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Intermediate Care OperativeHealth Service Executive

Test Familiarisation Material Stage 1 Selection Testing

This is an important document so please set some time aside to read it in advance of the test session.

Dear Applicant,

We are supplying you with this Test Familiarisation Material to introduce you to the format of the tests which you will soon take in the first stage of the selection process.

We would encourage you to familiarise yourself with the exercises and test procedures, as outlined in this booklet. You will learn about the different tests we will set, the format of questions and your answers, the time limits for each test and how they are scored. By working with this information, you can ensure that you perform to the best of your ability on the day.

The purpose of supplying you with this information is to ensure that you are comfortable with our testing format and to help you perform to the best of your ability on the test day.

Do take the time to read this Test Familiarisation Material carefully, as it is your opportunity to prepare for the tests that you are about to sit. It should also help to reduce the additional time spent clarifying instructions before the tests. Please note that in order to ensure that you will not be detained for any longer than necessary on the day of the test, there will be a limited amount of time allocated for instructions and examples on the test day.

We would like to take this opportunity to thank you for applying and to encourage you once again to take time to read through the material carefully. We look forward to seeing you on the test day.

Thank you.PUBLIC APPOINTMENTS SERVICE

Public Appointments Service 1 Intermediate Care OperativeFamiliarisation Booklet

Table of Contents

Page

Why Tests are Being Used 3

The Tests Being Used 3

Test Booklets and Answer Sheet Formats 4

How to Complete the Answer Sheets 4

Sample Answer Sheet..........................................................................................5

Test Scoring 6

Information about Practice Questions 6

Test 1 Verbal Reasoning 7

Answers & Suggested Explanations to Practice Questions for Test 1 Verbal Reasoning 14

Test 2 Analytical Reasoning 20

Answers & Suggested Explanations to Practice Questions for Test 2 Analytical Reasoning 22

Further Information About Selection Tests 28

Complaints and Requests for Review 29

Some more Suggested Test Taking Tactics 31

Checklist 32

Candidate Feedback/Equality Monitoring 33


Why Tests are Being UsedThe Public Appointments Service and Health Service Executive are committed to the principles of good recruiting practice. These principles involve the fair and impartial selection of the best candidates for the job. This selection process has been developed to assess candidates in a fair and effective way.

Stage 1 of this selection procedure involves tests that measure a range of skills and qualities that are necessary in the job. These tests provide a consistent and suitable way of screening candidates at the initial stage of the selection campaign. These tests are designed to identify the most suitable people to go forward to the next stage of the Intermediate Care Operative competition. The tests have been designed so that they are fair to all applicants and are objectively scored.

The Tests Being UsedAt Stage 1 of the selection process you will be required to sit two tests. Here is a general overview of the tests being used and what they are designed to measure.

Verbal ReasoningThis test measures the ability to understand written passages and evaluate written information. It measures the verbal aspect of analytical ability, which is important in the Intermediate Care Operative role. This test consists of a series of passages, each of which is followed by several statements. Your task is to consider each statement, in light of the information contained in the passage, deciding whether the statement is ‘true’, ‘false’ or ‘cannot say’. On the day of the test you will have 30 minutes to complete the 52 questions in this test.

Analytical ReasoningThis test measures the ability to reason logically and flexibly which is also important in the Intermediate Care Operative role. It measures the non-verbal aspect of analytical ability. In this test you will be presented with a series of diagrams which follow a logical sequence. Your task is to choose the next diagram in the series from the five options presented. On the day of the test you will have 20 minutes to complete the 40 questions in this test.


Test Booklets and Answer Sheet Formats

Each of the two tests will be presented in a separate test booklet. You will be given a separate answer sheet for the Verbal Reasoning and Analytical Reasoning tests. You should look at the test name headings on the answer sheet to check that you are completing the correct answer section for the test that you are doing. A sample part of the answer sheet is illustrated on page 5.

The answer sheets are designed for computerised scoring. This means they can be scanned by a computer and scores can be calculated. Please remember to bring two soft pencils for marking your answer sheets as only pencil marks can be read by the computer scanner.

How to Complete the Answer Sheets

The first thing that you will be asked to do when you receive your answer sheet is to enter your name and examination number in the spaces provided. As in the example overleaf, when you are entering your examination number you should enter the numbers in the boxes and then mark the box of each corresponding number. You will be given specific instructions about how and when to do this at the examination.

All of the questions are presented in multiple choice format, which means that you will have to choose from a set of answers labelled [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] and so on, depending on the number of answer options given for the questions in each test. You must mark the boxes with heavy marks [ ▬ ] that fill the box completely, in order for the computer scanner to read it. This is very important as check marks [] or crosses [x] cannot be interpreted by the computer scanner. There is an example on the next page, which may make this, clearer for you.

Here are some helpful tips for completing the answer sheets: You should listen carefully to the instructions for each test and ensure that you are completing the

correct answer section on the answer sheet for the test that you are doing. In other words, you should be sure to mark your answers for ‘Test 1 Verbal Reasoning on Side A of the first answer sheet in the section marked Verbal Reasoning.

Within the test answer sections, each question has a corresponding answer line. As you go through the tests you may wish to check that you are filling in the right answer line for the question that you are answering. This is just in case you have marked the answer for a question in the wrong answer section or on the wrong answer line. For example, if you are answering Question 1 from ‘Verbal Reasoning, then you should be marking one of the boxes labelled [ A ], [ B ] or [ C ] on line 1 of that section marked Verbal Reasoning.

While these points may seem obvious, it is possible to lose your place on an answer sheet and fill in the wrong box in a testing situation. Unfortunately, errors such as these will not be picked up by the computerised scoring process.


IN ORDER TO REDUCE THE AMOUNT OF TIME SPENT GIVING DETAILED INSTRUCTIONS ON HOW TO COMPLETE THE ANSWER SHEET CORRECTLY ON THE DAY OF THE TEST - PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING SECTION CAREFULLY -

Public Appointments ServiceAnswer Sheet

Signature: Mary Lynch Examination Number

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9Important directions for completing the answer sheet

Use only soft pencils. Do not use ink or ballpoint pens.

Make heavy black marks that fill the box completely.EXAMPLE [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]

Fully erase any answers you wish to change.

Please make no stray marks on the answer sheet

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You must mark the boxes with heavy marks [▬] that fill the box completely, in order for the computer scanner to read it. Check marks [ ] or crosses [x] cannot be interpreted by the computer scanner.

All of the questions are presented in multiple choice format, which means that you will have to choose from a set of answers labeled [ A ], [ B ], [ C ] and so on, depending on the number of alternatives.

SAMPLE ANSWER SECTIONVerbal Reasoning EXAMPLES

1 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]

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[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ A ] [ B ] [ C ]

1 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]

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[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ A ] [ B ] [ C ]

Test Scoring:

This should help answer some of the more frequently asked questions about how the tests are scored and how test results are calculated.

The answers to these tests are objectively scored using a standardised answer and scoring key.

The answer sheets are computer scored. You should be very careful to follow the instructions about how to correctly fill in the answer sheets. If you make a mistake on the answer sheet, such as not clearly marking an answer choice or marking an answer choice on the wrong answer line, then you will not gain any marks for that question.

Fully erase any answers you wish to change.

There are no penalties for incorrect answers in any of the tests.

It is important that you put maximum effort into each of the tests as candidates are required to pass all tests in order to be deemed successful, as a minimum standard is required on each test.

In line with best test scoring practices, the total score attained by each candidate on each test will be transformed into what is known as a ‘standardised score’. This transformation of the total test score allows for individual test scores to be interpreted in relation to the total scores achieved by all other candidates on a particular test. Your ‘standardised score’ for each test will then be combined to give an ‘overall test score’.

Information about Practice Questions:

Practice questions are presented over the next few pages.

These practice questions are similar in format to what you could expect to find in each of the tests. You should try the practice questions for each of these tests using the mini answer sections presented directly after the questions.


When you are finished check how many you got right, then refer to the pages for suggested explanations to these practice questions.

Remember, these practice questions are only intended to help you familiarise yourself with the format of the test questions. Please do not be alarmed on the test day as it can be assumed that the actual test questions will be more difficult.

Test 1 Verbal Reasoning:

The Verbal Reasoning Test measures the ability to understand written passages and the logical evaluation of an argument. Instructions:

In this test you are presented with a range of passages, each of which is followed by several statements. Your task is to evaluate the statements in the light of the information or opinions contained in the passage and to select your answer according to the rules given below.

On the day of the test you will have 30 minutes to complete the 52 questions in this test.

Fill in Box A if the statement must be TRUE given the information in the passage

Fill in Box B if the statement is definitely FALSE given the information the passage

Fill in Box C if you CANNOT SAY whether the statement is true or false without further information

See how many of the following 20 questions you can answer in 12 minutes. Remember to work quickly as well as accurately. You should mark your answers on the mini answer section presented directly after each set of four practice questions.

If you are ready to proceed - take a look at the time and write it down here:


Test 1 – Verbal Reasoning Practice Questions:

Passage 1:

Applications are now being accepted for the following courses: Beginners and intermediate Japanese, beginners Polish, intermediate to advanced Russian, an introduction to Chinese culture and a Musical Theatre Performance Workshop. The Language Department, with the exception of the Musical Theatre Performance Workshop which is being carried out by the Drama Society, is running all of the above courses. Application forms can be obtained from the Faculty of Arts Administration Office. Please note: the closing date for receipt of applications is March 10th. All fees are outlined in the application form and 10% deposits are due in advance of the commencement of each course.

Q1 There are no courses available for those who wish to study Russian.

Q2 The Faculty of Arts Administration office only holds information on courses run by the Language Department and the Drama Society.

Q3 Full fees are due in advance of the course start date.

Q4 Applications will be accepted for all courses until March 10th.

Verbal Reasoning ExercisePractice questions

Mini Answer SectionQ1 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]Q2 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]Q3 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]Q4 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]


A True

B False

C Cannot Say

Base your answers only on the information given in the passage

Verbal Reasoning Practice Questions

Passage 2:

Many organisations find it beneficial to employ students during the summer. Permanent staff often wish to take their own holidays over this period. Furthermore, it is not uncommon for companies to experience peak workloads in the summer and so require extra staff. Summer employment also attracts students who may return as well qualified recruits to an organisation when they have completed their education. Ensuring that the students learn as much as possible about the organisation encourages their interest in working on a permanent basis. Organisations pay students on a fixed rate without the usual entitlement to paid holidays or sick leave.

Q5 It is possible that permanent staff who are on holiday can have their work carried out by students.

Q6 Students in summer employment are given the same paid holiday benefit as Permanent staff.

Q7 Students are subject to the organisations’ standard disciplinary and grievance procedures.

Q8 Some companies have more work to do in summer when students are available for vacation work.




A True

B False

C Cannot Say



Passage 3:

Guidelines regarding the payment of suppliers are stored in the Finance Unit. Those wishing to purchase from suppliers must adhere to the following rules. Firstly, a request for a quote must be issued to at least three suppliers which will detail the unit cost, delivery time and total cost of the purchase. Only budget holders are permitted to decide upon what quote should be accepted. Once the quote has been accepted, a purchase order is issued by the Finance Unit to the relevant supplier. The invoice should be sent directly to the Finance Unit upon receipt by the budget holder where it is compared to the Purchase Order for accuracy.

Q9 There are certain rules, which must be adhered to by those wishing to purchase from suppliers.

Q10 Whoever requests the quote has the responsibility of deciding which quote will be accepted.

Q11 The budget holder is generally the office manager.

Q12 Suppliers should send invoices directly to the Finance Unit.


Mini Answer SectionQ9 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]

Q10 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]Q11 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]Q12 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]


A True

B False

C Cannot Say



Passage 4:

Most banks and building societies adopt a ‘no smoking’ policy in customer areas in their branches. Plaques and stickers are displayed in these areas to draw attention to this policy. The notices are worded in a “customer friendly” manner, though a few customers may feel their personal freedom of choice is being infringed. If a customer does ignore a notice, staff are tolerant and avoid making a great issue of the situation. In fact, the majority of customers now expect a ‘no smoking’ policy in premises of this kind. After all, such a policy improves the pleasantness of the customer facilities and also lessens fire risk.

Q13 ‘No smoking’ policies have mainly been introduced in response to customer demand.

Q14 All banks and building societies now have a ‘no smoking’ policy.

Q15 There is no conflict of interest between a ‘no smoking’ policy and personal freedom of choice for all.

Q16 A ‘no smoking’ policy is in line with most customers’ expectations in banks and building societies.




A True

B False

C Cannot Say



Passage 5:

The computer system is limited in the number of reports it can generate. The Workflow Report was designed to allow the manager to print or view the workflow activity of the section. Section managers must have “senior access” rights in order to generate this report. The System Administrator and four other staff only are permitted to give users access rights to the computer system. “Viewing Access” rights are one of three sets of rights available to users. Reports have to be designed by computer programmers who have “report writing” access rights. All reports with the exception of the Security Breach Report are compatible with the section’s word processing computer package. The Security Breach Report can be generated to show the security password of the user that breached the system. Staff are advised to keep their password secret and not to disclose it to any third party. The System Usage report and the Security Breach report can only be generated by the System Administrator.

Q17 Only the System Administrator and the staff of the System Administrator are permitted to give users access rights to the computer system.

Q18 All section managers have their own security password.

Q19 The section’s word processing package can be used to generate all the section reports.

Q20 Reports can be designed within the system by Computer programmers with “Report Writing” rights.




A True

B False

C Cannot Say


STOP! - take a look at the time and write it down here:


Answers to practice questions for Test 1 – Verbal Reasoning

Here are the answers to the practice questions for the Verbal Reasoning test. Check to see how many you got correct.

Test 1 Verbal ReasoningMini Answer Section

Q1 [A] [▄] [C] Q13 [A] [B] [▄]Q2 [A] [B] [▄] Q14 [A] [▄] [C]Q3 [A] [▄] [C] Q15 [A] [▄] [C]Q4 [▄] [B] [C] Q16 [▄] [B] [C]Q5 [▄] [B] [C] Q17 [A] [B] [▄]Q6 [A] [▄] [C] Q18 [▄] [B] [C]Q7 [A] [B] [▄] Q19 [A] [▄] [C]Q8 [▄] [B] [C] Q20 [▄] [B] [C]Q9 [▄] [B] [C]Q10 [A] [▄] [C]Q11 [A] [B] [▄]Q12 [A] [▄] [C]


Suggested Explanations for Test 1 - Verbal Reasoning Practice Questions

These questions involve reading a short passage of text carefully and then checking to see if the statements following it are true, false or cannot say from the text in the passage. Even though you may be sure of an answer, it is wise to quickly go back to the relevant sentence(s) in the passage to check that you are accurate. You should always make your decision about whether a statement is true, false or you cannot say, based on the exact information contained in the passage rather than your own knowledge of similar situations.

Applications are now being accepted for the following courses: Beginners and intermediate Japanese, beginners Polish, intermediate to advanced Russian, an introduction to Chinese culture and a Musical Theatre Performance Workshop. The Language Department, with the exception of the Musical Theatre Performance Workshop which is being carried out by the Drama Society, is running all of the above courses. Application forms can be obtained from the Faculty of Arts Administration Office. Please note: the closing date for receipt of applications is March 10th. All fees are outlined in the application form and 10% deposits are due in advance of the commencement of each course.

Q1 There are no courses available for those who wish to study Russian.

This is answer [B] False, as it is clearly stated in the passage that, “Applications are now being accepted for the following courses: Beginners and intermediate Japanese, beginners Polish, intermediate to advanced Russian”

Q2 The Faculty of Arts Administration office only holds information on courses run by the Language Department and the Drama Society.

This is answer [C] cannot say, as there are no details in the passage of what information the Arts Administration Office does and does not hold.

Q3 Full fees are due in advance of the course start date.

This is answer [B] False, as it is clearly stated in the passage that, “All fees are outlined in the application form and 10% deposits are due in advance of the commencement of each course.”

Q4 Applications will be accepted for all courses until March 10th.

This is answer [A] True, as it is clearly stated in the passage that, “The closing date for receipt of applications is March 10th.”


Suggested Explanations for Test 1

Many organisations find it beneficial to employ students during the summer. Permanent staff often wish to take their own holidays over this period. Furthermore, it is not uncommon for companies to experience peak workloads in the summer and so require extra staff. Summer employment also attracts students who may return as well qualified recruits to an organisation when they have completed their education. Ensuring that the students learn as much as possible about the organisation encourages their interest in working on a permanent basis. Organisations pay students on a fixed rate without the usual entitlement to paid holidays or sick leave.

Q5 It is possible that permanent staff who are on holiday can have their work carried out by students. The answer is [A] true, as it is clearly stated in the passage that “Many organisations find it beneficial to employ students during the summer”, and that “Permanent staff often wish to take their own holidays over this period.”

Q6 Students in summer employment are given the same paid holiday benefit as Permanent staff.The answer is [B] false, as it is clearly stated in the passage that “Organisations pay students on a fixed rate without the usual entitlement to paid holidays or sick leave”.

Q7 Students are subject to the organisations’ standard disciplinary and grievance procedures.The answer is [C] cannot say, as there is no reference to disciplinary and grievance procedures in the passage. While this may be true for some organisations and it may be untrue for others in different contexts, you have no information available to you in this passage to determine whether it is true or untrue in this specific context.

Q8 Some companies have more work to do in summer when students are available for vacation work.The answer is [A] true, as it is clearly stated in the passage that “it is not uncommon for companies to experience peak workloads in the summer and so require extra staff.”



Guidelines regarding the payment of suppliers are stored in the Finance Unit. Those wishing to purchase from suppliers must adhere to the following rules. Firstly, a request for a quote must be issued to at least three suppliers which will detail the unit cost, delivery time and total cost of the purchase. Only budget holders are permitted to decide upon what quote should be accepted. Once the quote has been accepted, a purchase order is issued by the Finance Unit to the relevant supplier. The invoice should be sent directly to the Finance Unit upon receipt by the budget holder where it is compared to the Purchase Order for accuracy.

Q9 There are certain rules, which must be adhered to by those wishing to purchase from suppliers.

This is answer [A] True, as it is clearly stated in the passage that, “Guidelines regarding the payment of suppliers are stored in the Finance Unit. Those wishing to purchase from suppliers must adhere to the following rules.”

Q10 Whoever requests the quote has the responsibility of deciding which quote will be accepted.

This is answer [B] False, as it is clearly stated in the passage that, “Only budget holders are permitted to decide upon what quote should be accepted.”

Q11 The budget holder is generally the office manager.

This is answer [C] cannot say, as it is not stated in the passage who the budget holder generally is.

Q12 Suppliers should send invoices directly to the Finance Unit.

This is answer [B] False, as it is clearly stated in the passage that, “The invoice should be sent directly to the Finance Unit upon receipt by the budget holder”. Therefore, the budget holder should receive the invoice first.



Most banks and building societies adopt a ‘no smoking’ policy in customer areas in their branches. Plaques and stickers are displayed in these areas to draw attention to this policy. The notices are worded in a “customer friendly” manner, though a few customers may feel their personal freedom of choice is being infringed. If a customer does ignore a notice, staff are tolerant and avoid making a great issue of the situation. In fact, the majority of customers now expect a ‘no smoking’ policy in premises of this kind. After all, such a policy improves the pleasantness of the customer facilities and also lessens fire risk.

Q13 ‘No smoking’ policies have mainly been introduced in response to customer demand.The answer is [C] cannot say, as the specific reason for the introduction of ‘no smoking’ policies is not mentioned in the passage. While it is likely that it was in response to customer demand, it may also have been due to another reason such as fire risk. Whichever way, you cannot infer the true reason from the information contained in the passage.

Q14 All banks and building societies now have a ‘no smoking’ policy. The answer is [B] false, as it is stated at the beginning of the passage that “Most banks and building societies adopt a ‘no smoking’ policy...”. ‘Most banks’ does not mean ‘all banks’, thus this statement is untrue.

Q15 There is no conflict of interest between a ‘no smoking’ policy and personal freedom of choice for all.The answer is [B] false, as it is clearly stated in the passage that “a few customers may feel their personal freedom of choice is being infringed” with the introduction of a ‘no smoking’ policy.

Q16 A ‘no smoking’ policy is in line with most customers’ expectations in banks and building societies. The answer is [A] true, as it is clearly stated in the passage that “the majority of customers now expect a ‘no smoking’ policy in premises of this kind.”



The computer system is limited in the number of reports it can generate. The Workflow Report was designed to allow the manager to print or view the workflow activity of the section. Section managers must have “senior access” rights in order to generate this report. The System Administrator and four other staff only are permitted to give users access rights to the computer system. “Viewing Access” rights are one of three sets of rights available to users. Reports have to be designed by computer programmers who have “report writing” access rights. All reports with the exception of the Security Breach Report are compatible with the section’s word processing computer package. The Security Breach Report can be generated to show the security password of the user that breached the system. All staff are advised to keep their password secret and not to disclose it to any third party. The System Usage report and the Security Breach report can only be generated by the System Administrator.

Q17 Only the System Administrator and the staff of the System Administrator are permitted to give users access rights to the computer system.

This is answer [C] Cannot say, as while it is clearly stated in the passage that, “The System Administrator and four other staff only are permitted to give users access rights to the computer system.” It is not stated in the passage exactly who the other four staff are.

Q18 All section managers have their own security password. This is answer [A] True, as it is clearly stated in the passage that “All staff are advised to keep their password secret and not to disclose it to any third party.” Therefore, all staff, including section managers, have their own security password.

Q19 The section’s word processing packages can be used to generate all the department reports.

This is answer [B] False, as it is clearly state in the passage that, “All reports with the exception of the Security Breach Report are compatible with the section’s word processing computer package.”

Q20 Reports can be designed within the system by Computer programmers with “Report Writing” rights.

This is answer [A] True, as it is clearly stated in the passage that, “Reports have to be designed by computer programmers who have “report writing” access rights.”


Test 2 Analytical Reasoning

The Analytical Reasoning test measures recognition of logical sequences within a series of diagrams or symbols. On the test day you will be asked to answer 40 questions in 20 minutes.

Instructions

Each problem in this test consists of a series of diagrams, on the left of the page, which follow a logical sequence. You are to choose the next diagram in the series from the five options on the right.

Try this example question first:Q1 A B C D E

The answer is [ C ].In each box of the sequence on the left-hand side, there is a semi-shaded circle.The series begins: circle in the top left-hand corner of the box with the shaded half facing into the box, followed by a circle in the bottom right-hand corner with the shaded half also facing into the box. The next pair of boxes contain circles in the opposite diagonal corners to the two previous ones (i.e. the bottom left-hand corner, and the top right-hand corner) with the shaded half of the circles facing out of the box.As the last box of the sequence contains a circle in the top left-hand corner with the shaded half facing into the box, the next box in the sequence should contain a circle in the bottom right-hand corner, with the shaded half facing into the box. That is, option [ C ].

See how many of the following questions you can answer in 6 minutes, remembering you should work accurately as well as quickly. You should mark your answers on the mini answer sheet presented.


Answers and Suggested Explanations to practice questions for Test 2 Analytical Reasoning

PLEASE NOTE: The following are suggested explanations for how the answers to the Analytical Reasoning practice questions can be arrived at. While there may be more than one approach to solving the questions, there is only one correct answer for each question.

Practice Question 2

A B C D E

The correct answer for this question is [ D ].

Explanation: Each box in this sequence contains a square. Within the square there is a diagonal line. This line goes from the bottom left-hand corner to the top right-hand corner of the square, in the first two boxes. It then changes direction in the next two boxes (i.e. from the top left-hand corner to the bottom right-hand corner of the square). As the last box in the sequence has a square with a diagonal line going from the bottom left-hand corner to the top right-hand corner, the next box in the sequence should have the same.

The diagonal line between the square and the outside of the box, moves from corner to corner in a clockwise direction. Therefore, it should be in the top left-hand corner in the next box of the sequence.

Combining both of these movements together, the next logical step in the sequence will be a box containing a square, with a diagonal line going from the bottom left-hand corner to the top right-hand corner of the square, and with a diagonal line between the square and the outside of the box in the top left-hand corner of the box.

That is, option [ D ].

Practice Question 3

A B C D E


The correct answer for this question is [ C ].

Explanation: Each of the five boxes in this series contains two shapes. If you look at the shapes involved going from left to right, you will notice that the inner shape in each box is the same as the outer shape in the next box.

The last box in the series has a circle as the inner shape, therefore the next box would have a circle as the outer shape. The only answer with a circle as the outer shape is [ C ], therefore the answer is [ C ].

Practice Question 4

A B C D E

The correct answer for this question is [ E ].

Explanation: Each of the five boxes in this series contains a straight line and two shapes. The line moves in a clockwise direction around the box. The shapes appear in the following repeated sequence from one box to the next: circle, triangle, square. One shape is shaded and one shape is not, in each box. In the first box, it is the first shape which is not shaded. In the second box, it is the second shape which is not shaded, and in the third box, it is the first shape which is not shaded, and so on.

Combining all of these movements, as the last box in the series has the line at the top, the next box should have the line at the right-hand side of the box. The last box contains a square and a circle, and therefore the next box should contain a triangle and a square. The first shape in the last box is not shaded, therefore the second shape in the next box should not be shaded (i.e. the square).

That is, option [ E ].


Practice Question 5

A B C D E

The correct answer for this question is [ B ].

Explanation: Each box in this series contains two diagonal lines, which start from the centre and are joined to one of the corners of the box. The diagonal line which joins the centre to the top right-hand corner of the box, remains in the same position throughout the sequence. However, the second diagonal line moves from corner to corner in a clockwise direction, from one box to the next.

The next box should contain a diagonal line going from the centre to the top right-hand corner, and a second diagonal line going from the centre to the bottom left-hand corner of the box.

That is, option [ B ].

Practice Question 6

A B C D E


Explanation: Each of the five boxes in this series contains a diagonal line and three shapes (with one shape above the diagonal line and two shapes below the diagonal line). The diagonal line changes direction from one box to another (i.e. it goes from the top left-hand corner to the bottom right-hand corner in the first box, then from the bottom left-hand corner to the top right-hand corner in the next box, and back again etc.)

The shapes above the diagonal line follow a sequence from one box to the next, i.e. square, triangle, circle. Every second one of these shapes is shaded.

The shapes below the diagonal line also follow a sequence from one box to the next, i.e. circle, triangle, square. The first of these shapes in each box is shaded.

Combining all of these sequences, the next box in the series should contain a diagonal line going from the bottom left-hand corner to the top right-hand corner of the box, with a shaded circle above the line, and a triangle and square below the line. The triangle should be shaded, as it is the first shape below the line.

That is, option [ C ].Practice Question 7

A B C D E


The correct answer for this question is [ A ].

Explanation: Each box in this series contains a diagonal line and one or two shapes. In the first two boxes, the diagonal line goes from the top left-hand corner to the bottom right-hand corner of the box. In the next two boxes, it changes direction and goes from the bottom left-hand corner to the top right-hand corner of the box. The last box shows a diagonal line going from the top left-hand corner to the bottom right-hand corner of the box, therefore the next box should contain the same diagonal line.

The first box contains a shaded circle below the diagonal line, the second box contains an un-shaded square above the diagonal line, and the third box combines the two. Then the sequence begins again. The last box shows an un-shaded square above the line, therefore the next box should contain an un-shaded square above the line, a shaded circle below the line, and a diagonal line going from the top left-hand side to the bottom right-hand side of the box.

That is, option [ A ].

Practice Question 8

A B C D E


Explanation: Each of the five boxes in this series contains a square in each corner of the box. There is a shape in three of these squares and the remaining one is empty. The shapes go in the following sequence: circle, cross, triangle (clockwise from corner to corner). The first box starts the sequence in the top left-hand corner. In each box in this series, the sequence moves from one corner to the next in a clockwise direction.

The last box of the series begins the sequence in the top left-hand corner, therefore the next box in the sequence should start in the top right-hand corner (i.e. a circle in the top right-hand corner, a cross in the bottom right-hand corner, and a triangle in the bottom left-hand corner).

That is, option [ C ].


Practice Question 9

A B C D E

The correct answer for this question is [ E ].

Explanation: There are two sequences in this series. The first sequence consists of the following empty shapes: circle, triangle, and square. These shapes alternate from the top of one box to the bottom of the next, and back to the top of the next, and so on.

The second sequence consists of a hexagon shape which contains symbols in the following order: a minus sign (-), a plus sign (+), and an equals sign (=). The hexagon also moves from the bottom of one box to the top of the next.

Combining these movements, the next box in the series should contain a hexagon shape at the top of the box with an equals sign in it, and a square shape at the bottom.

That is, option [ E ].

Practice Question 10

A B C D E

The correct answer for this question is [ B ].

Explanation: Each box in this series contains three shapes (one inside the other). Each shape is part of a separate sequence. If you look at the first outer shape, and follow it across the series, you will see that the sequence is: circle, square, hexagon, and triangle.

If you look at the second shape of the first box (i.e. the triangle) and follow the sequence across the series, you will see that the sequence is: triangle, hexagon, square, and circle (in other words the reverse order of the outer shapes).

If you look at the centre arrows of each box, you will see that they change direction from one box to the other in the series, in an anti-clockwise direction.

The last box of the series contains an outer circle, with a triangle inside, with an arrow pointing down. Therefore, the next box in the series should contain an outer square, with a hexagon inside, and an arrow pointing to the right.

That is, option [ B ].


A B C D E



Explanation: Each of the five boxes in this series contains a diagonal line and an arrow. The diagonal line changes direction in each box. The arrow moves from side to side around the box in an anti-clockwise direction.

In the last box the diagonal line goes from the top left hand corner to the bottom right hand corner. The arrow is facing down. The next box in the series should have a diagonal line going from the bottom left hand corner to the top right hand corner, with an arrow pointing to the right hand side.



A B C D E


Explanation: Each of the five boxes in this series contains a line and two shapes (a circle and a square). The line moves around the box in a clockwise direction. The circle and the square hold their positions in relation to the line (i.e. the circle will always be to the left of the line and the square will always be to the right, as you look at the shapes from underneath the line.) As you go from box to box, each alternate shape is shaded.

In the last box the line is on top and the circle is shaded. Therefore, in the next box the line would be to the right and the square would be shaded.



Further Information About Selection Tests

In response to feedback provided by previous test candidates, we are including references to other literature and information about selection tests. Although these are not necessary in order to perform well at test sessions, you may find it useful and reassuring to have a look at one of the many books available which are specifically aimed at people who are about to undertake selection tests.

‘How to Succeed in Psychometric Tests’ by David Cohen - Sheldon, 1993.

‘How to Pass Selection Tests’ by Mike Bryon & Sanjay Modha - Kogan Page, 1994.

‘How to Win at Aptitude Tests’ by Paul Pelshenke - Thorsons, 1993.

Books about sitting selection tests should be available from good book shops and/or your local library.

Review Procedures and Candidates Obligations:


The Public Appointments Service will consider requests for review in accordance with the provisions of the codes of practice published by the CPSA and are accessible on www.cpsa-online.ie.

Review procedures in relation to the Recruitment and Selection processThe Health Service ExecutiveWith effect from the 1st April 2005 recruitment for appointments to positions in the HSE is subject to the provisions of the Public Service Management (Recruitment and Appointments) Act, 2004 (the Act) and is regulated by the Commission for Public Service Appointments (CPSA)

Code of Practice: External and Internal Recruitment for Appointments to Positions in the HSEAppointments to positions in the Health Service Executive, apart from those positions which are subject to the Local Authorities (Officers and Employees) Act 1926, are subject to the Codes of Practice published by the CPSA. The Code of Practice sets out how the core principles of probity, merit, equity and fairness, the need to ensure that candidates are selected on the basis of merit and the implementation of best practice might be applied on a principle basis.

ConfidentialityApplications will be treated in strict confidence, subject to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Acts 1997 and 2003 and other provisions that have been identified in the published documentation.

Obligations Placed on Candidates who participate in the Recruitment ProcessThe Act makes very specific provisions in relation to the responsibilities placed on candidates who participate in recruitment campaigns and these are detailed in Section 4 of the Code of Practice, These obligations are as follows:

Candidates should note that canvassing will disqualify and will result in their exclusion from the process.

Candidates must not:o knowingly or recklessly provide false informationo canvass any person, with or without inducementso personate a candidate at any stage of the processo interfere with or compromise the process in any way

Any person who contravenes the above provisions, or who assists another person in contravening the above provisions, is guilty of an offence. A person who is found guilty of an offence is liable to a fine and / or imprisonment.

In addition, where a person found guilty of an offence was or is a candidate at a recruitment / selection process, then:

o Where he / she has not been appointed to a post, he / she will be disqualified as a candidate; and

o Where he / she has been appointed as a result of that process, he / she shall forfeit that appointment


http://www.cpsa-online.ie/


Review procedures in relation to the Recruitment and Selection process and allegations of breach of the Code of PracticeThe Code of Practice also outlines procedures in relation to requests for a review of the recruitment and selection process and review in relation to allegations of a breech of the Code of Practice. These procedures enable you to seek a review if you believe that an action or decision taken in relation to the selection process was unfair or unreasonable, or if you believe there was a breach of the Code of Practice

Full details on the Code of Practice are available at www.cpsa-online.ie

And Finally…….Some More Test Taking TacticsHere are some suggestions which will help you to prepare for the testing session.

In advance...

Work through the practice items again for the tests that you will be sitting and try to understand how to reach the correct answer for each question.



Get a good nights sleep before the test session and allow yourself plenty of time to reach the test venue so that you don’t have to rush.

Dress comfortably. Remember that you will be sitting for a long period of time and that you may cool down as the test session progresses.

During the test session...

Each test will be preceded by a set of brief instructions and an example test question.

Listen carefully to the instructions for each test, especially the numbers of questions and time limits for each test.

Make sure that you understand how to use the answer sheets. They will be similar to what has been presented in the practice sections of this Familiarisation Booklet.

As you go through the tests you should check that you are marking the correct space in the correct section of the answer sheet for the question that you are answering. In other words, when you answer question 12 of test 2 you should make sure that you fill in the space for question 12 of test 2 on the answer sheet.

Read through each question and answer options, paying careful attention to detail.

Attempt as many questions as you can, working quickly and accurately and to the best of your ability. You should try as hard as you can, as the more questions that you get right, the higher your score will be.

If you find a question difficult, it may help to choose the correct answer by first eliminating the wrong answers.

Do not waste time on very difficult questions, but go back to them at the end if you have enough time. Where this occurs, pay particular attention to the advice above with regard to marking the correct answer space on the answer sheet.


Test Day Checklist

Before you arrive at your test venue, please ensure that you have the following items with you:

1. An original and copy (front and back) of your current full unendorsed Class C1 driving licence. This is essential for admission to the test centre (Please check that there are no restrictions attached to your C1 licence i.e. Code 78 on Irish licence, Code 101 or 78 on UK licence or Code 79 (NFHR) on Northern Ireland licence, is not acceptable.

NOTE: If have passed your Class C1 test on or before the 5th December 2011 but do not have it on your licence – you should bring their Certificate of Competency and a copy with you. (This will show that you have passed the required test on or before 5 th December 2011 as stated in the eligibility criteria of the campaign)

2. Your test notification letter

3. Two soft pencils

4. 1 white eraser

5. 1 pencil sharpener

6. Your glasses (if necessary)

PLEASE NOTE: ITEM NUMBERS 3 TO 6 IN THIS CHECKLIST ARE THE ONLY ITEMS YOU WILL BE PERMITTED TO USE DURING THE TEST SESSION.

Candidate Profile/Feedback SurveyYou may be asked to take part in a feedback survey of the Intermediate Care Operative Competition Stage 1 testing procedure. This will be carried out at a sample of the


testing locations. Participation in this survey is voluntary. If it is administered at your testing location, then you are strongly encouraged to take a few minutes to fill it in.

Your comments on the testing procedure are important to the ongoing evaluation of the Public Appointments Service and the Health Service Executive selection procedures. This survey will be totally anonymous and the information will be used for research purposes only. Responses to this survey will not be linked to your test results.

Equality Monitoring Form

The Public Appointments Service are committed to an equal opportunities policy and in accordance with the Employment Equality Act (2004), aim to ensure that all applicants are treated equally whatever their gender, marital status, sexual orientation, religious belief, age, disability, race or membership of the travelling community.

As part of our ongoing commitment to equality, we want to monitor our selection process(es) in order to ensure that our equal opportunities policy is effectively implemented. To this effect, we are interested in collecting a range of information which will help us to understand further how people are performing throughout the selection process(es), and to help ensure that our selection techniques are fair to all people.

For this reason we will be asking you to complete an Equality Monitoring Form. With a view to ensuring that our recruitment and selection processes are equally-proofed.

While the completion of this form is completely voluntary, we would encourage you to help us in equality-proofing our processes by completing all questions on the form that relate to you as an individual.

Neither the manner in which you respond to this request for information, nor the answers that you provide will have any bearing on the manner in which your application is considered. The information provided will be entered on confidential databases within the Equality Unit of the Public Appointments Service and used to produce data in anonymous statistical format only.

- Good Luck in the Tests -

On the day of the test you will not be permitted to leave until all documentation has been checked. Candidates will not be permitted to bring any paper material (test relevant or otherwise) either into or out of a test centre. Any attempt to breach this regulation will be considered sufficient grounds for disqualification from the competition.


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