evs objectives

7/21/2019 EVS Objectives

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE KARWAR

ENS, 10CIV18/10CIV28 Mr. Mithesh Kumar Page 1

UNIT 11. The term 'Environment' has been derived from the French word.which means to encircle or

surround

a) Environ b) Oikos c) geo d) Aqua

2.The objective of environmental education is

a)Raise consciousness about environmental conditions

b)To teach environmentally appropriate behavior

c) Create an environmental ethic

d) All of the above

3.Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the

least storage capacity for matter?

a) Atmosphere b) Lithosphere c) Hydrosphere d) Biosphere

4.Which of the following components of the environment are effective

transporters of matter?

a) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere b) Atmosphere and Lithospherec) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere d) Biosphere and Lithosphere

5.Biosphere is

a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth

b) The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the living things

c) The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all of the spheres

d) All of the above

6.Atmosphere consists of 79 per cent Nitrogen and 21 per cent Oxygen by

a) volume b) weight c) Density d) All the three

7.Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?

a) Fungi b) solar light c) temperature d) humidity

8.In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is

a) Bidirectional b) Cyclic c) Unidirectional d) Multidirectional

9.Which Pyramid is always upright

a) Energy b) biomass c) numbers d) food chain

10.In complex ecosystems the degree of species diversity is

a) poor b) high c) medium d)none

11.The organisms who directly feed on producers are called

a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Decomposers d) Saprophytes

12.The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is calleda) Food Chain b) carbon cycle c) hydrological cycle d) anthroposystem

13.Which of the following is a producer in an ecosystem

a) Plants and some bacteria capable of producing their own food

b) Animals c) Human beings d) Fish

14.Which of the following statements is false?

a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem

b) Energy 'flows' through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds

c) Energy is recycled in an ecosystem


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d) Respiration process releases energy

15.The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is

a) Oceans b) Atmosphere c) biosphere d) Fossil fuels

16.In aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton can be considered as a

a) Consumer b) producer

c)Saprotrophic Organisms d) Macroconsumer17.The basic requirements of human beings are provided by

a) Industrialisation b) Agriculture c) Nature d) Urbanisation

18.Environment is the life support system that includes

a) Air b) Water c) Land d)All of the above

19.In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by

a)Producer b) Consumer c) Decomposer d) All of the above

20.Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called

a) Prey b) Consumers c) Decomposers d)Detritus

21. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are

a. Chlorophyll containing trees and plants

b. Herbivores

c. Carnivores

d. Bacteria and other microorganisms

22. Abiotic component includes

a. Soil b. Temperature

c. Water d.All of the above

23. Which of the following statement is true

a. Green plants are self nourishing

b. Producers depends on consumersc. Biotic components includes all non-living components

d. Herbivores depend on Carnivores

24. Primary consumer is

a. Herbivores

b. Carnivores

c. Macro consumers

d. Omnivores

25. A predator is

a. An animal that is fed upon

b. An animal that feeds upon another animal

c. Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals

d. A primary consumer

26. Access to food is mainly determined by

a) Household income

b) Food assistance programmes

c) Human resources

d) Society/Community


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27 The word 'Environment' is derived from

a) Greek b)French c) Spanish d) English

28. Which among the following is a climatic factor?

a) pressure b) humidity c) temperature d) all of the above

29) The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Ozone O Helium30. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface ?

a) Troposphere b) stratosphere c) mesosphere d) Exosphere

31. Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?

a) forest b) grass land c) desert d) all of the above

32. Ecological pyramids are studies of

a) pyramid of numbers b) pyramid of biomass

c) pyramid of energy d) all of the above

33) World Environment day is on

a)5th

May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 16th August

34) Factors responsible for balanced ecosystem are

a) balance between predator and prey

b) balance between vegetation, herbivorous and carnivorous

c) balance between competing species and biotic factors

d) all of the above

35) Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?

a) Carbon dioxide

b) Water

c) Nutrients

d) All of above

36. Habitat refers to

a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live

b) Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live

c) Both a & b

d) None of a or b

37) Essential component of social security are

a) Meeting personal growth and development

b) Maintaining natural capital

c) Fairness and equity in distribution of costs of resources.

d) Community resilience

38) Socio - economic security in environmental aspects involvesa) Fairness & equity in distribution costs for complete existing generation

b) Welfare of the present generation

c) Intra and inter generational equity of resources

d) All of the above

39) A food web consists of

a) a portion of a food chain

b) an organisms position in a food chain

c) interlocking food chains


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d) a set of similar consumers

40. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Man is not dependent on nature

b) Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per one's wish.

c) Energy can be converted from one form to another, but some percentage is lost into the

environment

d) Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused.

41) Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled to ensure food security?

a) Food must be available

b) Each person must have access to it

c) Food utilized/consumed must fulfill nutritional requirements

d) all of the above

UNIT II

1. Which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialization, in general?.a) Solid waste b) Water Pollution

c) Air pollution d) Economic growth

2. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?

a) Air pollution from dust b) Water pollution

c) Soil degradation d) All of the above

3. Sustainable development means

a) Meeting present needs without compromising on the future needs

b) Progress in human well beings

c) Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide the resources

d) All the above

4. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialization is

a. Industry should be closed

b. Dont allow new industrial units

c. Industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal

d. Industries should be shifted far away from human habit tats.

5. Mining means

a) To conserve & preserve minerals

b) To check pollution due to mineral resources

c) To extract minerals and oresd) None

6. E.I.A. can be expanded as

a. Environment & Industrial Act

b. Environment & Impact Activities

c. Environmental Impact Assessment

d. Environmentally Important Activity

7. E.I.A. is related to


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a. Resource conservation

b. Efficient equipment/process

c. Waste minimization

d. All of the above

8. In order to protect the health of people living along the adjoining areas of roads, one should.

a. Plant trees alongside of the roadsb. Not allow diesel driven vehicles

c. Shift them (people) to other places

d. None of the above

9. The pollution caused by transportation/vehicular activities depends on

a. Type of the vehicles engine

b. Age of the vehicle

c. Traffic congestion

d. All of the above

10. Sustainable development will not aim at

a) Social economic development which optimizes the economic and societal benefits available in

the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future

b) Reasonable and equitably distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated

continually

c) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of

future generations to meet their own needs

d) Maximizing the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

11. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?

a) Scoping b) Screening

c) Identifying and evaluating alternatives d) all of the above12. Earth Day is held every year on

a) June 5th

b) November 23rd

c) April 22nd

d) January 26th

13. Eutrophication is

a) An improved quality of water in lakes

b) A process in carbon cycle

c) The result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies

d) A water purification technique

14. Major purpose of most of the Dams around the world is

a) Power generation b) Drinking water supply c) Flood controld) Irrigation

15. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agriculture practice?

a. Using chemical fertilizers

b. Using insecticides

c. Organic farming


16. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is

a. Water pollution b. Soil degradation c. Water logging d. All of the above

17. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains


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a. Organic matter b. Plant nutrients c. Both a and b d. None of the above

18. Water logging is a phenomena in which

a. Crop patterns are rotated

b. Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation

c. Erosion of soil

d. None of the above19. The impact of construction of dams

a. Submerges forest

b. Loss of wild life habitat

c. Damages down stream ecosystem

d. All of the above

20. Which of the following statement is false?

a. Soil erosion affects the productivity of agriculture fields

b. It takes 300 years for one inch of agricultural top soil to form

c. The amount of erosion depends on soil type, slope, drainage pattern and crop management

practices

d. Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone

21. Which of the following statement is true

a. Surface runoff do not carry pesticides into streams

b. Water percolating downward through agriculture lands carries with it dissolved chemicals and

contaminates ground water

c. Present agricultural practice does not contaminate water


22. Farmers have a tendency to

a. Use optimum quantity of water

b. To over irrigate their crops

c. To conserve water

d. All of the above

23. Organic Farming is

a. Farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers

b. Enhances biodiversity

c. Promotes soil biological activity

d. All of the above

24. What would you do to prevent environmental damagea. Plant trees

b. Halt deforestation

c. Control pollution

d. All of the above

25. Environmental impact assessment

a. Is a study of feasibility of a project

b. Is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human

action


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c. Both a and b


26. EIA study will help

a. Maximizing the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem

b. To estimate the future needs of the society

c. To smooth implementation of the projectd. To cope up with rapid growth of population

27. Ecosystem is disturbed by housing activity because

a. Large volume of raw materials like brick, stone, timber, cement, steel plastic etc are

required to be produced

b. Housing is required to provide shelter to growing population

c. Majority of housing projects are concentrated in cities only

d. Standard of living is increased by modern houses

28. Environmental impact of mining

a. Brings order into social setup

b. Devastation of ecosystem

c. Present mining activity is a sustainable development

d. Mining has no adverse effect on ecosystem as it is located in remote areas

29. Effect of modern agriculture on soil is due to

a) Erosion b) Acidification c) Salinization d) All

30) Bio-remediation means the removal of contaminants from

a) Soil b) Wastewater c) Groundwater d) Both Soil and Groundwater

UNIT III1. Plants use ..gas for photosysthesis

a) Oxygen b) methane c) Nitrogen d) Carbon dioxide

2. Deforestation means

a) Preservation of forests b) destruction of forests

c) Monocrop cultivation d) agriculture

3. What percentage of its geographical area of a country should be under forest cover?

a) 23% b) 43% c) 13% d) 33%

4. About % of the earths surface is covered by water

a) 53% b) 19% c) 71% d) 90%5. During photosynthesis, trees produce

a) Oxygen b) Carbon Dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Carbon Monoxide

6. Forests prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their

a) stems b) roots c) leaves d)buds

7. Major causes of deforestation are

a) Shifting cultivation b) Fuel requirements

c) Raw materials for industries d) All of these

8. Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinemia) is caused by the contamination of water due to


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26. ________ are referred to as Earths lungs.

a.Forests b.Carbon cycles c. Water sources d.Mines

27. Among the fresh water available in the Earth the percentage of surface water is about

i) 50% b) 10% c) 5% d) less than 1%

28. Important factor that causes water borne disease is

a) Using contaminated sewage for Irrigationb) Leaching of untreated fecal and urinary discharges into water bodies

c) Discharge of industrial waste water

d) By eating contaminated food.

29. Cholera & typhoid are caused by

a) Worms b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

30. Major sources of fluoride is

a) River water b) Tooth paste c) Ground water d) Food products

31. Hepatitis is caused by

a) Protozoo b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

32. Excessive Nitrate in drinking water causes

a) Fever b) Cough & chill c) Blue babies d) Gastro Enteritis

32. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of

a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead

33. Mineral resources are

a) Renewable b) Available in plenty c) Non renewable d) Equally distributed

34. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effectively by

a) Treatment of disease b) By consuming mineral water

c) By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the source of water

d) By vaccination35. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?

a) Asbestos b) feldspar c) Phosphate d) Nitrogen

36. Forests are extremely important because they

a) Provide clean water and clean air b) provide habitat for wild life

c) Provide recreation and a change from the hectic urban life d) all of the above

37. Deforestation means

a) Creation of new forest land for the wild life b) planting trees in the cities

c) Conversion of forest land for agriculture/ pasture/ homes etc.

d) Not managing the forest properly38. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing:

a. 95% of earths water b. 85% of earths water

c. 97% of earths water d. 75% of earths water

39. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle?

a. precipitation b. infiltration c. transpiration d. perspiration

40. The ground water depends on

a. Amount of rain fall b. Geological formations

c. Run off d. All of the above


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41. In India ground water is rich in

a. Plains of rivers Kaveri and Krishna

b. The plains of Netravati and Kapila

c. The Gangetic plains

d. The Deccan plateau

42. The required Iron content in drinking water as specified by BIS isa. 300 mg/l b. 30 mg/l c. 3 mg/l d. 0.3 mg/l

43. Pick out which is not concerned to carbon cycle

a. Respiration b. Combustion of fossil fuels

c. Photo synthesis d. Transpiration

44. Fixation of Nitrogen is done by

a. Lightening b. Fixing bacteria c. Fertiliser factory d. All of the above

45. Sulphur-di-oxide is used in

a. Paper manufacture b. Textile manufacture c. Processing of fossil fuels

d. Both (a) and (b)

UNIT IV

1. Which of the following is considered as an alternate fuel?

a) CNG b) Kerosene c) Coal d) Petrol

2. Solar radiation consists of

a) UV b) Visible light c) Infrared d) All of these

3. Reduction in usage of fuels cannot be brought about by

a) Using alternate fuels b) Changing lifestyles

c) Reducing car taxes d) Both a) & b)

4. Which of the following is a hazard of a nuclear power plant?

a) Accident risk when tankers containing fuel cause spill

b) Radioactive waste of the power plant remains highly toxic for centuries

c) Release of toxic gases during processing

d) All of these

5. The most important fuel used by nuclear power plant is

a) U 235 b) U- 238 c) U 245 d) U 248

6. Biogas is produced by

a) Microbial activity b) Harvesting crop

c) Both a) & b) d) None of the above

7. Oil and Gas are preferred because ofa) Easy transportation b) Cheap

c) Strong smell d) All of these

8. Biomass power generation uses

a) Crops b) Animal dung

c) Wood d) All of these

9. Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in the year

a) 1984 b) 1952 c) 1986 d) 1987

10. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?


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a) Fossil fuels b) Solar energy c) Tidal wave energy d) Wind energy

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources

a) Highly polluting b) High waste disposal cost

c) Unreliable supply d) High running cost

12. OTEC is an energy technology that converts

a) Energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricityb) Energy in ocean waves to generate electricity

c) Energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity

d) Energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate electricity

13. Which of the following source of energy is less ecofriendly?

a) Biogas b) Wind c) Solar d) Nuclear

14. Indias position in the Bio-gas plants globally

a) 5th b) 2nd c) 4th d) 7th

15. Solar energy is stored in

a) Carbon carbon bonds b) green leaves c) fossil fuels d) biomass

16. Which resources are inexhaustible?

a) renewable b) fossil fuel c) non renewable d) mineral

17. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following

a) Coal b) Fuel cells c) Wind Power d) Wave power

18. Electromagnetic radiation can cause

a) Plague b) Malaria c) Cancer d) Dengue Fever

19. Harnessing the wind energy is done by

a) Wind Mill b) Ball mill c) Flour Mill d) Pig mill

20. Wind Farms are located in

a) River basin b) Plain area c) Hilly area d) Valley area21. Wind energy generation depends on

a) Direction of wind b) velocity of wind c) humidity d) precipitation

22. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by

a) Solar radiation b) wind c) Nuclear fuels d) tidal waves

23. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by

a) Solar photo voltaic system b) solar diesel hybrid system

c) Solar thermal system d) solar air heater

24. In Hydropower plants power is generated by

a) Hot springs b) wind c) Sund) water

25. Hydrogen energy can be tapped through

a) heat pumps b)fuel cells c) photovoltaic cells d) gasifiers

26. Problems of Hydrogen fuel cell is

a) storage and distribution b) availability of hydrogen

c) creates pollution d)None of the above

27. Nuclear power is being produced from

a) Carbon-14 b) nuclear fission c) petroleum combustion d) natural gas

28. Nuclear fusion uses the following as a fuel


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a) Carbon b) Helium c) Hydrogen d) water

29. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is used ?

a) Coal b) petroleum c) Oil d) Biomass

30. Biomass consists of

a) Lignin b) Hemi cellulose c) Cellulose d) All of the above

31. Which of the following is used as moderator in the nuclear reactor ?a) Graphite b) Helium gas c) Heavy water d) All of the above

32. Nuclear wastes is active for

a) 5 years b) 10 years c )50 years d) centuries

33. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at

a) Bhadravathi b) Sandur c) Raichur d) Kaiga

34. Biomass energy in green plants is produced in presence of

a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Sunlight d) All of the above

35. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by

a) burning b) cooling c) sublimation d) melting

36. Natural gas contains

a) carbon dioxide b) hydrogen c) Methane d) nitrogen

37. Which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented

a) Goa b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu

38. Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is

a) Middle East countries b) America c) China d) India

39. Cow Dung can be used

a) As Manure b) for production of Bio gas c) as fuel d) all of the above

40. The source of Electromagnetic radiation is

a) Sun b) Wind c) Tide d) Water41. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of

a) Methane and Carbon dioxide b) methane and hydrogen sulphide

c) Methane and carbon monoxide d) None of the above

42. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate

a) Biodiesel b) Hydrogen c) Bioethanol d) Biomethanol

UNIT- V

1. Environmental pollution is due to

a) Rapid Urbanization b) deforestation c) Afforestation d) a & b2. Which of the following is air pollutant

a) CO b) O2 c) N2 d) all

3. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution

a) Volcanic eruption b) solar flair c) earth quake d) all

4. Which of the following are biodegradable pollutants

a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) detergent d) all

5. Mining practices lead to

a) Population growth b) Rapid urbanization


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c) Loss of grazing and fertile land d) None of these

6. Which of the following is the source of fly ash

a) Vehicular exhaust b) sewage c) Thermal power plant d) all

7. The liquid waste from baths and kitchens is called

a) Sullage b) Domestic sewage c) Storm waste d) Run off

8. Noise pollution can be minimized bya) Urbanization b) Maintaining silence

c) Reducing noise at source d)none

9. BOD Means

a) Biochemical oxygen demand b)chemical oxygen demand

c) biophysical oxygen demand d) all

10. Which of the following industry generates colored waste

a) Software industry b) Textile industry

c) Biomedical industry d) none

11. Physical pollution of water is due to

a) Dissolved oxygen b) Turbidity c) pH d) none of these

12. Which of the following source is surface water

a) Springs b) streams c) deep wells d) all

13. Deforestation can

a) Increase the rain fall b) Increase soil fertility

c) Introduce silt in the rivers d) None of these

14. Which of the following is non point source of water pollution

a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plant

c) Urban and Sub-urban land d) all of the above

15. Sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as a pollutanta) 40dB b) 80dB c)120dB d) 150dB

16. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies

a) Sewage treatment plants b) Thermal power plants

c) Solid waste disposal d) all

17. Smog is

a) A natural phenomenon b) combination of smoke and fog

c) Colorless d) all of the above

18. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting

a) Electrostatic precipitator b) wet scrubberc) Catalytic converter d) all of the above

19. Which of the following statements about carbon monoxide is true

a) Forms complex with haemoglobin b) Forms complex with leghemoglobin

c) form by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels d) a and c

20. Which of the following is a point source of water pollution

a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plants

c) Urban and Sub-Urban lands d)a and b

21. Definition of Noise is


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a) Loud sound b) Unwanted sound

c) Constant sound d) Sound of high frequency

22. Noise pollution is controlled by

a. Reducing the noise at the source b. Preventing its transmission

c.Protecting the receiver d. All

23. Noise pollution limits at residential areaa. 45dB b. 80 dB c. 55 dB d. 90 dB

24. Noise pollution limits in industrial area

a. 45dB b. 80 dB c. 65 dB d. 90 dB

25. Which of the following are non-biodegradable

a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) detergent d) a and c

26. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant

a. Carbon monoxide b Sulphur dioxide c. Ozone d. Carbon dioxide

27. Pesticide causes

a. Eye irritation b. Skin irritation c. Respiratory ailments d. All the above

28. Blarring sounds known to cause

a) Mental distress b) High cholesterol

c)Neurologicalproblems d) all of the above

29. Which of the following is major cause of soil pollution?

a) Accident involving vehicles that are transporting waste materials

b) Pesticides and chemical fertilizers

c) Improper solid waste disposal

d) all of the above

30. Minamata Disease is caused due to

a) Lead b) Arsenic c) Mercury d) Cadmium

UNIT VI

1. The major automobile pollutants include

a. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM

b. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and CH4

c. CO2, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM

d. CO, NOx, Freons and SPM

2. Petroleum based vehicles emit traces of

a. CO & NOx b. SPM c. Aldehydes d. CH43. Heavy duty diesel vehicles contribute more

a. NOx b. Particulate matter c. CO d. Both a and b

4. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are

a. CO and Hydrocarbons b. CO and NOx

c. CH4 and CO2 d. All the above

5. The 4-stroke engines produce less of the following as compared to 2- stroke engines

a. CO and Hydrocarbons b. NOx and SO2

c. Both a and b d. None of the above


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6. Alternative eco-friendly fuel for automobiles is

a. Petrol b. Diesel c. CNG d. Kerosene

7. Increase in asthma attacks has been linked to high levels of

a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Air-borne dust particles d. All the above

8. Population explosion will cause

a) Biodiversity b) Stress on ecosystemc) More employment d) None of these

9. Which of the following is having high population density?

a) India b) China c) USA d) Western Europe

10. Which of the following is not the effect of urbanization

a) Air pollution b) Thermal pollution

c) Solid waste production d) Noise pollution

11. Which of the following is the facility that the urban people enjoy?

a) Better communication access b) Better quality of air

c) Large land at cheap rates d) none of these

12. Urbanization is

a) Local environmental issue b) National environmental issue

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Not at all an issue

13. Which of the following is the ill effect of urbanization

a) Decrease in agricultural land b) Loss of greenery

c) Loss of water bodies d) All of the above

14. The major cause of global population growth in the 18 and 19 centuries was

a) Decreases in death rates b) decrease in birth rates

c) Industrial revolution d) None of these

15. The world population in 2000 was arounda) 8 billion b) 6.1 billion

c) 4 billion d) 4.5 billion

16. The average life expectancy around the world is currently

a) Decreasing b) Increasing

c) Not changing d) Stabilizing

17. Which of the following is the problem not associated with population growth

a) Increase resource consumption b) Environmental pollution

c) Food and energy shortages d) None of these

18. The major objectives of family welfare programs in India isa) Disease control b) Population growth rate control

c) Employment generation d) None of these

19. Population ageing is

a) The increase in the average age of the population

b) The result of decreased death and birth rates

c) The trend where more people live to reach old age while fewer children are born

d) All of the above

20. Which of the following is not population characteristic


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a) Doubling time b) Total fertility rate

c) Gross domestic product growth rate d) Infant mortality rate

21. Demography is the study of

a) Animals behavior b) Population growth

c) River d) None of these

22. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption b) Planting more trees

c) De-forestation d) None of the above

23. The meaning of global warming is

a) Increase in the temp. Of climate b) A planet hotter than earth

c) Solar radiation d) Cooling effect

24. Global warming may bring about the following change in the climate of the earth

a) Increase in the rain fall b) Desertification

c) Drought d) All of the above

25. Which green house gas is known as colourless, non-flammable, sweetish odour & laughing gas?

a) Methane b) CO2

c) Nitrous Oxide d) Sulfur hexa fluoride

26. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was

a) Water act b) Air act

c) Environmental act d) Noise pollution rules

27. Which of the following substantially reduces CO2 emission from automobiles?

a) Bio fuels like Ethanol and bio diesel b) Fossil fuels like coal and lignite

c) Nuclear element like Uranium d) Voltaic cells

28. The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is

a) Vienna protocol b) Kyoto protocolc) cartagena protocol d) Montreal protocol

29. The protcol that reduces green house gas emissions are

a) Kyoto protocol b) cartagena protocol

c) Montreal protocol d) Vienna protocol

30. Population explosion will cause

a) Socio economical problems b) Food scarcity

c) Energy crisis d) All of these

31. Which of the following is not a green house gas?

a) Hydro chlorofluorocarbons b) Methanec) CO2 d) SO2

32. Global Warming could affect

a) Climate b) Increase in Sea level

c) Melting of glaciers d) All the above

33. Primary cause of acid rain around the world is due to

a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulphur dioxide

c) Carbon Monoxide d) Ozone

34. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?


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a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption b) Planting more trees

c) Deforestation d) None of the above

35. Which of the following is an air pollutant

a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen

c) Nitrogen d) Particulate matter

Unit VII

1. The pH value of the acid rain water is

a. 5.7 b. 7.0 c. 8.5 d. 7.5

2. The primary cause of the acid rain around the world is

a. CFC b. SO2 c. CO d.O3

3. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain

a. reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur in to the atmosphere.

b. use of coal, free from sulphur

c. use of electrostatic precipitator & catalytic convertersd. all of the above

4. Acid rain can be controlled by

a. reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions. b. Reducing oxygen emission.

c. Increasing number of lakes. d. increasing the forest cover.

5. Atmospheric oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is influenced by

a. sunlight. b. Humidity

c. presence of hydrocarbons d. all of these

6. Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj Mahal is due to

a. global warming. b. Air pollution

c. ozone depletion d. Afforestation.

7. The Effect of Acid rain

a. reduces soil fertility. b. increases atmospheric temperature.

c. causing respiratory problems d. skin cancer

8. The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the Acid rain is called

a. Transpiration. b. evapo transpiration

c. Leaching d. Infiltration.

9. Ozone layer is present in

a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere

c. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere10. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog

b. Ozone protects us from the harmful uv radiation of sun

c. Ozone is highly reactive

d. All of the above

11. Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is

a. Oxygen b. CFC c. Carbon dioxide d. Methane

12. Ozone layer thickness is measured in


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a. PPM b. PPB c. Decibels d. Dobson units

13. Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is around

a. 200 DU b. 300 DU c. 400 DU d. 500 Du

14. Chloro Fluro Carbons(CFC) are

a. Non toxic b. Non flammable c. Non carcinogenic d. All the above

15. Ozone layers absorbsa. UV rays b. Infra red rays c. Cosmic rays d. CO

16. Which of the following is not an ill effect of acid rain?

a. results in killing fish b. causes stone leprosy.

c. leaches nutrients from the soil. d. causes cataract.

17. Formation of ozone layer is explained by

a. Rosenmund reaction b. Hendersons reaction

c. Chapmans reaction. d. Perkins reaction

18. Each Chlorine free Radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules.

a. 1000 b. 10,000 c. 1,00,000 d. 100

19. Freons are

a. HFC b.CFC c. NFC d. Hydrocarbons.

20. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog

b. Ozone is highly reactive

c. Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of sun.

d. All of the above

21. Ozone depletion causes

a. snow blindness b. Photochemical smog. c. acid rain d. vomiting

22. Which of the following statement is not true about animal husbandry?a. it is a part of agricultural activity.

b. it is breeding, feeding and management of animals.

c. it is livestock production.

d. it is protection of wild life

23. Which of the following is the purpose of animal husbandry?

a. conservation of animal husbandry. b. production of meat.

c. conservation of wildlife. d. conservation of forests.

24. Domesticated animals are used for

a. Dairy products. b. production of fiber.c. production of meat. d. all of these

25. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to

a) Urabnisation b) industrialization

c) increase in vehicle population d) none of the above

26. Ozone hole was first discovered over

a) Arctic b) Antarctica

c) Tropical region d) Africa

27. CFCs have been used as


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a) Solvent b) refrigerants

c) blowing agents for polymer forms d) all of these

28. World Ozone day is being celebrated on

a) September 5th b) October 15th

c) September 16th d) September 11th

29. Bhopal Gas Tragedy caused due to leakage ofa) Methyl Iso Cyanate (MIC) b) Sulphur dioxide

c) Mustard gas d) methane

30. Animal husbandry results in

a) Global warming b) Acid rain

c) Ozone depletion d) none of these

UNIT VIII

1. Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year

a)1986

b) 1992 c) 1984 d) 19742. The Air (Prvention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year

a) 1981 b) 1996 c) 2000 d) 1974

3. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year

a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 2004

4. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year

a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 1972

5. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year

a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1980 d) 1972

6. The first of the major environmental protection Act to be promulgated in India was:

a) The Wild Life Protection Act b) The Air Act

c) The Noise Pollution Act d) None of the above.

7. The Central Pollution Control Board was established under the provision of :

a) Environmental (Protection) Act 1986

b) Air (Prevention & Control) Act 1981

c) Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1974

d) None of the above.

8. The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (KSPCB) was established in the year

a) 1974 b) 1982 c) 1986 d) 1976

9. Environmental protection is the responsibility ofa) Govt. of India b) NGOs c) Individual d) All

10. Earth Day is observed on:

a) 1st

December b) 5th

June c) April 22nd

d) 1stJanuary.

11. Which of the followings is NGO :

a) Narmada Bachao Andolan b) CPCB

c) KSPCB d) None

12. Which of the following is empowered to take measures to protect & improve environment as per the

Environment (Protection ) Act.


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a) Central Govt. b) State Government c) Corporation d) None

13. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents?

a) Center for Science & Environment

b) State Pollution Control Board

c) Indian Environmental Association

d) None14. The leader of Chipko movement is :

a) Sunderlal Bahuguna b) Medha Patkar

d) Vandana Shiva d) Suresh Heblikar

15. The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986 deals with:

a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) All.

16. The objectives of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 is:

a) To preserve the biodiversity

b) To maintain essential ecological and life supporting systems

c) Protection & conservation of wild life

d) All

17. The Tiger Conservation Project was started in:

a) 1973 b) 1984 c) 1999 d) 2004

18. The goal of National Parks & Wild life Sanctuaries is

a) To promote international trading of animals & their products.

b) To evacuate tribal people from forest

c) Conservation of Wild Life.


19. Environmental education is targeted to:

a) General public b) professional social groupsc) Technicians & Scientists d) All

20. Which of the following animals is endangered species of India:

a) Black buck b) Elephant c) Fox d) Giraffe

21. Which State is having highest women literacy rate in India:

a) Karnataka b) Punjab c) Rajasthan d) Kerala

22. An International Conference on Environmental Education was held in December 1982 at:

a) Kyoto b) Vienna c) New-Delhi d) London

23. Environmental Protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the Article:

a)51-A (g)

b) 48-A c) 47 d) 2124. The objectives of Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) are :

a) Immunization

b) Health check up & referral services

c) Pre-school and non-formal education

d) All the above.

25. ISO 14000 standards deal with :

a) Pollution Management b) Risk management

c) Environmental Management d) None of the above.


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26. World summit on sustainable development was held at

a) Johannesburg in 2002

b) Rio de Janeiro in 1992

c) Kyoto in 1994

d) Stockholm in 2000

27. An important NGO involved in Global environmental protection isa) UNICEF b) Green Peace c) WHO d) CPCB

28. The first International Earth Summit was held at

a) Johannesburg

b) Rio de Janeiro

c) Kyoto

d) Stockholm

29, Silent Valley movement succeeded in

a) Waste management in sea coast

b) Canceling the state government Hydel project and saving the Lion- Tailed Monkeys

c) Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala

d) None of the above

30. The committee which submitted its report to Government of India on Environmental education is

a) Tiwari Committee b) Mehta committee

c) Banerjee Committee d) Agarwal Committee

Exercise-1 ( ENERGY)

1. The word energy is derived from

a) English b) Arabic c) Greek d) Latin

2.Energy means,

a) Capacity to do work b) Capacity to see

c) Capacity to hear d) None of the above

3. Energy is measured in

a) Blu b) Bhu c) Btu d) Ntu

4.James prescott Joule was a English

a) Chemist b) Physicistc) Mathematician d) Astronomer

5. One Btu is equivalent to

a) 1000 Joules b) 10 Joules

c) 100 Joules d) 10000 Joules

6.A piece of buttered bread toast contains about

a) 200 kilo joules b) 200 Joules


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c) 315 Kilojoules d) 315 Joules

7.The energy equivalent derived after consuming a piece of buttered bread toast is sufficient enough to

jog for

a) 16min b) 16 secs c) 6 secs d) 6min

8. The energy equivalent of a piece of buttered bread is sufficient to light a 60W bulb for

a) 19min b) 90min c) 90secs d) 19sec

9.Energy of motion is known as

a) Heat Energy b) Potential energy

c) Kinetic energy d) None of the above

10.Energy due to position is known as

a) Heat energy b) Potential energy

c) Kinetic energy d) Wind energy

11. Renewable energy is

a) Primary source b) Secondary source

c) Tertiary source d) None of the above

12. Coal, lignite & natural gas are

a) Renewable b) Fossil fuels

c) Secondary sources d) All the above

13. Nuclear energy is obtained froma) Barium b) Calcium

c) Platinum d) Uranium

14. Hydro energy is obtained from

a) Still water b) Falling water

c) Stored water d) None of the above

15. Electromagnetic radiation from the sun is known as

a) Nuclear energy b) Hydro energyc) Solar energy d) Tidal energy

16. Electric energy from Coal burning is an example of

a) Secondary energy b) Primary energy

c) Solar energy d) All the above

17. The energy consumption for Global transportation is about

a) 42% b) 24% c) 4% d) 34%


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18. Energy consumption for Domestic & Commercial purposes is about

a)30% b) 13% c) 3% d)50%

19. Ninety nine percent of our energy comes from

a) Moon b) Earth c) Sun d) Wind

20. The annual oil consumption of the top 20 richest countries is about

a) 35% b) 50% c) 10% d) 65%

21. For cooking and heating, about Three billion people of the third world mainly depend upon

a) Electricity b) Coal

c) Nuclear energy d) Solar energy

22. _____Percentage of the total energy represents the Non renewable sources

a) 82 b) 28 c) 8.2 d) None of the above

23. The largest energy consumer in the world is

a) India b) USA c) UK d) Russia

24. Annual coal consumption of India is about

a) 100million tonnes b) 100 billion tons

c) 10 million tons d) 10 billion tons

25. Annual oil consumption of India is abouta) 3.25 million tons b) 325 million tons

c) 32.5 million tons d) 32.5 million tons

26. Official estimates of coal availability in India is about

a) 40 million tons b) 4 million tons

c) 4 billion tons d) 40 billion tons

27. Projected demand for coal in India till the year 2020 is

a) 2.3 billion tons b) 23 billion tons

c) 23 billion tons d) None of the above

28. Projected demand for hydroelectric power in India by 2020 is _____times more than the present

installed capacity of about 15,000 Mu

a)120 b) 1.2 c) 0.12 d) 12

29. Gas reserves of India is about

a)100 million cubic meters b) 10 million cubic tons

c) 100 cubic meters d) None of the above


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30. World gas reserves is estimated as

a) 6300 million cubic meters b) 630000 million cubic meters

c) 630 million cubic meters d) 63000 million cubic meters

31. Electromagnetic radiation is an energy in the form of aa) Light b) Wave c) Heat d) All the above.

32. Electromagnetic radiation energy is due to changing of

a) Electric and magnetic fields b) Electric and Heat fields

c) Magnetic and Heat fields d) None of the above

33. Speed of Electromagnetic radiation waves is of the order of

a) 30000 km/sec b) 30000 kmph

c) 300000kmph d) 300000 km/sec

34. Electromagnetic radiation travels through space at the speed of

a) Sound b) Wind c) Light d) all the above.

35. Cosmic rays, Gamma rays, X-rays and Ultraviolet radiation are known as

a) Primary radiation b) Ionizing radiation

c) Non-Ionizing radiation d) Secondary radiation

36. Cancer and related diseases are caused due to

a) Primary radiation b) Non-Ionizing radiationc) Ionizing radiation d) Secondary radiation.

37. The forms of electromagnetic radiation not containing enough energy to form ions are known as

a) Thermal radiation b) Primary radiation

c) Ionizing radiation d) Non-Ionizing radiation

38. The visible light that can be detected by our eyes is a form of

a) Non-Ionizing radiation b) Ionizing radiation

c) Solar radiation d) Black body radiation

39. Ionizing radiation waves have

a) Low energy & short wave length b) Low energy & long wave length

c) High energy & short wave length d) High energy & long wave length

40. The wave length range of ionizing radiation waves falls in the range of

a) 10+4to 10+7m b) 10-4to 10+7m

c) 10+4to 10-7m d) 10-4to 10-6m


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41. Non ionizing radiation electro magnetic waves have

a) Low energy, short wave length b) Low energy, long wave length

c) High energy, short wave length d) High energy, long wave length

42. In the early days the energy demands were met by

a) Wind b) Muscular effortc) Water power d) None of the above

43. Example of renewable source of energy form is

a) Uranium b) Wind c) Coal d) Oil

44. Example of non-conventional source of energy is

a) Natural gas b) Oil c) Nuclear d) Biofuels

45. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel

a) Oil b) Gas c) Coal d) Uranium

46. Which of the following is not a non-conventional energy

a) Wind energy b) Solar energy

c) Bio energy d) Hydro electric energy

47. Wind patterns and water flow is due to

a) Sun b) Moon

c) Earth d) None of the above

48. Per Capita annual electric consumption in India is about

a) 3550 KW b) 3550 MW

c) 355 KW d) 355MW

49. The annual power consumption of a computer working continuously is

a) 876 Watt hours b) 876 KWh

c) 8760 KWh d) 8760 Watt hours

50. One calorie is the amount of energy required to heata) One litre of water to 10C b) One gram of water to 10C

c) One cubic meter of water to 10C d) None of the above

Answers (exercise-1)

1.c, 2.a, 3.c, 4.b, 5.a, 6.c, 7.c, 8.b, 9.c, 10.b

11.a, 12.b, 13.d, 14.b, 15.c, 16.a, 17.b, 18.a, 19.c,

20.d, 21.b, 22.a, 23.b, 24.a, 25.c, 26.d, 27.b, 28.d


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29.a, 30.d, 31.b, 32.a, 33.d, 34.c, 35.b, 36.c, 37.d,

38.a, 39.c, 40.d, 41.b, 42.b, 43.b, 44.d, 45.d, 46.d,

47.a, 48.c, 49.b, 50.b

Exercise- 2 ( ENERGY)

1. Hydroelectricity is produced from

a) Stream b) Falling water

c) Ocean d) All the above

2. Hydroelectricity is generated by

a) Lifting the water by the turbine b) Lifting the water by the Generator

c) The turbine rotating the Generator d) The generator rotating the turbine

3. In 2001, Hydropower supplied about ____ percent of worlds total commercial energy.a) 7 b) 17 c) 71 d) 0.7

4. In 2001, Hydropower supplied about ____ percent of worlds electricity

a) 2 b) 17 c) 71 d) 0.7

5. By the end of fourth five- year plan India was able to generate ______MW of hydropower

a) 690 b) 69 c) 6900 d) 69000

6. Due to increase in demand, the hydropower production at the end of Eighth plan fell down by about

a) 25% b) 2.5%

c) 0.25% d) None of the above

7. Hydropower potential of India is estimated to be

a) 4x1011

MW hours b) 4x1011

KW hours

c) 40x1011

MW hours d) 40x1011

KW hours

8. World commission on____________has reported that hydropower in tropical countries is major

emitter of green house gases

a) Hydraulics b) Environmentc) Atomic energy d) Dams.

9. Efficiency of hydropower is of the order of

a) 80% b) 8% c) 0.8% d) 18%

10. Major disadvantages of an Hydropower project is due to its

a) Low construction cost & High flood risk b) Low construction cost & low flood risk

c) High construction cost & low flood risk d) High construction cost & high flood risk


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11. According to unit nations report, the percentage of worlds hydropower exploited is

a) 13% b) 31% c) 130% d) 1.3%

12. Much of the untapped hydropower is in

a) Europe b) USAc) Canada d) South America

13. Fossil fuels are

a) Energy rich substance b) Less energy substances

c) No energy substances d) None of the above

14. Fossil fuels are formed from the remains of organisms that lived

a) 200 to 500 years ago b) 200 to 500 billion yrs ago

c) 2000 to 500yrs ago d) 200 to 500 million yrs ago

15. Between 1859 & 1969 total oil production of the world was

a) 2270 barrels b) 227 million barrels

c) 227 billion barrels d) 22.7 billion barrels

16. Fossil fuels largely consists of

a) Hydrocarbons b) Hydrogen Sulphide

c) Hydrochloric acid d) carbon dioxide

17. One barrel is equivalent toa) 15ltrs b) 159ltrs

c) 1590ltrs d) 1.59ltrs

18. The coal deposits in our planet is about

a) 27350 million metric tons b) 27350 metric tons

c) 27350 billion metric tons d) 2735 billion metric tons

19. The coal available in India is

a) Not good quality b) Excellent qualityc) Very good quality d) Medium quality

20. In India coal is available in

a) Karnataka b) Tamil Nadu

c) Rajasthan d) Madhya Pradesh

21. The carbon content of Anthracite or hard coal is

a) 90% b) 9% c) 900% d) 0.9%


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22. Anthracite & lignite are examples of

a) Petroleum b) Natural gas

c) Coal d) Wood

23. Present annual extraction rate of coal is abouta) 3000 million metric tons b) 3000 metric tons

c) 300 billion metric tons d) 3000 billion metric tons

24. The existing coal deposits may last for about

a) 20yrs b) 2000yrs

c) 2 years d) 200yrs

25. Energy content of petroleum when compared to coal is

a) Equal b) High

c) Low d) None of the above.

26. Lifeline of global energy is

a) Coal b) Electricity

c) Petroleum d) All the above

27. Petroleum when burnt

a) Leaves residue b) Leaves no residue

c) Emits large quantities of Sulphur d) Emits large quantities of carbon dioxide

28. OPEC is formed by a group of _____ oil rich countries

a) 13 b) 31 c) 130 d) 310

29. One of the major oil producing country in the world is

a) Japan b) Africa

c) New Zealand d) Mexico

30. ______ of the worlds oil reserves are available in Saudi Arabia

a) b) c) 1/3 d) 1/8

31. Total oil reserves of the world is

a) 356.2 trillion metric tons b) 356.2 million metric tons

c) 356.2 billion metric tons d) 356.2 metric tons

32. Worlds Annual extraction of petroleum is about

a) 2874 million tons b) 2874 billion tons

c) 287.4 million tons d) 28700 billion tons


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33. Existing oil reserves could last for about

a) 5000yrs b) 500yrs c) 5yrs d) 50yrs

34. Oil bearing potential of India is about

a) One Million km2 b) 1000km2 c) 10,000 km2 d) 100,000 km2

35. Natural gas mainly consists of

a) Carbon dioxide b) Hydrogen

c) Methane d) Oxygen

36. A good example of cleanest source of fossil fuel energy is

a) Petroleum b) Natural Gas

c) Coal d) Lignite

37. Total natural gas reserves of the world is about

a) 600,000 million meter3 b) 600,00 m3

c) 600,000 billion meter3 d) 60000 million m3

38. Natural gas reserves of Russia is about

a) 34% b) 3.4% c) 50% d) 85%

39. Annual production of natural gas is about

a) 1250 million cubic meters b) 1250 billion cubic meters

c) 125 million cubic meters d) 125 billion cubic meters

40. Natural gas reserves are expected to last for about

a) 500yrs b) 5000yrs c) 50yrs d) 5yrs

41. Burning of fossil fuels results in

a) Acid rain b) Alkali rain

c) Heavy rain d) No rain

42. Unburnt fuel particles are known as

a) Smoke b) fog

c) smog d) Ash particles

43. Example of green house gas is

a) Nitrogen b) Hydrogen

c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen Sulphide


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44. Between 19th

& 20thCentury the green house gas liberation from fossil fuel burning has increased

by

a) 2.8% b) 28% c) 280% d) 128%

45. Disrupted weather patter & polar ice melting is due to

a) Global warming b) Global coolingc) Heavy rains d) Deforestation

46. Nuclear energy is an example of

a) Renewable energy b) Non-renewable energy

c) Bio degradable energy d) Degradable energy

47. Reserves of Nuclear fuels is about ____times than fossil fuels

a) 10times b) 100times

c) 1000times d) million times

48. 1000 kgs of Nuclear fuel can produce energy equivalent to ____ barrels of oil

a) 12millions b) 12 billion

c) 12,000 d) 1200

49. Nuclear reactors operate at about

a) 6250C b) 625k

c) 62.5K d) 62.50C

50. Nuclear fusion is the process of

a) Absorbing energy b) adsorbing energy

c) Releasing energy d) removing energy

51. Radio active waste can remain for

a) Few days only b) for months

c) For years d) for centuries

52. Chernobyl (Russia) nuclear accident occurred in the year

a)1986 b) 1976 c) 2006 d) 1876

53. Fuel for Nuclear fusing is

a)Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide

c) Hydrogen d) Helium

54. Fusion process is _____ fission

a) Same as b) Not safer than


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c) Safer than d) None of the above

55. When compared to fission the pollution problems from the fusion process is

a) Same b) High

c) Nominal d) all the above.

Answers (exercise-2)

1.b, 2.c, 3.a, 4.d, 5.c, 6.a, 7.b, 8.d, 9.a, 10.a

11.a, 12.d, 13.a, 14.d, 15.a, 16.c, 17.b, 18.c, 19.a,

20.d, 21.a, 22.c, 23.a, 24.d, 25.b, 26.c, 27.b, 28.a

29.d, 30.a, 31.c, 32.a, 33.d, 34.a, 35.c, 36.b, 37.c,

38.a, 39.b, 40.c, 41.a, 42.d, 43.c, 44.b, 45.a, 46.b,

47.a, 48.a, 49.b, 50.c, 51.d, 52.a, 53.c, 54.c, 55.c

Exercise-3 (ENERGY )

1.Solar energy orginates from the

a) Thermo nuclear fusion reaction taking place in the Sun.

b) Nuclear fission taking place in the Sun.

c) Burning of oxygen on the surface of Sun.


2. Solar energy is a potentiala) Conventional energy Source b) Converted energy

c) Non conventional energy source d) Electric energy

3. 92% of the solar radiation reaching the Earth will be in the range of

a) 315 to 1400m b) 315 to 1400 m

c) 315 to 1400nM d) 315 to 1400mm

4. 45% of the Solar radiation reaching the Earth will be in the

a) Invisible range b) Dark range

c) bright range d) visible range

5. Earth emits radiations in the

a) Yellow region b) Brown region

c) Infra red region d) Black region

6. The heat equivalent of the Solar radiation reaching the estimated to be about

a) 2.68x1024Joules per year b) 2.68x1024kilo Joules per year

c) 2.68x1024Joules per day d) 2.68x1024Joules per month


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7. Solar energy is

a) Non-polluting & deplete b) Non-polluting & non-deplete

c) Polluting & non deplete d) Polluting & deplete

8. In India, Solar volatile systems are being installed by the Department of

a) Space b) Atomic energy

c) Geology d) Non conventional energy resources

9. The maintenance free life of solar cells is

a) Ten or more years b) One hundred years

c) Ten months d) One thousand yrs

10. The Earths surface area required for producing 1000MW of electricity is

a) 120km2 b) 1.2km2 c) 12km2 d) 1200km2

11. The electricity saved in heating about 100 litres of water daily to 600C using solar energy results in

saving

a) 1200 1500 units per month b) 1200-1500 units per day

c) 1200-1500 units per year d) 12000-1500 units per hour

12. Solar energy collection process can damage the fragile ecosystem of the

a) Oceans b) Mountains c) Rivers d) Deserts

11. The electricity saved in heating about 100 liters of water daily to 600C using solar energy results in

saving

a) 1200 1500 units per month b) 1200-1500 units per day

c) 1200-1500 units per year d) 12000-1500 units per hour

12. Solar energy collection process can damage the fragile ecosystem of the

a) Oceans b) Mountains c) Rivers d) Deserts

13. Active & Passive systems are the terms using in

a) Air conditioning b) Nuclear reactors

c) Solar heating systems d) None of the above

14. Passive solar heating system depends upon

a) Pumps b) Natural convection currents

c) Turbines d) Blowers


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15. Passive solar energy needs access to the sun ____ percent of the time

a) 5 b) 0.5 c) 60 d) 600

16. Solar cell contains

a) Semi conductor material b) Thermo couple

c) Batteries d) Capacitors

17. Sunlight energizes and causes ___ in the semi conductor to flow, creating an electric current

a )Protons b) Neutrons

c) Electrons d) All the above

18. Solar cells reduces dependence on

a) Nuclear power b) Fossil fuels

c) Hydrogen d) Biomass

19. Solar energy is an ideal energy source because of

a) Unlimited supply b) No air & water pollution

c) Free of by-products d) All the above

20. A Solar cell generates electricity from Sunlight by

a )Flow of charge carriers b) Flow of heat

c) Flow of energy d) Flow of electrolyte

21) Biomass is a ____energy source

a ) Non renewable b) Renewablec) Alternative d) None of the above

22. Biomass is the term for all organic matter produced by

a) Photography b) Photo electric effect

c) Photosynthesis d) Combustion

23. The source of all energy is biomass is the

a) Moon b) Earth c) Jupiter d) Sun

24. Extraction of energy from biomass is split into

a) Solid biomass, Biogas & liquid bio fuels b) Petrol, Coal & Peat

c) Solar energy, nuclear energy & Hydro energy. d) None of the above

25. Heat from Solid biomass is derived from

a ) Conduction b) Combustion

c) Convection d) Digestion


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26. Biogas is the result of ______ organic materials

a) Anaerobic digestion b) Aerobic digestion

c) Combustion d) Compression

27. Many of the Worlds poorer countries with wood supplies, crop residues & animal wastes are in

a) Temperature regions b) Humid tropic regionsc) Arid regions d) Polar regions

28. Bagasse is a left over of

a) Paddy b) Wheat c) Vegetables d) Sugarcane

29. In India the estimates of electricity generation from bagasse is about

a) 350MW b) 3500KW c) 3500MW d) 35000MW

30. In India, around ____ of power from biomass has already bee commissioned

a ) 270KW b) 270MW c) 2700KW d) 2700MW

31. Production of biomass energy mainly involved

a) Water damage b) Sulphur dioxide

c) Release of Methane d) Soil damage

32. Biogas is obtained by _________ organic material

a ) Photosynthesis b) Anaerobic digestion

c) Aerobic digestion d) All the above

33. The cattle population of India is about

a) 4 million b) 400 million

c) 400 billion d) 40 billion

34. Biogas production has the capacity to provide about ___ of our energy needs

a) b) 1/3 c) d)

35. By the end of 2003 the number of biogas plants in India was

a) 37.1 million b) 3.71 millionc) 371 million d) 0.371 million

36. Only ____ percent of the total estimated 12 million biogas plants are being utilized world over

a) 3.1 b) 13 c) 0.31 d) 31

37. The pay back period of biogas plants is only

a) 2 to 3 years b) 2 to 3 months

c) 20 to 30 years d) 200 to 300 years


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38. The biogas needs of an average family size can be met by a biogas plant with a capacity of about

a) 200m3 b) 20m3 c) 2m3 d) 0.2m3

39. Fermentation in the biogas plant is carried out between

a) 350 to 5000C b) 35 to 500C

c) 85 to 1500C d) None of the above

40. One kilogram weight of cowdung produces about ___ liters of biogas

a) 1600 b) 16 c) 1.6 d) 160

41. Percentage Methane, content of Biogas is

a) 5.5 b) 85 c) 55 d) 0.55

42. The average gross calorific value of biogas isa) 530 kilo cal/m3 b) 53 kilo Cal/m3

c) 5300 kilo Cal/m3 d) 5.3 kilo Cal/m3

43. Hydrogen is colourless, odourless gas that accounts for the ____ percent of the entire Universes mass

a) 25 b) 50 c) 5 d) 75

44. Hydrogen as an energy source is

a) Alternative b) renewable

c) non renewable d) all the above

45. Hydrogen is found on Earth in combination with

a) Sulphur b) Helium c) Copper d) Oxygen

46. Reforming hydrogen means producing hydrogen from molecules of hydro carbon by

a) Cooling b) melting c) freezing d) heating

47. Electrolysis is the process used to separate water into

a) Oxygen & Nitrogen b) Oxygen & Hydrogen

c) Nitrogen & Hydrogen d) Hydrogen & Carbon

48. Hydrogen as a fuel has

a) No energy b) Low energy

c) High energy d) None of the above

49. A machine that burns pure hydrogen produces

a )High pollution b) Medium pollution


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c) Smoke d) Almost zero pollution

50. NASA has used liquid hydrogen for propelling rockets & space shuttles since.

a) 1870 b) 2000 c) 1920 d) 1970

51. The pure water which the space shuttle crew drink is the by product ofa) Oxygen b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Carbon

52. Hydrogen can be stored in

a ) Compressed gas tanks b) Air tight tanks

c) Petrol tanks d) None of the above

53.In 2002 scientists were able to trap hydrogen in a frame- work of water molecules known as

a) Clathrate Hydrates b) Clathrate Hydrogen

c) Clear hydrates d) Clear Hydrogen

54. Hydrogen contained in the form of metal hydrides in a vehicles tank____ even if the tank is ruptured

in an accident

a) Melt b) Freeze c) Explode d) Expand

53.In 2002 scientists were able to trap hydrogen in a frame work of water molecules known as

a) Clathrate Hydrates b) Clathrate Hydrogen

c) Clear hydrates d) Clear Hydrogen

54. Hydrogen contained in the form of metal hydrides in a vehicles tank____ even if the tank is rupturedin an accident

a) Melt b) Freeze c) Explode d) Expand

55. The disadvantage of hydrogen energy source is

a) Energy is needed to produce it b) Causes air & water pollution

c ) Hazardness effect due to risk of leakage d) Releases toxic by products

56. Excessive hydrogen leaks results in

a) Production of ozone b) Increasing ozonec) Depletion ozone d) None of the above

57. Sequence of production of electricity from hydrogen is

a) Electrolysis of water, fuel cell reaction, storage of hydrogen.

b) Production of Hydrogen, Electrolysis of water, fuel cell reaction

c) Electrolysis of water, Storage of hydrogen, fuel cell reaction

d) Fuel cell reaction, Electrolysis of water, Storage of hydrogen at present


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58. The performance coefficient of Solar cells at present stands between

a) 10 to 16% b) 25 to 35%

c) 45 to 55% d) 80 to 90%

59. The solar flux reaching the earths upper atmosphere is estimated to be about

a) 1400 kilowatts/m2/min b) 1400 watts/m2/min

c) 1400 kilowatts/m2/sec d) 1400 watts/m2/sec

60. Soil erosion, water pollution and loss of wild life habitat is a major disadvantage of

a) Solid biomass b) Hydrogen

c) Ethanol fuel d) Solar energy

Answers (Exercise-3)

1. a, 2.b, 3.c, 4.a, 5.c, 6.a, 7.b, 8.d, 9.a, 10.c, 11.c, 12.d, 13.c, 14.b, 15.c, 16.a, 17.c, 18.b, 19.d, 20.a, 21.b,

22.c, 23.d, 24.a, 25.b, 26.a, 27.b, 28.d, 29.c, 30.b, 31.c, 32.b, 33.b, 34.c, 35.b, 36.d, 37.a, 38.c, 39.b, 40.d,

41.c, 42.b, 43.d, 44.a, 45.d, 46.d, 47.b, 48.c, 49.d, 50.d, 51.b, 52.a, 53.a, 54.c, 55.a, 56.c, 57.c, 58.a, 59.b,

60.a.

Exercise-4 (Acid Rain, Ozone depletion, Animal Husbandry )

1. The term Acid Rain was coined in the year.

a) 1952 b) 1852 c) 1652, d) 1752

2. The Term Acid Rain was coined by

a) ROBERT ANGUS WHALES

b) CHARLES ANGUS SMITH

c) ROBERT ANGUS SMITH

d) NONE OF THE ABOVE

3. Acid Rain is a form of

a. Soil Pollution b) Water Pollution

c. Solar pollution d) Air pollution

4. The major contributors to acid rain are known as

a. Precursors b) Processors

c. Protons d) Pollutants

5. Two acids responsible for acid rain are

a. Nitric acid & Sulphuric acid

b. Nitric acid & Hydrochloric acid


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c. Sulphuric acid & phosphoric acid

d. Sulphuric acid & Acitic acid

6. Precursors mainly come from

a. Chemical & physical sources

b. Biogenic and anthropogenic sourcesc. Biotic & abiotic sources

d. Arctic & Antarctic sources

7. Anthropogenic or Man made sources of air pollution are:

a. Spread over large areas.

b. Concentrated around the source

c. Spread all over the Earth

d. None of the above.

8. Volcanic eruptions and Decay of organic matter are good examples of

a) Volcanic source

b) Natural resources

c) Biogenic source

d) Anthropogenic source

9. Example of Anthropogenic sources is

a) Bush fire b) Burning of fossil fuels

c) Microbial process d) lighting discharges.

10. Particulates falling directly from the atmosphere to the ground are known as

a ) Wet forms b) solid forms

c) Dry deposition d ) None of the above.

11. Catalytic reduction is a process adopted to

a) Increase the levels of Sulphur dioxide

b) Decrease the levels of Sulphur dioxide

c) Increase the levels of Nitrogen oxides

d) Decrease the levels of Nitrogen oxides

12. Catalytic converter in a vehicle will convert engine gases into

a) Nitrogen & oxygen

b) Hydrogen & Oxygen

c) Hydrogen & Nitrogen


13. Using less air for combustion can


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a) Increase nitrogen oxides

b) Increase Sulphur oxides

c) Decrease Sulphur oxides

d) Decrease Nitrogen oxides.

14. Lower the temperature of combustion, lower will be the production ofa) Nitrogen b) Hydrogen

c) Nitrogen oxides d) Water

15. Two stage combustion and flue gas recirculation results in

a) Reduction in temperature

b) Increase in temperature

c) Reduction in emissions


16. Fluidized bed combustion is a complex process of reducing.

a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen

c) Hydrogen d) Sulphur dioxide

17. Flue gas desulphurization is achieved by using

a) Lime stone b) Coal

c) Sand stone d) Diesel

18. Fluidized bed combustion produces

a) Liquid waste b) Air pollutionc) Solid waste d) none of the above

19. Acids are corrosive chemicals that react with other chemical by giving

a) Oxygen atom b) Hydrogen atom

c) Nitrogen atom d) Chlorine atom

20. Acid rain on trees results in

a) Brown dead spots b) Photosynthesis

c) White patches d) Plasma21. In Black forests of South Western Germany, half of the trees are damaged from

a) Snow b) Water pollution

c) Air pollution d) Acid rain.

22. Most farm crops are ______affected by Acid Rain.

a) Most b) Very little

c) Not at all d) Less.

23. Parthenon in Greece and Taj mahal in India are deteriorating due to


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a) Alkali deposition b) Snow fall

c) Acid rain d) All the above

24. It is ______ to swim in even the most acidified lakes.

a) Safe b) Unsafe

c) Not advisable d) None of the above.

25. Acid rain tends to _____ global warming

a) Increase b) No effect on

c) Slow down d) All the above

26. Acid Rain can be controlled by

a) Reducing CO2 and Hydrocarbon emission

b) Reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions

c) Increasing number of vehicles

d) Increasing number of lakes.

27. Ozone layer was discovered by

a) Charles Fabry b) Charles Darwin

c) Henry Charles d) Henry Darwin

28. Ozone layer was discovered in the year

a) 1613 b) 1713 c) 1913 d) 1813

29. Properties of ozone layer were explored bya) Johnson b) Kingston c) Polson d) Dobson.

30. The equivalent of one Dobson Unit (DU) is

a) 0.1mm b) 0.01mm c) 0.1m d) 0.01m

31. Ozone layer is at a height of ____ above the Earths Surface

a) 19 to 48m b) 19 to 480m

c) 19 to 48km d) 190 to 148km

32. Ozone layer is very important because it absorbs Ultra violet radiation emissions from

a) Sun b) Moon c) Stars d) Jupiter

33. UV radiation is divided into three categories based on its

a) Frequency b) Intensity

c) Wave length d) None of the above

34. The wave length range of UV-A is in the range of


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a) 315 to 400nm b) 315 to 400nm

c) 315 to 400cm d) 315 to 400m.

35. Excessive exposure to UV-B radiation can cause

a) Kidney failure b) Skin cancer

c) Blood cancer d) None of the above.

36. UV-C rapidly damages all types of

a) Biota b) Buildings

c) Water bodies d) All the above.

37. Ozone is formed in the

a) Lithosphere b) Atmosphere

c) Hydrosphere d) Stratosphere

38. Ozone molecules absorb UV light between

a) 310 to 200nm b) 310 and 200m

c) 310 and 200mm d) 310 and 200nm

39. The average thickness of ozone layer in the stratosphere is approximately

a) 3000Du b) 30DU

c) 30,000DU d) 300DU

40. Ozone holes is due to

a) Increase in oxygen levelb) Increase in ozone level

c) Decrease in oxygen level

d) Decrease in ozone level

41. Ozone hole is said to occur when the ozone level decreases below

a) 200DU b) 2000DU c) 20DU d) 2 DU

42. Hydroxyl, Nitric oxide, atomic chlorine and Bromine can result in _____ of ozone.

a) Increaseb) Balancing

c) Decreasing

d) Neutralizises

43. UV-C radiation lies in the region

a) 280nm

c) 315 to 400nm d) 280 to 315nm.


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44. Many thousands of ozone molecules are removed from the stratosphere due atoms of

a) Sulphur b) Oxygen

c) Hydrogen d) Chlorine

45. CFC molecules can stay in the atmosphere for about

a) 1 year b) 10 yrs c) 100yrs d) 1000yrs

46. In the Antarctic zone, ozone layer occurs during the period

a) Sept to Dec b) Jan to Mar

c) April to June d) July to Sep

47. The decrease in the ozone layer was predicted in the early

a) 1960 b) 1970 c) 1980 d) 1880.

48. The Antarctic stratosphere is _____ than the Arctic, hence the reason for ozone hole.

a) Colder b) Warmer

c) Brighter d) None of the above

49. One percent decrease in Stratospheric ozone would increase the incidence of skin cancer by

a) 0.2% b) 20% c) 2% d) 0.02%

50. Ozone at ground level is health risky due to its strong ____ property

a) Acid b) Alkaline

c) Oxidant d) Hydroscopic.

51. World ozone day is celebrated on

a) 16th Sep b) 18th Sep c) 16th Mar d) 15th Aug

52. The Antarctic ozone hole reached its largest ever size

a) Sep 2000 b) Jan 2000

c) Jan 2005 d) Sep 2005

53. The largest ozone hole size on Antarctic region is reported as

a) 11.5 thousand square milesb) 11.5 million square miles

c) 11,500 square miles

d) 1,15,000 square miles

54. Breeding, feeding and managing animals for the production of food, fiber, work and pleasure is

termed as

a)Cattle feeding b) Poultry

c) Animal building d) Animal husbandry


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55. Animals furnish about ___ percent of worlds total value of agricultural products.

a) 2.8 b) 0.28 c) 28 d) 58

56. Good example of domesticated animals is

a) Cow b) Tiger c) Elephant d) Snake

57. The purpose of animal husbandry is

a) Conservation of biodiversity

b) production of meat.

c) Conservation of wild life


58. Live stock does not include

a) Sericulture b) Honey bees

c) Horticulture d) None of the above

59. The annual global generation of methane from ruminants accounts for ______ percent of the total

amount released into the atmosphere

a) 15% b) 1.5% c) 0.15 d) 150

60. Methane produced form cattle is ____ that from the ruminants.

a) Less than b) Equal to

c) More than d) None of the above

61. Over fishing is

a) Desirable

b) Necessary

c) Undesirable

d) None of the above

62. Animal husbandry may result in

a) Acid rain b) Ozone depletion

c) Global warming d) Snow fall

ANSWERS ( Exercise-4)

1. b, 2.c, 3.d, 4.a, 5.a, 6.b, 7.b, 8.c, 9.b, 10.c, 11. d, 12.a, 13.d, 14.c, 15.a, 16.d, 17.a, 18.c

19. b, 20.a, 21.d, 22.d, 23.c, 24.a, 25.c, 26.b, 27. a, 28.c, 29.d, 30.b, 31.c, 32.a, 33.c, 34.a,

35 b 36 a 37 d 38 a 39 d 40 d 41 a 42 c 43 a 44 d 45 c 46 a 47 c 48 a 49 c 50 c

evs objectives

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