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VCAA Psychology: Exam 1 2011
Question 2
Hillary has been knitting for twenty years. She is able to knit quickly and accurately while she watches television. Her granddaughter, who is just learning how to knit, makes many mistakes if she tries to knit and watch television at the same time. This is because
A. Hillary is in an altered state of consciousness when she is knitting.
B. knitting is a controlled process for Hillary and an automatic process for her granddaughter.
C. Hillary is able to divide her attention while her granddaughter is unable to divide her attention.
D. Hillary is able to use selective attention to knit while her granddaughter needs to use divided attention.
Petra was completing her psychology examination.
Question 5
At the beginning of the examination, various thoughts were active in her mind such as how to fill in the multiple-choice answers, whether she should attempt the short answer questions first, and that the room was a little cold. Petra’s state of consciousness is best described as
A. dualism.
B. selective attention.
C. normal waking consciousness.
D. an altered state of consciousness.
Use the following graphs to answer Questions 7 and 8.
The following graphs show the typical sleep cycles for two distinct age groups.
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Question 7
The typical sleep cycles represented in Graphs 1 and 2, in order, are
A. infant, adolescent.
B. infant, elderly person.
C. elderly person, infant.
D. adolescent, elderly person.
Question 8
According to the restorative theory of sleep, the sleeper in Graph 1 spends more time in REM sleep than the sleeper in Graph 2 because
A. they are experiencing REM rebound.
B. their sleep/wake cycle has shifted forward due to their age.
C. neural connections in the brain are strengthened during sleep.
D. experiencing more deep sleep at night enhances the chance of survival.
Question 9
Which of the following requires the least total amount of sleep?
A. an infant
B. an adolescent
C. an elderly person
D. All sleepers require the same amount of sleep regardless of age.
Question 10
David, a professional footballer, is physically exhausted after playing in all four quarters of the Grand Final. According to the restorative theory of sleep, in which stages of sleep would David be most likely to spend more time in the two nights sleep following the Grand Final?
A. rapid eye movement (REM)
B. non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stage 1
C. non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stages 1 and 3
D. non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stages 3 and 4
Question 11
It is likely that you will be difficult to wake if you are woken a couple of hours into your night’s sleep because you
A. are likely to be in non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stages 3 and 4 sleep.
B. will not have completed more than one sleep cycle.
C. are likely to be in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
D. are likely to be in non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stage 1 sleep.
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Question 12
Researchers have found it difficult to generalise the results of studies on humans which investigate prolonged total sleep deprivation because
A. these studies often rely only on self report.
B. the effects of total sleep deprivation are not reversible.
C. studying sleep deprivation often depends on convenience sampling.
D. an electroencephalograph (EEG) cannot tell if someone has a microsleep.
Question 13
Jason was taking part in a study of the sleep patterns of adolescents. From the ages of 11 to 24, he was required to keep a sleep diary for one month each year. In the sleep diary he described how tired he felt during the day. In the same month he also wore an electronic device that recorded the amount of time he spent asleep. The researcher was collecting
A. correlational data.
B. only qualitative data.
C. only quantitative data.
D. qualitative and quantitative data.
Question 15
When threatened by a dog, a cat’s salivary glands inhibit secretion of saliva and its fur stands on end. These changes to the cat’s functioning are activated by the
A. spinal cord.
B. somatic nervous system.
C. sympathetic nervous system.
D. parasympathetic nervous system.
Question 26
The hippocampus is required for the consolidation of
A. short-term memories.
B. procedural memories.
C. long-term declarative memories.
D. the emotional aspects of memories.
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Question 27
David, a 23-year-old university student, suffered from a brain injury and sustained damage to his amygdala. David is most likely to experience difficulty with
A. implicit memory.
B. explicit memory.
C. semantic memory.
D. sensory memory.
Question 28
Richard has just switched off his alarm clock yet he can still hear the sound of it ringing. This effect is due to
A. episodic memory.
B. working memory.
C. iconic memory.
D. echoic memory.
Question 29
Leo, a 30-year-old man, recently sustained damage to his hippocampus. Since then, Leo is likely to be unable to remember
A. how to ride a bike.
B. how to tie his shoelaces.
C. the route to his parents’ house.
D. current events from the newspaper.
Question 33
The inability to retrieve previously stored information is best described as
A. forgetting.
B. unconsciousness.
C. proactive amnesia.
D. consolidation failure.
Use the following information to answer Questions 35–37. Rohan and Lisa were studying for a Japanese examination. Lisa memorised her Japanese vocabulary over two months by associating each new word with words and topics that she had previously learnt. Rohan learnt the Japanese vocabulary during the last few days before the examination by repeating each word over and over. Lisa’s examination result was much better than Rohan’s.
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Question 35
It is likely that Lisa performed better than Rohan on the examination because
A. she probably did not use mnemonic devices.
B. Rohan made the task much more difficult through elaboration.
C. she used elaborative rehearsal which made the new vocabulary more meaningful.
D. maintenance rehearsal is a very effective method for transferring information to long-term memory.
Question 37
To test Lisa’s and Rohan’s memories of the vocabulary, the most sensitive measure of retention would be to get them to
A. sing a song containing the words.
B. identify the correct words from a list also containing other Japanese vocabulary.
C. write down all the words from the list they could remember without the use of cues.
D. write down as many of the words as possible when given cues such as the first or last sound in each word.
Question 42
Research by Loftus indicated that the memories of eyewitnesses of significant events are usually
A. reconstructions of the event witnessed.
B. unrelated to the details of the event witnessed.
C. about 50% accurate for details of the event witnessed.
D. like a photograph, exact replicas of the event witnessed.
Question 45
A psychologist is developing a new instrument to measure adolescent attitudes towards the recommended amount of sleep for adolescents. She is trialling the instrument with 100 adolescents. To test the internal consistency of her new instrument, the psychologist would have to ensure that
A. each item is measuring what the instrument is supposed to measure.
B. the instrument produces the same results each time it is administered.
C. there is a low correlation between scores on odd and even numbered items.
D. there is a high correlation between scores on odd and even numbered items.
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Question 1
You are conducting research in a sleep laboratory, investigating how much time the average adult person spends in REM sleep. In order to detect whether a person is in REM sleep you could use an electrooculargraph (EOG) and an electroencephalograph (EEG). Explain how each device may indicate that the person is in REM sleep.
Electrooculargraph (EOG)
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Electroencephalograph (EEG)
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4 marks
Question 3
A psychology class is preparing for a test. Their teacher suggests that they study in the same room and under the
same conditions as when they will do the test. Explain how this type of preparation might assist the students’
performance in the psychology test.
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2 marks
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Question 6
A researcher wanted to investigate whether chronic sleep deprivation causes obesity. In particular, she planned to test whether reduced sleep would result in a significant increase in body weight at the end of 12 months. The researcher planned to select 100 healthy participants between the ages of 18 and 40 and record their Body Mass Index. She decided she would allocate them equally to either the experimental group or to the control group. The experimental group would have their sleep time reduced to five hours per night while the control group would maintain a sleep time of 7–10 hours per night.
a. State a possible research hypothesis for this study.
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3 marks
b. Name the research design used by the researcher.
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1 mark
c. Identify two other possible effects of long-term chronic sleep deprivation.
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2 marks
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Question 8
A researcher was interested in exploring the potential for eyewitness testimonies to be manipulated through leading questioning. To investigate this issue, he had two groups (Group A and Group B), each with 50 participants, watch a fi lm showing a fight between two gangs. One gang was dressed in blue and the other in red. The film showed an equal number of aggressive acts committed by the red and blue gangs. After watching the fi lm, participants in Group A were asked a series of leading questions such as ‘Why do you think the red gang was more aggressive than the blue gang?’ Group B was asked neutral questions such as ‘What do you remember about the fight?’ After the questions had been completed, the researcher asked participants in both groups to estimate the number of aggressive acts performed by each gang. The significance level for the research was set at p < 0.05. The results showed that participants in Group A, on average, estimated that the red gang committed more aggressive acts than the blue gang, whereas those in Group B, on average, estimated an equal number of aggressive acts committed by both gangs. A statistical test comparing the mean difference estimates for Groups A and B indicated that p = 0.03.
b. What conclusion could the researcher draw from these results?
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2 marks
c. How would Loftus’s research into the manipulation of eyewitness accounts help to explain these results?
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2 marks
SECTION C – Extended answer question
Compare and contrast normal age-related memory decline with Alzheimer’s disease. In your answer, refer to key
brain structures and processes involved in memory.
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15 marks
Exam 2 2011
Question 1
Sam is a healthy young boy who was involved in a car accident when he was three years old. In the accident, he sustained a head injury in which his hippocampi were damaged. Since the accident, Sam is likely to have difficulty learning
A. to bowl a ball.
B. to knit for the first time.
C. the names of people he meets.
D. to ride a bike without training wheels.
Question 2
The neural development of newborn babies typically involves
A. no neural plasticity.
B. creation of new muscles.
C. creation of neural pathways.
D. a decrease in the number of neural pathways.
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Use the following information to answer Questions 6 and 7.
When she began her new job in a café, Lola had to learn how to use the coffee machine. To teach Lola, her employer at the café asked her to watch him as he made coffee with the machine.
Question 6
This type of learning is known as
A. latent learning.
B. insight learning.
C. operant conditioning.
D. observational learning.
Question 7
Later when she attempted to make a coffee by herself, Lola was unable to do so and had to ask her employer to show her the procedure again. This is most likely because Lola
A. lacked the maturation to make coffee.
B. needed graduated exposure to coffee making.
C. did not form a mental representation of what she had to do.
D. did not use trial-and-error in learning how to make coffee using the machine.
Question 8
In his 1961 Bobo doll experiment, Bandura used three groups of participants, each comprising 24 children. Each group was assigned to one of three conditions.
Condition 1: shown an aggressive model
Condition 2: shown a passive model
Condition 3: no model
The results indicated that
A. learning can occur in the absence of direct consequences for the learner.
B. learning cannot happen without reinforcers for the model or the learner.
C. boys and girls learnt to control their aggression through watching a model.
D. learning can only occur when there are direct consequences for the learner.
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Use the following information to answer Questions 13–15.
When Spot was a puppy he was taken to the vet several times to get his injections. Dr Brown gave the injections each time, and each time Spot experienced pain. Since then, each time Spot is taken to the vet and sees Dr Brown, he becomes fearful and trembles.
Question 13
The type of learning experienced by Spot is best described as
A. classical conditioning.
B. operant conditioning.
C. observational learning.
D. trial-and-error learning.
Question 14
At Spot’s first immunisation visit, the sight of Dr Brown was the
A. operant.
B. response.
C. neutral stimulus.
D. conditioned stimulus.
Question 15
On a recent visit to the vet, Spot was seen by Dr White instead of Dr Brown. Spot did not tremble with fear at the sight of Dr White. Spot’s response to Dr White is an example of
A. extinction.
B. one-trial learning.
C. stimulus generalisation.
D. stimulus discrimination.
Question 16
The best condition for acquiring a classically conditioned response is when the neutral stimulus is presented approximately
A. 3 seconds before the conditioned stimulus.
B. 3 seconds before the unconditioned stimulus.
C. half a second before the conditioned stimulus.
D. half a second before the unconditioned stimulus.
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Question 17
The steps in the three-phase model of operant conditioning, in order, are
A. the operant, the stimulus to the operant, the consequence of the operant.
B. discriminative stimulus, consequence of response to stimulus, response to stimulus.
C. conditioned stimulus, unconditioned stimulus, consequence of response to stimulus.
D. discriminative stimulus, response to stimulus, consequence of response to stimulus.
Use the following information to answer Questions 18–20.
To encourage his noisy Grade 3 students to work quietly in class, Mr Soros set up the following system with them.
• Students caught talking during quiet work time would not be allowed to play with basketballs or footballs during the following play time.
• Students who worked quietly would receive a star beside their names on a chart.
• Students who earned ten stars could exchange them for a lolly or chocolate bar of their choice.
Question 18
Not allowing students to play with the basketballs and footballs during the following play time is an example of
A. punishment.
B. response cost.
C. positive reinforcement.
D. negative reinforcement.
Question 19
Giving the students a star next to their names on the chart for working quietly is an example of
A. punishment.
B. response cost.
C. positive reinforcement.
D. negative reinforcement.
Question 21
A key difference between classical and operant conditioning is that in classical conditioning
A. the learner is passive, while in operant conditioning the learner is active.
B. stimulus discrimination is common, while in operant conditioning stimulus discrimination is rare.
C. stimulus generalisation is rare, while in operant conditioning stimulus generalisation is common.
D. learning is based on a voluntary response, while in operant conditioning learning is based on a reflexive response.
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Question 26
When a person first experiences a stressor
A. acetylcholine is released.
B. adrenaline and noradrenaline are released.
C. the parasympathetic nervous system increases the person’s heart rate.
D. the sympathetic nervous system causes the person’s pupils to constrict.
Question 27
In the resistance stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome, the body’s resistance to stress
A. drops below normal level.
B. continues to rise above normal level.
C. rises above normal level then drops below normal.
D. drops below normal level then rises above normal.
Question 28
One of the major criticisms of the General Adaptation Syndrome is that
A. Selye did not consider that a rat’s response to stressors is less varied than a person’s stress response.
B. Selye did not consider the impact of physiological stressors on humans, he only considered psychological stressors.
C. it does not provide an explanation of why the body’s level of resistance to stress decreases during the exhaustion stage.
D. Selye claimed that during counter shock, the body’s level of resistance to stress decreases when in actual fact it increases.
Use the following information to answer Questions 29–33.
Sue was very excited when she received her VCE results because they were good enough to allow her to do the course she had always wanted to do. She spent the summer holidays feeling very excited about starting university; she chose all her subjects and planned her timetable. However, when she started at university, she found it much harder than she had expected. In addition to attending classes, there were many assignments and lots of reading. She also had to work part time to earn some money to support herself. Halfway through the semester, she developed a persistent cold and had difficulty sleeping because she was worried she would not pass her subjects.
Question 29
During the summer holidays, she experienced
A. distress.
B. eustress.
C. allostasis.
D. General Adaptation Syndrome.
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Question 30
According to Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome, when Sue is unable to overcome her head cold she is likely to be in the stage of
A. shock.
B. exhaustion.
C. counter shock.
D. alarm reaction.
Question 31
Trying to balance her many assignments with her part-time job made her stress response worse. Her many assignments are
A. a social factor.
B. a cultural factor.
C. a biological factor.
D. an environmental factor.
Question 32
Sue decided to talk to her older sister and seek advice about how to balance her time between all of her commitments. Seeking advice from her sister is an example of
A. eustress.
B. allostasis.
C. social support.
D. cultural support.
Question 33
Sue also decided to seek help from a counsellor. The counsellor suggested that meditation would be a useful technique for Sue to use to help manage her stress. The use of meditation helps to alleviate Sue’s stress by
A. increasing her allostatic load.
B. activating her sympathetic nervous system.
C. increasing the amount of cortisol in her bloodstream.
D. reducing her level of physiological and psychological arousal.
Use the following information to answer Questions 34–39.
Shane has an intense and irrational fear of snakes. Shane experiences fear even when he is exposed to a harmless image of a snake in a book or on television. His heart beats faster, he feels sweaty, his mouth feels dry and he leaves the room. To overcome his fear of snakes, Shane seeks the advice of a clinical psychologist.
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Question 34
Shane’s reaction to the image of the snake is called the
A. fight-flight response.
B. flee-confront response.
C. simple phobia response.
D. sympathetic arousal response.
Question 35
The response identified in Question 34 is activated by the
A. somatic nervous system.
B. automatic nervous system.
C. sympathetic nervous system.
D. parasympathetic nervous system.
Question 36
Shane’s heart beating faster is an example of
A. an allostatic factor.
B. an environmental factor.
C. a physiological response.
D. a psychological response.
Question 37
To help Shane overcome his fear, the psychologist could teach Shane to change the way he thinks about snakes – that, for instance, snakes are unlikely to attack him. The psychologist is most likely suggesting
A. extinction.
B. aversion therapy.
C. graduated exposure.
D. cognitive behavioural therapy.
Question 38
The psychologist could also expose Shane to snakes at the snake exhibit at the zoo. Shane would have to stay in the enclosure and watch the snakes for a long period of time (rather than run away). The aim would be to replace Shane’s fear response with a learned relaxation response. This approach is known as
A. flooding.
B. aversion therapy.
C. systematic desensitisation.
D. cognitive behavioural therapy.
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Question 39
For the treatment in Question 38 to be successful, Shane would need to stay in the enclosure with the snakes until
A. the snakes become active and are moving.
B. the conditioned response is extinguished.
C. the conditioned stimulus is no longer present.
D. there are at least eight pairings of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus.
Use the following information to answer Questions 40 and 41.
After her grandmother died unexpectedly, Sarah felt very sad and for several weeks found it very difficult to concentrate at school. In contrast, when her grandfather passed away after a long battle with cancer, Sarah was sad but relieved that he was no longer suffering. She found that she could concentrate at school and cope with everyday life.
Question 40
According to Lazarus and Folkman’s Transactional Model of Stress and Coping, the type of stress that Sarah experienced when her grandmother died is
A. harm.
B. threat.
C. eustress.
D. challenge.
Question 41
The above scenario supports the idea that a stressful experience is
A. never desirable.
B. subjective in nature.
C. caused only by external events.
D. accurately measured by self-report.
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Use the following information to answer Questions 42–44.
Britt has a part-time job working in a pizza shop. She finds working in the pizza shop stressful as she has to stand for long periods of time and is in a high pressure environment. Recently Britt’s mother lost her job, so Britt has increased the number of hours she is working at the pizza shop to help her mother pay the rent and bills.
Question 43
When Britt’s mother lost her job, she felt ashamed that her daughter had to work more hours to help her pay the rent and bills. According to Lazarus and Folkman’s Transactional Model of Stress and Coping, Britt’s mother feeling ashamed is an example of
A. eustress.
B. social stress.
C. primary appraisal.
D. secondary appraisal.
Question 44
Britt’s mother decided to investigate what courses she could undertake to increase her skills and the likelihood of obtaining another job. Investigating available courses is an example of
A. distress.
B. eustress.
C. primary appraisal.
D. secondary appraisal.
Question 3
Stella is 17 years old and undertaking her VCE. Stella is feeling overwhelmed by what Year 12 involves and has had difficulty sleeping during the school term. Her friend Audrey, however, is enjoying Year 12 and is finding the SACs challenging but manageable.
a. In terms of primary appraisal in Lazarus and Folkman’s Transactional Model of Stress and Coping, explain why
Stella and Audrey have evaluated their situations differently.
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4 marks
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Question 4
Mikaela is 9 years old. She is very scared of spiders and feels anxious every time she sees a spider.
a. Outline the role of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the medical management of Mikaela’s simple phobia of
spiders.
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2 marks
b. State one socio-cultural factor that may have contributed to Mikaela developing a phobia of spiders.
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1 mark
Question 5
With reference to the three-phase model of operant conditioning, explain how a parent may reduce the frequency
of a child’s tantrums.
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3 marks
Question 9
a. What is a biopsychosocial framework?
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2 marks
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b. Explain how biopsychosocial frameworks have changed the way health professionals consider health and
wellbeing.
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2 marks
Research Methods
Judy, an educational psychologist, was interested in studying the effects of positive reinforcement on students’ mathematics performance at school. Judy works at Mountain Hills Secondary College, a coeducational secondary school. There are 100 Year 8 students at the school: 60 females and 40 males. The Year 8 students are aged between 12.5 and 14.5 years old. Judy selected two of the Year 8 mathematics classes (Class A and Class B) to participate in the study. Class A contained 20 students: 12 females and 8 males. Class B contained 23 students: 14 females and 9 males. Informed consent was obtained from the students. Prior to the experiment, each participant sat a numeracy test of 40 questions (Numeracy Test 1) administered by their mathematics teacher. The teachers then gave the results of the test to Judy. The teacher of Class A was instructed to continue teaching the students mathematics as she normally would. The teacher of Class B was instructed to provide students with praise whenever they got a question right. These students were also given stickers when they completed a worksheet and were rewarded with 15 minutes of free time for every fi ve worksheets they completed. At the end of four weeks, the mathematics teachers administered a second numeracy test of 40 questions (Numeracy Test 2) and sent the participants’ results to Judy. The difference in the mean number of the number of questions that were correct was calculated. The results are presented in the table below.
The level of significance was set at 0.05. A test of significance was conducted and p < 0.05.
Question 1
What is the aim of the experiment?
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2 marks
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Question 2
In this experiment, what is the
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2 marks
Question 3
Write a hypothesis for this experiment.
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3 marks
Question 4
In this experiment, who were the population and sample?
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2 marks
Question 5
a. What sampling procedure did Judy use?
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1 mark
b. What is the flaw in this sampling procedure?
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1 mark
c. Name and describe a sampling procedure that would be more appropriate.
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2 marks20
Question 6
Name and describe the experimental design used by Judy.
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2 marks
Question 7
Name and describe an extraneous variable associated with the experimental design.
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2 marks
Question 8
How can this extraneous variable be minimised? Explain your answer.
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2 marks
Question 9
What conclusions and generalisations can be made from Judy’s results?
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4 marks
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Question 10
Describe two ethical considerations that must be followed when conducting experiments.
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4 marks
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