ST. TONIS COLLEGECollege Of Nursing

Bulanao, Tabuk City, Kalinga

Competency Appraisal II : PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS

Name : Section : Date :

Multiple Choices: Encircle the best answer that fits the question. Use only black/blue ballpen. Avoid erasures.

1. Each subsystem in Johnson's Behavioral System model is composed of four structural characteristics, except:A. DrivesB. SetC. Observable behaviorD. Demands

2. Which theory states “Nursing is a helping profession”?A. Peplau's Interpersonal TheoryB. Abdellah’s 21 Nursing ProblemsC. Theory of Goal AttainmentD. Roy's Adaptation Model

3. Which of the following nursing theory is based on the general systems framework?A. Fay Abdellah- Topology of 21 Nursing ProblemsB. Virginia Henderson -The Nature of NursingC. Hildegard Peplau -Interpersonal Relations ModelD. Imogene King's Theory of Nursing

4. “The practice of activities that individual initiates and performs on their own behalf in maintaining life, health and well being” is:A. Self care agencyB. Self careC. Therapeutic self care demandD. Nursing systems

5. Who described about 5 levels of nursing experience from novice to expert?A. Patricia E. BennerB. Ernestine WiedenbachC. Myra Estrine LevineD. Faye Glenn Abdellah

6. Nursing is “an external regulatory force which acts to preserve the organization and integration of the patients behaviors at an optimum level under those conditions in which the behaviors constitutes a threat to the physical or social health, or in which illness is found” – This definition of nursing was given by:A. OremB. NeumanC. KingD. Johnson

7. Typology of twenty one Nursing problems were explained by:A. Imogene KingB. Virginia HendersonC. Faye G. AbedellahD. Lydia E. Hall

8. “Each human being perceives the world as a total person in making transactions with individuals and things in environment”. This assumption is stated by:A. Neuman's system modelB. Nightingale's theoryC. Peplau's Interpersonal Relations modelD. Imogene King’s conceptual framework

9. Which of the following statements is related to Florence Nightingale?A. Nursing is therapeutic interpersonal process.B. The role of nursing is to facilitate "the body’s reparative processes" by manipulating

client’s environment.C. Nursing is the science and practice that expands adaptive abilities and enhances person

and environment transformationD. Nursing care becomes necessary when client is unable to fulfill biological, psychological,

developmental, or social needs.10.Cognator subsystem involves all the following cognitive-emotive channels, EXCEPT:

A. perceptual and information processingB. self conceptC. learningD. judgment

11.Which nursing theorist defines environment as "the totality of the internal and external forces which surround a person and with which they interact at any given time"?A. Dorothy JohnsonB. Martha RogersC. Dorothea OremD. Betty Neuman

12.Watson's carative factors include all the following, EXCEPT:A. Forming humanistic-altruistic value systemB. Instilling faith-hopeC. Cultivating sensitivity to self and othersD. Strengthening flexible lines of defense

13.When applying Roy's Adaptation Model in caring a patient, the type of stimuli which needs to be assessed as per are all the following, EXCEPT;A. Focal StimulusB. Contextual StimulusC. Perceptual StimulusD. Residual Stimulus

14.Which is NOT a concept related to Faye Abdellah's theory?A. Susternal Care NeedsB. The twenty-one Nursing ProblemsC. Restorative Care NeedsD. Therapeutic Self-care Demands

15.Who explained about "Care, Cure and Core as three independent but interconnected circles of the nursing model"?A. Patricia BennerB. Rosemary Rizzo ParseC. Lydia HallD. Jean Watson

16.All the following are concepts related to Levin's Conservation Principles, EXCEPT:A. HistoricityB. SpecificityC. HelicyD. Redundancy

17."Caring consists of carative factors that result in the satisfaction of certain human needs". This explanation was stated by:A. SisterCallista RoyB. Jean WatsonC. Dorothea OremD. Florence Nightingale

18.According to Roy's Adaptation Model, the adaptive modes includes all the following, EXCEPT:A. Physiologic NeedsB. Self ConceptC. Role FunctionD. Achievement

19.Category of self care requisites according to Orem's theory of nursing includes all, EXCEPT:A. UniversalB. DevelopmentalC. Health deviationD. Fundamental

20.The "humanistic science of nursing" was explained by:A. Rogers (1970)B. Ida Orlando (1960)C. Nightingale (1860)D. Neuman (1972)

21."The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health or its recovery (or to peaceful death) that he would perform unaided if he had the necessary strength, will or knowledge. And to do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible" – this definition of nursing was given by:A. NightingaleB. AbdellahC. BennerD. Henderson

22.Imogene King's "goal attainment theory" is a type of:A. Need theoriesB. Interaction theoriesC. Outcome theoriesD. Humanistic theories

23.Which of the following is an organismic response as per Levin's Four Conservation Principles?A. Flight or fightB. AdaptationC. CommunicationD. Transaction

24.Which of the following theory has used "General Systems Theory" as a framework for its development?A. Florence Nightingale's Environment TheoryB. Hildegard E. Peplau's Psychodynamic Nursing TheoryC. Martha E. Roger’s Science of Unitary Human BeingsD. Betty Neuman's Systems Model

25.“Notes on Nursing: What it is – what it is not” was written by:A. Virginia HendersonB. Patricia BennerC. Jean WatsonD. Florence Nightingale

26.According to Neuman Systems Model, the increase in energy that occurs in relation to the degree of reaction to the stressor is termed as:A. ReconstitutionB. Lines of resistanceC. Primary preventionD. Secondary Prevention

27.Ernestine Wiedenbach's conceptual model of nursing is called:A. The Helping Art of Clinical Nursing B. 21 Typology of Nursing ProblemsC. Environmental TheoryD. From Novice to Expert

28.Which theory defines nursing as the science and the practice that expands adaptive abilities and enhances person and environment transformation?A. Goal attainment theoryB. Henderson's definition of nursingC. Roy's adaptation modelD. Faye Glen Abdellah's theory

29.Which of the following is NOT a concept related to Nightingale theory?A. "Poor or difficult environments led to poor health and disease".B. "Environment could be altered to improve conditions so that the natural laws would allow

healing to occur".C. The goal of nursing is “to put the patient in the best condition for nature to act upon him”.D. "Human beings are open systems in constant interaction with the environment ".

30.According to Behavior System Model, “predisposition to act with reference to the goal, in certain ways rather than the other ways” refers to:A. DriveB. GoalC. SetD. Scope of action

31.Which of the following in NOT a concept related to personal system in Imogene King's Theory?A. PerceptionB. SelfC. Body imageD. Organization

32.Which is NOT a concept explained in Dorothy Johnson's Behavioral Systems Model?A. AffiliationB. DependencyC. AchievementD. Energy fields

33.Who described 5 levels of nursing experience in her theory on nursing?A. Lydia HallB. Patricia BennerC. Ernestine WeidenbachD. Leon Festinger

34.According to Rogers' theory “continuous and mutual interaction between man and environment” is termed as:A. PatternB. IntegralityC. ResonancyD. Helicy

35.Which of the following is NOT a concept related to Roy's Adaptation Model?A. Focal StimuliB. Cognator SubsystemC. Role functionD. Flexible line of defense

36.The definition of nursing according to Nightingale is:A. Assisting individual, sick and well, in the performance of those activities contributing to

health and recovery that he would perform unaided if he had the necessary strength, will, or knowledge.

B. A clinical discipline that is a practice discipline designed to produce explicit desired result.C. Put the patient in the best condition for the nature to act upon him.D. The science and practice that expands adaptive abilities and enhances person and

environment transformation.37.“Social inclusion, intimacy and the formation and attachment of a strong social bond” are

explained in which subsystem of Johnson’s model -A. Dependency subsystemB. Attachment or affiliative subsystemC. Achievement subsystemD. Aggressive subsystem

38.According to Roy's adaptation theory, which subsystem responds through four cognitive responds through four cognitive-emotive channels (perceptual and information processing, learning, judgment, and emotion)?A. Regulator SubsystemB. Cognator SubsystemC. Physiologic ModeD. Self Concept-Group Identity Mode

39.The principles of conservation of energy, structural integrity, personal integrity and social integrity were explained by:A. Lydia HallB. Myra Estrin LevineC. Betty NeumanD. Hildegard Peplau

40.According to Weidenbach, all are the steps in helping a patient except:A. IdentificationB. MinistrationC. InterventionD. Validation

41.A prescription, which specifies both the nature of the action that will most likely lead to a fulfillment of the nurse’s central purpose, has the following kinds of voluntary action except:A. Mutually understood and agreed upon actionB. Beneficiary-Directed actionC. Recipient-Directed actionD. Practitioner-Directed action

42.Which nursing theory states that 'nursing is the interpersonal process of action, reaction, interaction and transaction"?A. Roy's adaptation modelB. Self-care deficit theoryC. Imogene King's theoryD. Roger’s Unitary Human Beings

43.According to Abdellah, this type of nursing problem is an apparent condition faced by patient of family which the nurse can assist him or them to meet through the performance of her professional functions:A. Physical nursing problemB. Overt nursing problemC. Emotional nursing problemD. Covert nursing problem

44.Cognator subsystem is a concept related to:A. Jhonson'sBehaviour System ModelB. Imogene King's Goal Attainment TheoryC. Roy's Adaptation ModelD. Neuman's System's Model

45.From the theory of Hall, this term refers to the state of being that nurse endeavors to help their patient achieve:A. BehaviorB. ReflectionC. Self-awarenessD. Professional nursing

46.Nursing is defined as “action which assist individuals, families and groups to maintain a maximum level of wellness, and the primary aim is stability of the patient/client system, through nursing interventions to reduce stressors.’’ This definition is given by:A. OremB. PeplauC. NeumanD. Rogers

47.According to Benner, this term refers to nurses having an intuitive grasp of the situation and as being able to identify the region of the problem without wasting consideration on a range of alternative diagnoses and solutions:A. Advanced BeginnerB. CompetentC. ProficientD. Expert

48.According to the Philosophy and Science of Caring, this term refers to incorporation of humanistic and altruistic values, facilitates the promotion of holistic nursing care and positive health within the patient population:A. Formation of a Humanistic-Altruistic System of ValuesB. Instillation of Faith-HopeC. Cultivation of Sensitivity to Self and to OthersD. Development of a Helping-Trust Relationship

49.According to Neuman, stressors may arise from the following, EXCEPT:A. Intrapersonal forces occurring within the individualB. Interpersonal forces occurring between one or more individualsC. Extrapersonal forces occurring outside the individualD. Extraprofessional forces occurring within the nursing practice

50.According to Johnson, all of the following are the subsystem of human behavior, EXCEPT:

1. Attachment-Affiliative Subsystem 5. Sexual Subsystem 9. Aggressive-Protective Subsystem2. Dependency Subsystem 6. Eliminative Subsystem3. Ingestive Subsystem 7. Social Subsystem4. Coping Subsystem 8. Achievement Subsystem

A. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 9B. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8 and 9C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 and 8D. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8

51.A _____ is a procedure that uses skin from a deceased person to treat a burned area.A. autograftB. homograftC. granulation tissueD. deep partial-thickness graft

52.The pigment _____ found in vegetables can impart a yellow or orange color to the skin.A. melaninB. caroteneC. retineneD. bilirubin

53.Cyanosis usually is the result of a reduction in _____.A. melaninB. hemoglobinC. oxygen levelsD. the number of blood vessels

54.The greatest source of body heat is through _____.A. the hypothalamusB. prevention of sweatingC. constriction of blood vesselsD. contraction of skeletal muscle

55.The major loss of heat through the skin is by _____.

A. conductionB. convectionC. radiationD. evaporation

56.What actually controls and maintains body temperature?A. the skin sweat glandsB. sensory skin receptorsC. the hypothalamusD. local skin chemicals

57.The following belong together except which one?A. acne vulgarisB. alopeciaC. comedonesD. pustules

58.Goose bumps in the skin are caused by contraction of the _____ in response to cold or emotions.A. skeletal muscles belowB. arrectorpili musclesC. dermal papillaeD. sebaceous glands

59.What is the main factor in preserving body heat?A. the thickness of the epidermisB. the presence of adiposeC. skin moistureD. adequate dermal blood vessels

60.The darkness of hair is due mainly due to _____.A. the density of the shaftB. melanin concentrationC. lack of air gapsD. keratin distribution

61.Which of the following types of muscle are found in the stomach or blood vessels?A. cardiacB. skeletalC. visceralD. striated

62.Which of the following refers to a prolonged muscular spasm?A. myotoniaB. paresisC. myalgiaD. contracture

63.A disease which results in muscle weakness because of abnormal neuromuscular junction activity is _____.A. poliomyelitisB. myasthenia gravisC. multiple sclerosisD. muscular dystrophy

64.Which of these does not belong with the others?A. vastusintermediusB. rectus femorisC. vastusmedialisD. biceps femoris

65.The following can be grouped together except which one?A. coccygeusB. sphincter urethraeC. bulbospongiosusD. ischiocavernosus

66.Turning the head on a central axis plane is an example of _____.A. rotation

B. circumductionC. elevationD. expression

67.When standing in the anatomical position, the hands are considered to be in a _____ position.A. proneB. supineC. flexedD. adducted

68.The best movement that describes throwing a baseball is probably _____ of the arm.A. elevationB. rotationC. circumductionD. protraction

69.Turning a doorknob is an example of _____.A. circumductionB. rotationC. adductionD. abduction

70.The term, which means the presence of fluid in a joint, is _____.A. hydrarthrosisB. hemarthrosisC. synovectomyD. gout

71.The central nervous system is comprised of the brain and _____.A. cranial nervesB. spinal cordC. peripheral nervesD. spinal nerves

72.Which part of a neuron directly contacts another neuron at the synapse?A. synaptic knobB. dendriteC. axonD. collateral

73.The phagocytic cells in the CNS are the ______.A. astrocytesB. microgliaC. oligodendrocytesD. ependymal cells

74.The _____cells provide a means of acquiring nutrients in the brain.A. astrocyteB. microgliaC. ependymalD. oligodendrocyte

75.The most common neurotransmitter in the body is _____.A. norepinephrineB. adrenalinC. acetylcholineD. dopamine

76.Acetylcholine is decomposed by _____almost as fast as it is released.A. monoamine oxidaseB. MAO inhibitorsC. norepinephrineD. acetylcholinesterase

77.A drug, which prevents over-stimulation by the PNS neurons, is _____.A. curareB. caffeineC. amphetamineD. tricyclic

78.The nucleus of a sensory neuron can be found within the _____.A. CNSB. gangliaC. myelin sheathD. spinal cord

79.The ______cells play a role in the establishment of a blood-brain chemical barrier.A. microgliaB. neuronC. astrocyteD. ependymal

80.The cells that produce myelin in the PNS are the ______.A. oligodendrocytesB. axonsC. Schwann cellsD. ependymal

81.Most of the cerebrospinal fluid is found in the _____.A. dural sinusesB. pia materC. subarachnoid spaceD. epidural space

82._____ is an inflammation of the brain coverings.A. EncephalitisB. MeningitisC. PoliomyelitisD. Cerebral palsy

83.The membrane that supplies most of the blood to the brain is the _____.A. dura materB. arachnoid meninxC. pia materD. choroid plexus

84.The following could occur together effectively except which?A. increase heart rateB. sweatingC. digestionD. pupil dilation

85.The largest and longest nerve in the body is the _____.A. femoralB. sciaticC. phrenicD. vagus

86.The phrenic nerve arises from the _____ plexus.A. cervicalB. brachialC. lumbarD. thoracic

87.The _____ nerve is a branch of the VIII cranial nerve.A. ophthalmicB. mandibularC. maxillaryD. cochlear

88.Tic douloureux is facial pain traveling through the ____ nerve.A. facialB. hypoglossalC. trigeminalD. cranial 8th

89.Eye movement is brought about by all of these except _____.A. ophthalmic nerveB. IV

C. IIID. abducens

90.The cranial nerve directly involved with swallowing is the _____.A. XIIB. IXC. spinal accessoryD. facial

91.The lymphatic ducts will empty directly into the _____.A. heartB. subclavian veinsC. thoracic veinsD. brachiocephalic veins

92.The main activity that causes fluid to enter the lymphatic vessels is _____.A. muscle contractionB. hydrostatic pressureC. osmotic pressureD. blood pressure

93.Inflammation of a lymph node is called _____.A. lymphangitisB. tonsillitisC. lymphadenitisD. lymphedema

94.An infection results when pathogens _____.A. enter a tissue areaB. enter the bloodC. grow and multiplyD. grow and cause damage

95.The following are symptoms of inflammation except which one?A. edemaB. hyperemiaC. exudateD. dehydration

96.Which of these does not belong with the others?A. lipaseB. sucraseC. maltaseD. lactase

97.The membrane that hangs like an apron over the intestines is the _____.A. mesenteryB. visceral peritoneumC. parietal peritoneumD. greater omentum

98.Bile facilitates digestion by causing the _____ of fats.A. hydrolysisB. digestionC. catalysisD. emulsification

99.Gallbladder stones are medically referred to as a _____ condition.A. cholecystitisB. cholecystectomyC. cholelithiasisD. cholesterol calculi

100. The _____ duct directly receives the fluids from the gallbladder.A. cysticB. common bileC. hepaticD. common hepatic

101. A client with myasthenia gravis reports the occurrence of difficulty chewing. The physician prescribes pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to increase muscle strength for this activity. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication at what time, in relation to meals? A. after dinner daily when most fatigued B. before breakfast daily C. as soon as arising in the morning D. thirty minutes before each meal

102. A client is advised to take senna (Senokot) for the treatment of constipation asks the nurse how this medication works. The nurse responds knowing that it: A. accumulates water in the stool and increases peristalsis B. stimulates the vagus nerve C. coats the bowel wall D. adds fiber and bulk to the stool

103. A client is receiving heparin sodium by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse monitors the client for which adverse effect of this therapy? A. decreased blood pressure B. increased pulse rate C. ecchymoses D. tinnitus

104. A client is being treated for acute congestive heart failure (CHF) and the client’s vital signs are as follows: BP 85/50 mm Hg; pulse, 96 bpm; respirations, 26 cpm. The physician prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin). To evaluate a therapeutic effectiveness of this medication, the nurse would expect which of the following changes in the client’s vital signs? A. BP 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 60 bpm, respirations 26 cpm B. BP 98/60 mm Hg, pulse 80 bpm, respirations 24 cpm C. BP 130/70 mm Hg, pulse 104 bpm, respirations 20 cpm D. BP 110/40 mm Hg, 110 bpm, respirations 20 cpm

105. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed for a client with anxiety. The nurse instructs the client to expect which side effect? A. incoordination B. cough C. tinnitus D. hypertension

106. A client receives oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. During the administration of the oxytocin, it is most important for the nurse to monitor: A. urinary output B. fetal heart rate C. central venous pressure D. maternal blood glucose

107. A clinic nurse is performing assessment on a client who is being seen in the clinic for the first time. When asking about the client’s medication history, the client tells the nurse that he takes nateglinide (Starlix). The nurse then questions the client about the presence of which disorder that is treated with this medication? A. hypothyroidism B. insomnia C. type 2 diabetes mellitus D. renal failure

108. A client who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) as part of the medication regimen for the treatment of tuberculosis calls the clinic nurse and reports that her urine is a red-orange color. The nurse tells the client to: A. come to the clinic to provide a urine sample B. stop the medication until further instructions are given by the physician C. take the medication dose with an antacid to prevent this adverse effect D. expect a red-orange color in urine, feces, sweat, sputum, and tears as a harmless side

effect 109. A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy that has been diagnosed with a

respiratory infection. The client is receiving vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) 500 mg intravenously every 12 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? A. decreased hearing acuity B. photophobia C. hypotension D. bradycardia

110. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of metastatic breast carcinoma who is receiving tamoxifen citrate (Nolvadex) 10 mg orally twice daily. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication? A. hypetension

B. diarrhea C. nose bleeds D. vaginal bleeding

111. A client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil). The nurse teaches the client which of the following about the use of this medication? A. drooling may occur while taking this medication B. irritability may occur while taking this medication C. this medication contains a habit-forming ingredient D. take the medication with a laxative of choice

112. A nurse is gathering data from client about the client’s medication history and notes that the client is taking tolterodine tartrate (Detrol LA). The nurse determines that the client is taking the medication to treat which disorder? A. glaucoma B. renal insufficiency C. pyloric stenosis D. urinary frequency and urgency

113. A client has an order to receive psyllium (Metamucil) daily. The nurse administers this medication with: A. a multivitamin and mineral supplement B. a dose of an antacid C. applesauce D. eight ounces of liquid

114. A nurse is teaching a client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune) after renal transplant about medication information. The nurse tells the client to be especially alert for: A. signs of infection B. hypotension C. weight loss D. hair loss

115. A nurse reinforces dietary instruction for the client receiving spironolactone (Aldactone). Which food would the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this medication? A. crackers B. shrimp C. apricots D. popcorn

116. Oral lactulose (Chronulac) is prescribed for the client with a hepatic disorder and the nurse provides instructions to the client regarding this medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? A. “I need to take the medication with water’” B. “I need to increase fluid intake while taking the medication” C. “I need to increase fiber in the diet” D. “I need to notify the physician of nausea occurs”

117. A home care nurse provides instructions to a client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. Which statement by the client indcates a need for further instructions? A. “I will take my prescribed antacid if I become nauseated” B. “It is important to have my blood drawn when prescribed” C. “I will check my pulse before I take my medication” D. “I will carry a medication identification card with me”

118. A client with anxiety disorder is taking buspirone (BuSpar) and tells the nurse that it is difficult to swallow the tablets. The nurse tells the client to: A. dissolve the tablet in a cup of coffee B. crush the tablet before taking it C. call the physician for a change in medication D. mix the tablet uncrushed in custard

119. A nurse is caring for a child with CHF provides instructions to the parents regarding the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions? A. “If my child vomits after I give the medication, I will not repeat the dose” B. “I will check my child’s pulse before giving the medication” C. “I will check the dose of the medication with my husband before I give the medication” D. “I will mix the medication with food”

120. A nurse provides instructions to a client who will begin an oral contraceptives. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions? A. “I will take one pill daily at the same time every day” B. “I will not need to use an additional birth control method once I start these pills” C. “If I miss a pill I need to take it as soon as I remember” D. “If I miss two pills I will take them both as soon as I remember and I will take two pills the

next day also”

121. A nurse provides instructions to a client taking clorazepate (Tranxene) for management of an anxiety disorder. The nurse tells the client that: A. drowsiness is a side effect that usually disappears with continued therapy B. if dizziness occurs, call the physician C. smoking increases the effectiveness of the medication D. if gastrointestinal disturbances occur, discontinue the medication

122. A client with Parkinson’s disease has begun therapy with levodopa (L-dopa). The nurse determines that the client understands the action of the medication if the client verbalizes that results may not be apparent for: A. 24 hours B. Two to three days C. One week D. Two to three weeks

123. A nurse in a physician’s office is reviewing the results of a client’s phenytoin (Dilantin) level drawn that morning. The nurse determines that the client has a therapeutic drug level if the client’s result was: A. 3 mcg/ml B. 8 mcg/ml C. 15 mcg/ml D. 24mcg/ml

124. A nurse is caring for a client with a genitourinary tract infection receiving amoxicillin (Augmentin) 500 mg every 8 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication? A. hypertension B. nausea C. headache D. watery diarrhea

125. A nurse is caring for a client with glaucoma who receives a daily dose of acetazolamide (Diamox). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? A. constipation B. difficulty swallowing C. dark-colored urine and stools D. irritability

126. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of meningitis who is receiving amphotericin B (Fungizone) intravenously. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication? A. nausea B. decreased urinary output C. muscle weakness D. confusion

127. A nurse has formulated a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image for a client who is taking spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse based this diagnosis on assessment of which side effect of the medication? A. edema B. weight gain C. excitability D. decreased libido

128. A nurse is caring for the client with a history of mild heart failure who is receiving diltiazem hydrochloride (Cardizem) for hypertension. The nurse would assess the client for: A. bradycardia B. wheezing C. peripheral edema and weight gain D. apical pulse rate lower than baseline

129. The wound of a client with an extensive burn injury is being treated with the application of silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene). Which symptom would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to systemic absorption? A. pain at the wound site B. burning and itching at the wound site C. a localized rash D. photosensitivity

130. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving sulindac (Clinoril) 150 mg po twice daily. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication? A. diarrhea B. photophobia C. fever

D. tingling in the extremities 131. The nurse notes that the client is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen). The nurse checks which

of the following to determine medication effectiveness? A. neutrophil count B. platelet count C. blood urea nitrogen D. creatinine level

132. A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin) for signs of leucopenia. Which finding indicates a sign of this blood dyscrasia? A. blurred vision B. constipation C. sore throat D. dry mouth

133. A nurse is administering amphotericin B (Fungizone) to a client intravenously to treat a fungal infection. The nurse monitors the result of which electrolyte study during therapy with this medication? A. sodium B. potassium C. calcium D. chloride

134. A clinic nurse asks a client with diabetes mellitus being seen in the clinic for the first time to list the medications that she is taking. Which combination of medications taken by the client should the nurse report to the physician? A. Acetohexamide (Dymelor) and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) B. Chlorpropamide (Diabenase) and amitriptyline (Elavil) C. Glyburide (DiaBeta) and Lanoxin (Digoxin) D. Tolbutamide (Orinase) and amoxicillin (Amoxil)

135. A nurse is caring for a client receiving streptogramin (Synercid) by intravenous intermittent infusion for the treatment of a bone infection develops diarrhea. Which nursing action would the nurse implement? A. administer an antidiarrheal agent B. notify the physician C. discontinue the medication D. monitor the client’s temperature

136. A client has been taking fosinopril (Monopril) for 2 months. The nurse determines that the client is having the intended effects of therapy if the nurse notes which of the following? A. lowered BP B. lowered pulse rate C. increased WBC D. increased monocyte count

137. A client is taking labetalol (Normodyne). The nurse monitors the client for which frequent side effect of the medication? A. tachycardia B. impotence C. increased energy level D. night blindness

138. An older client has been using cascara sagrada on a long-term basis. The nurse determines that which laboratory result is a result of the side effects of this medication? A. sodium 135 mEq/L B. sodium 145 mEq/L C. potassium 3.1 mEq/L D. potassium 5.0 mEq/L

139. A client has an order to begin short-term therapy with enoxaparin (Lovenox). The nurse explains to the client that this medication is being ordered to: A. dissolve urinary calculi B. reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis C. relieve migraine headaches D. stop progression of multiple sclerosis

140. Quinidine gluconate (Dura Quin) is prescribed for a client. The nurse reviews the client’s medical record, knowing that which of the following is a contraindication in the use of this medication? A. complete atrioventricular (AV) block B. muscle weakness C. asthma D. infection

141. A client has been taking benzonatate (Tessalon) as ordered. The nurse tells the client that this medication should do which of the following?

A. take away nausea and vomiting B. calm the persistent cough C. decrease anxiety level D. increase comfort level

142. Auranofin (Ridaura) is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis, and the nurse monitors the client for signs of an adverse effect related to the medication. Which of the following indicates an adverse effect? A. nausea B. diarrhea C. anorexia D. proteinuria

143. A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding quinapril hydrochloride (Accupril). The nurse tells the client: A. to take the medication with food only B. to rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position C. to discontinue the medication if nausea occurs D. that a therapeutic effect will be noted immediately

144. A female client tells the clinic nurse that her skin is very dry and irritated. Which product would the nurse suggest that the client apply to the dry skin? A. glycerin emollient B. aspercreame C. myoflex D. acetic acid solution

145. A client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver is not tolerating protein well, as eveidenced by abnormal laboratory values. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications will be prescribed for the client? A. lactulose (Chronulac) B. ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) C. folic acid (Folvite) D. thiamine (Vitamin B1)

146. A nurse is planning dietary counseling for the client taking triamterene (Dyrenium). The nurse plans to include which of the following in a list of foods that are acceptable? A. baked potato B. bananas C. oranges D. pears canned in water

147. A client is taking famotidine (Pepcid) asks the home care nurse what would be the best medication to take for a headache. The nurse tells the client that it would be best to take: A. aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA) B. ibuprofen (Motrin) C. acetaminophen (Tylenol) D. naproxen (Naprosyn)

148. A nurse has taught a client taking a xanthine bronchodilator about beverages to avoid. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client chooses which of the following beverages from the dietary menu? A. chocolate milk B. cranberry juice C. coffee D. cola

149. A client with histoplasmosis has an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral). The nurse teaches the client to do which of the following while taking this medication? A. take the medication on an empty stomach B. take the medication with an antacid C. avoid exposure to sunlight D. limit alcohol to 2 ounces per day

150. A nurse is preparing the client’s morning NPH insulin dose and notices a clumpy precipitate inside the insulin vial. The nurse should: A. draw up and administer the dose B. shake the vial in an attempt to disperse the clumps C. draw the dose from a new vial D. warm the bottle under running water to dissolve the clump

-=====Goodluck & Godbless=====-

Prepared by:

Lucky P. Roaquin, MANSTC-CN Faculty