dr. davis’s 1qqs physiology fall 2011

Dr. Davis’s 1QQs Physiology Fall 2011

1QQ # 1Name on top edge, back side of paperAnswer on blank side of paper.If the statement is true, mark it true.If false, replace the underlined word to make it a true statement.

1. For the negative feedback loop for thermoregulationa) The hypothalmus is an effectorb) Autonomic nerves are are efferent pathway to

sweat glandsc) Skeletal muscle tone would be increased as a

response to a drop in core body temperatured) Information about skin temperature is transmitted

through peripheral nerves which are an afferent pathway

e) Cutaneous arterioles would dilate in response to a drop in core body temperature.

1QQ # 3 8:30 Section1. Which of the following are true during the absorptive

phase? (Circle all correct responses.)a) Amino acids are taken up by muscle tissue.b) The liver converts glucose to a-ketoacids.c) Muscle cells polymerize glucose to glycogen.d) Excess amino acids are converted to triglycerides in

the liver in a multi-stop enzymatic processe) As plasma glucose levels rise, so does the secretion

of insulin.f) Adipose tissue converts excess glucose to

triglycerides.g) Almost all cells use glucose as metabolic fuel.

1 a b c d e f g

1QQ # 3 9:30 Section1. Which of the following are true during the absorptive

phase? (Circle all correct responses.)a) Amino acids are released by muscle tissue.b) The liver converts glucose to a-ketoacids.c) Muscle cells polymerize glucose to glycogen.d) Excess amino acids are converted to triglycerides in

the liver in a multi-stop enzymatic processe) As plasma glucose levels rise, secretion of insulin is

diminished.f) Triglycerides enter adipose tissue cells.g) Almost all cells use fatty acids as their main

metabolic fuel.

1 a b c d e f g

1QQ # 4 8:30 am1. What changes in hepatocyte metabolism are

produced by glucagon?2. A) What advise would you give to a person who

is a reactive hypoglycemic and B) provide the reasons for your advise.

3. Your patients plasma glucose level is 45 mg/dl. A) What hormone is responsible for her rapid heart rate, pale clammy skin, and irritability? B) Why does she have a headache?

1QQ # 4 9:30 am1. Explain in some detail how beta cells of the Islets of

Langerhans are affected by anticipating an excellent meal.

2. A) Describe a situation that would lead to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. B) How does sympathetic stimulation affect the secretion from beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans? C) Why is this beneficial for the person in terms of fuel supply?

3. After an overnight fast, a patient arrives for an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test. The first blood sample (even before ingestion of the Tru-Glu cola shows a plasma glucose concentration of 150 mg/dl. A) Do you have the patient drink the Tru-Glu? Why or why not? B) What might you do next to determine what is “wrong” with your patient?

1QQ # 5 for 8:30

1. Epinephrine is an amine hormone.2. If you don’t know which category a hormone belongs to,

the best guess is “peptide.”3. The thyroid hormones and steroid hormones have

intracellular receptors and affect gene expression and have long-lasting effects in their target cells.

4. All amine and peptide hormones are transported in the plasma in two forms: bound and free.

5. Thyroid hormones and steroid hormones are stored in vesicles and secreted later.

Each True/False Question counts 2 points. Answer all five.

1QQ # 5 for 9:30

1. Dopamine is an amine hormone.2. If you don’t know which category a hormone belongs to,

the best guess is “steroid.”3. The thyroid hormones and steroid hormones have cell-

surface receptors and usually have long-lasting effects in their target cells.

4. T3 and T4 and peptide hormones are transported in the plasma in two forms: bound and free.

5. Catecholamines and peptide hormones are stored in vesicles and secreted later.

Each True/False Question counts 2 points. Answer all five.

1QQ # 6 for 8:30

1. TSH stimulatesa) The thyroid gland to take up iodideb) the synthesis and secretion of thyroglobulinc) The uptake of thyroglobulin from the colloidd) Follicular cells of the thyroid gland to growe) The hypothalamus to secrete more TRH.

OR2. In response to a drop in blood pressurea) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete less reninb) Elevated levels of aldosterone stimulate thirstc) Newly-formed angiotensin I causes vasoconstrictiond) Elevated levels of aldosterone promote Na+ retention by the kidneyse) The liver produces more Angiotensin II.

Write the number of the one question you choose to answer.

1QQ # 6 for 9:30

1. TSH stimulatesa) The thyroid gland to take up iodideb) the synthesis and secretion of thyroglobulinc) The uptake of thyroglobulin from the colloidd) Its target cells to incorporate more Na+/K+ ATPase into their

membranese) The hypothalamus to secrete more TRH.

OR2. In response to a drop in blood pressurea) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete less reninb) Elevated levels of Angiotensinogen stimulates thirstc) Newly-formed angiotensin I causes vasoconstrictiond) Elevated levels of aldosterone promote Na+ retention by the kidneyse) The liver produces more Angiotensin II.


1QQ # for 8:30

1) Suppose the portal vessel that connects the median eminence to the adenohypophysis was completely occluded (blocked.) Which hypothalamic hormone(s) could not reach their target cells?a) ACTH b) CRH c) DA d) Prolactin e) TRH f) TSH g) FHS h) T3 i) GnRH j) ADH

OR2A Name the hormone normally secreted by hepatocytes.2B Name the hormone secreted by cells in the adenohypophysis that stimulates the secretion of the “liver” hormone.2C Suppose liver cells form a tumor that secretes the “liver” hormone in an unregulated manner. Assuming cells in the adenohypophysis are behaving normally, would the levels of the tropic hormone from the anterior pituitary be normal, high, or low?


1QQ # for 9:30

1) Suppose the portal vessel that connects the median eminence to the adenohypophysis was completely occluded (blocked.) Which hypothalamic hormone(s) could not reach their target cells?a) Oxytocin b) Prolactin c) DA d) CRH e) TRH f) TSH g) FHS h) T3 i) GnRH j) ADH

OR2 Cells in the anterior pituitary gland that secrete TSH a) have receptors for TRH in their cell membranesb) can sense the levels of T3 and T4 in the plasmac) will release more TSH as levels of TRH rised) Should release less TSH after a person has been treated with radioactive iodinee) Should release less TSH if a person is dosed with exogenous TH.


1QQ # 8 for 8:30

1) A woman presents with elevated plasma levels of ACTH and Cortisol. Which other symptoms are expected:a) Low levels of plasma fatty acidsb) Heightened resistance to infectionc) High blood pressured) Enlargement of facial bones and hands and feete) Random episodes of intense sweating with no apparent “trigger.”

1QQ # 8 for 9:30

1) During a visit with her physician, a woman complains of random episodes of intense sweating with no apparent “trigger,” high susceptibility to infection, and very irregular menstrual cycles. She has elevated blood pressure ( 140/90) and elevated levels of fatty acids in her plasma. You realize these symptoms are characteristic of a) menopauseb) acromegalyc) Primary adrenal insufficiencyd) Hypercortisolemiae) Primary hypothyroidism.

1QQ # 9 for 8:30 class1. A) List the four categories of glia cells of the

central nervous system and B) state which category you would choose to eliminate from your CNS if you were forced to do so, being sure to C) give your reasons for your selection.

2. A) Describe the location and purpose of a growth cone and B) how axonal transport is associated with growth cones.

1QQ # 9 for 9:30 class1. A) List the four categories of glia cells of the

central nervous system and B) state which category you would choose to eliminate from your CNS if you were forced to do so, being sure to C) give your reasons for your selection.

2. A) Describe the location and purpose of a growth cone and B) how axonal transport is associated with growth cones.

1QQ # 10 for 8:30 class1. At resting membrane potential

a) The concentration gradient favors the entry of Na+b) The electrostatic driving force favors the entry of Na+c) The concentration gradient favors the exit of K+d) The electrostatic driving force favors the exit of K+e) The membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+.

2. Suppose you have a cell with the normal concentrations of Na+ and K+ on either side of the membrane, and you were able to make the membrane absolutely and completely impermeable to Na+. A) What would the membrane potential be? (include the units.)B) What equation would you use to calculate the membrane potential?

1QQ # 10 for 9:30 class1. At the equilibrium potential for Na+

a) The concentration gradient favors the entry of Na+b) The electrostatic driving force favors the entry of Na+c) The concentration gradient favors the exit of K+d) The electrostatic driving force favors the exit of K+e) The membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+.

2. Suppose you have a cell with the normal concentrations of Na+ and K+ on either side of the membrane, and you were able to make the membrane absolutely and completely impermeable to K+. A) What would the membrane potential be. (include the units.)B) What equation would you use to calculate the membrane potential?

1QQ # 11 for 8:30 class1. Why doesn’t an action potential reach + 60 mV?

a) Voltage- gated Na+ channels open and spontaneously close quicklyb) Voltage-gated K+ channels open a little later than the Na+ channelsc) Na+ K+ ATPase quickly pumps out the Na+ that enters during an APd) As the membrane approaches +60 mV, the driving force for Na+ entry is

weakere) Na+ is not the only permeable ion.

2. Which are the accurate statements regarding V-gated K+ channels?a) The more the membrane is depolarized, the more K+ channels will

open, and the membrane will depolarize even more, generating a positive feedback cycle.

b) These channels inactive after a short open time and can only reopen if the membrane potential returns to negative values.

c) These channels are “blocked” by lidocaine, xylocaine, and novocaine.d) These channels close as the membrane repolarizes.

1QQ # 11 for 9:30 class1. Why doesn’t an action potential reach + 60 mV?

a) Voltage- gated Na+ channels would be forced “shut” at + 60 mVb) Voltage-gated K+ channels open a little sooner than the Na+ channels.c) Na+ K+ ATPase quickly pumps out the Na+ that enters during an APd) As the membrane approaches +60 mV, the driving force for Na+ entry is

weakere) Na+ channels open only briefly and then quickly inactivate.

2. Which are the accurate statements regarding V-gated K+ channels?a) The more the membrane is depolarized, the more K+ channels will

open, and K+ will leave the cell, contributing to repolarization.b) These channels inactive after a short open time and can only reopen if

the membrane potential returns to negative values.c) These channels are “blocked” by lidocaine, xylocaine, and novocaine.d) These channels open shortly after the V-gated Na+ channels open.

1QQ # 12 for 8:30 class1. Which could cause a larger response in a post-synaptic cell?

a) Keep V-gated Ca++ channels open longer in the presynaptic cellb) Very high frequency of action potentials in the presynpatic cellc) Block the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synpatic cleftd) Enhance the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft into

the presynaptic cell or astrocytese) Block the action of enzymes in the synpatic cleft that degrade

neurotransmitters.

2. Which are CORRECT concerning chemical synapses?a) Chemical synapses are bi-directional.b) Chemical synapses are ideally suited to synchronize the activity of many

cells.c) Chemical synapses are far more common than electrical synapses in the

CNS of humans.d) Chemical synapses depend upon the influx of Ca++ to release

neurotransmitters.e) At a chemical synapse, the response of the post-synaptic cell is

invariable.

1QQ # 12 for 9:30 class1. Which could cause a smaller response in a post-synaptic cell?

a) Keep V-gated Ca++ channels open longer in the presynaptic cellb) Very high frequency of action potentials in the presynapatic cellc) Increase the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synapatic cleftd) Enhance the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft into

the presynaptic cell or astrocytese) Block the action of enzymes in the synapatic cleft that degrade

neurotransmitters.

2. Which are CORRECT concerning chemical synapses?a) Chemical synapses are unidirectional.b) Chemical synapses are ideally suited to synchronize the activity of many

cells.c) Chemical synapses are far less common than electrical synapses in the

CNS of humans.d) Chemical synapses depend upon the influx of Ca++ to release

neurotransmitters.e) At a chemical synapse, the response of the post-synaptic cell is

invariable.

1QQ # 13 for 8:30 class

1. Which will activate muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?a) acetylcholineb) nicotinec) muscarined) curaree) atropine.

2. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptorsa) Are metabotropic receptors.b) Can be activated with nicotine.c) Can be activated with acetylcholine.d) Can be blocked with muscarine.e) Can be activated with atropine.

1QQ # 14 for 8:30 class1. Pain and temperature information

a) Is carried in the spinothalamic tractb) Is carried in the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tractc) Crosses (decussates) in the spinal cordd) Is relayed to the somatosensory cortex via 3rd order neurons in the

thalamuse) Is carried in the anterolateral tract.

2. Which are true of touch and proprioception pathways?a) Second order neurons are located in the dorsal column nucleib) Axons of first order neurons travel in the spinothalamic tractc) Axons of first order neurons decussate (cross the midline) in the spinal

cordd) Axons of second order neurons travel in the medial lemniscus.e) Axons of first order neurons ascend in the dorsal columns and synapse

onto second order neurons in the dorsal column nuclei.


1. Which will block muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?a) acetylcholineb) nicotinec) muscarined) curaree) atropine.

2. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptorsa) Are metabotropic receptorsb) Can be activated with nicotinec) Can be activated with acetylcholined) Can be blocked with muscarinee) Can be activated with atropine.

1QQ # 14 for 9:30 class1. Pain and temperature information

a) Is carried in the anterolateral tractb) Is carried in the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tractc) Crosses (decussates) in the medullad) Is relayed to the somatosensory cortex via 3rd order neurons in the

thalamuse) Is carried in the spinothalamic tract.

2. Which are true of touch and proprioception pathways?a) First order neurons are located in the dorsal column nucleib) Axons of first order neurons travel in the spinothalamic tractc) Axons of first order neurons decussate (cross the midline) in the spinal

cordd) Axons of second order neurons travel in the medial lemniscus.e) Axons of first order neurons ascend in the dorsal columns and synapse

onto second order neurons in the dorsal column nuclei.


1. Why would you insist that an epidural injection of lidocaine not be given in the region of cervical vertebra?

2. Describe the challenges that face neuroscientists who wish to replace dying or damaged neurons in the brain with cells donated from elsewhere.

3. You suspect that the neurons in Nucleus X are communicating with their target cells by releasing NE as their neurotransmitter. Describe an experiment that would allow you to test your hypothesis.

4. Use your knowledge of cortical neuroanatomy to explain why stroke victims very often have deficits involving the face and hands.


1. Describe the challenges that face neuroscientists who wish to replace dying or damaged neurons in the brain with cells donated from elsewhere.

2. You suspect that the neurons in Nucleus Z are communicating with their target cells by releasing ACh as their neurotransmitter. Describe an experiment that would allow you to test your hypothesis.

3. Use your knowledge of cortical neuroanatomy to explain why stroke victims very often have deficits involving the face and hands.


1. Which of the following are correct statements:a) Most sympathetic postganglionic axons release NE.b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.c) the urinary bladder will relax if exposed to ACh.d) axons of parasympathetic neurons are found in thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves.e) NE and EPI can cause contraction of arterioles.

2. Which of the following are correct statements:a) Most sympathetic preganglionic axons release NE.b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.c) intestinal motility and secretion will increase as parasympathetic activity increases. d) The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the rectum and urinary bladder.e) Smooth muscles of arterioles have adrenergic and mucarinic receptors.

1QQ # 16 for 9:30 class1. Which of the following are correct statements:

a) Sympathetic preganglionic axons use NE as their neurotransmitter.b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.c) the urinary bladder will contract if exposed to NE.d) Some cranial nerves have preganglionic sympathetic axons.e) Smooth muscles and glands typically have adrenergic and muscarinic receptors.

2. Which of the following are correct statements:a) Most sympathetic preganglionic axons release NE.b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.c) intestinal motility and secretion will increase as parasympathetic activity increases. d) The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the rectum and urinary bladder.e) Smooth muscles of arterioles have adrenergic and mucarinic receptors.


a) The intensity of a stimulus is proportional to the size of the graded potential in the receptive membrane.b) The modality of a stimulus is encoded by which type or types of sensory receptors are activated.c) The intensity of a stimulus is encoded by the frequency of action potentials.d) Some ascending spinal neurons receive synaptic inputs from more than one part of the body.e) Each taste receptor cell has at least two different categories of tastant receptor proteins.

2. What is the meaning of labeled line in the context of sensory physiology?


a) The intensity of a stimulus is proportional to the size of the generator potential.b) The modality of a stimulus is encoded by which type or types of sensory receptors are activated.c) The intensity of a stimulus is encoded by the frequency of graded potentials.d) Some ascending spinal neurons receive synaptic inputs from skin and internal organs.e) Each hair receptor cell has mechanically-gated and voltage-gated ion channels.

2. What is the meaning of the term “adequate stimulus” and what is the adequate stimulus for a taste receptor cell?

Stimulus

1. If the stimulus is applied at the black bar, which sensory neuron will have the highest frequency of action potentials and why?

2. If the stimulus is applied at the black bar, which sensory neuron will have the lowest frequency of action potentials and why?

3. What happens at the region of the membrane indicated by the arrow?

Four first-order sensory neurons with receptive membranes at bottom.

1QQ # 18 for 8:30 amA DB C

Stimulus

1QQ # 18 for 9:30 am

Consider the four second-order sensory neurons (A- D) across the top of the diagram.Assume there are interneurons arranged in a typical pattern that interconnects these neurons.

1. If the stimulus is applied at the black bar, which 2nd order neuron will have the highest frequency of action potentials and why?

2. If the stimulus is applied at the black bar, which 2nd order neuron will have the lowest frequency of action potentials and why?

A B C D

1QQ # 19

Write a question that you were prepared to answer today and provide the answer to that question.

A more challenging/sophisticated/thought-provoking question with its correct answer earns more points than a simple memorization-type question.

1QQ # 20 for 8:30 section

1. Which are characteristics of Slow-Oxidative myofibers?a) Abundant capillaries nearbyb) ATP is hydrolyzed relatively quicklyc) Abundant glycogend) Abundant myoglobine) Belong to large motor units.

2. Name the three classes of skeletal myofibers and indicate which type isbest suited to serve as a postural muscle and why.

Answer one question.


1. Which are characteristics of glycolytic myofibers?a) Abundant capillaries nearbyb) ATP is hydrolyzed relatively quicklyc) Abundant glycogend) Abundant myoglobine) Belong to large motor units.

2. Would a marathon runner benefit from supplementing with creatine? Why or why not?



1. Which are characteristics of cardiac myofibers?a) Ca++ for excitation-contraction coupling originates from

intracellular and extracellular sourcesb) Cardiac myofibers have a twitch duration longer than smooth myofibers.c) Produce action potentials that allow the influx of Ca++ for more than 100 ms.d) Conduct action potentials to neighboring cells via

gap junctions of intercalated diskse) Produce tension in proportion to the amount of cytosolic Ca++.

2. What type of myofiber can enter a latch state and what are the advantagesof the latch state?



1. Which are characteristics of multi-unit smooth myofibers?a) Each myofiber is individually innervated by autonomic neuronsb) Can be excited or inhibited by somatic motoneuronsc) Often have pacemaker potentials that result in periodic contractionsd) Are found in the walls of small-diameter blood vesselse) Belong to large motor units.

2. Which properties of smooth muscle cells make them much better suited for their role in the walls of hollow organs than skeletal myofibers?


1QQ 27 for 8:30

• Beginning with a loss of 1 liter of blood, diagram the sequence of events that leads to a change in the frequency of action potentials in baroreceptors. (No abbreviations allowed.)

1QQ 27 for 9:30

• Beginning with a loss of 1 liter of blood, diagram the sequence of events that leads to a change in the frequency of action potentials in baroreceptors. (No abbreviations allowed.)

1QQ 28 for 8:30

1. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level? What about in the alveolus? What are these values not identical?

2. Which has the highest partial pressure of oxgyen and why: pulmonary arterial blood, pulmonary venous blood, system arterial blood?

3. How are bronchioles and arterioles similar?

1QQ 28 for 9:30

1. Inspiration is an “active” event whereas a normal expiration is a “passive” event. What does this mean in terms of muscle activity, and what is responsible for expiration if muscles aren’t contracting?

2. How would you calculate the partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere at the summit of Mt. Everest?

3. How are arterioles and bronchioles similar?

1QQ 29 for 8:30

1. For a given bronchopulmonary segment, by what mechanism is blood flow (Q) matched to air flow (V)?

2. What is the location and function of goblet cells?

1QQ 29 for 9:30

1. Describe how a person’s ventilation would be affected if he had a severely reduced amount of cartilage in the wall of his airways.

2. Suppose a region of the lung has very little air flow (V). How is blood flow (Q) affected to that region, and by what mechanism is this accomplished?

3. What is a treatment for obstructive sleep apnea?

1QQ 30 for 8:30

1. What would alveolar minute ventilation be in a person who is breathing 10 breaths per minute and has a typical tidal volume and typical dead space volume? Show your work.

2. Suppose a 25 year old man were unable to produce sufficient levels of surfactant. Would he have difficulty inhaling? Exhaling? Why or why not?

1QQ 30 for 9:30

1. What would alveolar minute ventilation be in a person who is breathing 20 breaths per minute and has a typical tidal volume and typical dead space volume? Show your work.

2. Why do prematurely born infants have difficulty inhaling but not exhaling?

1QQ 31 for 8:301. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the

tissues surrounding systemic capillaries and list three conditions lower the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen as it passes through these systemic capillaries.

2. At what arterial partial pressure of oxygen does ventilation steeply increase in response to further drops in PO2. Why is this so?

3. Why aren’t the central chemoreceptors stimulated by lactic acid when metabolism increases?

1QQ 31 for 9:30

1. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the tissues surrounding systemic capillaries and list three conditions lower the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen as it passes through these systemic capillaries.

2. At what arterial partial pressure of oxygen does ventilation steeply increase in response to further drops in PO2. Why is this so?

3. What are the several roles of hemoglobin?

1QQ 32 for 8:301. What evidence indicates that the abrupt increase

in ventilation at the onset of exercise is not the result of negative feedback?

2. Why is the negative feedback system more sensitive to changes in PaCO2 than PaO2?

3. How is it that hyperventilating immediately before diving allows a pearl diver to hold his breath for a longer interval that he would otherwise be able to?

1QQ 32 for 9:301. What evidence indicates that the abrupt increase

in ventilation at the cessation of exercise is not the result of negative feedback?

2. Why is the negative feedback system more sensitive to changes in PaCO2 than PaO2?

3. If a normal healthy resting person is breathing ambient air at sea level and suddenly increases minute ventilation from 7 L/ min to 10 L/min, what would happen to their PaCO2 and PaO2?

1QQ 33 for 8:301. How does the composition of the ultrafiltrate in

Bowman’s space differ from plasma? If glucose concentration in the plasma is 70 mg/ml, what will the glucose concentration be in the ultrafiltrate in Bowman’s space?

2. What is the location and role of macula densa cells?

3. Which segments of the nephron are found in the medulla?

4. What are two ways by which GFR can be increased?

1QQ 33 for 9:301. How does the composition of the ultrafiltrate in

Bowman’s space differ from plasma? If glucose concentration in the plasma is 100 mg/ml, what will the glucose concentration be in the ultrafiltrate in Bowman’s space?

2. What is the location and role of macula densa cells?

3. Which segments of the nephron are found in the medulla?

4. What are two ways by which GFR can be decreased?