) Adaptation (C) Polymorphism (D) Hibernation

15. Long inactivity and metabolic depression of animals during winter is called.

(A) Aestivation (B) Hibernation

(C) Migration (D) Evolution


42



FFIIIITTJJEEEE CCOOMMMMOONN

TTEESSTT

UTYCRP (1618) A LOT Batches

PHASE – II

NNSSEEJJSS SSEETT –– AA

ANSWERS KEY

Physics [SECTION-I]

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. D

Chemistry [SECTION-II]

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. B

Mathematics [SECTION-III]

1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. A

Biology [SECTION-IV]

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A

Paper Code

43



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

UUTTYYCCRRPP 11661188 AA LLOOTT BBaattcchheess NN SS EE JJ SS

PHASE –II

SET – A SOLUTION

Physics [SECTION-I]

4. C 0 F 32 K 273

100 180 100

C F K

5 9 5

oC F 1 F 9F F

5 9 5 9 5

C K

5 5

K 1

5. C 0 F 32 37 F 32

F 98.6F100 180 5 9

K C 273 37 273 310K

6. flight

2UT 4

g

1U 2g 19.6ms

7. (A) average speed = 18010kmh

8

(B) average velocity = 0

08

9. 15u 45 12.5ms

18

v = 0

a = − 1

2u 12.5 12.5

s 78.125m2a 2

10.

44



30 km

40 km

60 km

A B

C

Origin

N

S

W E

distance = OA + AB + BC = 130 km

displacement = shortest distance between final & initial point

displacement = 2 230 40 50 km

45



Mathematics [SECTION-III]

1. Vertically opposite angles and angle sum property of a triangle. 2.

4.

A

B C

60o

O

120o

5. x + x + 10

o + 70

o = 180

o

o

o

2x 180 80

x 50

C B A

c b a

6. 4x + 5x = 180 (Linear pair)

o

9x 180

180x 20

9

7. BOC = 1

BAC2

8. A : B : C 3 : 5 :1

o

o o

3x 5x x 180

9x 180 x 20

9.

2 4 4 22 4

5 2

2

2

2 2

12

2

2 2 8

10. n

25 125 n 6

46



11. temperature difference = 10oC – (−8

oC)

= 18oC

12. 1 cm2 = 21

m100 100

13. If each observation is deviated by a certain number, the mean to gets deviated by the same. 14. Mode = 3 median – 2 mean

15. 15

2x 5 102

5

2x 5 10 2x 5 x2

15 5 10

52 2 2

FIITJEE COMMON

TEST for

Class –VII (UTYCRP 1618 A LOT Batches)

PHASE TEST – II QP CODE:

Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 90

Scholastic Aptitude Test SET – A








47










48



Section – I Mathematics

1. In the given figure „l‟ and „m‟ are two lines intersecting each other. The bisectors of 1 and 3 are OL

and OM respectively. Which of them is a true statement?

l m

23

4 O1

(A) L, O, M collinear (B) L, M, O non-collinear

(C) LO and MO perpendicular (D) none of these

2. Ray OC

stands on a line AB

such that adjacent-angles are one third and half of a constant „K‟. Find

the value of K.

A B

C

O (A) 256

o (B) 220

o (C) 216

o (D) none of these

3. The complement and supplement of an angle are such that the complement is 5

14 times its

supplement. The angle is

(A) 40o (B) 60

o (C) 70

o (D) none of these

4. Three sides of a triangle are produced in order. The exterior angles so formed is each equal to one-

another. What kind of triangle is formed?

(A) isosceles triangle (B) scalene triangle (C) equilateral triangle (D) none of these

5. The angle formed by the bisectors of a linear pair of angles is

(A) right-angle (B) acute angle (C) obtuse angle (D) reflex angle


49



6. Which of the following is a correct statement about a triangle

(A) a triangle has two right angles (B) a triangle has two obtuse angles

(C) a triangle has two supplementary angles (D) sum of one third of each-angle is 60o

7. From the given figure. Find the value of 1

y z3

P

z

yy/3m

(A) 135

o (B) 60

o (C) 120

o (D) none of these

8. The quadrilateral formed by joining the bisectors of interior-angles when two parallel lines are

intersected by a transversal is

(A) square (B) rectangle (C) rhombus (D) any quadrilateral

9. For an equilateral triangle 4 (Nos of medians) + 3 (nos of sides) = x times nos of vertices. Find the

value of x

(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

10. In a triangle ABC, AD is the median such that area of triangle ABD is 40 cm2 then area of triangle ABC

is

(A) 40 cm2 (B) 80 cm

2 (C) 120 cm

2 (D) none of these

11. The altitudes of a triangle are concurrent. The point of concurrence is known as

(A) orthocenter (B) circumcenter (C) centroid (D) incentre

12. Name the triangle in which orthocentre, circumcentre, centroid and incentre are the same

(A) right angled triangle (B) obtuse angled triangle

(C) acute angled triangle (D) a triangles in which all the angles are equal


50



13. From the given figure find the complement of „x‟

A

BE C

120o

D70

o

40o

x

(A) 80

o (B) 10

o (C) 120

o (D) none of these

14. In the given figure CO and BO are the bisectors of ACD and ABC and triangle ABC is an equilateral

triangle. Find the measure of BOC.

A

B C D

O

(A) 40

o (B) 30

o (C) 50

o (D) none of these

15. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a triangle given as

A

B C

c b

a (A) a + b > c (B) c + a > b

(C) 1/2 perimeter of triangle ABC > b (D) 1/2 perimeter of triangle ABC < b

16. In the given figure, find the measure of (x + z)

A

B C D

xz

E

70

(A) 225

o (B) 250

o (C) 300

o (D) none of these


51



17. For a triangle ABC, A = 2B = 3C, then name the type of triangle ABC is

(A) right-angled triangle (B) acute angled triangle

(C) obtuse angled triangle (D) none of these

18. The sides of a triangle are consecutive positive integers such that the sum of squares of the two is

equal to the square of the third. The area of the triangle is

(A) 12 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 6 sq. units (D) none of these

19. A rectangle of length 40 cm and of diagonal 41 cm is constructed. Find the area of the square

described on its breadth

(A) 100 (B) 41 (C) 81 (D) 121

20. Find the difference in magnitude of perimeter and area of a rhombus whose diagonals are 16 cm and

30 cm.


21. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 9 and the sides are three consecutive integers. The

length of longest side is


22. In an isosceles right triangle the bisectors of acute angles meet in a particular point O. Find the angle

subtended by the longest side at the point.

(A) 135o (B) 145

o (C) 130

o (D) none of these

23. Which of the following is not correct

(A) two lines segments of length 4 cm are always congruent

(B) a person and his image in plane mirror are congruent

(C) two equilateral triangle are always congruent

(D) two circles of the same radii are always congruent

24. In the given figure, ABC DEF , find EG

B

A C

3 4

5

E

DG

F

(A) 13

5 (B)

12

5 (C)

16

5 (D) none of these


52



25. In an isosceles triangle ABC, D is the midpoint of BC and B = 70o then CAD = ?

(A) 20o (B) 35

o (C) 40

o (D) none of these

26. Triangle ABC and triangle DEF are congruent to each other as shown in the given figure. Find a + b +

c.

A

B C

4 c

9

D

E F

a

b

10


27. ABC is a right triangle right angled at B, side AB is produced to point E such that AB = BE. The sides of

the triangle ABC are least possible positive integers. The length of CE is


28. ABC is an isosceles triangle. BL ⊥ AC, CM ⊥ AB. What about the relation between and .

A

B C

LM

(A) > (B) < (C) = (D) = + 2o

29. Two circles are congruent such that two chord AB and PQ of the corresponding circles are equal. What

is the relation between the angles X and Y respectively of the circles subtended by the respective

chords at the centre

(A) X = Y (B) X > y (C) X < Y (D) none of these


53



30. In the given figures ABC PQR. Find the value of (b + c – a).

A

B C

P

Q R

60o

b c

a

70o

(A) 60

o (B) 70

o (C) 90

o (D) none of these

31. ABC is a right angle triangle in which B = 90o. The midpoint M of side AC is at a distance of 5 cm from

vertex A. The length of BM is

(A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 7 cm (D) none of these

32. In a square ABCD diagonals intersect each other in point O. The area of triangle AOB is X. Find the

value of X if the area of the square is 400 cm2

(A) 200 cm2 (B) 100 cm

2 (C) 300 cm

2 (D) none of these

33. The sum of largest integer and smallest integer is

(A) 0 (B) −∞ (C) +∞ (D) none of these

34. Which of the following is correct

(A) integers are closed under multiplication (B) the integer 0 is the identity under multiplication

(C) division is associative for integers (D) subtraction is commutative for integers

35. A mad man moves forward a distance of 10 m and comes back 5 m every 3 minutes. How much time

he will take to travel a distance of 100 m.

(A) 1 hours (B) 80 minutes (C) 1.5 hours (D) none of these

36. The product of additive inverse of „−a‟ and multiplicative inverse of the same is

(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) a (D) 1/a

37. „a‟ and „b‟ are two different fractions reciprocal of each other. „c‟ and „d‟ are another pair of fractions

reciprocal of each other. Find the value of a b c d


38. Find the average of 1 1

,0.5 0.05

and 1

0.005

(A) 44 (B) 54 (C) 64 (D) 74


54



39. The median for first 10 natural numbers are

(A) 5 (B) 5.5 (C) 6 (D) 6.5

40. The mean of first n natural numbers is

(A) n2 (B) n(n + 1) (C)

n 1

2

(D) none of these

41. (Mode + Median) of the data: 13, 16, 12, 14, 19, 12, 14, 13, 14 is


42. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same faces

(A) 3

4 (B)

1

4 (C)

1

2 (D) none of these

43. A teacher has 45 chocolates. After giving two chocolates to each student, teacher is left with 7

chocolates. How many students are there in the class?


44. For the given pair of equations find the value of 2 2x y ,

3x + 5y = 21, 2x + 3y = 13

(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5

45. The co-ordinates of the point of intersection of the equations x = 5 and y = 3 are

(A) (3, 5) (B) (5, 3) (C) 5 3

,2 2

(D) 3

5,2


55



Section – II Physics

1. What is temperature of which Centigrade and Fahrenheit scale show same reading? (A) 40

o (B) – 40

o (C) 80

o (D) 100

o

2. In which way heat is transferred from sun to earth? (A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) none of these 3. Using the absolute temperature the temperature at which water has greatest density. (A) 273

o K (B) 273 K (C) 277

o K (D) 277 K

4. Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g

-1. What is heat required to melt 10 gram ice in Joules

(A) 800 joules (B) 8 joules (C) 3360 joules (D) 336 joules 5. Which element is used in thermos flask to avoid heat loss from radiation? (A) mercury (B) silver (C) both (D) none of these 6. The numerical ratio of speed to the velocity is (A) always less than one (B) always equal to one (C) equal to or more than one (D) equal to or less than one 7. It is given that acceleration is constant then distance is directly proportional to which power of time. (A) t

o (B) t

1 (C) t

2 (D) t

1/2

8. An elephant & a feather is dropped from same height which will fall earlier. (ignore air drag)

(A) elephant (B) feather (C) both at same time (D) none of these


56



9. A particle covers quarter of a circle then ratio of distance to the displacement is as

(A) 2

(B)

2

(C)

2 2

(D)

2

10. Tom is a cat & Jerry is a mouse. When Tom saw Jerry, then Jerry started running with 10 ms

-1. When

separation between them was 90 m. Tom started chasing at 25 ms-1

. In how much time Tom will catch Jerry?

(A) 10 sec (B) 9 sec (C) 3.6 sec (D) 6 sec 11. Cyclones are formed due to (A) pressure difference (B) temperature difference

(C) both (D) none of these 12. Amount of water vapour in a atmosphere is called (A) cyclone (B) storms (C) humidity (D) tornado 13. In cyclone prone-areas government should do (A) construction of cyclone shelter (B) transport arrangement to escape it

(C) medical and food storage in shelter (D) all of these

14. To escape from injury in thunder storm (A) sit inside car (B) sit inside building

(C) stay away from metal sheds & water bodies (D) all of these 15. Nose bleeding occur at high altitude due to (A) high pressure of air (B) low pressure of air (C) both (D) none of these


57



Section – III Chemistry

1. Among the following which one has not „ Sour‟ taste.

(A) Grape (B) Lemon (C) Orange (D) Beat

2. Indicator indicates Acid/base property by

(A) Change in state (B) Evolution of heat

(C) Change in colour (D) Change in Texture

3. Which one has lowest pH [more acidic] character in following

(A) Saliva (B) Blood (C) Sweat (D) Gastric Juice

4. Which salt is known as acid salt.

(A) Washing soda (B) Baking Soda (C) Soda ash (D) Caustic Soda

5. Which of the following natural substance used to defect both acidic and basic character after some

modification.

(A) Turmeric (B) Litchen (C) Hibiscus (D) Phenolphthalein

6. Formation of copper sulphate crystal from copper with concentrated sulpluric acid is chemical change

followed by physical process like

(P) Leaching (Q) Crystallization (R) Evaporation (S) Centrifugal separation

The correct sequence of process is.

(A) P → Q → R → S (B) P → R → Q → S (C) R → Q → P → S (D) S → R → Q → P

7. Which of the following metal does not undergoes any chemical change when kept open in air.

(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Gold (D) Silver

8. A concentrated sugar solution is obtained by dissolving sugar in hot water which on cooling gives

crystal of sugar. This indicate

(A) Physical change is irreversible (B) Chemical change is irreversible

(C) Physical change is reversible (D) Chemical change is reversible


58



9. LPG gas is used in kitchen as domestic fuel. Which one is not correct statement regarding burning of

the former in gas stove.

(A) Travel of L.P.G to gas stove is a physical

(B) Burning of LPG in burner is chemical change

(C) Heating of griddle on stove is chemical change

(D) Heating of griddle on stove is physical change

10. Galvanization of iron protect it from rusting. The true statement regarding galvanization is.

(A) It is physical change by diping iron in molten zinc

(B) It is chemical change by diping iron in molten zinc (C) It is physical change by diping iron in molten Aluminium (D) It is chemical change by diping iron in molten Aluminium

11. Among the following which combination followed by chemical change.

(A) Zinc + Aluminium sulphate (B) Iron + Magnesium sulphate

(C) Iron + sliver nitrate (D) Nitrogen + Oxygen at room temperature

12. In metallurgical operation „roasting‟ and calcination process involved frequently true statement is.

(A) Roasting is chemical change calcination is physical change

(B) Roasting is physical change calcination may be chemical change

(C) Roasting is chemical while calcination may either physical or chemical change

(D) Roasting may be physical or chemical change but calcination is a chemical change.

13. Which one is not a physical change

(A) Twinkling of star (B) Reflection of mirror

(C) Sparkle of crackers (D) None of the above

14. Dissolution of sugar in water is physical process can be reversed by following steps

(I) Evaporation (II) Crystallization

(III) Precipitable (IV) Coagulation

Now which combination of physical process is suitable in sequence

(A) I – III (B) II – III (C) I – IV (D) I – II

15. Among the following which one is a chemical change regarding only water

(A) Electrolysis of water (B) Softening of hard water

(C) Evaporation of water (D) Freezing of water


59



Section – IV Biology

1. Which compound is CO2 acceptor/carrier in the process of photosynthesis

(A) NADP (B) ATP (C) ADP (D) RUBP

2. Respiratory organ of frog is

(A) Skin (B) Lung (C) Buccal cavity (D) All of these

3. Largest contributor of atmospheric oxygen is

(A) Mango tree (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Marine algae

4. Empty stomach for a long time may cause

(A) Gas (B) Peptic ulcer (C) Emphysema (D) Both (A) and (B)

5. Ethyle alcohol is the end product of anaerobic respiration in

(A) Higher mammals (B) Mouse (C) Mango tree (D) Yeast

6. For inspiration in man

(A) Suction pressure is created by lungs (B) Pull force is created by trachea

(C) Atmospheric pressure plays main roll (D) None of these

7. Digestion of fat starts in

(A) Mouth (B) Stomach (C) Duodenum (D) Ileum

8. Moist skin is a modification for

(A) Pulmonary respiration (B) Pharyngeal respiration

(C) Branchial respiration (D) Cutaneous respiration

9. Use of ice cream after the meal

(A) Delays the digestion process (B) Speeds up digestion

(C) Kills the germs of food (D) No effect

10. Tidal volume in man is

(A) 1000 ml (B) 2000 ml (C) 500 ml (D) 1500 ml


60



11. Asphyxia means

(A) O2 starvation (B) Gastritis (C) Ulcer (D) Pain in abdomen

12. Birds are adapted to fly because of

(A) Streamlined body (B) Light bones (C) Feathers and wings (D) All of these

13. Water vapour present in atmosphere is called

(A) Humidity (B) Precipitation (C) Climate (D) Rainfall

14. Camouflage shown in polar bears is due to

(A) Thick fur (B) Padded feet (C) White fur (D) Two layers of feet

15. In India, rain forests are found in which of the following state.

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Assam (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Kerala


61



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST UTYCRP (1618) A LOT Batches

PHASE – I1- (SAT)

ANSWER KEYS

SET – A

Mathematics

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. D

7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. D

13. B 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C

19. C 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B

25. A 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. A

31. A 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. A 36. B

37. D 38. D 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. C

43. B 44. D 45. B

Physics

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C

7. C 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. C

13. D 14. D 15. B

Chemistry

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. B

7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. C

13. C 14. D 15. A

Biology

62



1. D 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. A

7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. A 12 D

13. A 14. C 15. B

63



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST UTYCRP (1618) A LOT Batches

PHASE – I1- (SAT)

SET – A

Solution Mathematics

1. LOM = 180o

L, O, M are collinear points.

2. ok k180

3 2 [linear pair axiom]

3. 90 – x = o5180 x

14

4. o o o o180 x 180 x 180 x 180

x

x

x180

o - x 180

o - x

180o - x

o o540 180 3x

5. AOB + BOC = 180o

P B

Q

CA O

o1 1AOB BOC 90

2 2

6. oA B C 180

o1 1 1A B C 60

3 3 3

64



7. oyy 180

3

o o

o

3y y180 y 135

3

1 1y z 180 60

3 3

8. LO || MN & LM || ON

LMNO is a parallelogram

L

O

N

M

Also LMN = 90

o

9. 4 3 3 3 x 3

12 9 3x 21 3x x 7

10. A median divides a triangle into two triangles of equal area.

A

B DC

11.

Orthocentre N M

L 12. In an equilateral triangle, all the points coincide. 13. 120

o = 70

o + 40

o + x

120o – 110

o = x

120o = 110

o + x 10 = x

14. oA B C 60

65



A

B C D

O

o

o o o

o o

ACD 120

BCO 60 60 120

1OBC 60 30

2

15. a + c > b

a + b + c > 2b Perimeter of triangle ABC > 2b

1

2 perimeter of triangle ABC > b

16. o o o o70 180 x 180 z 180

17. A 2 B 3 C k

A k A B C 180

k k kB k 180

2 2 3

kC

3

18. 2 22x x 1 x 2 [Pythagoras theorem]

x = 3

Area = 1

4 3 62 sq. cm

19. BC

2 = 41

2 – 4

2

D C

A B

41

40 BC = 9 cm

Area of the required square = 92

20. perimeter = 68 cm

66



D C

A B

15 O

8

17 Area = 240 cm

2

difference in their magnitudes = 240 – 68 = 172 units 21. 4x + 5x + 9x = 180

o

18x ÷ 180 x = 10o

∵ the triangle is right angled Now

2 22y y 1 y 2 y 3

the longest side of the triangle = 5 units

22. 1 1

1 2 A C2 2

A

O

CB

1

2

= 45

o

AOC = 135o

23. Two geometric figure are congruent only when their shape and size are the same. 24. 3

2 + 4

2 = 5

2

ABC is a right angled triangle

Now arc(ABC) = arc(DEF)

1 13 4 DF EG

2 2

12 5 EG

12EG

5

25. D is midpoint of BC

ADB ADC

A

70o

70o

DB C

67



ADC = 90o

CAD = 20o

26. ABC DEF

AB = DE BC = EF AC = DF

27. ABC and EBC are congruent

CA = CE

And also the sides of ABC are 3, 4 & 5.

28. BLC CMB

29. OAB O PQ

O

A B

O'

P Q

30. a = 60

B = 70 ABC PQR C = 50

b + c – a = 120o – 60

o = 60

o

b c

60o

A

B C

P

a

70o

Q R

31. AM = BM

A

P M

B C

MPB MPA 32. All the four triangles are congruent to one another

D C

A B

O

68



their areas are equal 33. not defined 34. Basic concept. 35. In 3 minutes distance covered = 5 m

10 m

36. Additive inverse of (−a) is „a‟

Multiplicative inverse of –a is 1

a

37. product of reciprocal is 1.

38. 1 1 1

3 740.5 0.05 0.005

39. Median =

n nth observation 1 th observation

2 2

2

When „n‟ is odd

40. The sum of first n natural numbers = n n 1

2

41. Simple concept of median and mode. 42. possible outcomes are {TT, HH, HT, TH} 43. Let x be the number of students in the class

equation 2x + 7 = 45 44. On solving x = 2, y = 3

x2 + y

2 = -2

2 + 3

2 = - 4 + 9 = 5

45.

(5, 3)

69



Physics

1. C 0 F 32 x x 32

9x 5x 160100 180 100 180

o o o4x 160 x 40 40 C 40 F

3. at 4

oC water has greatest density.

K = 273 + oC = 273 + 4 = 277 K

4. 1 gram need 80 cal

∵ 10 gram need 800 cal = 800 4.2 = 3360 joules

6. distance displacement

time time

speed velocity

speed

1velocity

7. a = constant

V = u + at v t

S = 2 21ut at S t

2

9. distance = 2 r r

4 2

Displacement = 2 r

Ratio = r 1

2 2r 2 2

10. Let time taken = t sec Distance covered by jerry in t sec

s1 = vt = 10t Distance covered by tom in t sec to catch jerry = s2 = 25t = 10t + 90

t = 6 sec

FIITJEE COMMON

TEST for

Class –VII (UTYCRP 1618 A LOT Batches)

PHASE – II SET – A

70



Mental Ability Test (MAT) QP CODE:

Time:90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

From questions 1 – 25, in each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the given alternatives having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.

1. King : Throne : : Judge : ? (A) Lawyer (B) Bench (C) Court (D) Trial 2. Love : Friend : : Hate : ? (A) Harted (B) Brother (C) Enemy (D) Companion

A: General :


pen.



3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.






8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on

duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test

Booklet with them.







71



3. Cobbler : Leather : : Tailor : ? (A) Thread (B) Cloth (C) Shirt (D) Draper 4. Collage : Dean : : Museum : ? (A) Supervisor (B) Custodian (C) Warden (D) Curator 5. Tea : Leaves : : Coffee : ? (A) Plant (B) Leaves (C) Seeds (D) Stimulant 6. USA : Congress : : Iran : ? (A) Althing (B) Storting (C) Majlis (D) Cortes 7. Ocean : Water : : Glacier : ? (A) Cooling (B) Cave (C) Ice (D) Mountain 8. Smoke : Pollution : : War : ? (A) Peace (B) Victory (C) Treaty (D) Destruction 9. Pyramid : Egypt : : Eiffel tower : ? (A) Spain (B) France (C) Canada (D) Japan


72



10. French : France : : Dutch : ? (A) Holland (B) Norway (C) Fiji (D) Sweden 11. Calander : Dates : : Dictionary : ? (A) Vacobulary (B) Language (C) Words (D) Book 12. Cricket : Pitch : : Wrestling : ? (A) Ring (B) Wrestler (C) Ground (D) Arena 13. Scientist : Laboratory : : Actor : ? (A) Casino (B) Gallery (C) Stage (D) Site 14. Motorcycle : Battery : : Life : ? (A) Comet (B) Star (C) Sun (D) Moon 15. Magazine : Editor : : Drama : ? (A) Director (B) Player (C) Manager (D) Actor 16. Aryabhata : Mathematician : : Varahamihira : ? (A) Physician (B) Astronomer (C) Scientist (D) Architect 17. Hongkong : China : : Vatican : ? (A) France (B) Maxico (C) Canada (D) Rome 18. Brinjal : Vegetable : : Orange : ? (A) Fruit (B) Stem (C) Leaf (D) Root 19. Abduct : Kidnap : : Solicit : ? (A) Request (B) Ban (C) Squander (D) Allot

20. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ? (A) Rack (B) Newspaper (C) Library (D) Books


73



21. Mumbai : Maharashtra : : Trivandrum : ? (A) Kolkata (B) Gujarat (C) Kerala (D) Sikkim 22. Dog : Bark : : Goat : ? (A) Bleat (B) Howl (C) Grunt (D) Bray 23. Girl : Beautiful : : Boy : ? (A) Smart (B) Heroic (C) Courageous (D) Handsome

24. Touch : Feel : : Greet : ? (A) Smile (B) Manners (C) Acknowledge (D) Success 25. Radio : Listener : : Film : ? (A) Producer (B) Actor (C) Viewer (D) Director 26. Find the odd word from the group (A) Dog (B) Cow (C) Goat (D) Buffalo 27. Find the odd word. (A) walking (B) running (C) moving (D) reading 28. Find the odd word. (A) car (B) bus (C) scooter (D) jeep 29. Find the odd word. (A) Patna (B) Lucknow (C) Kolkata (D) Jamshedpur 30. Find the odd word. (A) square (B) sphere (C) rectangle (D) circle


74



31. Find the odd word. (A) Rose (B) Lily (C) Lotus (D) Grapes 32. Find the odd word. (A) eye (B) bone (C) ear (D) hand 33. Find the odd word. (A) red (B) blue (C) yellow (D) black 34. Find the odd word. (A) 14

th November (B) 15

th August

(C) 26th January (d) 2

nd October

35. Find the odd word. (A) moon (B) football (C) earth (D) bangles 36. Find the odd word. (A) Green (B) indigo (C) Pink (D) violet

37. Find the odd word. (A) cheese (B) wine (C) milk (D) curd

38. Find the odd word. (A) debit (B) deposit (C) deduction (D) withdrawal 39. Find the odd pair of word. (A) horse : neigh (B) lion : grunt (C) owl : hoot (D) sheep : bleat 40. Find the odd group at letters. (A) HJA (B) NPE (C) OQU (D) XYZ


75



41. Find the odd one. (A) 216 (B) 33

(C) 8 (D) 64 42. Find the odd one. (A) 75 (B) 45

(C) 25 (D) 15 43. Find the odd one. (A) 345 (B) 821

(C) 236 (D) 182 44. Take out the odd one. (A) 456 (B) 234

(C) 123 (D) 312 45. Find out the odd group. (A) 25, 50, 56 (B) 20, 40, 46

(C) 18, 36, 40 (D) 12, 24, 30 46. If MEAT is written as TEAM, then BALE is written as (A) ELAB (B) EABL

(C) EBLA (D) EALB 47. If in a certain code language MIGHT is written as GHMTI. Then how will EARTH be written in that code? (A) RTEHA (B) RTEAH

(C) REAEH (D) RETHA 48. If SILVER is coded as ZXYBDQ and KAMAL is coded as LNCNY, then what will be the code for VIKAS? (A) BXNLZ (B) ZXYCN

(C) BXLNZ (D) LNCBD 49. If a certain code language PUT is written as 57, the how will BAT be written in that language? (A) 25 (B) 60

(C) 55 (D) 23 50. If B = 2, BAG = 10 then BOX = ? (A) 36 (B) 39

(C) 41 (D) 52


76



51. If A = 1 and AND = 19 then CAT = ? (A) 32 (B) 47

(C) 24 (D) 37 52. If A = 1 and AND = 56 then CAT = ? (A) 60 (B) 65

(C) 75 (D) 55 53. If P = 16 and TAP = 37 then CUP = ? (A) 40 (B) 38

(C) 36 (D) 39 54. If G = 7 and GOD = 420, then MOOD = ? (A) 11700 (B) 10181 (C) 12500 (D) 95000 55. In a certain code language „he is great‟ is written as „ka pa ra‟ and „is Ram hanging‟ is written as „na

sa ka‟. Find the code for „is‟. (A) na (B) sa (C) ka (D) ra 56. In a certain code language 125 = go to school, 146 = study in school, 135 = run to school, which

digit is used for run? (A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1 From questions 57 – 61, read the following information carefully to answer the following question. In a certain code language 4 6 1 means „where are you‟, 1 6 9 means „you are good‟ and 8 6 52 means „flowers are not bad‟. 57. What is the code for „not‟? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 8 or 5 or 2 58. What is the code for „good‟? (A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 6 (D) 6 or 1


77



59. How will „where not are good flowers‟ be written in coded language? (A) 68954 (B) 46598 (C) 45698 (D) none of these 60. How will „are you where‟ be written in the coded language? (A) 614 (B) 163 (C) 618 (D) 168 61. What does „59‟ means? (A) not good (B) bad are (C) not bad (D) data indequate 62. If 3, 1, 11, 5 represents CAKE, 6, 1, 9, 12 is FAIL. What represents FIRST? (A) 9, 18, 6, 14, 20 (B) 6, 18, 9, 19, 20 (C) 6, 9, 18, 19, 20 (D) 18, 19, 20, 9, 6 63. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT? (A) 39 (B) 41 (C) 44 (D) 46 64. In a certain code PROSE is written as PPOQE. How would LIGHT be written in that code? (A) LIGFT (B) LGGHT (C) LGGFT (D) JIEHR 65. If CONSTABLE is coded as 91, what will be the code number of STABLE? (A) 97 (B) 59 (C) 79 (D) 75 66. 1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91 (A) 25 (B) 26 (C) 27 (D) 28 67. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121 (A) 64 (B) 81 (C) 91 (D) 100 68. 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, …., 54 (A) 18 (B) 27 (C) 36 (D) 81


78



69. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, …. (A) 240 (B) 290 (C) 336 (D) 504 70. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9, ?, 12, 21 (A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13 71. Find the next two terms in the same series A, C, F, J, ? (A) L, P (B) M, O (C) O, U (D) R, V 72. 3, 3, 4.5, 9, 22.5, ? (A) 27.5 (B) 24 (C) 55 (D) 67.5 73. 7200, 3600, 1200, 300, 60, ? (A) 10 (B) 25 (C) 15 (D) 20 From questions 74 – 78, read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow. (i) A, B, C, D, E and F are the six members of family. (ii) F is the granddaughter of E. (iii) D is the grandmother of A. (iv) C is the mother of F and wife of B. (v) B‟s mother is D. (vi) There are two married couple in the family. 74. How many males are there in the family? (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) cannot be determined 75. What is C‟s relation with A? (A) mother (B) grandmother (C) daughter (D) cannot be determined 76. Take out the true statement. (A) A is sister of F (B) A is F‟s brother (C) D has two grandson (D) none of the above


79



77. Who among the following is one of the couple?

(A) EB (B) DE

(C) CD (D) cannot be determined

78. How many female there in the family?

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) cannot be determined

From questions 79 – 81, read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

(i) „P×Q‟ means P is the father of Q.

(ii) „P−Q‟ means P is the sister of Q. (iii) „P+Q‟ means P is the mother of Q. (iv) „P÷Q‟ means P is the brother of Q.

79. If the expression B + D × M ÷ N. How is M related to B. (A) granddaughter (B) son (C) grandson (D) none of these 80. Which of the following represent „J is the son of B‟. (A) J ÷ R – T × F (B) J + R – T × F

(C) J ÷ M – N × F (D) none of these 81. Which of the following represent „R is the niece of M‟. (A) M ÷ K × T − R (B) M – J + R – N

(C) R – M × T ÷ W (D) none of these

From questions 82 – 84, if „−„ = „×‟, „÷‟ = „+‟, and „+‟ = „−„ then what will the value of the following.

82. 7 ÷ 3 – 10 ÷ 15 + 2 (A) 56 (B) 59 (C) 52 (D) 50 83. 12 – 3 + 14 ÷ 5 (A) 38 (B) 25 (C) 23 (D) 27


80



84. 8 ÷ 9 + 7 ÷ 6 – 3 (A) 21 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 30 85. If 782 = 20 and 671 = 17 then 884 = ? (A) 32 (B) 19 (C) 26 (D) 23 86. The sum of two numbers, one of which is one third of the other is 36. The smaller number is (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 87. If in a certain language WEAK is coded as 9%25 and SKIT is coded as #57@ then how will WAIT

be coded in the same language (A) 9267 (B) 9276 (C) 72@6 (D) none of these 88. Find the whole number which when increased by 20 is equal to one sixth times of the new number. (A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 4 89. The smallest number by which 3600 can be divided to make a perfect cube is (A) 9 (B) 50 (C) 300 (D) 450 90. The LCM of two numbers is 280 and their ratio is 7 : 8. The two number are (A) 7, 8 (B) 42, 48 (C) 35, 40 (D) 28, 32


81



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST UTYCRP 1618 LOT A Batches

PHASE – II MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

SET – A QP CODE:

Answer

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C

7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. D

13. C 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. D 18. A

19. A 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C

25. C 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. B

31. D 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. D 36. C

37. B 38. B 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. C

43. A 44. D 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. C

49. D 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. A 54. A

55. C 56. C 57. D 58. B 59. D 60. A

82



61. D 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B 66. D

67. B 68. B 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. D

73. A 74. D 75. A 76. D 77. B 78. B

79. C 80. D 81. B 82. D 83. D 84. C

85. D 86. D 87. D 88. D 89. D 90. C

83



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST UTYCRP 1618 LOT A Batches

PHASE – II MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

SET – A QP CODE:

Solution

1. As king throne, judge bench

2. love hate, friend enemy

3. cobbler leather, tailor cloths

4. collage dean, museum curator

5. tea leaves, coffee seeds

6. USA Congress, Iran Mailis

7. ocean water, glacier ice

8. smoke pollution, war destruction

9. pyramid Egypt, effill tower france

10. French France, Dutch Holland

11. calander dates, dictionary word

12. cricket pitch, wrestler arena

13. scientist laborary, actor stage

14. motorcycle battery, life sun

15. magazine editor, drama director

16. aryabhatta mathematician, varahamihira physician

17. hongkong china, Vatican rome

18. brinjal vegetable, orange fruit

84



19. abduct kidnap, solicit request

20. menu food, catalogue books

21. Mumbai Maharashtra, Trivandrum kerela

22. dog bark, goat bleat

23. girl beautiful, boy handsome

24. touch feel, greet acknowledge

25. radio listener, film viewer 26. only dog is omnivorous 27. all except reading are related to motion. 28. except scooter all are four wheeler. 29. except Jamshedpur all are capitals of states. 30. except sphere all are two-dimensional figure. 31. except grapes all are flowers. 32. except bone all are organs. 33. except black all others are primary colours. 34. except 14

th November. All are national holidays.

35. except bangle all other item do not have whole. 36. except pink all are part of „VIBGYOR‟ 37. except wine all are milk or milk product. 38. except deposite all are similar words. 39. except lion-grunt all are correct match of animal and their sound. 40. except XYZ. All have two letters difference 41. except 33 all no. are cubes of natural no. 42. except 25 all are divisible of 3 43. except 345 addition in 11. 44. except 312 all are increasing order of digits. 45. except 18, 36, 40 all no. grous have second number double the first number and third number 6

more than second number. 46.

M E A T T E A M B A L E E A L B ,

85



47. M I G H T G H M T I

1 2 3 4 5 3 4 1 5 2

E A R T H R T E H N

1 2 3 4 5 3 4 1 5 2

48.

S Z

I X

L Y

V B

E D

R Q

K L

A N

M C

A N

L Y

Y B

I X

K L

A N

S Z

49. 16 21 20

P U T 16 + 21 + 20 = 57 2 1 20

B A T 2 + 1 + 20 = 23 50. B = 2 B A G = 2 + 1 + 7 = 0 B O X = 2 + 15 + 24 = 41 51. same as Q. N. 50. 52. A = 1 A N D = 56 C A T

1 × 14 × 4 3 × 1 × 20 = 20 53. P = 16 T – 20 C – 3 A – 1 U – 21 = 40 P – 16 P – 16 54. M = 13 13 1 4 13 15 15 4 M A D M O O D

13 ×1 × 4 = 52 13 × 15 × 15 × 4 = 11700

55. He is great Ka d ra

Is ram hungry na sa ka

∵ is = ka

56. 1 2 5 go to school

1 4 6 study in school

1 3 5 run to school

run = 3

57-61. 4 6 1 where are you

1 6 9 you are good

8 6 5 2 flowers are not bad

86



62. letters are coded according to their place in english alphabets

63. ACT = 1 × 2 + 3 × 2 + 20 × 2 = 48

BAT = 2 × 2 + 1 × 2 + 20 × 2 = 46 64.

2 2

2 2

P P L L

R P I G

O O G G

S Q H F

E E T T

65. value of alphabetical position 66. patter +5, +9, +13, +17, +21, +25 …. 67. 1

2, 3

2, 5

2, 7

2, 9

2, 11

2

68. alternate number multiplied by 3 69. 1

3 – 1, 2

3 – 2, 3

3 – 3, 4

3 – 4. 5

-3 – 5

70.

1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9, 13, 12, 21

+2 +4 +6 +8

71. difference between two letters are increasing 72.

3 3 4.5 9 22.5 67.5

x1 x1.5 2 2.5 x3

73.

7200 3600 1200 300 60 10

2 3 4 5 6 80. check by option 81. check by option

82. = 7 + 3 × 10 + 15 – 2 = 7 + 30 + 15 – 2 = 50

83. 12 × 3 – 14 + 5 = 27

84. 8 + 9 – 7 + 6 3 = 28 85. 782 = (7 + 8 + 2) + 3 = 20 671 = (6 + 7 + 1) + 3 = 17 884 = (8 + 8 + 4) + 3 = 23 86. let the no be 3x and x A/q 3x + x = 36

∴ x = 9

87



88. let two whole no be x

1x x 20

6

4

89. 33600

8 2450

90. Let the number be 7x and 8x

HCF = x

LCM HCF = product of numbers

280 × = 56x2

∵ x = 5 ∵ numbers are 35 and 40

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

NN SS EE JJ SS

PHASE –III SET – (A)

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

A. Question Paper Format 1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics-

Section-III and Biology- IV) and each part consists of four sections. 2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

B. Marking scheme: 1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases,

minus one (1) mark will be awarded.

Q.P CODE xxxxxx.x

88



Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

89



SECTION – I Physics

1. Two resistors of resistance 2 and 4 when connected to a battery will have: (A) same current flowing through them when connected in parallel (B) same current flowing through them when connected in series (C) same potential difference across them when connected in series (D) different potential difference across them when connected in parallel 2. The following circuit diagram shows the experimental set-up for

the study of dependence of current on potential difference. Which two circuit components are connected in series?

(A) Battery and voltmeter (B) Ammeter and voltmeter (C) Ammeter and Rheostat (D) Resistor and voltmeter

+ ( )

R

A –

+

+ V

3. In the given circuit the voltmeter and ammeter readings would be

respectively: (A) 0 V and 0 A each (B) 3V and 1A (C) 1V and 3A (D) 3V and 3A

+

6

A – +

+ V

( )

6

3V 4. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper

from East to West as shown in figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will be North to South:

(A) directly above the wire (B) directly below the wire (C) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the North side of

the wire (D) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the South side of

the wire

E W

N

S E W

5. Three resistors are connected to a 10-V battery as shown

in the figure. What is the current through the 2.0 resistor?

(A) 0.25 A (B) 0.50 A (C) 1.0 A (D) 2.0 A

4.0 4.0

2.0 10 V

6. The SI unit of heat is: (A) calorie (B) Btu (C) kilocalorie (D) joule


90



7. The initial velocity of a train which is being stopped in 20 s by applying breaks (retardation

due to brakes being 1.5 m/s2) (A) 30 m/s (B) 30 cm/s (C) 20 cm/s (D) 50 cm/s 8. An electric train is moving with a velocity of 120 km/h. How much distance will it cover in

30 s? (A) 5 km (B) 2 km (C) 1 km (D) none of these 9. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as: (A) volt ampere (B) kilowatt hour (C) watt second (D) joule second 10. In an experiment to study the dependence of current on

potential difference across a resistor, a student obtained the graph as shown in the diagram. The value of resistance of the resistor is,

(A) 0.1 (B) 1.0

(C) 10 (D) 100

1.0

0.1

0.2

0.3

0.4

V (Volt)

2.0 3.0 4.0

I (A)

11. Two magnetic field lines: (A) intersect at neutral point (B) never intersect each other (C) intersect near North-pole or South-pole (D) intersect at the mid-point of the magnet 12. The current flowing through a resistor

connected in an electrical circuit and the potential differences developed across its ends are shown in the given diagrams. The value of resistance of the resistor in ohm is:

(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 15 (D) 10

300 0

100 200

mA 3 0

1 2

V

13. A resistance coil is made by combining two 2.5 Ohm resistance in series. A 1.0 V steady

voltage is applied across the two ends of the coil for 5 minutes. The heat generated is: (A) 30 J (B) 60 J (C) 90 J (D) 120 J 14. Specific heat of a substance depends on its: (A) mass (B) volume (C) temperature (D) nature 15. The centre of the cyclone having low pressure is called: (A) Nose of the storm (B) Neck of the storm (C) Eye of the storm (D) None of these


91



SECTION – II Chemistry

1. The gas which escape out from many aerated soft drinks is (A) H2 (B) CO2 (C) O2 (D) N2

2. The dried perspiration of sheep is called (A) suint (B) yalk (C) web (D) none of these 3. Soil erosion means the removal of top soil. This is brought about by wind and water or

rain. Soil erosion is caused by (A) deforestation (B) overgrazing (C) poor farming method (D) all 4. Other name of alluvial soil is (A) Regar (B) khadar (C) alluvial soil (D) red soil 5. The soil transported by flowing water is called as (A) soluble soil (B) colluvial soil (C) alluvial soil (D) olive soil 6. What are the features of top-soil. (A) It is darkest in colour among the other types of soil (B) it is rich in humans (C) it is very fertile (D) all 7. 200 gm of a soil is taken and dried completely in bright sunshine. The mass of dried soil is

found to be 170 gm. Calculate the % of water (or moisture) present in the given sample of soil.

(A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 25% 8. Which soil has the highest humus content (A) Mountain soil (B) Laterite soil (C) Red soil (D) Black soil 9. Name living organism present in soil (A) Ant (B) Scorpion (C) Earth-worm (D) All


92



10. What is a soil horizon? (A) A factor influencing how soil is formed (B) A layer of soil (C) An organism found within the soil (D) A technique used to map soils 11. Which three layers form the soil profile? (A) Air. water and soil

(B) Minerals, organic matter and living organisms (C) Clay, silt and sand (D) The topsoil, subsoil and parent material

12. How does a 'sandy' soil feel like to touch? (A) Sticky (B) Gritty (C) Smooth (D) none of these 13. Why is organic matter (humus) an important part of soil? (A) It helps to improve water infiltration (B) It can break down organic pollutants (C) It converts nitrogen in the air into nitrates used by plants (D) It is rich in nutrients, which is important for fertility 14. Which of the following is NOT a common reason why soil maps are used?

(A) To determine the land drainage capabilities of an area (B) To determine the suitability of soils for particular crops (C) To identify soils and their properties (D) To record how soils are used by people

15. A horizon of soil also designated as (A) Eluviated horizon (B) Illuviated horizon (C) both (A) and (B) (D) None of these


93



SECTION – III Mathematics

1. The value of 4.02.05.07.06.0

(A) 13.0 (B) 31.0

(C) 1.0 (D) 1

2. If p : q = 1 : 3 and r : s = 2 : 5 then the value of qs5pr3

qr3ps2

is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 81

8

(C) 81

8 (D)

81

80

3. 00001.0

0001.0

0001.0

001.0

001.0

01.0

100

1.0 is equal to

(A) 0.0004 (B) 0.0000 (C) 40 (D) 30.001

4. The value of the expression:

1 1 1

a b a c b c b a c a c b

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) a + b + c 5. A boat travels with a speed of 15 km/h in still water. In a river flowing at 5 km/hr, the boat

travels some distance downstream and then returns. The ratio of average speed to the speed in still water is :

(A) 8 : 3 (B) 3 : 8 (C) 8 : 9 (D) 9 : 8

6. ABCD is a parallelogram. P is a point on AD such that AP = 3

1 AD and Q is a point on BC

such that CQ = .BC3

1 then what kind of quadrilateral AQCD is

(A) Rhombus (B) Parallelogram (C) Square (D) Rectangle

7. If 60x = 5, then 12 = __________.

(A) 1 x5 (B) x 160

(C) x 15 (D) 1 x60


94



8. What should be subtracted from p4 + 3p2 + 1 to get p2 + p – 1? (A) p4 + 2p2 – p + 2 (B) 2p2 + 2 (C) p4 + p + 2 (D) p3 – 2p 9. At what rate percent of simple interest will Rs. 250 amount to Rs. 300 in 4 years? (A) 4% (B) 6% (C) 5% (D) None of these 10. During one year, the population of a town increased by 10% and during the next year, it

diminished by 10%. Then the population now is: (A) same as in the beginning (B) greater than that in the beginning (C) less than that in the beginning (D) none of the above

11. If 2

12 mm m3 3 81

, then m = __________.

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) –6 (D) –3

12. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 __________.

(A) 1

2 (B)

5

8

(C) 1 (D) 2 13. D is an interior point of triangle ABC and x, y, z and w are the measures of the angles in degrees, as shown in the figure. An expression for x in terms of y, z and w is (A) w y z

(B) w y z 2 2

(C) w y z 2 2

(D) w y z 0180

A

B C

D

x

y z

w

14. If a + b = - 2 then the value of a3 + b3 + 8 = ? (A) 8ab (B) 2ab (C) 4ab (D) 6ab

15. 3 3 2 21 1 1 1p q p q pq

8 27 4 6 equals

(A)

3

2p 3q

2

(B)

3

3p 2q

6

(C)

3 3

p q

2 3

(D)

3

p q

6


95



SECTION – IV Biology

1. When mechanical pressure is applied to the soft stems, the rate of ascent of sap (A) Stops (B) Increases (C) Remains unaffected (D) Increases in the beginning and then stops 2. In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperms. What do these sperms do in the

fertilization of a flower? (A) Each one fertilizes a separate egg cell to give rise to two seeds (B) One fertilizes an egg cell and the other fertilizes a cell that gives rise to the tissue of

the fruit (C) Both fertilizes a single egg cell (D) One fertilizes an egg cell and the other fertilizes a cell that forms food reserve tissue

3. Mammals are said to have a double circulatory system. It means that (A) Blood vessels are paired, e.g., artery to each leg (B) There are two types of blood vessels attached to every organ e.g., an artery and a vein (C) There are two systems, one from the heart to the lungs and then latter to the rest of

the body

(D) The blood circulates twice in the heart during each trip around the body 4. Which of the following specifies that sexual reproduction is advantageous over asexual

reproduction? (A) It produces more off-springs (B) It ensures survival of the species (C) It preserves the parental genes (D) It increases the variations among the off-springs 5. Blood leaving liver and entering into the heart, has usually high concentration of (A) Urea (B) Bile (C) Glucose (D) Erythrocytes 6. Which of the following methods of vegetative propagation is also known as “GOOTEE”? (A) Grafting (B) Bud layering (C) Air layering (D) Cutting 7. If 50% leaves are removed from a plant, the rate of transpiration by remaining leaves will : (A) decrease (B) remain unchanged (C) increase (D) depend on the prevailing conditions 8. Match the following: (1) Transpiration (i) Reproduction in angiosperms (2) Guttation (ii) Plasmodium (3) Fragmentation (iii) Lenticles (4) Triple fusion (iv) Hydathodes (v) Spirogyra (A) 1 – iii, 2 – v, 3 – iv, 4 – i (B) 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – v, 4 – ii (C) 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – v, 4 – i (D) 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – v, 4 – i. 9. When the new individuals are formed without fusion of gametes: (A) Apo-mixis (B) Amphi-mixis (C) Pollination (D) Chromosomal mingling

96



10. A method in which roots are induced on the stem while it is still attached to the parent

plant is called: (A) Layering (B) Cutting (C) Grafting (D) Vivipary 11. What percent of water utilize by plant during transpiration? (A) 50% (B) Only 2% (C) 70% (D) 98% 12. Absence of which of these in bile, will make the fat digestion difficult? (A) Cholesterol (B) Salts (C) Pigments (D) Acids 13. Dead space in the respiratory system is (A) Upper respiratory tract (B) Nasal chambers (C) Alveolar space (D) Lower respiratory tract 14. In an experiment, CO2 availed to a C3 plant, was labelled with a radioactive isotope and

the amount of radioactivity in the chloroplast was measured as photosynthesis proceeded. In which of the following molecules did the radioactivity first appear?

(A) Glucose (B) Ribulose biphophate (C) Phospho-enol pyruvate (D) Phospho-glycerate 15. Athletes are often trained at high altitudes because (A) training at high altitude increases muscle mass (B) training at high altitude increases the number of red blood cells (C) there is less chance of an injury at high altitude (D) athletes sweat less at high altitude

97



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

NN SS EE JJ SS

PHASE –III SET – (A)

Answer key

Q. No

Phy Chem Maths Bio

Ans Concept Code Ans Concept Code Ans Concept Code Ans Concept Code

1 B P070302 B C070204 D M071303 A

2 C P070304 A C070103 B M072501 D

3 B P070302 D C070407 D M071203 D

4 B P070307 B C070403 A M072101 D

5 C P070302 C C070403 C M072101, 02 A

6 D P070201 D C070402 B M070802 C

7 A P070106 B C070405 D M070101, 02 B

8 C P070104 A C070401 A M070509 C

9 A P070305 D C070406 C M072507 A

10 C P070303 B C070402 C M072504 A

11 B P070308 B C070402 B M070101, 02 B

12 D P070303 B C070404 B M071402, 10 B

13 B D C070406 A M072206 A

14 D P070201 C C070408 D M070315 D

15 C P070504 A C070406 B M070304 B

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE – III QP CODE: xxxxxx.x

SET-(A)

Time: 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks: 90


Q.P CODE xxxxxx.x

98



INSTRUCTIONS

The question paper consists of 90 multiple choice questions divided into four sections.













Name of the Candidate : ……………….……………………………………………. Enrollment Number : ……………………………………………………………..

99



SECTION – I Mathematics

1. Find the value of „x‟ from the given figure if I || m. (A) 12o (B) 24 o (C) 96 o (D) 48 o

(2x-15)

P

S R

Q

m

3x

75o

l

2. The following observations have been arranged in ascending order. If the median of data

is 63. Find the value of x.

29,32,48,50, , 2,72,78,84,95x x


3. 2 23.63 2.37

3.63 2.37

is simplified to:

(A) 6 (B) 1.36 (C) 2.26 (D) 1.26

4. Find the value of 1 1 1 1

1 1 1 1 ?1 2 3a a a a

(A) 1

3

a

a (B)

1

2

a

a

(C) 1

4

a

a (D)

1

3

a

a

5. A bag contains 25 paisa, 10 paisa and 5 paisa coins. If these are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3

respectively and the total amount of money is Rs 30, what is the number of 5 paisa coins? (A) 150 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 200 6. Ram kishan sells an article at a profit of 6%. If he sells it for Rs. 200 more, then there

would be profit of 10%. What is the C.P. of the article? (A) Rs 4500 (B) Rs 6000 (C) Rs 5000 (D) none of these


100



7. If 2 2 2 2

1 3 5 7 0x y z t then find the value of 16xyzt .

(A) 121 (B) 122

(C) 105 (D) 16

8. If the probability of winning a game is 9

11, then what is the probability of it‟s losing?

(A) 2

11 (B)

7

9

(C) 2

9 (D)

7

11

9. Four bells toll at interval of 6, 8, 12 and 18 seconds. If they begin to toll at 12 together,

what is the least time after that they will again toll together? (A) 60 seconds (B) 72 seconds (C) 80 seconds (D) none of these

10. If l || m and n is a transversal. Also 1 = (5x – 20)° and

5 = (2x + 10)°, then 7 = (A) 38° (B) 30° (C) 10° (D) 70°

1 2

7 8

3

6 5

l

m

4

N

11. If ABCD is rhombus, then: (A) AC2 + BD2 = 4AB2 (B) AC2 + BD2 = AB2 (C) AC2 + BD2 = 2AB2 (D) 2(AC2 + BD2) = 3AB2

12. The rational number of the form p

, q 0,q

p and q are positive integers, which represents

0.134 i.e., (0.134134....) is :

(A) 134

999 (B) 134

990

(C) 133

999 (D) 133

990


101



13. The value of 289127388 is

(A) 17 (B) 12

(C) 20 (D) None of these

14. If P666 , then value of P is:

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D)3

15. If x 7 3x

, ,2 x 2

and 7

3 are in proportion then x = _________.

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10 16. 63, 45, 72 litres are to be drawn from three cans respectively. What is the exact capacity

of measure which will do it most quickly? (A) 7 litres (B) 8 litres (C) 9 litres (D) 11 litres 17. (a% of b) + (b% of a) is equal to: (A) a% of b (B) 2% of ab (C) 20% of ab (D) 2% of 100ab

18. If „S‟ is selling price and „C‟ is cost price. Both are satisfying the following relation 3S + 4C = 7S – 2C What can be said about the transaction profit or loss?

(A) 100% profit (B) 50% loss (C) 50%profit (D) 40% profit

19. If 5 41

312 12

x then x is equal to

(A) - x (B) - x

(C) 0 (D) 1

20. Find the sum of A, B, C, D and E. (A) 108° (B) 180° (C) 90° (D) 120°

A

C D

EB


102



21. In the given figure,PQ PS, PQ SR . If SQR 28 and

QRT 65 then value of x and y are

(A) x 37 ,y 53

(B) x 25 ,y 65

(C) x 28 ,y 62

(D) x 62 ,y 28

x

y

P

S R

Q

T 37 65

28

22. Even after reducing the marked price of a transistor by Rs. 32, a shopkeeper makes a

profit of 15%. If the cost price be Rs. 320, what percentage of profit would he have made if he had sold the transistor at the marked price?

(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 28% 23. Determine x and y so that 53x + y = 625 and 12520x + 7y = (625)3/4. (A) 27, 50 (B) 27, 77 (C) 27, – 77 (D) 27, – 50 24. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on certain amount of

money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs.15. Find the sum. (A) Rs.4,500 (B) Rs.7,500 (C) Rs.5,000 (D) Rs.6,000 25. A man sold two watches of Rs.3,750 each; on one he gained 5% and on the other he lost

5%. What was his total gain or loss as a percentage?

(A) %4

11 (B)

2

1%

(C) %4

1 gain (D) none of these

26. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is twice as large as the exterior angle, the

number of sides is (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 8 27. A mobile worth Rs. 9000 is sold by Mr. A to Mr. B at a 10% loss. Mr. B sells the mobile

back to Mr. A at a 10% gain. The result of the two transactions is: (A) Mr. A breaks even (B) Mr. B gains Rs. 810

(C) Mr. A loses Rs. 900 (D) Mr. A loses Rs. 810


103



28. 3.6 0.8 __________.

(A) 2.2 (B) 3.2

(C) 2.7 (D) 2.8

29. If x% of 10 is 10, then x = __________. (A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1 (D) None of these 30. a4 + 4a2b2 + b4 is greater than a4 – 8a2b2 + b4 by ________.

(A) 2 212a b (B) 2 212a b

(C) 4 212a b (D) 2 412a b

31. The value of 2x3 at x = –k is: (A) 2k3 (B) –2k3

(C) (–2k)3 (D) –(2k)3

32. Given PTR

I100

, then R = _________.

(A) 100 I

PT (B)

100P

IT

(C) 100T

IP (D) None of these

33. 1 17 x 10 , then x = __________.

(A) 10

7 (B)

7

10

(C) 7

10 (D)

10

7

34. If A = (2x3 – 5) and B = (3x2 – 1), then the value of product of A, B at x = 1 is: (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) –6 (D) None of these 35. y2 – 5y + 6 = 0 for y = ________. (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 0 (D) None of these


104



36. If 100% of x = 50% of y then which of the following is true? (A) x = 2y (B) y = 2x (C) x = y (D) None of these

37. If a : b = 4 : 5, then a b

b a

(A) 9 (B) 1

(C) 4

5 (D)

5

4

38. Calculate the simple interest on Rs. x for x years at the rate x% p.a.

(A) 100

x (B)

2

100

x

(C) 3

100

x (D)

3

1000

x

39. What percent of 36 is 9? (A) 9 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75 40. Chalk contains calcium, carbon and oxygen in the ratio 10:3:12 and in a stick of chalk,

carbon is 3g, what is the weight of chalk stick? (A) 10 g (B) 3 g (C) 12 g (D) 25 g 41. What should be taken away from 3x2 – 4y2 + 5xy + 20 to obtain – x2 – y2 + 6xy + 20? (A) 4x2 + 3y2 – xy (B) 4x2 – 3y2 – xy (C) 4x2 – 3y2 + xy (D) 4x2 + 3y2 + xy


105



42. Find the value of 22 a ab 3 ab when a = 5 and b = -3

(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 38 (D) 48 43. Which of the following is true:-

(A) 2 2 2PQ QR RP

(B) 2 2 2PQ PR QR

(C) 2 2 2RP QR PQ

(D) PQR is isosceles

P

R

Q

44. If ABC PQR, then

(A) B = R (B) AB QR

(C) A = Q (D) BC QR

45. Simplify

32 4 7

7 5 2

5 5 4 3

5 5 55 6 2

3 10 25 5 5

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


106



SECTION – II Physics

1. The device used to measuring electric potential difference is: (A) ammeter (B) voltmeter (C) voltammeter (D) galvanometer 2. If a wire is stretched to double of its original length then its new resistance will become: (A) one fourth (B) four times (C) three times (D) does not change 3. The current flowing through a conductor is 0.1 A. When a potential difference of 1.5 V is

applied across its ends. Resistance of the conductor will be:

(A) 10 (B) 15

(C) 12 (D) 5

4. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 and 4 respectively are connected in series to a

6V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 resistor in 5 s will be: (A) 5 J (B) 10 J (C) 20 J (D) 30 J 5. Four identical cells, of emf 1.5 V each, were connected in four different ways as shown.

The potential difference, between the points X and Y, would equal 6.0 V, in case/cases

(I) X Y

(II) X Y

(III) X Y

(IV) X Y

(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) I only 6. Which of the following graphs represents a uniformly accelerated motion?

(A)

Time

Dis

tance

Y

O X

(B)

Time

Dis

tance

Y

O X

(C)

Time

Ve

locity

Y

O X

(D)

Time

Ve

locity

Y

O X


107



7. A particle is moving in a circle of diameter 10 m. The distance covered by it on completing 2 revolutions is

(A) 40 m (B) 20 m

(C) 20 m (D) zero 8. In the given displacement – time graph,

the velocity of moving body during 5 seconds to 10 seconds is:

(A) 0 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 15 m/s

5 10

10

15 Time (s)

Dis

pla

cem

ent (m

)

20

0

9. The resistivity of a wire depends on: (A) The area of cross section of wire (B) The nature of the material of wire (C) The length of wire (D) All of these 10. Which of the following statements does not represent Ohm‟s law?

(A) current/potential difference = constant (B) Potential difference = current resistance

(C) Potential difference/current = constant (D) Current = potential difference resistance

11. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 . (A) 1/5 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 1 12. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of

what rating must be used for it? (A) 1 A (B) 2 A (C) 4 A (D) 5 A 13. The front face of a circular loop of wire is found North-pole. The direction of current in this

face of the loop will be: (A) clockwise (B) anticlockwise (C) towards north (D) towards south 14. The Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales of temperature will give the same reading at: (A) – 40 (B) 313 (C) 574.25 (D) 732.75 15. A simple pendulum takes 32 seconds to complete 20 oscillations. What is the time period

of the pendulum? (A) 1.6 s (B) 0.8 s (C) 3.2 s (D) 640. s


108



SECTION – III Chemistry

1. Soil is very important for (A) agriculture (B) industry (C) urbanization (D) all the three 2. Which one of the following soils is well aerated and drains water quickly? (A) Loam (B) Silt (C) Clay (D) Sand 3. A sample of soil percolates 300 mL water in one fourth hour. What is its percolation rate? (A) 75 mL/min (B) 50 mL/min (C) 30 mL/min (D) 20 mL/min 4. Which one of the following very appropriately describes the B-horizon of soil? (A) More minerals and more humus (B) Less minerals and more humus (C) More minerals and less humus (D) Less minerals and less humus 5. The factor that affect agriculture in any region depend on the following except (A) rainfall (B) yield (C) sunlight (D) temperature 6. Why do potters mix horse dung in soil for making pots? (A) it makes the earthen pots very hard (B) it helps to open up the pores in pots (C) it gives easy shape to pots (D) it closes all the leaks in pots 7. The ideal conditions in soil for paddy cultivation is/are (A) rich in clay (B) rich in humus (C) good water holding capacity (D) all the three 8. If a handful of soil added to water in a glass, stirred well and left undisturbed for some

time, four different layers are formed. They are (i) sand, (ii) humus, (iii) gravel and (iv) clay. Arrange these layers in order from top to bottom and choose the correct option.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) (D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) 9. The soil with the highest water holding capacity is (A) sand (B) clay (C) silt (D) loam


109



10. The uppermost horizon of soil is generally dark in color due to (A) sand (B) silt (C) clay (D) humus 11. Effect of radioactive pollution causes (A) Tuberculosis (B) Cancer (C) Cough & cold (D) Malnutrition 12. Which type of soil would have highest percolation rate of water (A) Loomy soil (B) Sandy Soil (C) Clayey soil (D) none 13. Laterite soil is best for growing (A) Tea and coffee (B) Rice (C) Wheat (D) Jute 14. Particle size of clay is (A) more than 0.005 mm particles of soil (B) less than 0.005 mm particles of soil (C) less than 1 nm particles of soil (D) between 1nm to 100 nm particle of soil 15. Soil is formed by the action of rain, snow, fluctuating temperature on rocks. The process is

called (A) Leaching (B) Silting (C) Weathering (D) Soil erosion


110



SECTION – IV Biology

1. Micro propagation is (A) Raising of plants from a small tissue in culture (B) Multiplication of small plants (C) Propagation of small parts of an organism (D) Continuous maintenance of an organ or tissue 2. Which of the following vein carries oxygenated blood? (A) Inferior vena cava (B) Superior vena cava (C) Hepatic vein (D) Umblical vein 3. After pollination, which of the following events is crucial for fertilization to occur in flowering

plants? (A) Sperms swim to the egg and the polar nuclei (B) Petals close around the reproductive parts (C) Cell division occurs within the pollen grain (D) A pollen tube grows from the stigma to the ovule 4. Which of the following is not a function of the mammalian kidney? (A) Water retention (B) Regulation of sodium in the blood (C) Excretion of toxins (D) Synthesis of urea 5. Tricuspid valve is found in between: (A) sinus venosus and right atria (B) right atria and right ventricle (C) left ventricle and left atria (D) ventricle and aorta 6. Pacemaker of the heart is: (A) Atrio-ventricular node (B) Bundle of His (C) Sino-atrial node (D) Purkinje fibers 7. What is triple fusion? (A) Fusion of 1 male generative nucleus with 2 polar nuclei. (B) Fusion of 2 male generative nuclei with 1 polar nucleus. (C) Fusion of 1 male generative nucleus, 1 polar nucleus and 1 synergid. (D) Fusion of 1 male generative nucleus, 1 anti-podal cell and 1 synergid. 8. Double fertilization is a characteristic of: (A) Angiosperm (B) Pteridophytes (C) Gymnosperm (D) Bryophytes 9. Match the following: Column I Column II 1. Budding a. Mango, Sapota, Guava 2. Binary fission b. Apple, orange, rose 3. Epiphyllus bud c. Yeast 4. Bud grafting d. Amoeba 5. Approach grafting e. Bryophyllum (A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – d, 5 – c (B) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – a (C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b (D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – a 10. Transport of food materials in plants is helped by: (A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Cambium (D) Vascular bundle

111



11. Milk dentition lacks (A) Incisors (B) Molars (C) Canines (D) Pre molars 12. In mammals the body cavity is partitioned into thoracic and abdominal cavities by (A) Liver (B) Lungs (C) Diaphragm (D) Ribs 13. The organelle that helps in osmo-regulation in Amoeba is (A) Mitochondria (B) Contractile vacuole (C) Lysosomes (D) Plasma membrane 14. The blood vessel with thin enough wall for nutrient exchange with tissue fluids is (A) Vein (B) Artery (C) Capillary (D) Arteriole 15. Man cannot digest cellulose but ruminants can consume food rich in cellulose because (A) They have enzyme cellulose in their stomach (B) They masticate it well by chewing teeth (C) They have bacteria in their alimentary canal which digest cellulose (D) None of the above

112



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE-III QP CODE: xxxxxx.x

SET-(A)


Answer key

Q. No

Mathematics physics Chemistry Biology

Ans CC Ans CC Ans CC Ans CC

1 B M072203, 04 B P070304 D C070404 A 2 B M071914 B P070303 D C070404 D 3 D M070311 B P070302 D C070403 D 4 D M072101 C P070306 C C070401 D 5 A M072502 B P070304 B C070402 B 6 C M070201,02 D P070106 B C070404 C 7 A M070403 C P070105 D C070401 A 8 A A P070106 C C070406 A 9 B M071211 B P070303 B C070404 D 10 B M072205, 0703 D P070302 D C070404 B 11 A M070905 D P070303 B C070404 D 12 A M071303 D P070306 B C070404 C 13 C M070104 B P070310 A C070404 B 14 D M070105 C P070205 B C070406 C 15 C M072502 A P070102 C C070407 C 16 C M071211

17 B M072503

18 C M070201, M070202,

M070203

19 C M071309

20 B M072303

21 A M072204, M072206

22 B M070201, M070202

23 C M070101, M070102

24 D M072506

25 D M072505

26 B M072102, M072205

27 B M070201, M070202

28 C M071303

113



29 B M072503

30 B M070509

31 B M07

32 A M071601

33 B M070102

34 C M070508

35 A M070402

36 B M072503

37 A M072501

38 C M072507

39 B M072503

40 D M072502

41 B M070509

42 C M071209

43 B M072305

44 D M072403

45 A M070102

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class – VII

PHASE – III

SET – (A) Mental Ability Test (MAT)

Q.P. CODE: XXXXXX.X Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :


pen.











Booklet with them.


114



MAT 1. Find the odd one out (A) crusade (B) campaign (C) expedition (D) cruise 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. which one does

not belong to that group? (A) Tooth (B) Chin (C) Nose (D) Ear 3. Choose the number pair/group which is different from others? (A) 7: 22 (B) 12 : 37 (C) 8 : 33 (D) 15 : 46 4. Choose the number which is different from others in the group? (A) 64 (B) 125 (C) 27 (D) 144 5. Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making following equation correct 5 + 3 x 8 - 12 / 4 =3 (A) + and - (B) - and / (C) + and x (D) + and / 6. If × stands for 'addition', ÷ stands for 'subtraction', + stands for 'multiplication' and-stands

for 'division', then 20 × 8 ÷ 8 - 4 + 2 = ? (A) 80 (B) 25 (C) 24 (D) 5 7. If × means ÷, - means ×, ÷ means + and + means- than (3 - 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ? (A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) -1




115



8. If A + B = 2C and C + D = 2A, then (A) A + C = B + D (B) A + C = 2D (C) A + D = B + C (D) A + C = 2B 9. Select the correct set of symbols which will fit in the given equation? 5 0 3 5 = 20 (A) x, x, x (B) -, +, x (C) x, +, x (D) +, -, x 10. If Q means 'add to', J means 'multiply by', T means 'substract from' and K means 'divide

by' then 30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 = ? (A) 18 (B) 28 (C) 31 (D) 103 Questions (11–15) Direction: Words in Capital letters in column-I are written in small letters in a code language in column-II. Decode the language and find out the correct alternative for the given letters in each questions .

Column –I HOPE WIDE LUCK DUST SIND SOAP FEAR MUST HUNT FILE PINE

Column –II vtyg ceth nxfl aien cmae gapv putj nidg mnyi cxut cmtg

11. Code for letters in the word SOLE are – (A) txza (B) fvxy (C) mtax (D) vtax


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12. Code for letters in the word MENT are – (A) ndti (B) dtum (C) mdit (D) puit 13. Code for letters in the word NEWS are – (A) hmta (B) tmkh (C) fmak (D) tahv 14. Code for letters in the word STAR are (A) ipaj (B) jami (C) paiz (D) ajkl 15. Code for letters in the word TIME are (A) tkci (B) citd (C) ctpb (D) litm 16. Shankar is father of 'B' but 'B' is not son of Shankar then what is the relationship of 'B' to

Shankar ? (A) Grand daughter (B) Mother (C) Daughter (D) Grand Son 17. Sachin is the bother of the son of Ajit's son. Then what is the relationship of Sachin to Ajit ? (A) Brother (B) Cousin (C) Nephew (D) Grandson 18. If AB = 3 then CD = ___ ? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 6 19. If STUDY = 89 then BOOK = ___ ? (A) 34 (B) 43 (C) 45 (D) 47 20. If HOME= 41 then LOCK = ___ ? (A) 40 (B) 32 (C) 35 (D) 45


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21. If YZ = 3 then XY = ___ ? (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 6 22. If AIR = 53 then DUST = ___ ? (A) 54 (B) 35 (C) 43 (D) 44 23. If PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 how is RIVER coded? (A) 32473 (B) 23472 (C) 34273 (D) 23742 24. Pen is to Pencil as Hockey is to (A) Team (B) Players (C) Football (D) None of these 25. Crime is related to Police as Flood is related to (A) Rain (B) Dam (C) River (D) None of these 26. Bank is related to Money in the same way as Transport is related to (A) Goods (B) Speed (C) Movement (D) Road 27. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ? (A) Sun (B) Planet (C) Solar System (D) none 28. Clock : Time :: Thermometer : ? (A) Radiation (B) Heat (C) Temperature (D) Energy 29. Tractor : Trailer :: Horse : ? (A) Saddle (B) Cart (C) Engine (D) none 30. Car : Garage :: Aeroplane : ? (A) Port (B) Hangar (C) Depot (D) none of these


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31. Which number would replace the question mark (?) in the series 2, 7, 14, 23, ?, 47 (A) 28 (B) 34 (C) 31 (D) 38 32. Which is the number that should come next in the following series? 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ___ (A) 32 (B) 64 (C) 62 (D) 60 33. Find the wrong number in the series. 7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342 (A) 7 (B) 28 (C) 124 (D) 215 34. What will be the next term in BKS, DJT, FIU, HHV, ? (A) IJX (B) IGX (C) JGW (D) IGU Direction (Q. 35 to 38) : In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing

which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. choose the correct alternative.

35. ba – ba – bac – acb – cbac (A) aacb (B) bbca (C) ccba (D) cbac 36. adb – ac – da – cddcb dbc – cbda (A) bccba (B) cbbaa (C) ccbba (D) bbcad 37. a – ba – cbaac – aa – ba (A) ccbb (B) cabc (C) cbcb (D) bbcc 38. – bc – – b – aabc (A) acac (B) babc (C) abab (D) aacc


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39. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (B) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 40. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (B) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 41. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 10

metre. Then I turn left and walk 10 metre and then turning right walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 60 metre. In which direction am I from the starting point ?

(A) North-East (B) Norst-West (C) North (D) West 42. Rohit walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 metres.

He then turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 15 metres. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction ?

(A) 35 metre, North (B) 30 metre, South (C) 35 metre, East (D) 30 metre, North 43. Starting from a point P, Sachin walked 20 metres towards South. He turned left and

walked 30 metres. He then turned left and walked 20 metres. He again turned left and walked 40 metres and reached a point Q. How far and in which direction is the point Q from

the point P? (A) 30 metres, West (B) 10 metres, West (C) 30 metres, North (D) 10 metres, North


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44. From his house, Lokesh went 15 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 10

kms. Then he turned South and covered 5 kms. Finally, turning to East, he covered 10 kms. In which direction is he from his house ?

(A) East (B) North (C) West (D) South 45. X started to walk straight towards south. After walking 5 m he turned to the left and walked

3m. After this he turned to the right and walked 5 m. Now to which direction X is facing. (A) North-East (B) South (C) North (D) South-West 46. Rohit walked 25 m towards south. Then he turned his left and walked 20 m. He then

turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right and walked 15 m. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?

(A) 35 m East (B) 35 m North (C) 30 m West (D) 45 m East 47. One morning Sujata started to walk towards the Sun. After covering some distance she

turned to right then again to the right and after covering some distance she again turns to the right. Now in which direction is she facing?

(A) North-East (B) South (C) North (D) South-West 48. One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell

exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? (A) East (B) South (C) West (D) Data is inadequate 49. Golu started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8km, he turned

towards left and covered a distance of 6km. What is the shortest distance now from his house?

(A) 10 km (B) 16 km (C) 14 km (D) 2 km 50. A man walks 5 km towards south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to

the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction he from the starting place? (A) West (B) South (C) North-East (D) South-West


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51. One morning after sunrise Nivedita and Niharika were talking to each other face to face at

Dalphin crossing. If Niharika‟s shadow was exactly to the right of Nivedia, whch direction Niharika was facing?

(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) Data is inadequate 52. Radha moves towards South-East a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards west and

travels a distance of 14 km. From here she moves towards North-West a distance of 7 km and finally he moves a distance of 4 km towards east. How far is she now from the starting point?

(A) 3 km (B) 4 km (C) 10 km (D) 11 km 53. K is 40 m South-West of L. If m is 40 m South-East of L, then M is in which direction of K? (A) East (B) West (C) North-East (D) South Directions (Q. 54 to Q. 58): Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each. E is not at the end of any row D is second to the left of F. C the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally opposite to D. B is the neighbour of F. 54. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other? (A) F and C (B) D and A (C) A and C (D) A and F 55. Who is facing B? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E 56. Which of the following are in same row? (A) A and E (B) E and D (C) C and B (D) A and B 57. Which of the following are in one of the two rows? (A) FBC (B) CEB (C) DBF (D) AEF 58. After interchanging seat with E, who will be the neighbours of D in the new position? (A) C and A (B) F and B (C) only B (D) only A


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Directions (Q. 59 to Q. 61) (1) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the center. (2) E is to the left of D. (3) C is between A and B. (4) F is between E and A. 59. Who is to the left of B? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E 60. Who is to the right of C? (A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E 61. Which of the above given statements is superfluous? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these Directions (Q. 62 to Q. 63) (1) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east. (2) C is on the immediate right to D. (3) B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour. (4) G is between E and F. (5) D is sitting third from the south end. 62. Name the person who should change places with C such that he gets the third place from

the north end? (A) E (B) F (C) C (D) G 63. Immediately between which of the following pairs of People are sitting? (A) AC (B) AF (C) CE (D) CF


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Directions (Q. 64 to Q. 65) (A) P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a circle facing the center. (B) R is immediate left of T. (C) P is between S and T. 64. Who is to the immediate left of R? (A) P (B) Q (C) S (D) T 65. Which of the Following statements can be dispensed with? (A) None (B) B only (C) C only (D) B or C only Directions (Q. 66 to Q. 67) A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing the center. C is between F and B. A is second to the left of D and second to the right of E. 66. Who is facing A? (A) B (B) D (C) F (D) either F or B 67. Who among the following is facing D? (A) A (B) C (C) E (D) cannot be determine Directions (Q. 68 to Q. 69) Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in circle facing the center. B is sitting between G and D. H is third to the left of B and second to the right of A. C is sitting between A and G and B and E are not sitting opposite to each other. 68. Who is third to the left of D? (A) A (B) E (C) F (D) cannot be determine


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69. Which of the following statements is not correct? (A) C is third to the right of D. (B) A is sitting between C and F. (C) D and A are sitting opposite to each other. (D) E is sitting between F and D. 70. A group of eight members sit in a circle. D is between A and F and is opposite to G.E is to

the right of A but on the left of C, whose right hand neighbour is G. B enjoys having H to his left and F to his right. Find the member who is diagonally opposite to A?

(A) B (B) F (C) G (D) H 71. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 72. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


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(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 75. Identify the figure that completes the pattern .



(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


126






(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


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(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 82. If CAR = 59, then COLOR = ? (A) 67 (B) 72 (C) 64 (D) 74 83. Court : Justice : : School : ? (A) Education (B) Teacher (C) Student (D) None of these 84. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If

Vishal‟s shadow as exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 85. Ravi left home and cycled 10 km towards South, then turned right and cycled 5 km and

then again turned right and cycled 10 km. After this he turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?

(A) 10 km (B) 15 km (C) 20 km (D) 25 km 86. A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and went 20 m.

After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his uncle‟s house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his north and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting point?

(A) 80 m (B) 100 m (C) 140 m (D) 260 m


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87. P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 25 m. He turned to the

right and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and walked 15 m. After this he is

to turn right at 135 and to cover 30 m. In which direction should he go? (A) West (B) South (C) South-West (D) South-East 88. Shyam walks 5 km towards East and then turns left and walks 6 km. Again he turns right

and walks 9 km. Finally he turns to his right and walks 6 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(A) 26 km (B) 21 km (C) 14 km (D) 9 km 89. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 90. Eight books are kept one over the other counting from the top the second, fifth and sixth

books are on plays. Two books on plays are between two books on composition. One book of plays is between two books on poetry. While the book at the top of the book of literature is a book of composition. Which book is fourth from the top?

(A) plays (B) poetry (C) composition (D) literature


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FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class – VII

PHASE – III SET – (A)

Mental Ability Test (MAT) QP CODE: XXXXXX.X

ANSWERS

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B 25. A 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. C 51. A 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. D 56. A 57. C 58. A 59. C 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. C 69. D 70. D 71. D 72. C 73. D 74. D 75. D 76. D 77. D 78. C 79. D 80. D 81. D 82. B 83. A 84. C 85. B 86. B 87. C 88. C 89. D 90. C

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Batches: Udaya Two Year CRP (1618) A-Lot

PHASE – IV NN SS EE JJ SS

QP CODE:

130



Time: 1:30 hr. Maximum Marks: 180





B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, III & IV you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble



Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

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SECTION – I (PHYSICS) 1. The mirror used by a dental surgeon is: (A) convex mirror (B) concave mirror (C) plane mirror (D) none of these 2. When an object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature of a concave mirror,

then the image formed is: (A) real (B) inverted (C) enlarged (D) all of the above 3. An image formed by a lens is erect. Such an image could be formed by a: (A) convex lens provided the image is smaller than object (B) concave lens provided the image is smaller than object (C) concave lens provided the image is larger than object (D) concave lens provided the image is of the same size 4. If an object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror, the distance between

the object and the image formed by the mirror will be: (A) 2 m (B) 1 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.25 m

5. What is the value of in the following diagram?

(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 90° (D) 60°

30°

6. The relation between the focal length and radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is

_______

(A) R

1 f2 (B) R + 2 = f

(C) R

f2 (D) 2R = f

7. If a mirror has a focal length of +10 cm, it is a (A) convex mirror (B) concave mirror (C) plane mirror (D) none of these 8. Which of the following mirror is commonly used as a rear view mirror? (A) Concave (B) Convex (C) Plane (D) None of these


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9. If two mirrors are placed in such a way that they make an angle 45°, the number of images formed of an object placed between them is:

(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 5 10. For a real object, the image formed by a plane mirror is: (A) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged (B) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object (C) real, at the surface of the mirror and enlarged (D) real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object 11. A concave mirror has a focal length of 10 cm. At which of the following distance should an

object be placed so that it may form virtual, erect and magnified image? (A) 12 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 15 cm 12. Which of the following form virtual and erect images for all positions of the real object? (A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens and convex mirror (C) Concave mirror (D) All of these 13. A body which allows all the light to pass through it and does not reflect any light is: (A) Transparent body (B) Opaque body (C) Translucent body (D) Polished surface 14. The instrument used by sailors in submarines to look above the water is: (A) Telescope (B) Periscope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Microscope 15. An object is placed at 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 7.5 cm. The image of

object will form at a distance: (A) 15 cm from pole of mirror (B) 7.5 cm from pole of mirror (C) 22.5 cm from pole of mirror (D) 30 cm from pole of mirror


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SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY) 1. The following cause alkalinity as well as hardness in natural water. (A) Calcium carbonate (B) Calcium bicarbonate (C) Magnesium carbonate (D) All of the above 2. Which of the following is not a water borne disease? (A) Typhoid (B) Scabies (C) Cholera (D) Hepaitis 3. The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as (A) Eutrophication (B) Limiting nutrients (C) Enrichment (D) Schistosomiasis 4. Salinity of sea water is measured by a salinometer. Sea water mainly composed of 6

constituents (they are also referred to as conservative elements)

(A) 2 2 23 4Na ,HCO ,SO ,K ,Ca (B) 2 2 2

4Na ,Cl ,SO ,Mg ,Ca ,K

(C) 24SO ,Cl ,F ,Na ,K ,Cs (D) 2 2 2

4 3K ,Cl ,Na ,SO ,CO ,Mg

5. Ion exhange column method is used to remove which type of hardness in water? (A) Temporary (B) Permanent (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 6. Permeability is (A) The ability of a solid to allow fluids to pass through it (B) The process by which plants release water vapour to the atmosphere (C) The amount of water vapour in air relative to maximum amount of water vapour the air

can hold (D) Percentage of pore space in the rock 7. Fresh water is treated differently at a treatment centre before coming to our home. Correct

sequence of the procedure involves.

(A) Sedimentation stage Filteration stage Coagulation stage Disinfection stage Storage stage

(B) Filteration stage Coagulation stage Disinfection stage Storage stage Sedimentation stage

(C) Coagulation stage Sedimentation stage Filteration stage Disinfection stage Storage stage

(D) Sedimentation stage Disinfection stage Coagulation stage Storage stage Coagulation stage


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8. Study the flow chart carefully & identify X andY.

Phenol Phenol

Pthalein Pthaleincolourless X Y Pink

NaCl + H2O X Y (A) NaOH NaCl (B) HCl NaOH (C) NaOH NaCl (D) HCl NaOH 9. Study the given set up of an experiment. You will observe that

Lime water

To suction pump

Air A B C

Lime water

Germinating seeds

Potassium hydroxide solution

(A) lime water in test tube B turns milky (B) lime water in test tube C turns milky (C) Potassium hydroxide solution in test tube A turns red. (D) Temperature in the flask will go down. 10. People living in hard water areas (e.g. limestone areas) generally have a (A) lower incidence of heart disease (B) higher incidence of heart disease (C) more prone to diseases (D) no effect on health 11. After oceans, which of the following reservoirs contain the most water? (A) The atmosphere (B) the lakes and rivers (C) glaciers and polar ice capes (D) the underground water


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12. Match both the columns & mark the correct option from the codes given below

Column – I Column – II

(A) Limestone (i) NaHCO3

(B) Blue vitrol (ii) CuSO4

(C) Vinegar (iii) CaCO3

(D) Baking Soda (iv) CH3COOH

(A) (A)(iv), (B)(i), (C)(ii), (D)(iii) (B) (A)(iii), (B)(ii), (C)(i), (D)(iv)

(C) (A)(iv), (B)(iii), (C)(ii), (D)(i) (D) (A)(iii), (B)(ii), (C)(iv), (D)(i) 13. Which of the following terms is a measure of amount of water vapour in the air as a

proportion of maximum amount the air can hold at same temperature? (A) Dew point (B) Sublimation point (C) Evaporation rate (D) Relative humidity 14. When electricity is passed through water, water gets decomposed into hydrogen and

oxygen gas. Such reactions are accompanied by (A) absorption of heat (B) release of heat (C) no heat changes evolved (D) none of these 15. There are solutions which have a lower concentration of solute than cell. In such solution

water will move from environment into cell in order to balance the concentration of solute. (A) Hypotonic solution (B) Hypertonic solution (C) Isotonic solution (D) Concentrated solution


136



SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS) 1. If radius of a circle is increased by 50% the percentage increase is area of the circle is

equal to (A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 125 2. The area of a circular garden is 3850 cm2. If there is a path of 7 m lying outside it, then the

area of the path is (A) 5544 cm2 (B) 1694 cm2

(C) 3850 cm2 (D) 7724 m2

3. The area of a circle is 220 sq. cm. The area of a square inscribed in this circle is (A) 49 cm2 (B) 70 cm2

(C) 140 cm2 (D) 150 cm2

4. The area of a rhombus is 21 sq. m. If the perimeter of the rhombus is 40 cm, then the sum

of its diagonals is (A) 14 cm (B) 18 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 22 cm 5. Area of square is 100 cm2. Find the area of square formed by joining the mid points of its

side (A) 100 cm2 (B) 50 cm2

(C) 125 cn2 (D) 200 cm2

6. If the radius of a circle is doubled, then the area becomes (A) 2 times (B) 3 times (C) 4 times (D) Remains the same 7. The dimensions of a rectangular box are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. Its total surface area is 15.5

square metres. The dimensions of the box are (A) 3.5 m, 2.5 m, 1.5 m (B) 2.5 m, 2 m, 1.5 m (C) 2.5 m, 1.5 m, 1 m (D) cannot be determined 8. The hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is 15 cm and one side is 12 cm. Its area is (A) 52 sq. cm (B) 54 sq. cm (C) 56 sq. cm (D) 58 sq. cm 9. Area of a quadrilateral is 24. 375 sq. cm. If diagonal intersect at 90o and one of the

diagonals is equal to 6.5 cm. Find the other diagonal? (A) 6.5 cm (B) 7.5 cm (C) 7 cm (D) 6 cm


137



10. From four corners of a square sheet of side 4 cm, four pieces, each in the shape of arc of a circle with radius 2 cm, are cut out. The area of the remaining portion is:

(A) 8 sq. cm (B) 16 4 sq. cm

(C) 16 8 sq. cm (D) 4 2 sq. cm

11. A 7 m wide road runs outside around a circular park, whose circumference is 176 m. The

are of the road is: (A) 1386 m2 (B) 1472 m2

(C) 1512 m2 (D) 1760 m2 12. If each side of a square is increased by 10%, its area will be increased by (A) 10% (B) 21% (C) 44% (D) 100% 13. The length of a rectangular hall is 5 m more than its breadth. The area of the hall is 750m2.

The length of the hall is: (A) 15 m (B) 22.5 m (C) 25 m (D) 30 m 14. The difference of the areas of two squares drawn on two line segments of different lengths

is 32 sq. cm. Find the length of the greater line segment if one is longer than the other by 2cm.

(A) 7 cm (B) 9 cm (C) 11 cm (D) 16 cm 15. In the given figure (not to scale), QT = 90 m

and UR = 50 m, QU : UT = UV : VT = 1 : 2. PV : VS = 4 : 5. Find the area of the figure (in m2)

(A) 4250 (B) 3980 (C) 4380 (D) 4550

Q

U

V P

T

R

S


138




1. About ___ of the world‟s land surface is covered with the forest. (A) 1/3 – one third (B) ½ - half (C) 3rd – third (D) ¼ - one fourth 2. Which of the following is not a part of the forest?

(A) Canopy (B) Crown (C) Under storey (D) Vegetation 3. Which of the following plant gives us timber?

(A) Sal (B) Mahogany (C) Teak (D) All of the above 4. The type of the tree and animals thriving in a forest depends on (A) topography of a place (B) soil type (C) climate (D) all of these 5. Plants that gives us medicine are

(A) vanilla and mango (B) neem and eucalyptus (C) amla (D) both B and C 6. Which of these is the mechanical process in treating waste water?

(A) disinfecting water (B) digestion of waste (C) screening of waste (D) none 7. The improper management of sewage results in (A) diseases (B) contamination of water supply (C) water pollution (D) all of these 8. Social Forestry Programme (1976) includes raising of trees of multiple uses for the benefit

of (A) urban community (B) rural community (C) hills (D) all of these 9. Cultigens are domestic animals and plants which cannot service without human care

which of the following is a cultigen?

(A) Maize (B) Tomatoes (C) Cabbage (D) All of these 10. Which of the following does not occur when the sewage is discharge into the rivers?

(A) eutrophication (B) depletion of O2 (C) increasing O2 (D) none


139



11. In developing countries, the heaviest demand on forests is for (A) fuel wood (B) timber wood (C) wood for agricultural tools (D) medicines 12. Deforestation reduces the chances of (A) erosion (B) fertility (C) rainfall (D) all of these 13. Trees means water, water means bread and bread and bread is life. It is true as death of

plants should result in death of animals, also because (A) there will be no oxygen (B) there will be no CO2 (C) there will be deficiency of water (D) all of the above 14. Sewage water can be made fit for drinkable / recycling with the help of (A) hydrophytes (B) microorganisms (C) chlorine and alum (D) both B and C 15. The amplification of DDT in the various trophic levels is known as

(A) green house effect (B) biomagnification (C) eutrophication (D) pollution


140



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST


PHASE – IV NSEJS QP CODE:

ANSWERS

SECTION – I (PHYSICS) 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B

5. D 6. C 7. A 8. B

9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B

13. A 14. B 15. A


1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B

5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B

9. B 10. A 11. C 12. D

13. D 14. A 15. A


1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D

5. B 6. C 7. C 8. B

9. B 10. B 11. A 12. B

13. D 14. B 15. D


1. A 2. D 3. D 4. D

5. D 6. C 7. D 8. D

9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C

13. D 14. D 15. B

141



142



Answers & Solutions

SECTION – I (PHYSICS) 1. B Sol. Concave mirror forms virtual and magnified image of an object placed between its pole

and focus. 2. D Sol. Real, inverted and magnified image is formed.

P

C

B

A

A

B

F

3. B Sol. Image of a real object formed by a concave lens is always virtual, erect and diminished. 4. B Sol. In case of a plane mirror, object distance from mirror = image distance from mirror. 5. D Sol. As i1 = r1 = 30° (Laws of reflection) x = 60° and hence y = 90 – x = 30°

i2 = r2 = 60°

x

y

i1

r1

i2 r2

6. C Sol. Focal length (f) of a spherical mirror is half of its radius of curvature (R). 7. A Sol. Focal length of convex mirror is taken positive. 8. B Sol. A convex mirror has wider field of view and it forms virtual, erect and diminished image. 9. A

Sol. Number of images 360

(n) 1

.

10. B Sol. A plane mirror forms virtual, erect image of same size of the object and behind the mirror. 11. C Sol. For image formed by a concave mirror to be virtual and erect, object should be placed

before focus. 12. B

143



Sol. Concave lens as well as convex mirror always forms virtual and erect image of a real object.

13. A Sol. The object which allows light to pass through it is called transparent. 14. B Sol. A periscope is used by sailors in submarines to look above the water. 15. A Sol. Image of an object placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is formed at its

centre of curvature.


1. B 2. B Sol. Scabies is not a water borne disease. 3. A Sol. The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as Eutrophication. 4. B

Sol. Sea water mainly composed of 6 constituents i.e. 2 2 24Na ,Cl ,SO ,Ca ,K ,Mg .

5. B Sol. Ion exchange column method is used to remove permanent hardness of water. 6. A Sol. Permeability is the ability of a solid to allow fluids to pass through it. 7. C Sol. Correct sequence of the procedure involves:

Coagulation stage Sedimentation stage Filteration stage Disinfection stage Storage stage

8. B Sol. Phenol Phenol

Pthalein Pthaleincolourless HCl NaOH Pink

NaCl + H2O 9. B Sol. The lime water in flask C turns milky because the air given out from the seeds contain

carbon dioxide whereas lime water in flask B remains clear because potassium hydroxide in flask A absorbs the carbon dioxide and it is this air that is entering in flask B.

10. A Sol. People living in hard water areas (e.g. limestone areas) generally have a lower incidence

of heart disease. 11. C Sol. After oceans, glaciers and polar ice capes contain the most water.

144



12. D Sol. (A) Limestone (iii) CaCO3 (B) Blue vitrol (ii) CuSO4 (C) Vinegar (iii) CH3COOH (D) Baking Soda (iv) NaHCO3 13. D Sol. Relative humidity measure of amount of water vapour in the air as a proportion of

maximum amount the air can hold at same temperature. 14. A Sol. When electricity is passed through water, water gets decomposed into hydrogen and

oxygen gas. Such reactions are accompanied by absorption of heat and hence are called endothermic reactions.

15. A Sol. Such solutions are called hypotonic solutions and when water diffuses into cell, it will swell

or sometimes burst.

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS) 1. D Sol. Let radius of circle be r.

Area 2r

Radius increase by 50%. So new radius = 1.5r

New area 2 21.5r 2.25 r

% increase = 125% 2. B

Sol. Let radius of garden be r

2r 3850

2 3850r 7

22

r 35 m

Area of path 2 242 35

2227 77 1694 cm

7

7 cm

3. C Sol. Area of circle = 220

2d

2204

2 880d 7

22

2d 280 d 280

Now, diameter of circle = diagonal of square.

diagonal 280

Area of square 2

21280 140 cm

2

O

4. D

145



Sol. Area of rhombus = 21

1 2

1d d 21

2

1 2d d 42 (1)

Perimeter = 40 cm side = 10 cm

Now,

2 2

2 2 2

1 2 1 2

1 1d d 10 d d 400

2 2

Now, 2 2 2

1 2 1 2 1 2d d d d 2d d

400 84 484

1 2d d 484 22cm

5. B Sol. Area of square formed by joining mid point

1

2 of area of square

21100 50 cm

2

6. C Sol. Let radius be r

Area 2r

If radius is doubled.

New area 2 22r 4 r

Area becomes = 4 times 7. C Sol. Let the dimensions of the box be 5x, 3x, 2x Now total surface area = 15.5

2 lb bh hl 15.5

2 2 22 15x 6x 10x 15.5

262x 15.5 x 0.5

dimensions are 2.5 m., 1.5 m., 1 m.

8. B

Sol. Area of a right angled triangle 1

2 the

product of the perpendicular sides Now in ABC

2 2 212 x 15

2 2 2x 15 12

2x 225 144

2x 81 x 9

Area 1

12 9 542

Area = 54 sq. cm.

A

x 15

12

C B

146



9. B

Sol. If diagonal intersect at o90 in a

quadrilateral then 1 2

1A d d

2

1d 6.5cm

A 24.375 sq. cm

1 2

1d d A

2

2

16.5 d 24.375

2

2

24.375 2d

6.5

2d 7.5 cm

D

C

A

B

6.5

10. B

Sol. Area of sectors 2r 4 sq. cm

Area of square 4 4 16 sq.

cm. Area of the remaining portion

16 4 sq. cm

11. A Sol. If the radius of the circular park be r metre, then 2 r 176

22

2 r 1767

176 7

r 28 metre2 22

Radius of the park with road 28 7 35 metre

Area of the road

2 22235 28

7

22263 7 1386 m

7

12. B Sol. Increase percent in area

10 10

10 10 % 21%100

13. D Sol. Let the breadth of rectangular hall = x cm length = (x + 5) m Area of hall = Length Breadth

750 x 5 x

2x 5x 750 0

147



2x 30x 25x 750 0

x x 30 25 x 30 0

x 25 x 30 0

x 25 as x cannot be negative.

Length of hall = x + 5 = 25 + 5 = 30 m 14. B Sol. Let the length of the smaller line segment = x cm The length of larger line segment = (x + 2) cm According to the question

2 2x 2 x 32

2 2x 4x 4 x 32 4x 32 4 28

28

x 74

The required length x 2 7 2 9 cm.

15. D

Sol. QU:UT 1: 2

1

QU 90 30 m3

UT 90 30 60m

UV : VT 1: 2

1

UV 60 20m3

VT 60 20 40 m

PV 4

VS 5

PV 4

PV 40 m50 5

Area ar PVQ ar QUR ar PVT ar TVS arVURS

1 1 1 1

40 50 30 50 40 40 40 50 20 502 2 2 2

= 4550

Q

U

V P

T

R

S

30

20

40

40

50

SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY) 1. A Sol. About one third of the world‟s land surface is covered with the forest. 2. D Sol. The top is crown, the canopy and then the under storey are the parts of the forest. 3. D Sol. Sal, Mahogany and Teak gives us timber. 4. D Sol. The type of the tree of a particular place depends on topography, soil type and climate. 5. D Sol. Neem, eucalyptus and amla gives us oil which have medicinal properties.

148



6. C Sol. Screening of waste helps to eliminated big particles from the waste water. 7. D Sol. The improper management of sewage results in disease, contamination of water supply

and water pollution. 8. D Sol. Social forestry programme raising of trees for urban community, rural community and hills. 9. D Sol. Maize, tomato and cabbages are the cultigens. 10. C Sol. Sewage discharge would lead to depletion of O2 and eutrophication. 11. A Sol. In developing countries, the heaviest demand is for fuel wood. 12. C Sol. Deforestation reduces the chances of rainfall. 13. D Sol. Animals would die, if all the plants die due to absence of O2, CO2 and water. 14. D Sol. With the help of both microorganisms and chemicals like chlorine & alum we can made

water fit for drinking. 15. B Sol. Amplification of DDT takes place due to biomagnification.

FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

Batches: Udaya Two Year CRP (1618) A-

Lot

PHASE – IV

QP CODE: Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 90

149


















150



SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS)

1. The height of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm. Its area is

(A) 22 2 cm (B) 26 2 cm

(C) 22 3 cm (D) 23 3 cm

2. Sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm. Its area is (A) 48 sq. cm (B) 28 sq. cm (C) 12 sq. cm (D) 24 sq. cm 3. The area of a square field is 0.5 hectare. The length of its diagonal is

(A) 100 m (B) 100 2 m

(C) 200 m (D) 300 m 4. The ratio between area of two circles is 36 : 25. The ratio between their radii is (A) 6 : 5 (B) 5 : 4 (C) 3 : 2 (D) 5 : 6

5. The hypotenuse by a right isosceles triangle is 5 2 cm, then its area is

(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 12.5 (D) 10

6. If angle of a sector is o45 , then the ratio of area of the sector to area of semi circle is

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 1 : 3 7. Area of a circle is 616 sq. cm, then the circumference of the circle is (A) 44 cm (B) 88 cm (C) 22 cm (D) 616 cm

8. Quadrilateral in which diagonals are unequal and bisect each other at o90 is

(A) Rectangle (B) Rhombus (C) Square (D) Parallelogram 9. Sides of an equilateral triangle is 12 cm. Its height is

(A) 6 3 cm (B) 2 3 cm

(C) 3 3 cm (D) 36 3 cm

10. Polygon forming a polyhedron are called (A) edges (B) faces (C) vertices (D) lines


151



11. The radius of a circle is 0.25 m. The number of revolutions it will make to travel a distance of 11 km will be

(A) 2800 (B) 4000 (C) 5000 (D) 7000 12. Number of edges is an octahedron pyramid are (A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 14 (D) 9 13. If a polyhedron has 47 faces and 145 edges, then number of vertices are (A) 98 (B) 100 (C) 102 (D) none 14. Number of vertices in heptagonal prism are (A) 21 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 9 15. A rectangle has ____________lines of symmetry? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 16. Length of perpendicular from vertex to the base of a pyramid is called (A) axes (B) lateral edge (C) height (D) none 17. In a right prism, the angle between the lateral edge and its base is

(A) o30 (B) o60

(C) o90 (D) 0

18. If the perimeter of a semi – circular protractor is 36 cm, then its diameter is (A) 10 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 14 cm (D) 16 cm 19. Find the area of quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 44 cm (A) 77 cm2 (B) 38.5 cm2

(C) 19.25 cm2 (D) 154 cm2

20. Perimeter of the given figure is (where arc AB is a semi

circle) (A) 10.2 cm (B) 13 cm (C) 8.4 cm (D) 7.2 cm

1.5 cm

2.8 cm

A B


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21. A sector of o150 is cut out from a circle and the remaining area is 35 m2. The area of circle

is (A) 40 m2 (B) 60 m2

(C) 55 m2 (D) 70 m2 22. Which of the following is a polyhedron? (A) Sphere (B) Cone (C) Cube (D) Cylinder 23. Length of a rectangular park is 780 m and its breadth is 320 m. What would it cost to fence

the park at the rate of Rs. 7.50 per meter? (A) Rs. 33000 (B) Rs. 32500 (C) Rs. 16500 (D) Rs. 35500 24. Which of the following expression is correct one for calculating the circumference of a

circle? (A) 2 r (B) d

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) none of these 25. A courtyard 20 m long and 15 m broad is to be paved with bricks of length 25 cm and

breadth 12 cm. Find the number of bricks required (A) 9000 (B) 10000 (C) 8000 (D) 70000 26. Each side of the figure, measures 1 cm. The area of the figure is (A) 9 sq. cm (B) 12 sq. cm (C) 13 sq. cm (D) Can‟t say

27. A right circular cone of height 4 cm and diameter 6 cm, then find slant height of the cone? (A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 7 cm (D) 8 cm 28. A square has rotational symmetry of order (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 1 29. Number of lines of symmetry of the figure is (A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3


153



30. Which of the following has no line of symmetry? (A) F (B) U (C) Y (D) M 31. The cost of flooring a room 20m long at Rs. 7 per sq. m is Rs. 2520. The breadth of the

room is (A) 20 m (B) 18 m (C) 24 m (D) 28 m 32. Which of the following has infinite number of lines of symmetry? (A) polygon of n sides (B) circle (C) semi circle (D) none of these 33. The area of a square field is 625 m2. Find the cost of fencing the field at the rate of Rs.

62.50 per metre? (A) 4250 (B) 6250 (C) 5500 (D) 5000 34. The lengths of the parallel sides of a trapezium are 8.6 cm and 6.4 cm. The distance

between the parallel sides is 3.5 cm. Find the area of trapezium (A) 26.25 sq. cm (B) 28.25 sq. cm (C) 53.5 sq. cm (D) 27.25 sq. cm 35. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 3 : 2 and its perimeter is 20 cm.

then the area of the rectangle (in cm2) is: (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 72 (D) 96 36. The diagonal of a square A is (a + b). The diagonal of a square whose area is twice the

area of square A, is (A) 2 (a + b) (B) 2 (a + b)2

(C) 2 a b (D) 2 a b

37. What is the area of the triangle whose sides are 9 cm, 10 cm and 11 cm? (A) 30 cm2 (B) 60 cm2

(C) 230 2 cm (D) 260 2 cm

38. The perimeter of a non – square rhombus is 20 cm. One of its diagonal is 8 cm. The area

of the rhombus is (A) 28 sq. cm (B) 20 sq. cm (C) 22 sq. cm (D) 24 sq. cm 39. If the diagonals of two squares are in the ratio 2 : 5, their area will be in the ratio of

(A) 2: 5 (B) 2 : 5

(C) 4 : 25 (D) 4 : 5


154



40. The perimeter of a rhombus is 100 cm and one of its diagonals is 40 cm. Its area (in cm2) is (A) 1200 (B) 1000 (C) 600 (D) 500 41. The sides of a triangle are 16 cm, 12 cm and 20 cm. Find the area (A) 64 cm2 (B) 112 cm2

(C) 96 cm2 (D) 81 cm2

42. If the ratio of areas of two squares is 225 : 256, then the ratio of their perimeter is: (A) 225 : 256 (B) 256 : 225 (C) 15 : 16 (D) 16 : 15 43. The wheel of a motor car makes 1000 revolutions in moving 440 m. The diameter (in

meter) of the wheel is (A) 0.44 (B) 0.14 (C) 0.24 (D) 0.34 44. If diagonals of a rhombus are 24 cm and 32 cm, then perimeter of that rhombus is (A) 80 cm (B) 84 cm (C) 76 cm (D) 72 cm 45. The perimeter and length of a rectangle are 40 m and 12 m respectively. Its breadth will be (A) 10 m (B) 8 m (C) 6 m (D) 3 m


155




1. Formation of shadow suggest that light travels in: (A) straight line (B) vacuum (C) dark room (D) none of these 2. When white light is passed through a prism it splits into: (A) seven colours (B) five colours (C) three colours (D) eight colours 3. Speed of light in water is _______ its speed in air. (A) greater than (B) same as (C) less than (D) cannot be compared 4. According to the laws of reflection

(A) i = r

(B) i < r

(C) i > r (D) none of these

i r

5. When light is incident on a polished surface _______ reflection takes place. (A) regular (B) irregular (C) normal (D) none of these 6. The geometric centre of the hollow sphere of which a spherical mirror is a part of it, is

called: (A) focus (B) centre of curvature (C) pole (D) principal axis 7. The focus of a concave mirror is _______ (A) real (B) virtual (C) undefined (D) at the pole 8. When an object is at infinity from a concave mirror, the image formed is (A) at the focus (B) virtual and erect (C) highly enlarged (D) none of these 9. A diverging mirror is: (A) a plane mirror (B) a convex mirror (C) a concave mirror (D) a shaving mirror 10. If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected

ray will: (A) Pass through the pole (B) Pass through the focus (C) Retrace its path (D) Be parallel to the principal axis


156



11. Which of the following is incorrect? (A) Red + cyan = white (B) Blue + yellow = white (C) Green + magenta = white (D) Red + green = white 12. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis incident on a concave mirror, the reflected ray

will: (A) pass through focus (B) pass through centre of curvature (C) pass through pole (D) retrace its path 13. Objects which emit light of their own are called: (A) non-luminous objects (B) transparent objects (C) translucent objects (D) luminous objects 14. If the angle of incidence is 45°, then the angle of reflection will be: (A) 90° (B) 22.5° (C) 45° (D) 30° 15. A spherical mirror whose inner hollow curved surface is the reflecting surface is a: (A) convex mirror (B) concave mirror (C) plane mirror (D) none of these


157



SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY)

1. Pani Panchayat was started in which part of India? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Gujarat (D) Maharastra 2. Density of ice is less than water due to: (A) Normal structure of ice (B) Closed structure of ice (C) Cage-like structure of ice (D) None of these 3. During melting of ice molecules come together and hence density increase upto _______. (A) 38°C (B) 2°C (C) 4°C (D) 100°C 4. Rain water containing acid harms (A) Vegetation (B) Aquatic life (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 5. Water which readily gives a lather with soap is known as (A) Soft water (B) Hard water (C) Virtual water (D) Fused water 6. The process by which surface water becomes ground water is called (A) Evaporation (B) Discharge (C) Infiltration (D) Transpiration 7. How much of Earth‟s water is stored in underground aquifer? (A) about 1% (B about 5% (C) about 10% (D) about 20% 8. Percolation tank _______. (A) seeping in water from rivers and lakes into the tank, major source of water in southern

part of the country. (B) allows rainwater to seep into the soil & recharge ground water. (C) traditional way of collecting water. (D) technique of watering plants by making use of narrow tublings which deliver water

directly at the base of the plant. 9. Temporary hardness is caused due to (A) Magnesium carbonate (B) Calcium sulphate (C) Magnesium sulphate (D) Magnesium chloride 10. For coagulation chemical X is used. Suspended particles get stuck to this chemical „X‟ to

form „floc‟. What is „X‟ from the given options?

(A) Batroxobin (B) Potash Alum [K2SO4Al2(SO4)324H2O] (C) EDTA (D) None of these


158



11. Observe the given flow chart carefully & answer

2H Oheat red litmus2 solution

(white ash)

Mg O X Y Z

What is Y? (A) MgOH (B) Mg2OH (C) Mg(OH)2 (D) None of these 12. Which of the following gases are responsible for acid rain? (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Nitrogen dioxide (C) Sulphur dioxide (D) All of these 13. Many tiny water droplets high up in the air come together and fall down as (A) Rain (B) Hail (C) Snow (D) All of these 14. Which of the following can contaminate an aquifer? (A) Lindfills (B) Storage tanks (C) Gas stations (D) All of these 15. Water react with sulphur dioxide to produce. (A) Sulphurous acid (B) Sulphuric acid (C) Either (A) or (B) (D) None of these


159




1. Paper is generally obtained from the (A) wood pulp of bamboos (B) eucalyptus (C) teak (D) both A and B 2. Afforestation results in

(A) decreased pollution (B) soil erosion (C) scarcity of forest products (D) increases in earth‟s temperature 3. Which of the following is not the source of oil?

(A) groundnut (B) sunflower (C) soyabean (D) moong 4. A food chain do not includes (A) producer (B) decomposers (C) consumer (D) herbivores 5. Which of the following is concerned with the conservation of the forest?

(A) Silent valley (B) Kaziranga (C) Ghana (D) Gir 6. Sewage water can be purified by (A) microorganisms (B) aquatic plants (C) light (D) fishes 7. Concept of waste management are

(A) reduce (B) reuse (C) recycle (D) all of these 8. Waste water generated by industries is called (A) sewage (B) effluent (C) grey water (D) none 9. The solid matter that settles to the bottom in the sedimentation tank is (A) sewage (B) sludge (C) contaminate (D) none 10. Water polluted by various human activities causes a number of water borne disease.

Which of the following is not a water borne?

(A) cholera (B) typhoid (C) asthma (D) dysentery 11. A sewage main holes are located at every

(A) 50 – 60 m (B) 70 – 80 m (C) 80 – 90 m (D) 90 – 100 m


160



12. Which of the following is an anti forest conservation activity? (A) selective felling of trees (B) control on forest fires (C) cleaning of fallen trees (D) protection of wild life 13. Planting of flower and fruit trees along road sides in included in (A) Agro forestry programme (B) Social forestry programme (C) Urban forestry programme (D) Vann Mahotsava 14. In the treatment of waste water before discharge, which treatment stage involves

biological treatment?

(A) Primary stage (B) Secondary treatment stage (C) Reverse osmosis (D) Tertiary treatment stage 15. Biochemical oxygen demand measures

(A) industrial pollution (B) dissolved oxygen needed by microbes to decompose wastes (C) air pollution (D) water pollution


161



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

Batches: Udaya Two Year CRP (1618) A-

Lot

PHASE – IV SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE Test

QP CODE:

ANSWERS

SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS) 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. D 39. C 40. C 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. B

SECTION – II (PHYSICS) 1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. B

SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY)

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. A


1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. B

162



9. B 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. B

163



Answers & Solutions

SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS)

1. C Sol. Height of an equilateral triangle is given by

3a

h2

3

6 a a 2 22

Area 2

2 23 3a 2 2 2 3 cm

4 4

2. D

Sol. 2 2 26 8 10 , So triangle is right.

Area 1

6 8 242

sq. cm.

3. A

Sol. Area of square 21d ,

2 (d is diagonal).

2 215000m d

2

d 100m

4. A

Sol. If 1r and

2r are radii of two circles.

Ratio of areas 2

1

2

2

r 36

25r

1 1r : r 6 : 5 .

5. C Sol. Let equal sides of triangle a.

2

2 2a a 5 2

a = 5

Area 215 5 12.5 cm

2

a 5 2

a 6. B

Sol. Area of sec tor Angle of sec tor

Area of semicircle Angleof semi circle

o

o

451: 4

180

7. B Sol. Area = 616

2r 616

2 616r 7 196 r 14

22

Circumference 2 r 88cm

164



8. B Sol. It‟s the property of rhombus 9. A

Sol. 3

h a 6 32

cm

10. B Sol. Polygon forming a polyhedron are called faces 11. D

Sol. Number of revolutions 11000m

70002 0.25

12. A Sol. Octahedron pyramid has 16 edges. 13. B Sol. By Euler‟s Formula

E 2 F V 145 2 47 V V 100

14. B Sol. Number of vertices in heptagonal prism 7 2 14 15. A Sol. A rectangle has 2 lines of symmetry 16. C Sol. Length of perpendicular from vertices to base of pyramid is called height. 17. C

Sol. In a right prism, the angle between the lateral edge and its base is o90

18. C Sol. Perimeter of semicircle = 36 r 2r 36

22

r 2 367

r 7 diameter = 14 cm 19. B Sol. 2 r 44

r 7 cm

Area of quadrant 2 21 1 22r 7 7 38.5 cm

4 4 7

20. A Sol. Perimeter 1.5 2 2.8 1.4

= 10.2 cm 21. B Sol. Area of remaining sector = 35 cm2

165



o

2

o

210r 35

360

2 212r 35 60 m

7

22. C Sol. Only cube is polyhedron 23. C Sol. Length of rectangular park = 780 m Breadth of rectangular park = 320 m Perimeter of rectangular park = 2 (length + Breadth) = 2 (780 + 320) m = 2 1100 m = 2200 m According to the question, Cost of fencing 1 m = Rs. 7.50 Cost of fencing 2200m = Rs. (7.50 2200) = Rs. 16500

24. C Sol. Both (A) and (B) are correct. 25. B

Sol. Number of bricks required 1500 cm 2000cm

25 12

= 10000 26. C Sol. Area of given figure = Area of rectangle + 4 x area of a

square 3 3 4 1 13 sq. cm.

27. A Sol. Height = 4 cm and diameter = 6 cm

i.e. radius 6

2 = 3 cm

By Pythagoras theorem, we have

2 2 2VA OA VO

2 2 2VA 3 4

2 2VA 3 4

VA 25 5cm

slant height = 5 cm

V

h

B A O

Slant height

28. B Sol. A square has rotational symmetry of order 4. 29. C

166



Sol. As shown the figure has 2 lines of symmetry

30. A Sol. F has no line of symmetry. 31. B Sol. Cost of flooring 1 sqm = Rs. 7

Area of floor 2520

360 sq.m7

Area 360

b b 18m20

32. B Sol. Circle has infinite lines of symmetry 33. B

Sol. Area 2S 625

S 625

S = 25 m Fencing the field is related to the perimeter. Perimeter = 4S = 4 25 = 100 metres Cost of fencing = 100 62.5 = Rs. 6250 34. A Sol. Here, a = 8.6 cm, b = 6.4 cm and d = 3.5

cm

Area 1

a b d2

1

8.6 6.4 3.5 7.5 3.52

Area = 26.25 sq. cm.

6.4

3.5

8.6 35. A Sol. Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be 3x and 2x cm respectively. Then,

2 3x 2x 20

20

10x 20 x 210

Length 3x 3 2

= 6 cm Breadth 2x 2 2 4 cm

Area 26 4 24 cm

36. C Sol. Area of the square A

167



2diagonal

2

2a b

2

Area of the new square

2

2a b2 a b

2

Side = (a + b)

Diagonal 2 x side

2 a b

37. C Sol. Semi – perimeter

9 10 11

S 15 cm2

Area of triangle

s s a s b s c

15 15 9 15 10 15 11

215 6 5 4 30 2 cm

38. D

Sol. Side of rhombus 20

5cm4

OB = 4 cm

2 2OA 5 4 9 3 cm

AC 6cm

Area of rhombus

1 2

1 1d d 8 6 24

2 2 sq. cm

D C

A B

d1

d2

O

39. C Sol. Let diagonal be 2x and 5x.

2

1

22

12x

A 421A 25

5x2

4 : 25

40. C

168



Sol. BD = 40 cm BE = 20 cm AE = x cm

AB = 100

25 cm4

From ABE,

2 2AE 25 20

45 5 15 cm

AC 30 cm

Area of rhombus ABCD

1 2

1 1d d 40 30

2 2

= 600 sq. cm

A

B D

C

E

41. C Sol. Semi – perimeter

16 12 20

S2

48

24 cm2

Area of triangle

s s a s b s c

24 24 16 24 12 24 20

24 8 12 4 96 sq. cm

42. C

Sol. Ratio of areas 225

256

Ratio of sides

225 15

256 16

Ratio of perimeter

4 15

15 :164 16

43. B Sol. Distance covered by wheel in one revolution = Circumference of wheel

diameter 440

1000

22

7 diameter

440

1000

Diameter 440 7

1000 22

= 0.14 m 44. A

169



Sol. AC = 24 cm = d2 BD = 32 cm = d1

OD 16 cm

OC = 12 cm

oCOD 90

2 2CD OC OD

2 212 16

144 256 400 20 cm

Perimeter of rhombus

D C

A B

d1

d2

O

4 CD 4 20 80 cm

45. B Sol. Perimeter of rectangle = 40 metre Length = 12 metre

2 l b 40

2 12 b 40

40

12 b 202

b 20 12 8 metre


1. A Sol. Shadow formation takes place due to rectilinear propagation of light. 2. A Sol. On passing white light through a prism, it splits into seven colours and the process is

called dispersion of light. 3. C Sol. Speed of light is less in water as compared to its speed in air. 4. A Sol. According to the laws of reflection, angle of incidence = angle of reflection. 5. A Sol. Regular reflection takes place by a polished surface. 6. B Sol. Centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is the centre of the hollow sphere of which mirror

is a part. 7. A Sol. A concave mirror has a real focus. 8. A Sol. Image formed by a concave mirror for an object at infinity is real, inverted, highly

diminished and at focus of mirror in front of it. 9. B Sol. Convex mirror is also called diverging mirror as it diverges light rays after reflection from it. 10. C

170



Sol. Ray incident to centre of curvature of a spherical mirror falls normally on the mirror hence retraces its path after reflection.

11. D Sol. Red + Green = Yellow. 12. A Sol. If incident ray is parallel to the principal axis then after reflection, the reflected ray will pass

through focus. 13. D Sol. Objects which emit their own light are called luminous. 14. C

Sol. From laws of reflection, i = r. 15. B Sol. The mirror with inner hollow curved surface as reflecting surface is called concave mirror.

SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY) 1. D Sol. Pani Panchayat was started in Maharastra in 1972. 2. C Sol. Density of ice is less than water due to cage-like structure of ice. 3. C Sol. During melting of ice, molecules come together and hence its density increase upto 4°C. 4. C Sol. Rainwater containing acid harms both vegetation and aquatic life. 5. A Sol. Water which readily gives a lather with soap is known as soft water. 6. C Sol. The process by which surface water becomes ground water is called infiltration. 7. A Sol. 1.7% of Earth‟s water is stored in underground aquifer. 8. B Sol. Percolation tank is the one which allows rainwater to seep into the soil and recharge

groundwater. 9. A Sol. Temporary hardness is caused due to Magnesium carbonate. 10. B Sol. Chemical X is potash alum. It is used as a coagulating agent. 11. C

Sol. 2H Oheat red litmus2 2 solution

2Mg O 2MgO Mg(OH) turns blue

171



12. D Sol. CO2, SO2, NO2 are the gases which are responsible for acid rain. 13. D Sol. Many tiny water droplets high up in the air come together & fall down as Rain, Hail and

Snow. 14. D Sol. Landfills, Storage tanks, Gas stations – these all can contaminate an aquifer. They are the

potential threat to an aquifer contamination. 15. A Sol. Water react with sulphur dioxide to produce sulphurous acid.

2 2 2 3Water Sulphur Sulphurous

dioxide acid

H O SO H SO

172




1. D Sol. Paper is obtained from the wood pulp of bamboo and eucalyptus (gives oil). 2. A Sol. Afforestation (planting of trees) results in less pollution. 3. D Sol. Groundnut, sunflower and soyabean are the sources of oil. 4. B Sol. A food chain do not includes decomposers (Bacteria, viruses and fungi) 5. A Sol. Silent valley is concerned with the conservation of forest. 6. A Sol. Microorganisms like Bacteria and virus helps in biological oxidation of the sewage water. 7. D Sol. Waste management is based on three „R‟ reduce, reuse and recycle. 8. B Sol. Waste water generated by the industries is known as effluent. 9. B Sol. Sludge is the solid matter which settles at the bottom and scum is deposited on the top. 10. C Sol. Cholera, Typhoid and Dysentery are water borne disease, where Asthma is due to organ

malfunction. 11. A Sol. Sewage main holes are located at every 50 – 90 m. 12. C Sol. Cleaning of fallen trees is an anti forest conservation. 13. C Sol. Urban forestry includes planting of fruit and trees along road sides. 14. B Sol. Secondary treatment of water is known as Biological treatment. 15. B Sol. „BOD‟ is biological oxygen demand, which helps us to know the dissolved oxygen needed

by the microbes to decompose wastes.

FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

173




PHASE – IV Mental Ability Test (MAT)

QP CODE:

Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :


pen.











Booklet with them.







174



Directions (Questions 1 – 5): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains figure (X). 1.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

2.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

3.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

4.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

5.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (Questions 6 – 10): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence. 6. 1. Repoint 2. Reptile 3. Repent 4. Repute 5. Report (A) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (B) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 (C) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2 (D) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2


175



7. 1. Protein 2. Problem 3. Proverb 4. Property 5. Project (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (C) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (D) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 8. 1. Pestle 2. Pestilence 3. Pester 4. Pest 5. Pessimist (A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 (C) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 (D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 9. 1. Page 2. Pagan 3. Palisade 4. Pageant 5. Palate (A) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 (B) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 (D) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 10. 1. Select 2. Seldom 3. Send 4. Selfish 5. Seller (A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 (B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 (C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 (D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 Directions (Questions 11 – 15): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains figure (X). 11.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

12.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

13.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


176



14.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 15.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (Questions 16 – 18): Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series:

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 16. Which letter in the alphabet is as far from G as T is from M? (A) M (B) N (C) O (D) P 17. Which letter is exactly midway between G and Q in the given alphabet? (A) K (B) L (C) M (D) N 18. Which letter is midway between the eighteenth letter from the left end and tenth letter from

the right end of the given alphabet? (A) No letter (B) K (C) Q (D) R Directions (Questions 19 – 20): In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 19. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25, ? (A) 26 (B) 27 (C) 29 (D) 37 20. 6, 12, 21, ?, 48 (A) 33 (B) 38 (C) 40 (D) 45


177



Directions (Questions 21 – 23): Letters of the words given below have been jumbled up. You are required to construct the words. Each letter has been numbered and each word is followed by four options. Choose the option which given the correct order of the letters as indicated by the numbers to form words. 21. T I R B H G 1 2 3 4 5 6 (A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5 (B) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1 (C) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1 (D) 4, 5, 2, 3, 6, 1 22. T R I F U 1 2 3 4 5 (A) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 (B) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 (C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 23. R U S G A 1 2 3 4 5 (A) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 (B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 (C) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 (D) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 24. Kashish goes 30 metres North, then turns right and walks 40 metres, then again turns right

and walks 20 metres, then again turns right and walks 40 metres. How many metres is he from his original position?

(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 40 25. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I

turn left and walk 10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which direction am I from the starting point?

(A) North (B) North west (C) East (D) North east Directions (Questions 26 – 27): In each of the following questions, select the figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern. 26.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


178



27.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) Directions (Questions 28 – 31): In each of the following questions, find the number of triangles in the given figure. 28.

(A) 16 (B) 13 (C) 9 (D) 7 29.

(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18 30.

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7


179



31.

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10 32.

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14 Directions (Questions 33 – 35): In each of the following questions, a word has been given, followed by four other words, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word. 33. TRANSFORM (A) TRAIN (B) FORT (C) ROAM (D) RANSOM 34. CONSTRUCTION (A) SUCTION (B) COINS (C) CAUTION (D) NOTION 35. INTELLIGENCE (A) TILLAGE (B) INCITE (C) GENTLE (D) NEGLECT Directions (Questions 36 – 40): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains figure (X). 36.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


180



37.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 38.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 39.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 40.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) Directions (Questions 41 – 45): In each of the following questions, find the number of triangles in the given figure. 41.

(A) 27 (B) 25 (C) 23 (D) 21


181



42.

(A) 10 (B) 19 (C) 21 (D) 23 43.

(A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 28 (D) 34 44.

(A) 16 (B) 22 (C) 28 (D) 32 45.

(A) 16 (B) 18 (C) 14 (D) 15


182




(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 47.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 48.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

49.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 50.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


183



Directions (Questions 51 – 53): In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the odd one. 51. (A) Cheetah (B) Lion (C) Bear (D) Tiger 52. (A) Curd (B) Butter (C) Oil (D) Cheese 53. (A) Biscuit (B) Chocolate (C) Cake (D) Bread 54. In a certain code, FAVOUR is written as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in that code? (A) CBFFDS (B) CBMHDS (C) EBFHDS (D) EBHHFS 55. If, in a code, MIND becomes KGLB and ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what will

DIAGRAM be in that code? (A) BGYEPYK (B) BGYPYEK (C) GLPEYKB (D) LKBGYPK Directions (Questions 56 – 60): Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes at the second place. 56. (A) Signature (B) Sieve (C) Sight (D) Sigh 57. (A) Basis (B) Baste (C) Bask (D) Basinet 58. (A) Interview (B) Invent (C) Interfere (D) Interlude 59. (A) Plane (B) Plain (C) Plenty (D) Place 60. (A) Blast (B) Bottle (C) Bondage (D) Boisterous


184




(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

62.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

63.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

64.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

65.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


185



66. A, B and C are sisters. D is the brother of E and E is the daughter of B. How is A related to D?

(A) Sister (B) Cousin (C) Niece (D) Aunt 67. A and B are married couple. X and Y are brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related

to B? (A) Brother in law (B) Brother (C) Cousin (D) None of these 68. Deepak has a brother Anil. Deepak is the son of Prem. Bimals is Prem‟s father. In terms of

relationship, what is Anil of Bimal? (A) Son (B) Grandson (C) Brother (D) Grandfather Directions (Questions 69 – 70): In each of the following questions, a word has been given, followed by four other words, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word. 69. REASONABLE (A) BRAIN (B) BONES (C) NOBLE (D) ARSON 70. COURAGEOUS (A) COURAGE (B) SOURCE (C) COURSE (D) GENEROUS Directions (Questions 71 – 73): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Seven children A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a line. G is to the right of D and to the left of B. A is on the right of C. A and D have one child between them. E and B have two children between them. D and F have two children between them. 71. Who is on the extreme left? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 72. Who is on the extreme right? (A) B (B) E (C) F (D) G 73. Who is exactly in the middle? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E


186



Directions (Questions 74 – 75): In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to the found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative. 74. Dog : Rabies : : Mosquito : ? (A) Plague (B) Death (C) Malaria (D) Sting 75. Radio : Listener : : Film : ? (A) Producer (B) Actor (C) Viewer (D) Director Directions (Questions 76 – 80): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains figure (X). 76.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

77.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

78.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


187



79.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

80.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) Directions (Questions 81 – 85): In each of the following questions, count the number of squares in the given figure. 81.

(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 18 82.

(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 16 (D) 17


188



83.

(A) 11 (B) 21 (C) 24 (D) 26 84.

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 10 85.

(A) 32 (B) 30 (C) 29 (D) 28 Directions (Questions 86 – 90): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains figure (X).

86.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


189



87.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

88.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

89.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) 90.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


190



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST


PHASE – IV Mental Ability Test (MAT)

QP CODE:

ANSWERS

1. C 2. D 3. C 4 D

5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A

9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C

13. B 14. A 15. B 16. B

17. B 18. A 19. C 20. A

21. C 22. B 23. B 24. B

25. D 26. B 27. A 28. A

29. C 30. B 31. D 32. C

33. A 34. C 35. A 36. B

37. B 38. C 39. C 40. D

41. A 42. C 43. C 44. C

45. B 46. C 47. B 48. D

49. D 50. A 51. C 52. C

53. B 54. B 55. A 56. D

57. A 58. D 59. B 60. D

61. B 62. D 63. C 64. D

65. C 66. D 67. A 68. B

69. A 70. D 71. C 72. C

73. C 74. C 75. C 76. A

77. D 78. D 79. A 80. C

81. C 82. D 83. C 84. C

85. B 86. B 87. A 88. B

89. D 90. B

191



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