electrician - semester i - cits - module 1: safety practices · 2019-06-13 · electrician -...

Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 1: Safety Practices Questions: Level 1 1 What is smothering in extinguishing of fire? A Adding the fuel element to the fire B Removing the fuel element from the fire C Using of water to lower the temperature D Isolating the fire from the supply of oxygen 2 What is the name of the tool?

A Wire stripper B Crimping tool C Combination pliers D Diagonal cutting pliers 3 Name the part marked ‘X’ of the file?

A Edge B Heel C Tang D Shoulder 4 What is the name of tool?

A Claw hammer B Ball pein hammer C Cross pein hammer D Straight pein hammer 5 What is the name of tool?

A Claw hammer B Tacks hammer C Cross pein hammer D Straight pein hammer

- NIMI Question Bank - Page1/ 4

Questions: Level 2 1 Which is the correct sequence of operation

to be performed when using the fire extinguisher?

A Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep B Pull, Aim, Sweep, Squeeze C Push, Arrange, Squeeze, Sweep D Push, Arrange, Sweep, Sequence 2 Which plier is used for making wire hooks

and loops? A Flat nose plier B Long nose plier C Round nose plier D Diagonal cutting plier 3 What is the use of pincer? A Twisting the flexible wires B Cutting small diameter of wires C Extracting the pin nails from the wood D Holding small objects, where finger cannot

reach 4 Which type of fire extinguisher is used for fire

on electrical equipment? A Halon type B Foam type C Gas cartridge type D Stored pressure type 5 What is starving in extinguishing of fire? A Adding fuel to the fire B Using water to cool the fire C Removing fuel element from the fire D Preventing oxygen supply to the fire 6 Which artificial respiriation method is to be

performed to the victim with injuries on the chest and belly?

A Schafer’s method B Mouth to mouth method C Mouth to nose method D Nelson’s arm-lift back pressure method 7 What is the use of this tool?

A Holding the hot substances B Cutting and twisting the wires C Extracting nails from the wood D Loosening and tightening the bolts and nuts

8 How will you diagonise the victim is suffering under cardiac arrest?

A Gets pain in spinal guard B Mouth will be closed tightly C Heavy swelling on his stomach D Appears blue colour around his lips 9 What is the first-aid to be given to stop the

bleeding of the victim? A Applying ointment B Keep the injured portion upward C Covering the wound portion by dressing D Applying pressure over the injured portion 10 Which condition of the victim, the mouth to

nose method can be applied ? A If the victim mouth is fully open B When the victim has burns/injury in the back C If the victim has injuries in the chest and

belly D When the victim's mouth has a blockage of

air ways 11 What is the use of round nose plier ? A Holding flat objects B Holding small objects C Making hooks and loops on wires D Cutting of wires for smaller diameter 12 Which type of fire is having risk of explosion

and sudden outbreak ? A Fire on wood B Fire on cloth C Fire on metals D Fire on liquid gas



Questions : Level 3 1 What immediate action should be taken to

rescue the victim, if he is still in contact with the electrical power supply?

A Pull or push him from the contact by hand B Inform your authority about this electric

shock C Call someone for helping to remove him

from contact D Break the contact by switching OFF the

power supply 2 How can the fire on wood (or) clothes can be

extinguished by using water? A It can be passed to the middle of the fire B It can be passed around the fire fast and

then to middle C It must be sprayed on the top of the fire and

then to its base D It must be sprayed on the base of the fire

and gradually move upwards 3 What will happen to the fireman, if he will

change operation sequence of 'PASS' ? A Fire extinguisher will not function B Fire may be spreaded around the place C Fire extinguisher get exploded and damaged D Fire may spread over the body of the fireman 4 How will you rescue the electric shocked

victim, if you are not able to switch 'OFF' the power?

A Pullout by using insulating material B Call somebody to switch OFF the main' C Pull (or) push the victim by using your hand D Report this accident to your intermediate

authorities 5 What will happen if the wrong extinguishing

agent is used? A It will increase the heat of fire B It blocks the spraying action in extinguisher C It leads to make the fire area to worse

situation D It will not make any harm in normal condition 6 What will happen to the tenon saw, if grease

is not applied, while not in use? A Teeth will get blunt B Cutting will not be straigh C Nothing will happen, can be used as it is D Rust will form on the top surface and teeth

7 What is the effect of electric shock with excessive level of current flow?

A Victim will get severe pain B May loose consciousness and may lead to

fatality C May cause minor burns at the point of

contact D Cause one to loose his balance and fall

Module 1: Safety Practices - Key paper

Questions: Level 1 Questions: Level 2 Question: Level 3

SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 D 1 A 1 D 2 D 2 C 2 D 3 B 3 C 3 C 4 A 4 A 4 A 5 B 5 C 5 C

6 D 6 D 7 C 7 B 8 D 9 D 10 D 11 C

12 D


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 2 : Basic Electricity Questions: Level 1 1 Which law states that in closed electric

circuit, the applied voltage is equal to the sum of the voltage drops?

A Ohm’s law B Laws of resistance C Kirchhoff’s first law D Kirchhoff’s second law 2 What is the formula for the equivalent

resistance (RT) of the three resistors R1, R2

& R3 are connected in parallel circuit? A RT = R1 + R2 + R3

B 321

T R1

R1

R1R ++=

C 321

T RRR1R++

=

D

321

T

R1

R1

R1

1R++

=

3 What is the name of the resistor?

A Metal film resistor B Wire wound resistor C Carbon - film resistor D Carbon composition resistor 4 What electrical quantities are related in

Ohm’s law? A Current, resistance and power B Current, voltage and resistivity C Current, voltage and resistance D Voltage, resistance and current density 5 What is the unit of resistivity? A ohm / cm B ohm / cm2 C ohm - metre D ohm / metre 6 What is the formula for Quantity of electricity (Q)? A Current x Time B Voltage x Current C Current x Resistance D Voltage x Resistance

7 What is the S.I unit of specific resistance? A Ohm/cm B Ohm/metre2 C Ohm-metre D Micro ohm/cm2 8 What is the name of the wire joint?

A Aerial tap joint B Knotted tap joint C Duplex cross tap joint D Double cross tap joint 9 How many electrons are there in the valence

shell of a copper atom? A 1 B 2 C 8 D 18 10 What is the unit of insulation resistance? A Ohm B Kilo ohm C Milli ohm D Mega ohm 11 What is the name of the joint?

A Married joint B Scarfed joint C Western union joint D Britannia straight joint 12 What does the number 1.40 represent if a

stranded conductor is designated as 10 sq.mm cable of size 7/1.40?

A Area of cross section B Radius of one conductor C Diameter of all conductor D Diameter of each conductor 13 What is the rating factor of cable provided

with coarse excess current protection? A 1.11 B 1.23 C 0.81 D 0.707


14 What is the unit for Quantity of electricity? A Mho B Coulomb C Volt /second D Ampere/second 15 What is the name of the soldering method?

A Dip soldering B Soldering iron C Soldering gun D Soldering with flame 16 Which formula is used to calculate Electro

Motive Force (EMF)? A EMF = Potential difference – voltage drop B EMF = Potential difference + voltage drop C EMF = Potential difference + voltage drop/2 D EMF = Potential difference + 2 x voltage

drop 17 What is the current rating factor for close

excess current protection of cable? A 0.81 B 0.92 C 1.23 D 1.5 18 What is the name of the soldering method?

A Dip soldering B Soldering with blow lamp C Soldering with soldering gun D Temperature controlled soldering


Questions: Level 2 1 What is the value of hot resistance of a bulb

rated as 100W/250V? A 31.25 ohm B 31.25 ohm C 312.50 ohm D 625.00 ohm 2 What is the change of resistance value of the

conductor as its diameter is doubled? A Increases to two times B Decreases to four times C Decrease to half of the value D No change in value of resistance 3 Which material is having negative

temperature co-efficient property? A Mica B Eureka C Copper D Manganin 4 Which is the application of series circuit? A Voltmeter connection B Lighting circuits in home C Shunt resistor in ammeter D Multiplier resistor of a voltmeter 5 What is the effect on opened resistor in

series circuit? A No effect in opened resistor B Full circuit current will flow in opened resistor C Total supply voltage will appear across the

opened resistor D No voltage will appear across the opened

resistor 6 What is the name of the resistor if its

resistance value increase with increase in temperature?

A Varistors B Sensistors C Thermistors D Light Dependent Resistor (LDR) 7 What is the voltage drop in resistor ‘R2’ in the

series circuit?

A 5 volt B 10 volt C 15 volt D 20 volt

8 Which is the example of series circuit? A Fuse in circuit B Voltmeter connection C Electrical lamp in homes D Shunt resistor in ammeter 9 What is the change in value of resistance of

the conductor, if its cross section area is doubled?

A No change B Decreases 2 times C Increases 2 times D Decreases 4 times 10 What is the resistance of Light Dependent

Resistor (LDR), if the intensity of light is increased?

A Increases B Decreases C Remains same D Becomes infinity 11 What is the value of resistance in an open

circuit? A Zero B Low C High D Infinity 12 Which is inversely proportional to the

resistance of a conductor? A Length B Resistivity C Temperature D Area of cross section 13 Which type of soldering flux is used for

soldering galvanised iron? A Rosin B Zinc chloride C Sal ammonia D Hydrochloric acid 14 Which method of soldering is used for

quantity production and for tinning work? A Dip soldering B Soldering with a flame C Soldering with soldering iron D Soldering with soldering gun 15 What is the effect of electric current on neon

lamp? A Heating effect B Magnetic effect C Chemical effect D Gas ionization effect


16 Which electrical device is the coarse excess current protection?

A Cartridge fuses B Rewirable fuses C Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB) D High Repturing Capacity (HRC) Fuses 17 Which type of joint is used for extending the

length of conductor in over head lines? A Scarfed joint B Aerial tap joint C Britannia “T” joint D Western Union joint 18 Which type of soldering flux is used for

soldering aluminum conductors? A Tallow B Ker-al-lite C Zinc chloride D Sal ammonia resin 19 What is the effect on molten solder due to

repeated melting? A Tin content reduced B Lead content reduced C Prevent slug formation D Uneven flowing in joints 20 Which type of wire joint is found in the

junction box? A Aerial tap joint B Plain tap joint C Rat tail joint D Married joint 21 What is the use of Britannia ‘T’ joint ? A Extending the length of the lines B Inside and outside wiring installation C Mechanical stress not required on conductor D Tapping the service connection from

overhead lines 22 Which type of soldering method is used for

servicing and repairing work? A Dip soldering B Soldering with a flame C Soldering with soldering gun D Soldering with a soldering iron 23 What is the use of dipsoldering method? A Soft soldering B Piping and cable soldering work C Soldering miniature components on PCB D Soldering sensitive electric components

24 Which type of joint is used in over head lines for high tensile strength?

A Scarfed joint B Britannia ‘T’ joint C Western union joint D Britannia straight joint 25 Which method of soldering is used for

repairing the vehicle body? A Dip soldering B Soldering with flame C Soldering with soldering iron D Soldering with soldering gun 26 What is the advantage of stranded conductor

over solid conductor? A Cost is less B More flexible C Less voltage drop D More insulation resistance 27 What is the current capacity of the 16 Amp.

Cable, if it is protected by coarse excess current protection?

A 11A B 13A C 15A D 18A 28 What is the disadvantage of solid conductor

compared to stranded conductor? A Less rigidity B Less flexibility C Low melting point D Low mechanical strength 29 Which type of joint is used in large single

conductors with good appearance? A Scarfed joint B Britannia ‘T’ joint C Western union joint D Britannia straight joint 30 What is the cause for cold solder defect in

soldering? A Excessive heating B Insufficient heating C Incorrect use of solder D High wattage soldering iron 31 Which conductors are used for distribution

lines? A Insulated fluxible conductors B Insulated solid conductors C Bare conductors D Two core cable


32 Calculate the resistance measured between point X and Y?

A 2 Ω B 3 Ω C 8 Ω D 6 Ω 33 Calculate the hot resistance of the

200W/250V lamp, if its cold resistance is 25 ohm?

A 625 ohm B 312.5 ohm C 227.5 ohm D 156.2 ohm 34 What is the effect of the circuit, if ‘ab’ points

are shorted?

A Circuit resistance will be zero B Same current will flow in all branches C Supply voltage will exist in each branch D Total circuit current is equal to each branch

circuit current


Questions : Level 3 1 What is the reading of ohmmeter across

opened ‘R2’ resistor?

A Indicate zero reading B Indicate infinite resistance C Total resistance value of the circuit D Value of sum of the resistance of R1 and R3

only 2 Calculate the value of unknown resistance

‘RDC’ in the Wheatstone bridge network, If PAB = 500Ω, QBC = 300Ω, SAo = 15Ω,at balanced condition.

A 12 Ω B 9 Ω C 6 Ω D 3 Ω 3 Calculate the value of resistance ‘R2’ in the

parallel circuit.

A 2 Ω B 4 Ω C 6 Ω D 8 Ω

4 Calculate the unknown resistance “RDC” in the Wheatstone bridge circuit, if PAB=400 ohms, QBC=200 ohms and SAD=12ohms at balanced condition.

A 4 Ω B 6 Ω C 8 Ω D 12 Ω 5 Calculate the resistance value in R3 resistor.

A 4ohm B 6ohm C 8 ohm D 12ohm 6 Calculate the voltage drop across the

resistor ‘R4’ in the circuit?

A 48V B 72V C 80V D 100V 7 What happens to the voltmeter, if it is

connected as an ammeter? A Low reading B No deflection C Meter burns out D Overshoot deflection 8 Why the soldering iron must be kept into a

stand that not in use while soldering? A It prevents burns and fire B To control the excessive heat C To save the time of soldering process D To save the operator from electric shock


9 What is the effect of the parallel circuit if one branch is opened?


A Current will remain same B Whole circuit will not function C No current will flow in that branch only D Voltage drop increase in the opened branch 10 What is the reading of the voltmeter ‘V’?

A 0V B 6V C 9V D 18V

Module 2: Basic Electricity- Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 D 1 D 1 B 2 D 2 B 2 B 3 B 3 A 3 C 4 C 4 D 4 B 5 C 5 C 5 D 6 A 6 B 6 D 7 C 7 B 7 A 8 B 8 A 8 A 9 A 9 B 9 C 10 D 10 B 10 D 11 A 11 D 12 D 12 D 13 B 13 D 14 B 14 A 15 C 15 D 16 B 16 B 17 C 17 D 18 D 18 B 19 A 20 C 21 D 22 C 23 C 24 C 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 B 29 A 30 B 31 C 32 B 33 B 34 A


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 3: Cells and Batteries Questions: Level 1 1 Which law secondary cell works? A Lenz’s law B Joule’s law C Faradays laws of electrolysis D Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction 2 Which formula is used to calculate the Mass

deposited during electrolysis? A M = it gm B M = zit gm C M = it/z gm D M = z/it gm 3 How the capacity of batteries is specified? A Volt B Watt C Volt Ampere D Ampere hour 4 What is the unit of electric charge? A Volt B Watt C Ampere D Coulomb 5 What is the output voltage of lithium cell? A 1.2 V B 1.5 V C 1.8 V D 2.5 V 6 What is the Electro Chemical Equivalent

(ECE) of silver? A 0.001182 mg/coloumb B 0.01182 mg/coloumb C 0.1182 mg/coloumb D 1.1182 mg/coloumb

7 What does the letter ‘Z’ indicate in the formula M = Zit

A Time in seconds B E.C.E of electrolyte C Amount of current in Amp D Mass deposited in grams 8 Which electrolyte is used in alkaline cell? A Ammonium chloride B Potossium hydroxide C Dilute sulphuric acid D Nickel hydroxide

9 What is the name of the negative electrode of mercury cell?

A Zinc B Carbon C Mercuric oxide D Manganese dioxide 10 What is the Electro Chemical Equivalent

(ECE) of copper? A 0.329 mg / coulomb B 0.329 mg - coulomb C 1.1182 mg / coulomb D 1.1182 mg - coulomb


Questions: Level 2

1 Which device converts sunlight into electrical energy?

A Photo voltaic cell B Liquid crystal diode C Light emitting diode D Light dependent resistor 2 What is the method of charging if the battery

is to be charged for short duration at higher rate?

A Initial charge B Boost charge C Trickle charge D Freshening charge 3 Which electrolyte used in carbon zinc dry

cells? A Dilute sulphuric acid B Ammonium chloride C Potassium hydroxide D Concentrated hydrochloric acid 4 Which effect causes for ionization by

passing electric current in liquids? A Heating B Lighting C Magnetic D Chemical 5 Which material is used to make negative

plates in lead acid battery?

A Lead dioxide B Sponge lead C Lead peroxide D Lead sulphate 6 Which cell is most often used in digital

watches? A Voltaic B Lithium C Mercury D Silver oxide

7 What is the function of fine selector switch in battery charger?

A Selection of current rating B Selection of charging time C Selection of voltage range D Selection of charging method 8 What purpose the hydrometer is used during

charging of battery? A Determine the AH capacity B Assess the battery voltage level C Assess the discharge level of battery D Determine the specific gravity of electrolyte 9 Which is used as an electrolyte in lead acid

battery? A Hydrochloric acid B Ammonium chloride C Potassium hydroxide D Diluted sulphuric acid 10 What is the total voltage of the circuit?

A 1.5 Volt B 6.0 Volt C 7.5 Volt D 9.0 Volt 11 What is the outcome at the positive plate,

after the chemical reaction in lead acid battery during charging?

A Sponge lead(Pb) B Lead peroxide(PbO2) C Lead sulphate(PbSO4) D Lead sulphate + water 12 In which method the battery is charged at

low current for long period? A Rectifier method B Trickle charging method C Constant current method D Constant potential method 13 Which material is used as cathode (-ve)

electrode in silver oxide battery? A Zinc B Copper C Carbon D Silver oxide


14 What is the outcome of the chemical reaction that takes place in negative plate of lead acid battery during discharging?

A Sponge lead(Pb) B Lead peroxide(PbO2) C Lead sulphate(PbSO4) D Lead sulphate + water 15 What is the purpose of separator in lead

acid battery? A To provide a path for electrolyte B To hold the positive and negative plate

firmly C To avoid short in between the positive and

negative plates D To keep positive and negative plate in a

sequence array 16 Which instrument is used to measure the

specific gravity of electrolyte in lead acid battery?

A Barometer B Hydrometer C Anima meter D High rate discharge tester 17 What is the voltmeter reading of the circuit?

A 0 V B 1.5 V C 3.0 V D 4.5 V 18 Which is used as a positive electrode in a

dry cell? A Zinc B Copper C Carbon D Lithium 19 Which apparatus is used to check the

charging condition of voltage in battery? A Voltmeter B Multimeter C Hydrometer D High rate discharge tester

20 Which part is losing electron during electrolysis?

A Cathode B Anode C Electrolyte D Seperator 21 Which is the advantage of nickel iron cell? A Low internal resistance B Can withstand heavy charging current C EMF is constant D High efficiency 22 Which method of charging of battery is

inefficient? A Trickle charging B Constant potential method C Constant current method D Rectifier method 23 What is the function of selector switch

provided in battery charger? A To select the charging current B To select the charging voltage C To select the charging time D To select the charging voltage and current 24 Which chemical material is used to cover

the terminal post of the battery to avoid corrosion?

A Sodium chloride B Ammonium sulphate C Petroleum jelly D Copper sulphate


Questions : Level 3 1 What is the name of defect that bending of

plates in secondary cells? A Buckling B Local action C Partial short D Hard sulphation 2 Which technique is used to control the

corrosion of a metal surface? A Anodic protection B Cathodic protection C Electrolytic protection D Electrostatic protection 3 What is the effect if one cell is connected

with reverse polarity in a parallel combination circuit?

A Voltage become zero B Become open circuit C Will get short circuited D No effect will function normally 4 What is the effect on output power with

respect to temperature in solar cells? A No effect on change in temperature B Increases with increase in temperature C Decreases with increase in temperature D Decreases with decrease in temperature 5 Why the vent plug is kept open during

charging of a battery? A To escape the gas freely B To allow oxygen enter inside C To check the level of electrolyte D To check the colour changes in the plates 6 How the hard sulphation defect in lead acid

battery can be rectified? A Changing with new electrolyte B Replacing with new electrodes C Recharging the battery for a longer period at

low current D Recharging the battery for short period at

high current 7 What is the effect of buckling defect in a

lead acid battery? A Bending of the electrodes B Reducing the strength of electrolyte C Falls to zero D Remains same

8 What happen to the terminal voltage of a cell if load increases?

A Increases B Decreases C Falls to zero D Remains same 9 How local action defect is prevented in

voltaic cell? A By connecting cells in series B By using a depolarizing agent C By connecting cells in parallel D By amalgamating the zinc plate 10 Which is the cause for buckling defect in

lead acid battery? A Overcharging or over discharging B Charging with low rate for short period C Formation of sediments falling from the

plate D Battery is kept in discharged condition for

long period 11 Which is the symptom of local action defect

in simple cell? A Hydrogen bubbles evolve at the copper

plate B Hydrogen bubbles evolve from the zinc

plate C Negative and positive electrodes will get

damaged D Electrolyte colour will change 12 What is the cause for hard sulphation defect

in lead acid battery? A Improper electrolyte B Over heating during charging C Over discharging D Over charging 13 What is the reading of the voltmeter of this

circuit?

A 4.5 V B 6.0 V C 7.5 V D 9.0 V



14 What is the fault in the battery charging circuit?

A Line and neutral terminal of transformer are reversed with respect to incoming supply

B Polarity of battery connection to rectifier is reversed

C Capacitor should be in series with battery D One of the diode is reversed

Module 3: Cells and Batteries - Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 C 1 A 1 A 2 B 2 B 2 B 3 D 3 B 3 C 4 D 4 D 4 C 5 D 5 B 5 A 6 D 6 C 6 C 7 B 7 A 7 A 8 B 8 D 8 B 9 A 9 D 9 D 10 A 10 A 10 A

11 B 11 B 12 B 12 C 13 A 13 B 14 C 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 D 18 B 19 D 20 B 21 B 22 C 23 D 24 C


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 4 : Wiring Practice - Earthing Questions: Level 1 1 How the conduit pipes are specified? A Length in metre B Wall thickness in mm C Inner diameter in mm D Outer diameter in mm 2 What is the fusing factor for rewireable fuse? A 1.1 B 1.4 C 2.1 D 2.5 3 What is the name of electrical accessory?

A Bracket holder B Edison screw type holder C Angle swivel lamp holder D Goliath Edison screw lamp holder 4 What is the name of the conduit accessory?

A Solid bend B Solid elbow C Inspection Bend D Inspection elbow 5 How many two way switches with

intermediate switch are used to control one lamp from three different places?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

6 What is the name of the diagram?

A Installation plan B Layout diagram C Wiring diagram D Circuit diagram 7 What is the fusing factor for high repturing

capacity fuses (HRC)? A 1.0 B 1.1 C 1.4 D 1.7 8 What is the name of the accessory used in

electrical appliances?

A 2 Pin plug B Three pin plug C Iron connector with direct entry D Flat connector with side entry 9 What is the name of the accessory symbol?

A Bell push switch B Two way switch C One way switch two poles D Multi position switch single pole 10 What is the name of the four insulated

conductors group? A Pair B Core C Quad D Layer


11 How many two way switches are required in godown wiring circuit to control four lamps

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 12 What is the symbol indicates?

A Table fan B Ceiling fan C Bracket fan D Exhaust fan 13 What is the name of the diagram?

A Layout plan B Wiring diagram C Installation plan D Schematic diagram 14 Which term refers the time taken by a fuse to

interrupt the circuit in fault? A Time factor B Fusing factor C Cut-off factor D Fusing current 15 What is the name of the lighting circuit?

A Tunnel lighting wiring B Corridor lighting wiring C Godown lighting wiring D Staircase lighting wiring

16 What is the expansion of MCB? A Minute Control Breaker B Miniature Circuit Breaker C Minimum Current Breaker D Maximum Current Breaker 17 What does the symbol marked ‘X’

indicate?

A Number of wires run on the limb B Number of switches to be connected C Number of battern (or) pipe to be fixed D Number of clamps (or) clips to be fixed 18 What is the minimum size of aluminum earth

continuity conductor used in single phase domestic wiring as per BIS?

A 3.5 Sq.mm B 3 Sq.mm C 2.5 Sq.mm D 1.5 Sq.mm 19 What is the name of wiring method?

A Joint box method B Looping back method C Loop in method using 3 plate ceiling rose D Loop in method using 2 plate ceiling rose 20 What is the expansion of ECC? A Earth Conductor Continuity B Earth Continuity Conductor C Earth Carrying Conductor D Earth Continuity Connection 21 What is the expansion of AWG? A American Wire Gauge B American Wire Grade C American Wire Group D American Wire Guard


22 What is the name of BIS symbol?

A Lamp B Two way switch C Intermediate switch D Multi - position switch 23 What is the formula to calculate voltage drop

of a A.C single phase wiring circuit? A Voltage drop = IR volt B Voltage drop = I2R volt C Voltage drop = I/R volt D Voltage drop=IR/2 volt 24 What is the maximum permissible load for a

power sub circuit as per I.E rules? A 800 Watt B 1500 Watt C 2000 Watt D 3000 Watt 25 What is the permissible leakage current in

domestic wiring installation? A 1/5 x Full load current B 1/50 x Full load current C 1/500 x Full load current D 1/5000 x Full load current 26 Which principle the earth resistance tester

works? A Self induction B Mutual induction C Fall of potential method D Fleming’s left hand rule


Questions: Level 2

1 What is the purpose of underwriter’s knot for pendent holder connection?

A Avoid loose connections B Increase mechanical strength C Prevent excessive cap cover pressure D Reduce the strain from the terminals of

accessories 2 What is the type of fuse?

A Knife edge cartridge fuse B High rupturing capacity fuse C Ferrule contact cartridge fuse D Diazed screw type cartridge fuse 3 Which type of load is protected by the L-

series MCB? A Motors B Geyser C Hand tools D Air conditioner 4 What is the advantage of concealed wiring? A Easy to maintain B Less voltage drop C High insulation resistance D Protection against moisture 5 What is the purpose of tin coating on copper

fuse wire? A Withstand high temperature B Increase the fusing factor C Prevent oxidation of copper wire D Increase the mechanical strength 6 Why tree system of wiring most suitable for

multistoryed building? A Easy load balancing B Constant voltage distribution C Offers minimum voltage drop D Easy in fault finding with many fuses 7 Which is used as a filler material for fixing

screw hole on ceiling? A Paper B Nylon C Cement D Poly vinyl chloride

8 Where the Iron Clad Double Pole (ICDP) main switch is used?

A Large industrial installations B Control main or branch circuits C Single phase domestic installations D Three phase power circuit installations 9 Which electrical accessory belongs to

general classification of accessories? A Fuse B Ceiling roses C Intermediate switch D Pendent lamp holder 10 Which is the application of DC series MCB? A AC motor B DC motor C Locomotives D Air conditioners 11 Which place the Tree system of wiring is

most suitable? A Godown wiring B Industrial wiring C Domestic wiring D Multi storied building 12 Which tool is used to bend conduits? A Hickey B Coupler C Pipe vice D Bench vice 13 What is the purpose of ELCB? A Detects the fault in circuit B Monitors the residual current C Protects the equipment from over load D Protects from short circuit fault 14 What is the purpose of the fuse cut out

provided at the incoming power supply? A To ensure the line is not over loaded B To maintain the stabilised supply voltage C To protect the circuit from the leakage

current D To protect the human beings from electric

shock 15 What is the use of die stock set? A Cut external threads on square pipe B Cut internal threads on cylindrical pipe C Cut external threads on cylindrical pipe D Cut internal threads on rectangular pipe


16 What is the purpose of the circuit diagram in wiring installation?

A To show the physical position of accessories B To estimate the various accessories in the

circuit C To inform the reader quickly what for the

circuit is designed D To show the schematic connection of the

circuit for a specific task 17 Why the looping-back (loop in) method is

preferred in domestic wiring installation? A Easy to identify the faults B No separate joints are used C More number of tappings can be taken D More number of sub-circuits can be made 18 Which type of wiring is illustrated in this

circuit diagram ?

A Staircase wiring B Godown wiring C Hostel wiring D Tunnel wiring 19 Which wiring method is illustrated ?

A CTS wiring B Cleat wiring C PVC conduit wiring D PVC casing and capping wiring 20 Which type of conduit used for gas tight

explosive installation? A Flexible conduits B Rigid steel conduits C Rigid non-metallic conduits D Flexible non-metallic conduits 21 What is the function of bimetallic strip in

MCB ? A Over load protection B Under voltage protection C Over voltage protection D Earth leakage protection

22 What protection offered by residual current circuit breaker?

A Protection from shock B Protection from over load C Protection from short circuit D Protection from open circuit 23 Which wiring is suitable for temporary

installations? A Cleat wiring B Concealed wiring C PVC conduit wiring D Metal conduit wiring 24 What is the application of the wiring circuit?

A Two lamps dim operation only B Two lamps controlled by one switch C Two lamps controlled by two switches D One lamp bright and two lamp dim operation 25 Which types of accessories are used to

operate a portable appliance? A Safety accessories B Holding accessories C Outlet accessories D Controlling accessories 26 Which insulation is necessary for proper

function and basic protection? A Double insulation B Functional insulation C Reinforced insulation D Supplementary insulation 27 Which type of accessories fuse comes

under? A Controlling accessories B Holding accessories C Safety accessories D Outlet accessories 28 Which type MCBs suitable for halogen

lamps? A ‘L’ series MCBs B ‘G’ series MCBs C ‘DC’ series MCBs D ‘L’ and ‘G’ series MCBs


29 What is the type of diagram?

A Wiring diagram B Circuit diagram C Installation plan D Layout diagram 30 Why A.C is required to measure the earth

resistance by using earth resistance tester? A Regulate the current B Increase the voltage drop C Decrease the voltage drop D Avoid electrolytic emf interference 31 Which type of test in domestic wiring

installation is illustrated ?

A Polarity test B Continuity (or) open circuit test C Insulation resistance test between

conductors D Insulation resistance test between

conductors and earth 32 Which instrument is used to test new

domestic wiring installation? A Multimeter B Megger C Shunt type ohmmeter D Series type ohmmeter 33 What is the type of test in the wiring

installation?

A Polarity test B Open circuit test C Insulation resistance test between

conductors D Insulation resistance test between

conductors and earth

34 Where system earthing is done? A Generating station B Electroplating installation C Small industrial installation D Domestic wiring installation 35 What is the test to be carried out by using

megger? A Polarity test B Insulation resistance test C Earth electrode resistance test D Earth conductor continuity test 36 Which wiring installation the System earthing

is to be done? A Substations B Godown wiring C Domestic wiring D Commercial wiring 37 Which method of earth resistance

measurement is illustrated?

A Fall of current B Fall of potential C Current dividing D Potential dividing 38 What is the function of current reverser in

earth resistance tester? A Converts A.C. into D.C B Reverses the polarity of D.C C Changes D.C. supply into A.C supply D Reverses the direction of rotation of the

generator 39 How the kettles, toasters and hotplates are

earthed ? A By using earth continuity conductor B By using earth plate with studs C By earthing with earth rod D By use of 3 pin plugs 40 Why the pointer is unstable at zero on the

scale as the megger is not in use? A It is not having controlling Torque B Provided with air friction damping C The deflecting torque is directly proportional

to the current D The deflecting torque is directly proportional

to the square of the current


41 Which is proportional for the deflection of ohmmeter needle in earth resistance tester?

A Current in current coil B Current in potential coil C Speed of the handle rotation D Ratio of the current in two coils 42 Why system earthing is different in utilization

than equipment earthing? A It protects human only B It protects from all circuit faults C It is associated with current carrying

conductors D It is connected to the non current carrying

metal work 43 Which electrical equipment ‘G’ series type

MCB’s are used? A Oven B Diesel generator set C General lighting D Air conditioners 44 What is the megger reading in a dead short

wiring installation? A 0 MΩ B 1 MΩ C 500 MΩ D Infinity 45 Where the ELCB must be connected in the

circuit ? A Before energy meter B After energy meter C At the entry of supply to load after energy

meter D At the tail end of the installation 46 What is the cause for leakage current flowing

in the circuit ? A Improper earthing B High earth loop impedence C Insulation failure D Low earth resistance


Questions : Level 3 1 What is the effect of low current rated cable

used to connect higher current load? A Voltage drop increases B Load current increases C Voltage drop decreases D Cable damage due to heat 2 Calculate the earth fault loop impedance, if

the ELCB tripping current is 30 mA? A 166 Ω B 1666 Ω C 16.66 Ω D 16666 Ω 3 How to control harmonic distortions in neutral

connections as per IE rule? A Earthing through impedance B Providing by plate earthing C Increasing conductor size D Providing parallel earthing 4 How the earth resistance can be reduced? A Providing double earthing B Reducing the pit depth for earthing C Increasing the length of the electrodes D Decreasing the length of the electrodes 5 How the earthing system can be improved to

more effective? A Increasing the length of electrode B Keeping wet condition in earth pits always C Adding more sand and charcoal in earth pits D Increasing the diameter of earth electrode 6 Which test is to be carried out if the bed lamp

is not glowing, but phase is coming to the light point if the switches 2 & 3 are switched ON?

A Continuity test between switch 1 and 2. B Continuity test between switch No.2 and

ceiling rose C Continuity test of the neutral conductor of the

lamp D Continuity test at the switch connections at

switch No.2 and 3 and half wire

7 Which protects efficiently from electrical hazard of shock and fire caused by over current, earth leakage, short circuit fault ?

A MCB B RCCB C (MCB + ELCB) Combination breaker D (ELCB + RCCB) Combination breaker 8 How the instantaneous tripping is executed

in MCB ? A Bimetal strip B Thermal relay C Solenoid D Overload coil 9 What happens, if only one cable is

connected from the four branch circuit to the neutral link?

A All lamps give more than normal brightness B Overloading of the phase cable C Saving of cable for the customer D Neutral conductor gets over heated 10 Which is the cause for electrican receives

severe shock while he touches the base part of the branch cable , even after switched OFF the ICDB main ?

A Unbalanced current in neutral B Leakage current in the circuit C Defective finger contact in the main switch D Phase and neutral interchange in IC DP 11 How the cables can be run in metal conduit

in the place of zig zag wall projection A Using standard solid bends B Using standard inspection bends C Using metal flexible conduit D Using offset bends 12 What is the maximum safe limit of earth

resistance value for a 3 KW, 240V geyser ? A 8 Ω B 12 Ω C 18 Ω D 24 Ω 13 How many numbers of sub circuit is required

for 200 numbers of 40W tube light load in an industry ?

A 6 B 8 C 10 D 12



14 How the neutral cable should be carried inside the PVC channel wiring?

A Neutral cables should be bottom and phase cable should be at top

B Neutral cables should be top and phase cable should be bottom

C Neutral and phase cable are laid in side by side

D Neutral and phase cables are laid with twistal 15 Which fault in wiring installation to be traced

only after isolating the live conductor and remaning all lamps in the circuit ?

A Short circuit fault B Earth fault C Open circuit fault D High - value series resistance fault 16 How to recfitity the fault in wiring installation

if polanity was found wrong through out the installation?

A Check for loose connection at the switch and lamp and reconnect

B Interchange the output interminals at ICDP switch

C Replace the reconnect earth contiunty conductor

D Provide higher rating fuse wir 17 What will happens to the value of earth

resistance if length of the earth pipe is increased?

A Remain same B Increases very high C Decreases D Slightly increases 18 What is the reason of lamp glowing dim and

motor running slow in a domestic wiring circuit?

A Open circuit in the neutral line B Short circuit between conductors C High value series resistance fault D Open circuit in the earth conductor

Module 4: Wiring Practice - Earthing - Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 D 1 D 40 A 1 D 2 B 2 B 41 D 2 B 3 B 3 B 42 C 3 A 4 C 4 D 43 D 4 A 5 B 5 C 44 A 5 B 6 D 6 D 45 C 6 C 7 B 7 B 46 C 7 C 8 C 8 C 8 C 9 D 9 B 9 A 10 C 10 C 10 C 11 B 11 D 11 C 12 B 12 A 12 A 13 C 13 B 13 C 14 C 14 A 14 B 15 C 15 C 15 B 16 B 16 D 16 B 17 A 17 B 17 C 18 C 18 A 18 C 19 B 19 B 20 B 20 B 21 A 21 A 22 C 22 A 23 A 23 A 24 D 24 D 25 D 25 C 26 C 26 B 27 C 28 B 29 A 30 D 31 A 32 B 33 D 34 A 35 B 36 A 37 B 38 C 39 D


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 5:Magnetism - AC Circuit, Power Factor Questions: Level 1 1 What is the unit of capacitance? A Mho B Henry C Farad D Coulomb 2 What is the unit of permeance? A Ampere - turns B Weber/Ampere turns C Ampere turns/Weber D Weber/Square metre 3 Which rule is applied to find the direction of

magnetic fields in a solenoid coil? A Cork screw rule B Right hand palm rule C Flemings left hand rule D Flemings right hand rule 4 What is the part marked as ‘X’ in B.H curve?

A Coercivity B Saturation point C Magnetizing force D Residual magnetism 5 What is the unit of Reluctance? A Weber / metre2 B Weber / metre C Ampere turns / Weber D Ampere turns / metre2 6 Which defines the flux density is always

lagging behind the magnetising force? A Hysteresis B Magnetic intensity C Magnetic induction D Residual magnetism 7 What is the S.I unit of Flux density? A Tesla B Weber C Weber/metre D Ampere-turns

8 What is the unit of Magneto Motive Force (MMF)?

A Ampere / M2 B Ampere - M C Ampere - turns D Ampere / turns 9 What is the unit of susceptance? A Mho B Ohm C Henry D Farad 10 Which formula is used to calculate 3 phase

Reactive power (Pr) if the line voltage is ‘VL’ and line current is ‘IL’?

A Pr = VL IL B Pr = 3 VL IL Cos θ C Pr = √3 VL IL Sin θ D Pr = √3 VL IL Cosθ 11 What is the formula for apparent Power (Pr)

in an single phase AC circuit? A Pr = VI B Pr = √2 VI C Pr = VI cos θ D Pr = VI sin θ 12 What is the phase displacement in a 3-phase

AC circuit? A 90° B 120° C 180° D 270° 13 What is the formula to calculate the

impedence (Z) of the R.L.C series circuit, if the inductive reactance (XL) is less than capacitve recatance (XC)?

A 2CX2LX2RZ ++=

B 2)CXL(X2RZ −+=

C 2)CX2L(X2RZ −+=

D 2)LXC(X2RZ −+=


14 What is the formula to calculate the line current (IL) of this single phase R - C parallel circuit?

A CΙRΙLΙ −=

B CΙRΙLΙ +=

C 2C

2RL Ι+Ι=Ι

D 2C

2RL Ι+Ι=Ι

15 What is the formula to calculate the three phase active power (P) if the line voltage (VL) and line current is IL and phase angle is ‘θ’?

A P = VL IL Sinθ B P = 3 VL IL Cosθ C P = √3 VL IL Sinθ D P = √3 VL IL Cosθ 16 What is the formula for form factor(Kf)?

A valueRMS

valueAveragefK =

B valueAverage

valueRMSfK =

C valueAverage

valueMaximumfK =

D valueMaximum

valueRMSfK =

17 Which electrical term is defined as the total opposition to current in AC parallel circuit?

A Resistance B Impedance C Admittance D Susceptance 18 What is the form factor (Kf) for sinusoidal

AC? A 1 B 1.11 C 2.22 D 4.44

19 What is the reciprocal of inductance in AC parallel circuit?

A Reactance B Admittance C Conductance D Susceptance 20 Which formula is used to calculate the

impedance (z) of a RLC series circuit?

A ( )2c x~Lx2RZ +=

B ( )c x~LxRZ +=

C ( )c x~Lx2RZ +=

D ( )2c x~Lx2RZ +=

21 Which is the correct expression of capacitance ‘C’ if the electric charge is ‘Q’ and the voltage is ‘V’?

A VQC=

B QVC=

C C = VQ

D VQC=


Questions: Level 2

1 What is the capacitance value of a capacitor that requires 0.5 coulomb to charge to 35 volt?

A 0.014 F B 0.025 F C 0.14 F D 0.25 F 2 Which is the diamagnetic substance? A Air B Steel C Water D Platinum 3 Which factor affects the polarity of the

electromagnet? A Length of the coil B Direction of current C Strength of current D Strength of the magnetic field 4 Which material is the paramagnetic

substance? A Cobalt B Copper C Bismuth D Graphite 5 What is the similar term in magnetic circuit

for “conductance” in electrical circuit? A Reluctivity B Permeance C Reluctance D Permeability 6 Which device the air capacitors are used? A TV tuner B Oscillator C Loudspeaker D Radio receiver 7 What indicates the shape of a BH curve

(Hysteresis loop) of material? A Reluctance of the material B Field intensity of the substance C Magnetic properties of the material D Pulling power of the magnetic material 8 Which electrical quantity is directly

proportional to the eddy current? A Voltage B Current C Frequency D Resistance

9 Which is the cause for changing the Permeability?

A Length B Flux density C Field intensity D Magneto motive force 10 Which type of capacitor is used for space

electronics? A Plastic film type B Ceramic disc type C Electrolytic-Aluminum type D Electrolytic-Tantalum type 11 What will be the change in value of

capacitance if the distance of the plates are decreased in the capacitor?

A Becomes zero B Remains same C Decreases D Increases 12 Which property of magnet is illustrated?

A Directive property B Induction property C Saturation property D Poles existing property 13 Which factor is determining the value of

capacitance in capacitor? A Area of the plates B Shape of the plates C Material of the plates D Thickness of the plates 14 Which type of capacitors are used in RF

coupling circuit? A Tantalum B Monolithic C Electrolytic D Metalized poly propylene 15 What is the main cause for below 0.5 lagging

power factor in 3 phase system? A Due to fluctuation of voltage B True power due to resistive load C Reactive power due to more inductive load D Reactive power due to more capacitive load


16 What is the current in neutral conductor in 3 phase unbalanced load in star connected system?

A No current will flow B The algebraic sum of current in 3 phases C The algebraic sum of current in 2 phases

only D Lesser than the lowest current in any one of

the phases 17 What will be the readings of two watt meters

(W1& W2) in 3 phase power measurement, if the power factor is zero?

A W1 & W2 both are positive reading B W1 is Positive and W2 is negative reading C W1 is equal to W2 but with opposite signs D Zero W1 is Positive reading, and W2 is

negative reading 18 What is the maximum value of voltage for

240 volt RMS? A 240V B 415V C 339.5V D 376.8V 19 What is the condition for resonance in RLC

series circuit? (Inductive reactance = ‘XL’, Capacitive reactance = ‘XC’)?

A XL > XC B XL < XC C XL = XC D XL > √2XC 20 What is the relation between the line voltage

(VL) and phase voltage (VP) in star connected system?

A PV3LV =

B PL V3V =

C 3/PVLV =

D /3PVLV =

21 What is the power factor in a 3 phase power measurement of two wattmeters showing equal readings?

A 0 B 1 C 0.5 D 0.8

22 What is the relation between the line current (IL) and phase current (IP) in delta connected system?

A IL = IP B IL = 3 IP C IL = √3 IP D IL = IP /√3 23 Which AC circuit contains the phase relation

between voltage (V) and current (I)?

A Pure resistive circuit B Resistance and inductance circuit C Resistance and capacitance circuit D Resistance, inductance and capacitance

circuit 24 Calculate the reactive power in a 3 phase

system, if the active power is 4 KW and the apparent power is 5 KVA ?

A 1 KVAR B 2 KVAR C 3 KVAR D 4 KVAR 25 What relationship is illustrated between the

current and voltage of AC ?

A Current and voltage are “in phase” B Current and voltage are in out of phase C Current lags behind the voltage D Current leads ahead of the voltage 26 Calculate the total power by two wattmeter

(W1 & W2) method, if one of the wattmeter (W2) reading is taken after reversing

A W1 x 2 B W1 only C W1 - W2 D W1 + W2


27 Which 3 phase system, the artificial neutral is required to measure the phase voltage?

A 3 wire star connected system B 3 phase 4 wire star connected system C 3 phase 3 wire delta connected system D 3 phase 4 wire delta connected system 28 What is the line voltage in 3 phase system if

the phase voltage is 240V? A 380 Volt B 400 Volt C 415 Volt D 440 Volt 29 Which quantity is rotating at a constant

angular velocity? A Scalar quantity B Vector quantity C Phasor quantity D Algebric quantity 30 What is the RMS value, if the maximum

value of a sine wave AC voltage is 10 V? A 1.414 V B 6.060 V C 7.070 V D 14.140 V 31 Which condition the current in the neutral

conductor of the 3 phase system will be zero?

A When the load in the red line and the blue

line are equal and the load in the yellow line is √3 times of load in the red line.

B When the load in all lines are balanced that is, the active power and power factor are same.

C When the load in the red line is 1/√3 times the load in the blue line.

D the red line is √3 times the load in the blue line.

32 Which AC circuit relation of voltage and current is illustrated?

A R & L in series B R & C in series C L only D C only 33 Which AC circuit relation of voltage and

current is illustrated ?

A R & L in series B R & C in series C C only D L only 34 Calculate the inductive reactance (X2) if the

current has an inductance of 4 Henry , if the frequency is 50Hz?

A 3142 ohm B 1256 ohm C 314.2 ohm D 125.6 ohm 35 Calculate the resistance of AC circuit, if the

impedence is 25 ohm and the P.F is 0.8? A 50 ohm B 25 ohm C 20 ohm D 31.24 ohm


Questions : Level 3

1 How the value of capacitance can be decreased?

A Increasing the plate area B Increasing the resistance of the plates C Increasing the distance between the plates D Using high dielectric constant material 2 What precaution to be taken before

connecting the different voltage rating capacitors in series?

A All the capacitors must be same manufacturer

B Each capacitors voltage drop must be less than its voltage rating

C Total capacitors value must be less than the lowest value of capacitor

D Break down voltage of each capacitor must be same

3 How can you increase the pulling strength of an electromagnet?

A Increase the field intensity B Reduce the current in the coil C Reduce the number of turns in the coil D Increase the B-H curve of the material 4 What will happen, if the polarized electrolytic

capacitor is reversely connected? A No effect on the capacitor B Explode due to excessive hea C Current is reduced in the circuit D Value of capacitance will be increased 5 What is the resistance of the inductive coil

takes 5A current across 240V, 50Hz supply at 0.8 power factor?

A 48 Ω B 42.5Ω C 38.4Ω D 26.6Ω 6 How the resonance frequency (fr) can be

increased in A.C series circuit? A Increasing the inductance value B Reducing the capacitance value C Increasing the capacitance value D Increasing the value of resistance

7 Calculate the apparent power in KVA of 3 phase 415V, 50 Hz, star system, if the line current (IL) is 16A at 0.8 power factor.

A 15.2 KVA B 11.5 KVA C 9.2 KVA D 5.3 KVA 8 Calculate the impedance of the circuit R = 5Ω, XL= 36Ω and XC = 24 Ω.

A 69 Ω B 65 Ω C 13 Ω D 12 Ω 9 Calculate the line current of the 3 phase

415V 50 Hz supply for the balanced load of 3000 watt at 0.8 power factor is connected in star.

A 8.5 A B 5.2 A C 4.5 A D 3.4 A 10 Calculate the power factor of coil having

resistance of 24Ω, draws the current of 5A, at 240V/ 50Hz AC supply.

A 0.8 B 0.6 C 0.5 D 0.8 11 Calculate the power factor of R.L.C circuit

having resistance (R) = 15Ω, resultant reactance (X) = 20Ω connected across 240V /50Hz AC supply?

A 0.5 B 0.6 C 0.7 D 0.8


12 Calculate the value admittance (Y) of the RLC parallel circuit connected across 240volts/50Hz AC supply and 8 Amp. Current is passed through it?

A 3.33 Mho B 0.33 Mho C 0.033 Mho D 0.003 Mho 13 How the low power factor (P.F) can be

improved in AC circuits? A By connecting resistors in series B By connecting capacitors in series C By connecting inductors in series D By connecting capacitors in parallel 14 Calculate the apparent power of a star

connected 3 phase load, if it is connected across 3 phase 415volt/50Hz supply at 0.8 p.f and the phase current is 10 Amps.

A 12.45 KVA B 57.50 KVA C 3.320 KVA D 7.188 KVA 15 What is the P.F if one of the wattmeters

reading is zero and the other reads total power in 2 wattmeter method of 3 phase power measurement?

A 0.5 B Zero C Unity D Below 0.5 16 How will you obtain positive reading in the

wattmeter reads negative reading during 3- phase two wattmeter method?

A By interchanging the connections of input terminals B By disconnecting the connection of current

coil in meter C By reversing the connection of pressure coil

in meter D By reversing the pressure coil and current

coil connection in meter 17 What is the power factor if one of the

wattmeter gives negative reading in two wattmeter method of 3 phase power measurement?

A 0 B 0.5 C Unity D Less than 0.5

18 What is the reason for the power input increases by three times if the connection of three phase loads change from star to delta at the same operating line voltage?

A The voltage across one phase of the load is three times higher in delta connection than in star connection.

B The power factor increases by 3 times in delta connection when compared to star connection.

C The line current is three times higher in delta connection than in star connection.

D The voltages in each pahse increases by two times and the current by √3 times.

19 What is the vector sum of the three voltages VAN + VBN + VCN in a star connected system?

A 240 x 3 V B √3 x 240 V C 0 V D 240 / √3 V 20 What is the reason for the main conductors (

L & N) of a single phase circuit are thrown away from each other under short circuit condition?

A Heavy short circuit current increases temperature of conductors and hence they move apart.

B Strong magnetic field due to heavy short circuit current pushes them away.

C Cables are flexible hence due to large short circuit current they move away.

D Larger current density due to heavy short circuit current pushes them away.

21 Which is identical in both star and delta connection in 3 phase system?

A Phase displacement between each phase B Equality between line & phase currents C Equality between line & phase voltage D Availability of neutral point



22 Calculate the power factor, if the active power is 1200 watt and the apparent power 1.6 KVA in AC circuit?

A 0.9 B 0.8 C 0.75 D 0.6 23 What is the effect of the electrolytic

capacitor, if open circuit fault occurs? A It will not function B It will burst at once C It will become leaky D It will function normally 24 What happens to the resonance frequency, if

the value of capacitance is increased in AC-RLC series circuit ?

A Remains same B Decreases C Increases D Becomes zero

Module 5: Magnetism - AC Circuit, Power Factor - Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 C 1 A 1 C 2 B 2 C 2 B 3 B 3 B 3 A 4 A 4 B 4 B 5 C 5 B 5 C 6 A 6 D 6 B 7 A 7 C 7 B 8 C 8 C 8 C 9 A 9 B 9 B 10 C 10 D 10 C 11 A 11 D 11 B 12 B 12 A 12 C 13 D 13 A 13 D 14 D 14 B 14 D 15 D 15 C 15 A 16 B 16 D 16 C 17 C 17 C 17 D 18 B 18 C 18 C 19 D 19 C 19 C 20 D 20 A 20 B 21 A 21 B 21 A 22 C 22 C 23 C 23 A 24 C 24 B 25 A 26 C 27 C 28 C 29 C 30 C 31 B 32 C 33 C 34 B 35 C


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 6: D.C. Generator Questions: Level 1 1 What is the name of the part marked ‘X’ in

DC generator?

A Armature core B Armature Slot C Commutator raiser D Commutator segment 2 What is the name of D.C generator?

A Differential long shunt compound B Differential short shunt compound C Cumulative long shunt compound D Cumulative short shunt compound 3 Which rule is used to find the direction of

induced emf in D.C generator? A Cork screw rule B Right hand palm rule C Fleming’s left hand rule D Fleming’s right hand rule 4 Which formula is used to calculate the

generated emf in D.C generator?

A Volt60ZNemf = Generated φ

B VoltPAx

60ZNemf = Generated φ

C VoltAPx

60ZNemf = Generated φ

D VoltAPx

X 60ZNemf = Generated

φ

5 What is the name of the part marked ‘X’ in DC generator?

A Pole tip B Pole coil C Pole core D Pole shoe 6 What is the name of the D.C generator?

A Shunt generator B Series generator C Compound generator D Separately excited generator 7 Which energy is converted into electrical

energy by generator? A Heat B Kinetic C Chemical D Mechanical 8 What is the name of D.C generator field coil?

A Short shunt compound generator B Long shunt compound generator C Differential compound generator D Cumulative compound generator 9 What is the principle of D.C generator? A Cork screw rule B Fleming’s left hand rule C Fleming’s right hand rule D Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction


10 What is the formula for dynamically induced emf?

A BLV volts B BL sinθ volts C BLV sinθ volts D BLV cosθ volts 11 Which rule is used to find direction of

magnetic field? A Cork screw rule B Right hand palm rule C Fleming’s left hand rule D Fleming’s right hand rule 12 What is the name of the part of DC

generator?

A End cover B Pole core C Pole shoes D Yoke (or) frame 13 How many parallel paths in duplex lap

winding of a 4 pole DC generator? A 4 B 6 C 8 D 12 14 Name the part of DC generator?

A Side end plates B Pole shoe lamination C Commutator segment D Armature core lamination


Questions: Level 2 1 How interpoles are connected in a DC

generator? A In series with armature B In parallel with armature C In series with shunt field D In parallel with shunt field 2 What is the necessity of residual magnetism

in a self excited DC generator? A Build up the voltage B Reduce the field current C Reduce armature current D Maintain constant output voltage 3 Which are the two points that the brush

contact resistance measured in D.C machines?

A Resistance between the opposite brushes B Resistance between brush and commutator

raiser C Resistance between brush and commutator D Resistance between brush and armature

conductors 4 Which voltage drop is indicated in the portion

marked as ‘X’?

A Full load voltage drop B Armature voltage drop C Armature reaction drop D Shunt field voltage drop 5 What is the name of the compound

generator, if the shunt field is connected in parallel with armature?

A Long shunt compound B Cumulative compound C Differential compound D Short shunt compound

6 Why the armature core of a DC generator is laminated?

A Reduce the copper loss B Reduce the friction loss C Reduce the hysteresis loss D Reduce the eddy current loss 7 Why armature resistance of a D.C generator

is very low? A Reduce armature current B Reduce armature voltage drop C Run armature with less weight D Reduce the temperature of armature 8 Why the D.C generator should run in

clockwise direction only? A Protect brushes from damage B Protect the residual magnetism C Avoid short circuit in armature D Avoid over loading of generator 9 Why compensating winding is provided in

large DC generators? A Connect more loads B Reduce commutation effect C Neutralize armature reaction effect D Increase the efficiency of generator 10 What is the reason for DC generator fails to

build up voltage? A Loose brush contract B Armature resistance is more C Field resistance is above critical resistance D Prime mover is running at above rated speed 11 What is the name of generator, if its field is

connected in parallel with armature? A Shunt generator B Series generator C Compound generator D Self excited generator 12 What is the purpose of pole shoe in DC

generator? A Reduce the air gap B Increase the field strength C Minimize the magnetic losses D Spread out flux uniformly in the air gap


13 What is the function of split rings in DC generator?

A Maintain constant voltage B Collects the current unidirectionally C Reduces the voltage drop at brushes D Increases the terminal voltage than rated 14 Which material is used to make brush in

generator? A Steel and graphite B Carbon and graphite C Covering the wound portion by dressing D Applying pressure over the injured portion 15 Why DC generators are loosing their residual

magnetism? A Heavy short circuit in load B Running without load continuous C Continuous running without break D Change of direction of rotation very often 16 How does the magnetic circuit complete

through the yoke and poles in a generator? A Field coils B Armature core C Laminated pole core D Winding conductors in armature 17 Why the terminal voltage decreases if load

increases in DC shunt generator? A Because of armature reaction effect B Due to increased in armature resistance C Because of brush voltage drop decreases D Due to increased in shunt field inductance 18 Which type of DC generator is used for long

distance distribution lines? A Shunt generator B Series generator C Differential compound generator D Cumulative compound generator 19 Which method is used to improve the

insulation resistance in DC generator? A Replacing the brushes frequently B Heating the machine by running periodically C Cleaning the commutator segments regularly D Blowing hot air in to the machine during

maintenance

20 Which type of D.C Generator works in absence of residual magnetism?

A Shunt generator B Series generator C Compound generator D Separately excited generator 21 Which type of D.C generator is used for arc

welding? A Shunt generator B Series generator C Differential compound generator D Cumulative compound generator 22 What is the property of wave winding in D.C

generator? A Low current low voltage B High current low voltage C Low current high voltage D High Current high voltage 23 What is the purpose of resistance wire used

in the commutator connection in D.C generator?

A Maintain constant voltage B Nullifying statically induced emf C Increasing statically induced emf D Smooth reversal of current direction 24 Why solid pole shoes are used in D.C

generator? A To reduce the copper loss B To increase the residual magnetism C To decrease the residual magnetism D To reduce the reluctance of magnetic path 25 Which metal is used to make large capacity

DC generator yoke? A Cast iron B Soft iron C Aluminium D Rolled Steel 26 What is the function of split rings in a D.C

generator? A Supplies output continuously B Makes output in the uni direction C Makes output in the opposite direction D Collects the output from alternate conductors


27 Which type of voltage is induced dynamically in a D.C generator?

A Pulsating voltage B Oscillating voltage C Alternating voltage D Direct current voltage 28 What is the purpose of slot marked as ‘X’?

X

A To fix the key way B To make air circulation C For lubrication purpose D For easy removal from shaft 29 What is the purpose of field coils in D.C

generator? A To increase the flux in air gap B To decrease the magnetizing current C To magnetize the poles for producing flux D To increase the reluctance of magnetic path 30 Which metal is used to make pole core of

large DC generator machines? A Soft iron B Cast iron C Cast steel D Stainless steel 31 Which type of DC generator is used for

electroplating process? A Shunt generator B Series generator C Differential compound generator D Cumulative compound generator 32 What is the cause for the Magnetic Neutral

Axis (MNA) is shifted from Geometrical Neutral Axis (GNA) in DC generator?

A Demagnetizing effect B Rough commutation C Cross magnetizing effects D Field critical resistance effect 33 Which is the reason for low value of

insulation resistance in DC generator? A Less critical resistance B Excess heat develops C Armature reaction D High speed


Questions: Level 3 1 What is the effect if the shunt field resistance

is above critical resistance value in a D.C generator?

A Output voltage is pulsating B Output voltage is above normal C Generator fails to build up voltage D Generator builds up voltage normally 2 What is the effect of armature reaction in DC

generator? A Output voltage increases B Output voltage decreases C Output voltage is pulsating D Output voltage will become zero 3 Calculate the emf genarated in a 4 pole DC

generator with simplex wave wound armature has 1020 conductors and driven at a speed of 1500 rpm, the flux / pole is 0.007 webers?

A 178 V B 243 V C 357 V D 428 V 4 How the effect of armature reaction

demagnetising effect can be neutralized in large DC generators?

A Using compensating winding B Providing additional inter poles C Increasing brush contact resistance D Adding resistance wires with winding 5 What is the effect in D.C generator, if it is

kept ideal for long time? A Field coil resistance increases B Armature resistance increases C Increase the armature reaction D Looses its residual magnetism 6 Calculate the induced emf of 4 pole dynamo

having 1000 rpm lap wound and total number of conductors is 600, the flux / pole is 0.064 wb?

A 160V B 320V C 480V D 640V

7 What is the effect on induced emf if the main field flux get distorted in DC generator?

A Induced EMF increases B Induced EMF decreases C No change in induced EMF D Induced EMF becomes zero 8 What is the cause for heavy sparking in

brushes of DC generator? A Short circuit in field winding B Short circuit in armature winding C MNA and GNA position changed D Too much spring tension as brush 9 What is the condition to induce an emf in a

conductor of DC generator? A Have constant magnetic flux and a stationary

conductor B Have pulsating magnetic flux and a moving

conductor C Have either conductor or magnetic flux

moving relatively D Have both conductor and magnetic flux

moving 10 Which factor determined the type of

generator? A The field excitation is provided B The armature windings is provided C The poles and pole shoes provided D The brushes are housed or brush holders

provided 11 What action is taking place in the

commutator of a DC generator? A Reversal of fluctuated AC voltage into DC B Reversal of induced DC voltage into AC C Reversal of induced DC current into AC D Reversal of induced AC current into DC 12 What is the field excitation voltage in

separately excited DC generator? A Same armature voltage only B Lower than terminal voltage only C That of higher than armature voltage drop D Less than generated voltage


13 What will be the output if sliprings are connected to the rotating armature conductor of DC generator?

A An alternating current B A direct current C A pulsating current D An oscillating current 14 Calculate be armature resistance, if a 4 pole

simplex lap wound DC generator has 48 conductor. The resistance of one conductor

is 0.1 Ohm? A 3.0 Ohm B 0.3 Ohm C 0.03 Ohm D 0.003 Ohm 15 When the brush voltage drop increases in

DC generator? A induced voltage increases B load current increases C induced voltage decreases D load current decreases 16 Calculate induced emf of 4 pole dynamo is

running at 1200 rpm lap wound and total number conductor 900, if the flux pole 0.064 wb?

A E = 1152 volts B E = 1280 volts C E = 640 volts D E = 160 volts 17 Calculate induced emf of 4 pole DC

generator is running at 1000 rpm, wave wound and total number conductor is 600. if the flux per pole 0.064?

A E = 1280 volts B E = 640 volts C E = 320 volts D E = 160 volts 18 What is the generated EMF, if the speed of

prime mover is doubled? A Holved B Doubled C Remain the same D Decreases slightly

19 What is the cause for a self - excited DC shunt generator fails to build up voltage?

A Loss of residual magnetism is the field cores B The generator is without load C The generator runs at higher speed them

rated D The generator runs at lower speed them

rated 20 What is the reason for not building up of

voltage in a separately excited DC generator?

A The generator run at higher speed than rated B The generator run at very low speed than

rated C A break in armature or field coil D The generator running without load 21 Calculate the generator emf of a shunt

generator delivers 30 A at 220V the resistance of the shunt field and armature is 110 ohm and 0.5A respectively?

A 256V B 246V C 236V D 156V 22 What is the remedy for the demagnetising

effect in a DC generator? A By reducing ampere turns in the field winding B By providing compensating winding parallel

to armature winding C By providing compensating winding in main

pole shoes D By providing compensating winding series to

shunt winding 23 What precaution to be observed while

shuting down one generator operating in parallel?

A Excitation is gradually reduced until there is no load in that generator

B Gradually increase the load until the other machine fully loaded

C Open the main switch and check Ammeter of other generator for load

D Gradually increase the field excitation of other generator



24 How to reduce sparking during commution in DC generator?

A By shifting brush position towards rotation of armature

B By using low resistance brushes C By using compensating winding D By using interpoles 25 What is the cause and remedy for excessive

heat observed in running of DC generator? A Poor alignment - Do the proper alignment B Loose path - Check and tighten them C Poor brush contact - File the ends of brushes D Machine short-circuited - Check coils

armature and rectify the fault 26 What is the cause for the DC generator fails

to build up voltage and its remedy? A Wrong direction of rotation - Reverse the

direction B Armature winding short circuited - Check

armature winding and correct C Dampness in winding - Dry the windings D Unbalanced armature - Check the shaft 27 What will be the cause for high noise while

DC generator in service and what is the remedy?

A Poor alignment - Do the proper alignment B Dry brushes - Replace the brushes C Poor brush contact - File the ends of brushes D Brushes not in proper position - Set the

brushes properly 28 How will you create completely lost residual

magnetism in a DC generator? A By ideally running the DC generator for few

minutes B By connecting shunt field across a battery for

few minutes C By connecting armature coil across battery

for few minutes D By connecting both shunt field and armature

coil across battery for few minutes 29 What is the cause for sparking at brushes of

a DC generator and state the remedies? A Speed too low - Check the winding coils and

armature B Wornout brushes - Replace the brushes C Weak field - Charge the field coil D Dampness in winding - Dry the windings

30 How the insulation resistance of armature winding of DC generator can be improved?

A By varnishing the winding B By increasing the number of terns C To clean the armature core with emery paper D By connecting compensating winding

Module 6: D.C. Generator - Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 C 1 A 1 C 2 A 2 A 2 B 3 D 3 C 3 C 4 C 4 C 4 A 5 D 5 D 5 D 6 D 6 D 6 D 7 D 7 B 7 B 8 D 8 B 8 C 9 D 9 C 9 C 10 C 10 C 10 A 11 D 11 A 11 D 12 D 12 D 12 D 13 C 13 B 13 A 14 D 14 B 14 B 15 D 15 B 16 B 16 A 17 A 17 A 18 D 18 B 19 D 19 A 20 D 20 C 21 C 21 C 22 C 22 C 23 D 23 A 24 D 24 D 25 D 25 A 26 B 26 A 27 C 27 B 28 A 28 B 29 C 29 B 30 C 30 A 31 A 32 C 33 B


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 7: D.C. Motor Questions: Level 1 1 Which instrument is used to measure

armature winding resistance? A Megger B Multimeter C Series type Ohm meter D Kelvin bridge 2 Which instrument is used to test armature

winding for short and open circuit? A Tong Tester B Internal Growler C External Growler D Digital multimeter 3 What is the name of the speed control

method of DC motor?

A Field diverter method B Field tapping method C Voltage control method D Armature diverter method 4 Which winding wire is used for DC field coil? A Super enamelled copper wire B Single silk covered copper wire C Double silk covered copper wire D PVC covered copper winding wire 5 Which formula is used to calculate the speed

of DC motor?

A φbE

N=

B bE

N φ=

C 120

.bEN

φ=

D 60

.bEN

φ=

6 Which rule determines the direction of rotation of armature in D.C motor?

A Right hand grip rule B Right hand palm rule C Fleming’s left hand rule D Fleming’s right hand rule 7 What is the name of D.C motor?

A D.C shunt motor B D.C series motor C D.C differential compound motor D D.C cumulative compound motor 8 Which rule determines the direction of

motion of the conductor in D.C motor? A Right hand grip rule B Right hand palm rule C Fleming’s left hand rule D Fleming’s right hand rule 9 What is the formula to calculate the current

taken by D.C shunt motor armature?

A aR

VaI =

B a

ba R

EI =

C a

ba R

EVI

−=

D a

ba R

EVI

+=

10 Which rule is applied to identify the direction of flux in DC motor?

A Cork’s screw rule B Right hand grip rule C Fleming’s left hand rule D Fleming’s right hand rule


11 Name the type of DC motor?

A Shunt motor B Series motor C Long shunt compound motor D Short shunt compound motor 12 What is the formula to calculate back EMF in

a DC motor?

A A60 φ

ZNP Eb =

B A60 φ Z

P N Eb =

C A60

P N Z φ Eb =

D P N Z

φ A 60 Eb =


Questions: Level 2 1 What is the purpose of series resistor

connected with holding coil in a D.C four point starter?

A Limit the current in holding coil B Increase the current in holding coil C Increase the voltage in holding coil D Decrease the voltage in holding coil 2 Which speed control method of D.C series

motor is used for electric train? A Field diverter method B Field tapping method C Armature diverter method D Supply voltage control method 3 Why shunt field coil is connected in series

with holding coil in D.C three point starter? A Increase the holding coil current B Decrease the holding coil current C Protect the shunt field from over current D Protect the motor in case of open in shunt

field 4 Why the direction of rotation is changed only

by changing the armature current direction in a D.C compound motor?

A Maintain rated speed B Maintain motor characteristics C Avoid armature reaction effect D Prevent motor from over loading 5 Which speed control methods offers below

normal speed in DC shunt motor? A Field control method B Voltage control method C Armature control method D Ward Leonard system of speed control 6 What is the necessity of starter for D.C

motor? A Regulate the field voltage B Reduce the armature current at starting C Control the armature reaction D Smooth operation of motors 7 Which type of D.C motor is used for

constant speed drives? A DC series motor B DC shunt motor C Differential long shunt compound motor D Differential short shunt compound motor

8 Which type of DC motor is used in elevators?

A DC series motor B DC shunt motor C DC differential compound motor D DC cumulative compound motor 9 Which method of speed control gives below

the rated speed in DC series motor? A Field diverter method B Tapped field method C Voltage control method D Armature diverter method 10 Why carbon composition brush requires in

the armature circuit to operate the D.C motor?

A Increases the starting torque B Protects from armature reaction C Protects armature from over loading D Reduces the spark in the commutator segment 11 Why series motor produce high torque and

high speed initially without load? A Absence of back emf B Load current flows through field winding C Armature current and field current are same D Series field winding wound with thick wire 12 Why the series field is short circuted at the

time of starting in differential compound motor?

A To reduce the starting current B To increase the speed of motor C To decrease the speed of motor D To maintain proper direction of rotation 13 Which material is used for starting

resistance of DC starters? A Eureka B Nichrome C Manganin D Constantine 14 Which DC compound motor is operated at

constant speed under varying load? A Differential long shunt B Cumulative long shunt C Differential short shunt D Cumulative short shunt


15 How No volt coil is connected in a three point starter with DC shunt motor?

A Directly connected to supply B Connected in series with armature C Connected in parallel with armature D Connected in series with shunt field 16 Which speed control method is applied to

obtain both below normal and above normal speed in DC motor?

A Field control method B Armature control method C Tapped field speed control D Ward Leonard speed control 17 Why commutators are sparking heavily? A Incorrect brush position B Incorrect field connection C Incorrect direction of rotation D Incorrect armature connection 18 What is the action of the induced emf in a

running D.C motor? A Assists the applied voltage B Opposes the applied voltage C Increases the armature current D Decreases the armature current 19 Which motor has this characteristics curve?

A Series motor B Shunt motor C Cumulative compound motor D Differential compound motor 20 Why the D.C series motor field winding is

wound with thick wire? A To regulate field voltage B To carry the load current C To keep maximum inductance D To reduce the armature reaction

21 Which type of speed control of D.C series motor?

A Field parallel method B Field diverter method C Field tapping method D Armature diverter method 22 Which type of D.C motor is suitable for

shearing machines? A Shunt motor B Series motor C Cumulative compound motor D Differential compound motor 23 Where D.C compound motors are

preferred? A Constant load requirements B Constant speed requirements C High starting torque requirements D Constant speed under varying load

requirements 24 Which type of DC motor is started with two

point starter? A DC shunt motor B DC long shunt compound motor C DC short shunt compound motor D DC series motor 25 Which type of instrument is used to test the

armature winding? A Megger B Growler C Multimeter D Ohmmeter 26 Why the holding coil of a 3 point starter is

connected in series with shunt field? A To limit the load current B To run motor at low voltages C To hold the handle plunger firmly D To protect the motor from high speed


27 What is the best method to change the DOR of a compound motor without change of its characteristics?

A Change armature current direction B Change shunt field current direction C Change series field current direction D Change the current in armature and shunt

field together 28 What is the purpose of NVC connected

across with the supply in 4 point starter? A No field release B Reduce the field current C To decrease the back EMF D No voltage release 29 Which type of DC motor is used for sudden

application of heavy loads? A Shunt motor B Series motor C Differential compound motors D Cumulative compound motors 30 Which speed control method is used in food

mixture motors? A Voltage control method B Field diverter control method C Armature diverter method D Series field tapping method 31 Which speed control system provides a

smooth variation of speed from zero to above normal?

A Field control B Armature control C Field diverter control D Ward-Leonard system control 32 What reduces the cross sectional area of

core material for VA rating? A Dynamo sheet B Low alloy sheet C High alloy sheet D Normal steel sheet 33 Which type of DC motor is used for motor

generate set? A Shunt motor B Series motor C Cumulative compound D Differential compound


Questions: Level 3 1 What is the effect, if a four point starter

resistance is cutoff during running? A Motor stopped B Runs at slow speed C Runs at very high speed D Runs at reverse direction 2 What is the effect in a D.C shunt motor, if its

supply terminals are interchanged? A Runs in slow speed B Runs in high speed C Runs in the same direction D Runs in the reverse direction 3 What is the speed, if field winding of a DC

shunt motor is in open circuit? A Stop running B Motor runs normally C Runs at slow speed D Runs in very high speed 4 What is the reason for reduction in speed of

a D.C shunt motor from no load to full load?

A Shunt field current increases B Shunt field current decreases C Armature voltage drop increases D Armature voltage drop decreases 5 What will happen to the speed of the DC

motor, if the voltage applied across armature is increaed by 5%?

A Increase about 5% B Decrease about 5% C Increase very little D No change 6 What precautions should be taken when

installing a DC motor for use? A Rating of switch fuse to match rating of

motor B Rating of starter to match rating of motor C Rating of cable to match rating of motor D All rating furnished above to match the

rating of motor

7 What will happen, during the normal operation of a DC series motor, the field winding is suddenly open circuited?

A Will not run B Run at high speed C Run at reduced speed D Not have any change in the speed 8 Why DC series motor is never started

without some load on it? A Because it developes infinite speed B Because losses in its are very high C Because it gives high sparking at brushes D Because it will not run 9 What will be the effect, in 4 point starter, if

the line voltage drops below the desire value in DC motor circuit?

A No effects will be noticed B The current in the holding coil decreases C The magnetic attraction of holding coil

decreased and the handle to off position D The magnetic attraction of holding coil

increased and the handle to off position 10 What action to the taken to rectify the defect

that the DC motor starter handle does not come to off position when power failure occurs?

A Replace the starting handle with new one B Replace the spring as per manufacture

specification C Replace the soft iron keeper with new one D Replace the over load relay 11 What is the reason, if the starter of a DC

motor is tripping often? A Sustained over load B Sustained under load C Sustained no load D Sustained intermittest load 12 What is the reason for failure to pick up

handle in ‘ON’ position in DC motor starter? A In correct ratting of over relay B Insufficient spring tension C Low voltage for no volt coil D Substained over load


13 What is the effect in speed, if the combined drop of voltage due to armature and series field resistances in cumulative compound motor?

20 What happens, if the angles of brush areincorrect position in DC motor?

A Selective commutation B Overheating of commutator


C Brush produce chattering voice D Heavy sparking 21 What will happen to the speed of DC shunt

motor if the field suddenly opens,and running at light load?

A Attain zero speed B Attain high speed C Attain low speed

A Increased drop in speed at load D Continued to run at normal speed B No drop in speed at load 22 What is the reason if DC motor stops after

running at short time? C Drop in speed is more than shunt motor at load A Excessive friction D Drop in speed is less than series motor at load B Incorrect angle of brushes

C Motor torque insufficient to drive load 14 What is the reason for vibration while DC motor running? D Insufficient air circulation around machine

23 What is the reason, if DC motor fail to start?

A Loose foundation bolts B Overload C Excessive friction A High supply voltage D Wiring alignment of pulley B Open circuit in starter 15 What is the reason for sparking at the

commutator of DC motor? C Brushes ahead of neutral plane D Wrong alignment of pulley

A In correct angle of brush 24 What is the reason for excessive noise is the bearing of DC motor? B In correct direction of rotation

C In correct size of grade of brushes A No grease D Insufficient brush spring pressure B Less grease 16 What is the cause for DC motor operates

but over heats? C Excess grease D Wrong grade of grease A Bent shaft 25 What is the reason for excess heating at

the new ball bearing of DC motor, even after proper greasing?

B Defective alignment C Worn out bearing D Loose internal parts 17 Why DC motor runs too slow under load? A Due to bent sheft A Weak field B Due to unbalanced armature B Excessive friction C Due to defective alignment C Line voltage too low D Due to wrong grade of grease D Motor torque insufficient to drive load

26 What is the effect, if a four point starter resistance is cutoff during starting? 18 Why a DC motor runs too fast under load?

A Short circuit in commutator segment A Motor will not start B Shorted or earthed winding B Runs at slow speed C Short circuit in field circuit C Runs at very high speed D Line voltage too high D Runs at reverse direction 19 Which is the cause for overheating fault in

field circuit of DC shunt motor? A Reverse of field terminals B Wrong position of brushes

C Short circuit between turns of field coil D Open in field coils

Module 7: D.C. Motor - Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 D 1 A 1 C 2 C 2 A 2 C 3 D 3 D 3 D 4 A 4 B 4 C 5 A 5 C 5 A 6 C 6 B 6 D 7 A 7 B 7 A 8 C 8 D 8 A 9 C 9 D 9 C 10 C 10 D 10 C 11 D 11 A 11 C 12 C 12 D 12 C 13 A 13 A 14 B 14 A 15 D 15 C 16 D 16 C 17 A 17 C 18 B 18 D 19 C 19 C 20 B 20 C 21 A 21 B 22 C 22 C 23 D 23 B 24 D 24 A 25 B 25 D 26 D 26 C 27 A 28 D 29 D 30 D 31 D 32 C 33 A


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 8 : Transformer Questions: Level 1 1 What is the relationship between primary

voltage (E1, V1) and secondary voltage (E2, V2) in a ideal transformer?

A E1 = V1 and E2 = V2 B E1 > V1 and E2 > V2 C E1 < V1 and E2 < V2 D E1 = V2 and E2 = V1 2 What is the name of the part in power

transformer?

A Breather B Tap charger C Explosion vent D Buchholz relay 3 What is the name of transformer?

A Air core transformer B Iron core transformer C Ring core transformer D Ferrite core transformer

4 What is the name of transformer?

A Auto transformer B Core type transformer C Shell type transformer D Audio frequency transformer 5 Which EMF is induced in an ideal

transformer? A Self induced emf B Mutual induced emf C Dynamically induced emf D Statically induced emf 6 What is (Im) represent in the vector diagram

of an ideal transformer?

A Load current ahead leads ahead V1 by 90° B Magnetising current in phase with V1 C No load current leads ahead V1 by 90° D Magnetising current lags behind V1 by 90° 7 How the transformer is rated? A KW B KVA C KWH D KVAR 8 Which factor relates to stepdown

transformer? A Secondary current is less than primary

current B Secondary turns are less than primary turns C Secondary power is less than primary power D Secondary winding wire is thinner than

primary wire


9 Which material the lamination core of transformer is made?

A Pure iron B Aluminium alloy C Copper alloy D Silicon steel 10 Which alloy material is used for laminated

core of modern transformer? A Steel - Copper alloy B Steel - Aluminium alloy C Steel - Silicon alloy D Steel - bismath alloy 11 What is the efficiency of modern power

transformer? A 80 to 85% B 85 to 90% C 90 to 95% D 95 to 99% 12 Which formula is used to calculate EMF

equation (E) of a transformer? A E = 4.44 f N / φm B E = 1.414 f N / φm C E = 4.44 f N φm D E = 1.414 f N φm 13 What is the name of 'K' in the formula

?K 1N2N

1V2V

==

A K = Power transformation ratio B K = Voltage transformation ratio C K = Current transformation ratio D K = Impedance transformation ratio 14 How many degrees displacement between

the induced voltage and applied voltage in a transformer?

A 45° B 90° C 120° D 180° 15 Which oil is filled in the transformer tank? A Vegetable oil B Crude oil C Mineral oil D Engine oil

16 What is the name of transformer?

A Distribution transformer B Power transformer C Auto transformer D Two winding transformer 17 What is the formula to calculate the voltage

(V2) of the Autotransformer?

A acNbcN

2V =

B bcN

acN2V =

C bcN

acNx 1V2V =

D acN

bcNx 1V2V =


Questions: Level 2 1 Which type of transformer is used for high

frequency application? A Ring core transformer B Ferrite core transformer C Silicon steel core transformer D Grain oriented core transformer 2 What is the function of conservator in

transformer? A Prevents the moisture entry B Transfers the heat to atmosphere C Allows to release internal pressure D Allows expansion of oil level due to load

variation 3 Which loss of transformer is determined by

short circuit test? A Copper loss B Windage loss C Hysteresis loss D Eddy current loss 4 What is the purpose of using laminated core

in transformer? A Reduce copper loss B Reduce hysteresis loss C Reduce mechanical loss D Reduce eddy current loss 5 What is the cooling method of transformer?

A Oil natural cooling B Oil natural air forced cooling C Oil forced air forced cooling D Oil natural water forced cooling 6 What is the condition for obtaining maximum

efficiency from transformer? A Copper loss > Iron loss B Copper loss < Iron loss C Copper loss = Iron loss D Copper loss =Eddy current loss

7 What is the function of top float switch of buchholz relay in transformer?

A Activate in moisture presence B Activate at overloading condition C Activate at open circuit condition D Activate at high temperature condition 8 Why the core of current transformer is having

low reactance and low core losses? A To minimise the burden B To maintain constant output C To prevent high static shield D To minimise the error in reading 9 Why the load is disconnected before the

OFF load tap changing operation? A To disconnect the tappings from neutral point B To disconnect the moving contact of the

diverter C To avoid heavy sparking at the contact

points D To provide an electrical isolation for the

windings 10 Which condition is absolutely essential for

parallel operation of two transformers? A Nature of load B Type of cooling C Phase sequence D Class of insulation used 11 Which transformer is used to measure high

voltage installations? A Pulse transformers B Ignition transformers C Potential transformers D Constant voltage transformers 12 Which power loss is assessed by open-

circuit test on transformer? A Hysteresis loss only B Eddy current loss only C Copper loss D Core loss 13 Which is determined by the crackle test of

transformer oil? A Acidity B Moisture C Viscosity D Dielectric strength


14 Which material is used to make core of power transformer?

A Soft iron B Rolled steel C Copper alloy D Cold rolled grain oriented 15 What is the purpose of providing explosion

vent in a power transformer? A Air releasing B Heat releasing C Pressure releasing D Moisture releasing 16 What is the function of buchholz relay in

power transformer? A Protection from high temperature B Protection from moisture entering in oil C Protection from pressure loading in tank D Protection from both overloading and short

circuit 17 Why primary of potential transformer is

wound with thin wire and large number of turns?

A To offer high inductance B To obtain required voltage ratio C To regulate the primary current D To stabilise input and output voltage 18 Why distribution transformers are normally

connected as primary in delta and secondary in star?

A To avoid over loading B To maintain constant voltage C To reduce transformer losses D To easy distribution of 3 phase 4 wire system 19 Which loss is occured due to the eddy

current and hysteresis effect? A Copper loss B Iron loss C Windage loss D Friction loss 20 How to determine copper loss in a

transformer? A Ratio test B Impulse test C Short circuit test D Open circuit test

21 Why ferrite core is used in radio receivers? A To reduce the constant losses B To reduce electric interference C To increase the quality of sound D To increase the efficiency of receivers 22 What is the advantage of stepped core

arrangement in larger transformers? A Minimizes copper use B Reduces hysteresis loss C Reduces eddy current loss D Reduces the space for core 23 Which material is used in breather to prevent

moisture entering in the transformer oil? A Silica gel B Sodium chloride C Ammonium chloride D Charcoal and salt mixture 24 What is the disadvantage of auto

transformer? A More losses B Heavier in weight C Poor voltage regulation D Cannot isolate the secondary winding 25 Which cooling method is used in pole

mounting distribution transformer? A Air natural B Oil natural air blast C Oil forced air forced D Oil natural air natural 26 What is the purpose of tap changing in

power transformers? A Maintain primary voltage constant B Change voltage ratio in distribution C Maintain secondary voltage constant D Load the transformer for maximum efficiency 27 Which method is employed for cooling

transformer?

A Oil Natural Air Forced B Oil Natural Air Natural C Oil Forced Air Forced D Oil Natural water Forced


28 Which is the condition for parallel operation of transformers?

A Same polarity between transformers B Same phase but different secondary voltage C Same vector grouping but permit impedence

highly different D Same voltage ratio, but percentage

impedence highly different 29 Which method of cooling adopted in power

transformers at Hydro power stations? A Oil Natural Air Natural B Oil Natural Air Forced C Oil Forced Air Forced D Oil Natural water Forced 30 What is the induced emf (E2) at secondary if

the transformer ratio (K) is 5? A E2 = 5 E1 B E2 = E1 C E2 = E1 - E2 D E2 = E1 /5



Questions: Level 3 1 Calculate the voltage regulation in

percentage of the transformer if the no load voltage is 240 volt and full load voltage is 220 volt?

A 7.20% B 8.30% C 8.71% D 9.09% 2 How the error in reading of a potential

transformer can be reduced? A Using thin laminated core B Providing long magnetic path C Using high flux density material D Providing good quality core material 3 Which construction technique is used to

reduce copper loss in larger transformers? A Use of laminated core B By reducing core thickness C By using grain oriented core D Use stepped core arrangement 4 How does the moisture is controlled in

breather fitted on power transformers? A Using silica gel B Using transformer oil C Using sodium chloride D Using ammonium jelly 5 Which vector group connection is

economical for 3 phase transformer used in higher capacity and low voltage system?

A Open delta B Star delta C Delta - star D Delta-Delta 6 Calculate the full load primary and secondary

current in a 100 KVA 2400 / 240 V, 50 Hz transformers has 300 turns in secondary winding?

A Ip = 4.17, Is = 41.7 B Ip = 41.7, Is = 417 C Ip = 417, Is = 4170 D Ip = 4170, Is = 41700

7 Calculate the primary voltage of current of a transformer with turns ratio of 30 to 1 supplying 25 A at 240 V?

A 0.72 KV, 0.0833 A B 72 KV, 0.833 A C 72 KV, 833 A D 720 KV, 83.3 A 8 Calculate the voltage regulation of a

transformer, if the full load voltage is 10.45KV and the no load voltage is n11000V?

A -5.26% B + 5.5% C + 5.26% D + 5 % 9 How a transformer reacts to the loading of

transformer?? A Keep secondary voltage constant B Keep primary voltage constant C Keep the core flux constant D Keep frequency constant 10 What will happen if the phase sequences of

two transformers are different in parallel operation?

A Pair of phases will be short circuited B Cause a circulating current between the

secondaries C Current carries by the two transformer not

proportional D One transformer working with high P.F and

the other with lower P.F 11 What will happen if two transformers of

different per unit impedance connected in parallel?

A Pair of phase will be short circuited B Cause a circulating current between

secondaries C Current carried between transformer not

proportional D One transformer work with high P.F and

other with low P.F 12 What is the cause for a transformer after a

major repairs the humming sound is too high?

A Too tight stacking of lamination core B Improper conductor size for windings C Poor quality of insulation D The stacking of core stampings are not

properly inter leveid


13 What happens, if the secondary of the CT become open circuited when in service? Produce very low flux in the core A

nd burn B Produce abnormal flux in the core aC Produce very low voltage D Produce very low current

Module 8 : Transformer - Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 A 1 B 1 D 2 D 2 D 2 D 3 A 3 A 3 D 4 B 4 D 4 A 5 B 5 A 5 D 6 D 6 C 6 B 7 B 7 B 7 B 8 B 8 D 8 C 9 D 9 C 9 C 10 C 10 C 10 A 11 D 11 C 11 D 12 C 12 D 12 D 13 B 13 B 13 B 14 D 14 D 15 C 15 C 16 C 16 D 17 D 17 A 18 D 19 B 20 C 21 A 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 D 26 B 27 B 28 A 29 D 30 A


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 9 : Measuring Instruments Questions: Level 1 1 What is the name of the scale?

A Linear scale B Coarse scale C Extended scale D Non-linear scale 2 What is the name of the shunt resistance

material?

A Copper B Eureka C Nichrome D Manganin 3 Which electrical effect that the single phase

energy meter works? A Heating effect B Induction effect C Chemical effect D Electrostatic effect 4 What is the name of meter?

A AC multirange ammeter B DC multirange voltmeter C AC and DC multirange ammeter D AC and DC multirange voltmeter 5 What is the unit of sensitivity in instruments? A Volt / ohm B Ohm / volt C Ohm metre D Ohm / metre

6 What is the name of the instrument?

A Absolute instrument B Indicating instrument C Recording instrument D Integrating instrument 7 Name the type of instrument.

X A Attraction type moving iron B Repulsion type moving iron C Permanent magnet moving coil D Dynamo meter type moving coil 8 Which is an absolute instrument? A Ammeter B Volt meter C Energy meter D Tangent galvanometer 9 Which quantity is measured by an

electrodynamo type instrument? A Power B Current C Voltage D Resistance 10 What is the type of the instrument?

A DC Voltmeter B DC Ammeter C DC/AC Voltmeter D DC/AC Ammeter


11 Which symbol on the dial indicates the instrument suitable for measurement of DC/AC current?

A

B

C

D 12 Which symbol indicates the measuring

instrument to the used in horizontal position only?

A

B

C

D 13 What is the limitation of percentage error of

an energy meter as per B.I.S? A Shall not exceed ± 3% B Shall not exceed ± 2% C Shall not exceed + 3% D Shall not exceed + 2%


Questions: Level 2 1 Which force is required to move the pointer

from zero position in an indicating instrument?

A Controlling force B Deflecting force C Air friction damping D Eddy current damping 2 Which is the position to use the instrument

provided with gravity control? A Any position B Vertical position C Inclined position D Horizontal position 3 Which instrument is used to measure one

ohm and below one ohm resistance value accurately?

A Megohm meter B Multimeter (analog) C Shunt type ohm meter D Series type ohm meter 4 What is the purpose of the 3rd terminal

provided in a advanced megohm meter (Megger) ?

A Get higher ohmic values B Pass the excess voltage to ground C Pass the excess current to ground D Get accurate readings without oscillation 5 What is the reason for the moving coil meter

having uniform scale? A Deflecting torque is directly proportional to

the current B Deflecting torque is inversely proportional to

the current C Deflecting torque is inversely proportional to

the square of the current D Deflecting torque is directly proportional to

the square of the current 6 What is the purpose of variable resistor

connected across shunt type ohm meter? A Avoid draining of battery B Minimize the error in reading C Adjust the current to safe value D Adjust the pointer to zero adjustment

7 Which material is used to make control spring in measuring instruments?

A Steel B Silver C Tinned copper D Phosphor bronze 8 Which is the position to use the instrument

provided with spring control? A Any position B Vertical position only C Inclined position only D Horizontal position only 9 Which instrument is an example of an

integrating instrument? A AC voltmeter B DC voltmeter C Energy meter D Tangent galvanometer 10 Why the scale of the moving iron instrument

is having un-uniform scale? A Deflecting force is directly proportional to the

Current B Deflecting force is inversely proportional to

the Current C Deflection of force is directly proportional to

the square of the Current D Deflection force is inversely proportional to

the square of the Current 11 Which type of wattmeter?

A Three element 4 wire wattmeter B Two element 3 phase wattmeter C Three element 3 phase wattmeter D Three phase two element with C.T & P.T 12 Which type of instrument is used with air

friction damping? A Moving coil instrument B Moving iron instrument C Induction type instrument D Dynamo meter type instrument


13 Which type of energy meter works with neutral connection?

A Three phase two element B Three phase three element C Single phase single element D Three phase two element with CT & PT 14 What is the type of frequency meter?

A Weston type B Ratio meter type C Electro dynamic type D Mechanical resonance type 15 Calculate the energy consumption in watt

second, if the meter constant is 7200 revolution/kwh ?

A 120 watt second B 1200 watt second C 2000 watt second D 7200 watt second 16 Why damping force is required in a moving

coil instrument? A Makes the needle movement faster B Helps the deflecting force to act fast C Brings the needle to its zero position D Arrests the needle without oscillations 17 What is the function of soft iron core in a

moving coil instrument? A Strengthens the deflection force B Controls the needle’s movement C Provides meter with maximum sensitivity D Provide uniform distribution of magnetic flux

in air gap 18 Which parameter is the cause for loading

effect on measuring instruments? A Low accuracy B High sensitivity C Low sensitivity D Low influence error

19 Which meter is used to measure revolution per minute of a motor?

A Tachometer B Energy meter C Ampere hour meter D Centre zero ammeter 20 How to identify the moving iron type

instrument? A No terminal marking B Terminal marked (+) only C One terminal coloured red D Terminal marked (+) and (-) 21 Which force produces movement of pointer

in an indicating instrument? A Damping force B Deflecting force C Repulsion force D Controlling force 22 What is the function of integrating

instrument? A Displays the quantity B Indicates the quantity C Registers the quantity D Measures the quantity 23 Which position an instrument using gravity

control reads accurately? A Any position B Vertical position C Inclined position D Horizontal position 24 What is the function of the part marked ‘X’?

A Upper stop point B Lower stop point C Pointer damping D Mechanical zero of pointer adjustment 25 What is the accuracy class of the precision

and laboratory measuring devices? A 0.1, 0.2 B 0.5, 0.6 C 1.0, 1.5 D 3.5, 4.5


26 What is the correct reading the position indicates?

A 68 B 34 C 17.5 D 17.0


Questions: Level 3 1 Which error is caused by the incorrect

position of instrument reading? A Device error B Human error C Influence error D Switching error 2 Which error if the energy meter disc rotating

continuously on no load? A Speed error B Phase error C Friction error D Creeping error 3 How the creeping error is controlled in

energy meter? A By reducing rated voltage B By increasing the inductive load C By adjusting the brake magnet position D By drilling two holes diametrically opposite

on disc 4 Which source of measuring error is caused

by the effect of magnetic fields? A Device error B Human error C Influence error D Switching error 5 Why two straight holes are provided in the

aluminium disc in energy meter? A To reduce the disc weight B For power factor correction C To prevent the flux leakage D To arrest the creeping error 6 How to achieve maximum accuracy in

measurement using analog instrument? A Keep low input impedance B Keep high input impedance C Use short connecting leads D Provide correct damping system 7 Calculate the value of shunt resistance

required to measure 10 mA with one mA meter having meter resistance of 27 ohm?

A 3 Ω B 30 Ω C 0.3 Ω D 300 Ω

8 What is the reading of the voltmeter?

A 5.5 V B 7.5 V C 15 V D 30 V 9 Which type of energy meter is installed in

houses? A An indicating type meter B A recording type meter C An integrating type meter D An indicating as well as recording type meter 10 Which position an instrument using gravity

control will read correctly? A At vertical position only B At horizontal position only C At an inclined position only D At any position 11 What is cause for P.M.M.C Ammeter the

pointer reads below zero scale ? A Instrument connected to forward polarity B Instrument connected to reverse polarity C Instrument is connected to A.C D Instrument is connected across supply 12 How the defect can be rectified in PMMC

meter that reads below zero scale while it is connected in DC ?

A By inter changing the connecting leads B By changing instrument of higher range C By adding series resistance with the

instrument D By providing shunt with the instrument 13 How a PMMC Ammeter may be converted

as a voltmeter to measure voltage of the circuit?

A The moving coil has to be connected with high resistance in series

B The moving coil has to be connected low resistance in series

C The moving coil has to be connected with high resistance in parallel

D The moving coil has to be connected low resistance in parallel


14 Calculate the value of multiplier resistance for a PMMC instrument has coil resistance of 100 Ohms, and its F.S.D current is 1 mA to be converted as a voltmeter to measure 10V?

18 What is the error in power measurement when pressure coil is connected on supply side of the single-phase wattmeter?

A Measure load power - power lost in current

coil


A 99 Ohms B 990 Ohms

B Measures load power + power lost in current coil

C 9900 Ohms D 99900 Ohms

C Measures load power + power lost in pressure coil

15 What happens in a PMMC instrument if the current exceeds in F.S.D current?

D Measures load power - power lost in pressure coil

A The meter will be hot B The meter will burn out

19 Calculate voltage of the main supply (Vm) if the CT ratio is 20:1 and PT ratio in 100:1., connected with wattmeter current coil rating 5A and pressure coil rating 110v across 400v supply?

C No changes in the meter D The meter will be hot, but will not burn 16 What happens, if the secondary of C.T is

kept opened, while the primary is connected to main supply?

A Vm = 1.1 KV A Burning of the transformer and danger to the operator B Vm = 11 KV

C Vm = 22 KV B Burning of the transformer but no danger to the operator D Vm = 33 KV

20 What is the type of the load if the P.F meter pointer indicates 0.8 leading power factors?

C Burning of the ammeter and no danger to the operator

A Pure capacitor D Transformer or ammeter will not burn but danger to the operator B High inductive and low capacitive reactance

C High resistance and low inductive reactance 17 What electrical quantity can be measured from the circuit?

D Low inductive reactance and high capacitive reactance

21 How many revolutions permitted if any creeping in energy meter between 80% and 100% of reference voltage as per BIS?

A Meter shall complete 3 revolution B Meter shall complete 2 revolution C Meter shall complete 1 revolution D Meter shall complete less than 1 revolution A Load current 22 What is the reason for continuous flashing of

display in digital multimeter while measuring voltage drop of resistor?

B Power factor C Energy D Power

A The battery on the instrument in weak B There is no battery in the instrument C The measured value is over range D The display is damaged

Module 9 : Measuring Instruments - Key paper

Questions: Level 1

Questions: Level 2 Question: Level 3

SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 D 1 B 1 A 2 D 2 B 2 D 3 B 3 C 3 D 4 B 4 D 4 C 5 B 5 A 5 D 6 A 6 D 6 B 7 A 7 D 7 A 8 D 8 A 8 B 9 A 9 D 9 C 10 C 10 C 10 A 11 C 11 B 11 B 12 B 12 B 12 A 13 B 13 C 13 A 14 D 14 C 15 C 15 B 16 D 16 A 17 D 17 D 18 C 18 B 19 A 19 B 20 A 20 D 21 B 21 D 22 C 22 C 23 B 24 D 25 A 26 D


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 10 : Illumination Questions: Level 1 1 What is the S.I unit of luminous intensity? A Lux B Lumen C Candela D Steradian 2 What is the working temperature of filament

lamp? A 1500°C B 1800°C C 2000°C D 2300°C 3 Which term refers that the flow of light into a

plane surface? A Lumen B Illuminance C Luminous flux D Luminous intensity 4 What is the term refers luminous flux given

by light source per unit solid angle? A Lumen B Candela C Illuminance D Luminous intensity 5 What is the unit of luminous flux? A Lux B Lumen C Candela D Lumen/m2 6 What is the unit of luminous efficiency? A Lux B Lumen C Lumen/m2 D Lumen/watt 7 What is the name of the reflector?

A Mirror type B Soft light type C Parabolic type D Dispersive type

8 What is the name of light?

A Spot light B Bulk light C Flood light D Flash light 9 What is the name of lamp?

A MAT type MV lamp B HP metal halide lamp C MB type HPMV lamp D MA type HPMV lamp 10 Which in the circuit symbol of solar cell?

A

B

C

D 11 Which is the efficiency of MB type H.P.M.V

lamp? A 25 lumnes/walts B 35 lumnes/walts C 50 lumnes/walts D 60 lumnes/walts 12 What is the rated service life of CFL? A 2500 - 12,000 hours B 4000 - 13,000 hours C 5000 - 14,000 hours D 6000 - 15,000 hours


13 How much power a solar cell under the influence of light rays will give out?

A About 100 mw / cm2 B About 90w / cm2 C About 80 mw / cm2 D About 70 mw / cm2


Questions: Level 2 1 Which material is coated in tungsten

electrode of a fluorescent tube lamp? A Silver oxide B Phosphor powder C Fluorescent powder D Barium and stroatium oxide 2 Which position MB type high pressure

mercury vapour lamps are operated? A Vertical B Inclined C Horizontal D Any position 3 What is the function of leak transformer in

high pressure sodium vapour lamp circuit? A Reduce the starting current B Reduce the working voltage C Increase the working voltage D Ignite the high voltage initially 4 What is the current carrying capacity of

flasher, if the current is 100 mA in each row?

A 50 mA B 100 mA C 200 mA D 300 mA 5 What is the purpose of ignitor in high

pressure sodium vapour lamp circuit? A Decreases the starting current B Increases the running voltage C Decreases the running current D Generates high voltage pulse at starting 6 Which type of light fitting design has free

from glare? A Semi direct type B Semi indirect type C Direct lighting type D Indirect lighting type

7 Why the outer tube of a high pressure metal halide lamp made of boro silicate glass?

A Increase the lighting effect B Withstand heavy temperature C Withstand atmospheric pressure D Reduce the ultra violet radiation from lamp 8 What is the main advantage of coiled coil

lamp? A High melting point B Higher light output C Low operating voltage D Low power consumption 9 Which device provides ignition voltage and

act as choke in a HPSV lamp? A Arc tube B Sodium vapour C Leak transformer D High pressure aluminium oxide 10 Which type of lighting system is used for

flood and industrial lighting? A Direct lighting B Indirect lighting C Semi-direct lighting D Semi-indirect lighting 11 Which is the cold cathode lamp? A Halogen lamp B Neon sign lamp C Fluorescent lamp D Mercury vapour lamp 12 What does the decorative lamp circuit

indicate?

A Moving light B Display light C Series lamp D Parallel lamp 13 Which is the forward voltage of single colour

LED which radiated ‘Red’ Colour? A 2.2 V B 2.1 V C 2.0 V D 1.8V



Questions: Level 3 1 How stroboscopic effect in industrial twin

tube light fitting is reduced? A Connecting capacitor parallel to supply B Connecting capacitor in series with supply C Connecting capacitor in series with one tube

light D Connecting two capacitors in series to each

tube light 2 How the rate of evaporation in a vacuum

bulb is reduced? A Filling inert gas B Producing arc in bulb C Reducing filament resistance D Increasing filament resistance 3 Which is the power rating of the 250V

filament lamp, whose hot resistance is 625 Ohms?

A 100 W B 60 W C 30 W D 10 W 4 Calculate the hot resistance value of the 12V

/12W, low voltage lamp? A 6 Ohms B 12 Ohms C 14.4 Ohms D 40 Ohms 5 Calculate number of lamps required in a row

of 9 volts lamps to be connected in series to the supply voltage of 230V? (Assume 5% for fluctuations in supply voltage)

A 26 lamps B 28 lamps C 30 lamps D 32 lamps 6 Why the switch connected with fluorescent

tube lamp should be put off immediately, while lamp is flickering?

A The choke coil or the starter may get damage

B Connecting R.F choke in series in the primary

C Due to voltage peaks other lamps might also be damaged

D The lamp gets fused

7 How the large current in the neon lamp can be limited?

A Connecting R.F choke in parallel in the primary

B Connecting R.F choke in series in the primary

C Connecting R.F choke in parallel with secondary

D Connecting fire man switch along in the main switch

Module 10 : Illumination - Key paper

Questions: Level 1

Questions: Level 2 Question: Level 3

SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 C 1 D 1 C 2 D 2 D 2 A 3 B 3 D 3 A 4 D 4 D 4 B 5 B 5 D 5 B 6 D 6 B 6 B 7 C 7 D 7 B 8 A 8 B 9 D 9 C 10 B 10 A 11 C 11 B 12 D 12 A 13 A 13 D


Electrician - Semester I - CITS - Module 11: Basic Electronics Questions: Level 1 1 Which resistor is used to measure light

intensity? A VDR B NTC C PTC D LDR 2 Which code indicates silicon semi conductor

diode? A OA 79 B BY 126 C IN 4007 D 2N 3055 3 What is the input ripple frequency (Fin) of full

wave rectifier? A Fin = ½ F B Fin = Fin C Fin = 2 Fin D Fin =√2Fin 4 Which is a active component? A Inductor B Resistor C Capacitor D Transistor 5 Which letter indicates the compound material

cadmium sulphide? A ‘A’ B ‘B’ C ‘C’ D ‘R’ 6 What is the name of the symbol?

A Two input OR gate B Two input AND gate C Two input NOR gate D Two input NAND gate 7 Which is a passive component? A Diac B Diode C Transistor D Capacitor

8 What is the name of the device symbol?

A SCR B IGBT C DIAC D TRIAC 9 How many characters are in hexadecimal

number system? A 6 B 8 C 12 D 16 10 Which electronic circuit generates A.C signal

without input? A Filter circuit B Rectifier circuit C Amplifier circuit D Oscillator circsuit 11 Which instrument provides a visual

representation of measured or tested quantities?

A Voltage stabilizer B Function generator C Cathode ray oscilloscope D Radio frequency generator 12 What is the name of amplifier?

A Common emitter amplifier B Class B push pull amplifier C Common collector amplifier D Class AB push pull amplifier


13 What is the formula to calculate the resonance frequency in an oscillator circuit?

A LC21Fr π

=

B LC2

1Frπ

=

C LC2

1Frπ

=

D π

=2LC

1Fr

14 What is the minimum voltage required in the base emitter junction to conduct a silicon transistor?

A 0.2 V - 0.3 V B 0.4 V - 0.5 V C 0.6 V - 0.7 V D 0.8 V - 0.9 V


Questions: Level 2 1 What is the minimum and maximum value of

resistor with four colour bands, red, violet, orange and gold respectively?

A 23750Ω - 26250Ω B 24700Ω - 27300Ω C 25650Ω - 28350Ω D 22400Ω - 33600Ω 2 What is the reason for barrier voltage is more

in silicon material? A Lower atomic number B Resistance is very low C Doping percentage is more D Valance electrons are two only 3 What is the reason for widened barrier in a

reverse biased diode? A Minority carriers in two materials are

neutralized B Electron in N material is drifted to positive

terminal C Holes in P material attracted to negative

terminal D Electrons and holes are attracted towards

supply terminals 4 What is the output voltage in the full wave

rectifier circuit?

A No output B Rated output C Half the rated output D Double the rated output 5 Which filter circuit is capable of removing

voltage spikes in the rectifier circuit? A LC filter B RC filter C Capacitor input filter D Series inductor filter 6 Which is the advanced version of power

electronic component used in the output stage in drives?

A FET B UJT C SCR D IGBT

7 How the decimal number can be converted into binary number?

A Divide decimal by 4 B Multiplying decimal by 4 C Dividing decimal by 2 D Multiplying decimal 2 8 What is the purpose of using binary coded

decimal (BCD) system in digital circuits? A Storing the data inputs B Control the binary system C Interface to binary system D Segregating the input parameters 9 Which logic gate refers this truth table?

A OR gate B NOT gate C AND gate D NOR gate 10 Which quantity can be measured by CRO? A Frequency B Inductance C Resistance D Power factor 11 Which is the main application of SCR? A Amplifier B Oscillators C Multi vibrators D Speed control of motors 12 What is the function of R1 variable resistor?

‘R ’ 1

A Controls the current in R2 B Protects from overload to TRIAC C Protects the RFI filter from overloading D Controls the pulse rate for triggering the

TRIAC


13 What is the purpose of connecting L1 through C1 to the transistor base?

A Provides DC supply B Provides positive feedback C Provides negative feedback D Provides transistor biasing voltage 14 What is the criteria to decide a material as

conductor, semi conductor and insulator? A Atomic bonding structure of atom B Existence of valance electrons in atom C Atomic weight of the atom of the material D Atomic number of the atom of the material 15 Which doping material is used to make P-

type semi conductor? A Boron B Arsenic C Antimony D Phosphorous 16 Which type of biasing is required to a NPN

transistor for amplification? A Base ground, emitter and collector positive B Base negative, emitter positive and collector

negative C Base positive, emitter negative and collector

positive D Base positive, emitter negative and collector

negative 17 What is the function of transistor in the

circuit?

A Switching B Oscillation C Modulation D Amplification

18 Why negative feedback is required in amplifier circuits?

A To reduce the distortion B To increase the amplification factor C To increase the output voltage gain D To increase the output current gain 19 What is the purpose of DIAC in power control

circuits? A As rectifier B For triggering C As an oscillator D For amplification 20 Which type of control device is used in

electronic fan regulator control circuits? A FET B UJT C DIAC D TRIAC 21 Which quadrant operation of SCR delivers

heavy current in reverse biasing? A First quadrant B Third quadrant C Fourth quadrant D Second quadrant 22 Which logic gate refers the truth table?

A AND B NOT C NOR D NAND 23 What is the use of time-base control switch

or knob in the CRO? A Select sweep speed B Select input voltage range C Select input signal voltage D Select intensity of the beam 24 Why a snubber circuit is used in the TRIAC

motor control circuit? A To avoid false triggering B To increase the life of TRIAC C To increase the motor torque D To maintain the motor speed constant


25 What is the output DC voltage in half wave rectifier, if the input AC voltage is 24 volt?

A 24 Volt B 12 Volt C 9.6 Volt D 10.8 Volt 26 Why most of semi conductor devices are

made by silicon compared to germanium? A High barrier voltage B High resistance range C High thermal conductivity D High current carrying capacity 27 What is the output voltage if the centre tap of

transformer is open circuited in a full wave rectifier circuit?

A Zero voltage B Full rated output C Half of the rated output D One fourth of rated output 28 Which oscillator provides high accurate

stable frequency? A Hartley oscillator B Colpitts oscillator C Quartz crystal oscillator D R.C phase shift oscillator 29 What is the characteristic property of base

material in a transistor? A Lightly doped and very thin B Heavily doped and very thin C Lightly doped and very larger D Heavily doped and very larger 30 What is the type of amplifier?

A Push Pull Amplifier B Common Base Amplifier C Emitter Follower Amplifier D Common Emitter Amplifier

31 Which resistor determines the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier?

A R1 B R2 C RL D Re 32 Why a feedback network is used in the

oscillator?

A To cancel noise distortion B To phase shift the signal by 60° C To phase shift the signal by 180° D To cancel second harmonic distortion 33 What is the main application of a Field Effect

Transistor (FET)? A Voltage control device B Current control device C Positive feedback device D Low input impedance device 34 What is the main function of unijunction

transistor (UJT)? A Relaxation oscillator B Broadcast transmitter C Loud speaker amplifier D Microphone input device 35 How the gate terminal of N channel JFET

biased? A Gates are reverse biased B Gates are forward biased C Gates are forward biased with drain D Gates are reverse biased with source


36 What is the total turn-on time (ton) while transistor makes a transition from V2 to V1?

A ton= tr - ts B ton= tr - td C ton= td + tr D ton= tr+ td+ ts 37 Which device is made up of using the

methods of point contact, grown, diffusion and alloy junctions?

A Inductor B Resistor C Capacitor D Transistor 38 Why the collector region is physically made

larger than emitter region in a transistor? A It has to dissipate more heat B Output taken from collector terminal C Base collector region is reverse biased D Collector region always operate with high

voltage 39 What is the function of a transistor if emitter

to base and collector to base are forward biased?

A Acts as an amplifier B Acts as an oscillator C Acts as an open circuit D Acts as a closed switch 40 What is the main advantage of a class A

amplifier? A Minimum distortion B Maximum current gain C Maximum voltage gain D Minimum signal to noise ratio losses 41 Which circuit is essential to maintain

oscillations or waves in an oscillator circuit? A Rectifier with filter B Voltage multiplier C Negative feed back D Positive feed back

42 What is the main application of unijunction transistor?

A Rectification B Amplification C Regulator circuits D Triggering circuits 43 Which device has very high input

impedance, low noise output, good linearity and low inter electrode capacity?

A NPN transistor B PNP transistor C Field effect transistor D Unijunction transistor 44 What is the difference in current control of

MOSFET compared to JFETs? A Insulating layer instead of junction B Using N material instead of P material C Using P material instead of N material D Using N material gate instead of P material 45 What is the type of amplifier circuit?

A Common base amplifier B Common emitter amplifier C Class B push pull amplifier D Common collector amplifier


Questions: Level 3 1 How the input impedance of CRO can be

increased? A By adding resistance to CRO probe B By adding resistance to trigger level circuit C By increasing time/base attenuator switch

position D By increasing volts/cm attenuator switch

position 2 What is the frequency of the displayed signal

on CRO screen covered by 5 division with a time base setting of 0.2 micro seconds?

A 1.0 KHz B 10.0 KHz C 100.0 KHz D 1000.0 KHz 3 Which defect will occur in the radio, if the

pulsations are not removed from the input of the rectifier?

A Improper tuning B No response C Humming sound D Works with low volume 4 How does the depletion region behave? A As resistor B As insulator C As conductor D As semi conductor 5 What is the power gain of CE amplifier with a

voltage gain of 66 and β (Beta) of the transistor is 100?

A 1.5 B 166 C 0.66 D 6600 6 What is the effect, if SCR is latched into

conduction and gate current is removed in DC?

A SCR gets cut off B Current through SCR OFF C Output voltage will be reduced D Gate looses control over conduction 7 What is the effect of pinch-off voltage in

JFET? A No depletion region exists B Drain current becomes zero C Reverse bias voltage becomes zero D Width of channel has maximum value

8 What happens to the bridge rectifier of the input and output connections are interchange φ?

A DC output will be very low B DC output reduces to half the rated value C All the diodes will get overheated D Causes to short circuit 9 What is the effect on conductivity in semi

conductor, if the temperature is varied? A Decreases with increasing temperature. B Increases with increasing temperature. C Does not change much with temperature. D Remains constant with temperature 10 Why the fuse is blown out while replacing

new diode in bridge rectifier? A Leads are not properly soldered B Leads are reversely connected C Higher voltage rating D Higher current rating. 11 What is the cause for the fault, if the output

voltage is dropped to half of its rated in bridge rectifier?

A One of the diode is opened B One of the diode is shorted C Secondary of transformer has burnt D Rectifier is overloaded 12 Which region in the common-emitter

transistor configuration will operate, if the emitter and collector junctions are reverse biased?

A Active region B Cut-off region C Saturation region D Break down region 13 What happens, if Germanium diode is

reverse biased? A Depletion layer widens B Depletion layer narrows down C Resistance between the terminals becomes

low D Easy flow of current through diode 14 Which region of CE configuration, if the

collector current increases rapidly while large collector voltage is applied?

A Active region B Cut-off region C Saturation region D Break down region


15 Which is the effect on SCR, if gate current is increased while it is forward - biased?

22 Which circuit, the transistor is used as a switch?

A


A SCR will be turned OFF B SCR gets damaged C The break over voltage is reduced D Small current flows through SCR

B

16 Which is the effect of leaky capacitor in bridge rectifier with capacitor filter?

A Increased ripple B Decreased ripple

C High output DC D No output voltage 17 Which defect should be checked before

checking if transformer secondary voltage is present, in defective power supply?

A Check for physical defect and rectify them B Check for defect transformer primary voltage C Check for filter capacitor defect D Check for defective diodes 18 What is the remedy if transformer primary

voltage is not present incase of defective power supply?

C

D 23 Calculate the value of current flowing

through the zener diode?

A Replace capacitor B Replace diodes C Repair / replace transformer D Repair / replace power cord 19 Which test should be done after checking for

filter capacitor short in a defective power supply?

A 5mA B Zero C 20 A A Check for physical defect D 12.5 ma B Check for voltage across tr primary winding

C Check for defective diodes 24 Calculate the load current flowing in the circuit? D Check for dry solder points

20 Calculate the over all power gain in a three stage amplifier, if the first stage give a gain of 50, the second stage 10 and the third 5?

A 65 B 2500

A 40 mA C 500 D 5000 B 100 mA 21 Which statement is correct by referring to

figure, 1A and 1B, lamp is either ON or OFF? C 60 mA D 30 mA

A Lamp (a) ON, Lamp (b) OFF

B Lamp (a) ON, Lamp (b) ON C Lamp (a) OFF, Lamp (b) OFF D Lamp (a) OFF, Lamp (b) ON

Module 11: Basic Electronics - Key paper


SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key SL.No Key 1 D 1 C 34 A 1 A 2 B 2 A 35 D 2 D 3 C 3 D 36 C 3 C 4 D 4 A 37 D 4 B 5 D 5 A 38 A 5 D 6 B 6 D 39 D 6 D 7 D 7 C 40 A 7 B 8 C 8 A 41 D 8 D 9 D 9 C 42 D 9 B 10 D 10 A 43 C 10 B 11 C 11 D 44 A 11 A 12 B 12 D 45 D 12 B 13 C 13 B 13 A 14 C 14 B 14 D

15 A 15 C 16 C 16 A 17 A 17 A 18 A 18 D 19 B 19 C 20 D 20 B 21 B 21 A 22 C 22 B 23 A 23 A 24 A 24 A 25 D 26 A 27 A 28 C 29 A 30 D 31 C 32 C 33 A


electrician - semester i - cits - module 1: safety practices · 2019-06-13 · electrician -...

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