Comprehensive PTCB Exam #3
1. Which DEA form is used to document the destruction of controlled substances?
A. Form 41B. Form 106C. Form 222D. Form 224
2. In which reference book would you find detailed patient counseling information?
A. State Law BookB. Federal Law BookC. Natural Product ReferenceD. Patient Handout Information Reference
3. What is an NDC?
A. An optical machine-readable representation of information related to the object which it is attached
B. A unique, 3-segment number which identifies drug productsC. Issued by the DEAD. Issued by the State Board of Pharmacy
4. Which of the following is a required information sheet that instructs proper storage, handling, and containment procedures for hazardous substances?
A. FormularyB. NDCC. MSDSD. PAR
5. Calculate the last digit of the DEA number AH318825_.
A. 6B. 4C. 3
D. 1
6. Which of the following is a combination of a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) and Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) plan where patients pay more for services when they are needed?
A. CHAMPVAB. Medicare Part BC. Point-of-service (POS)D. Deductible
7. Which of the following numbers could lead to a medication error due to a decimal point error?
A. .6B. 0.6C. 1.6D. 6
8. Which of the following may a technician never do?
A. Enter prescriptions into the computerB. Counsel patientsC. Update insurance informationD. Take a refill over the phone
9. What is another name for a wholesaler?
A. DistributorB. ManufacturerC. Formulary managerD. Pharmacy benefit manager
10. Which of the following is a solid ingredient dissolved in a liquid?
A. SolventB. SolutionC. Solute
D. Suspension
11. An elevation of which of the following can lead to gout?
A. PotassiumB. MagnesiumC. Uric acidD. Iron
12. Which of the following abbreviations is on The Joint Commission’s (TJCs) “Do Not Use” list?
A. qdB. qidC. bidD. tid
13. Which of the following refers to DEA?
A. Drug Enforcement AdministrationB. Drug Enforcement AgencyC. Drug Elimination AdministrationD. Drug Evaluation Agency
14. What is the benefit of having a prime vendor for a pharmacy?
A. Discounts are offeredB. Markups are offeredC. Reverse distributor statusD. Use of CSOS is allowed
15. Which of the following is not a side effect of anticholinergic drugs?
A. Dry eyesB. ConstipationC. DiarrheaD. Dry mouth
16. Who created patient safety organizations?
A. The FDAB. The Department of Health and Human ServicesC. The DEAD. The State Board of Pharmacy
17. Which of the following is the superscription?
A. Rx symbolB. Refill(s) amountC. Directions given to the patientD. Medication prescribed, quantity, and strength
18. Which of the following individuals may be responsible for a medication error?
A. NurseB. PhysicianC. PharmacistD. All of the above
19. The bottom (blue) copy of a DEA Form 222 is retained by whom?
A. SupplierB. ManufacturerC. DEAD. Pharmacy
20. When a patient is responsible for a percentage of the cost of services, instead of a flat fee, this is known as which of the following?
A. CopaymentB. CoinsuranceC. PremiumD. Point-of-service
21. What pharmacy system allows a pharmacist to counsel a patient in a different location?
A. CPOEB. E-prescribingC. TelepharmacyD. HER
22. The Pure Food and Drug Act passed in which year?
A. 1906B. 1926C. 2006D. 1900
23. If a prescriber writes an order for a liquid medication, but does not specify a quantity and instead writes qs on the prescription. Which of the following means the same?
A. Quantity sufficientB. Dispense as writtenC. Quality standardsD. Quinapril suspension
24. Which of the following medications is injected directly into the fatty layer below the skin’s surface?
A. IntramuscularB. SubcutaneousC. IntravenousD. Epidural
25. What basic information is not contained in the patient profile?
A. Patient’s nameB. Medication allergiesC. Social security numberD. Insurance information
26. Which of the following procedures helps eliminate errors during medication administration to hospital patients?
A. Single patient identifierB. Barcode technologyC. Tall-man lettersD. Shelf separators
27. What is the temperature range for storage of refrigerated products?
A. -20 to -10°CB. 2 to 8°CC. -20 to -10°FD. 2 to 8°F
28. Which of the following Medicare plans was originally known as the Medicare + Choice plan?
A. Part AB. Part BC. Part CD. Part D
29. Which segment of the NDC code represents the labeler code?
A. The first 4 or 5 digitsB. The second 3 or 4 digitsC. The third 1 or 2 digitsD. Both a and c
30. What is the generic name of Adipex-P?
A. LorcaserinB. OrlistatC. PhentermineD. Topiramate
31. Which of the following reports is most useful to identify a product’s availability?
A. Inventory reportB. Usage report
C. Override reportD. Diversion report
32. If a medication is dispensed in a gtt, it is given as which of the following?
A. TabletB. CapsuleC. OintmentD. Drop
33. Which of the following strategies can help prevent illegible handwriting errors?
A. Handwriting classesB. Verbal ordersC. Telephone ordersD. Preprinted order sets
34. In which schedule are medications with a low abuse potential and acceptable medical use?
A. Schedule IIB. Schedule IIIC. Schedule IVD. OTC
35. Sterile powders for injection and powders for reconstitution must be protected from which of the following?
A. TheftB. PyrogensC. LightD. Humidity
36. Name the process to ensure programs are intentionally improving services and increasing positive outcomes.
A. Risk managementB. Productivity
C. EntrepreneurshipD. Continuous quality improvement
37. Which of the following is used to treat fungal infections?
A. LidodermB. ClobexC. LotrisoneD. Temovate
38. Which of the following would not be needed to process a patient’s insurance claim?
A. Member’s ID numberB. Member’s birthdateC. Medication prescribed, dose and quantityD. Member’s social security number
39. A patient’s insurance card is likely to include all of the following except which one?
A. Member’s ID numberB. Member’s group numberC. Billing Identification (BIN)D. Contracted pricing structure
40. A manufacturer has determined that the rubber stopper in several lots of their furosemide IV vials has a tendency to core easily. In which class would this product be recalled?
A. Class IB. Class IIC. Class IIID. This product would not be recalled
41. Compounding should always take place how many inches from the front and sides of a laminar flow hood?
A. 3B. 6
C. 9D. 12
42. Which of the following is an example of a schedule-III medication?
A. HeroinB. MorphineC. LorazepamD. Codeine with acetaminophen
43. Which of the following should not be used during prescribing in order to minimize errors?
A. MilligramB. GrainC. MilliliterD. Gram
44. A patient takes 1 tablet tid ac and has. How many tablets will the patient need for a 30-day supply?
A. 90 tabletsB. 120 tabletsC. 150 tabletsD. 200 tablets
45. Which of the following information is not required on the label of the medication vial?
A. Pharmacy’s name and addressB. Patient’s social security numberC. Date when prescription was filledD. Prescription number
46. What is the most common adverse effect of Zithromax?
A. Gastrointestinal (GI) toxicityB. RashC. Hearing loss
D. Visual changes
47. Which code is used for the third party to determine if the proper brand or generic medication was used to fill the prescription?
A. USANB. DAWC. AdjudicationD. Trade
48. What type of recall would there be in a situation in which use or exposure to a product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
A. Class IB. Class IIC. Class IIID. Class IV
49. Which of the following patients is at the highest risk of a calculation error?
A. A 3 year-old girlB. A 15 year-old boyC. A 31 year-old womanD. A 70 year-old woman
50. Which is an example of a drug-allergy interaction?
A. Amoxicillin prescribed for a penicillin-allergic patientB. Amoxicillin prescribed for a patient on AugmentinC. Amoxicillin prescribed for a patient with a bacterial infectionD. Amoxicillin prescribed for a patient by a dentist
51. If a patient is ordered to 1 g of Valtrex to be taken daily, and the pharmacy only has the 500-mg tablets in stock, how many tablets will the patient receive with each dose?
A. 1 tabletB. 1 ½ tabletsC. 2 tablets
D. 3 tablets
52. The Poison Prevention Act created which pharmacy dispensing standard?
A. Patient counselingB. Child-resistant container useC. Counting tray useD. All of the above
53. Which of the following organizations is devoted entirely to medication error prevention?
A. The Joint CommissionB. Institute for Safe Medication PracticesC. Food and Drug AdministrationD. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
54. What is the beyond-use-date of products prepared at a patient’s bedside in an emergent situation?
A. Immediate use onlyB. 48 hoursC. 30 hoursD. 24 hours
55. Which of the following books is used to obtain equivalency information?
A. NeoFaxB. Brigg’s Drugs in Pregnancy and LactationC. Orange BookD. Handbook for Nonprescription Drugs
56. A patient brings in a prescription for Relafen. How many months may the prescription be refilled?
A. NoneB. 3 monthsC. 6 monthsD. 12 months
57. If a patient is taking metoclopramide 5-mg tablets, 1 tid x 15 days, how many tablets will be needed to fill the order?
A. 30 tabletsB. 45 tabletsC. 60 tabletsD. 90 tablets
58. Which of the following is an example of a medication that does not require child-resistant packaging?
A. ReglanB. LevothyroxineC. SeroquelD. Cholestyramine powder (canister)
59. After an error has occurred, what type of analysis may be performed?
A. FMEAB. Productivity reportC. RCAD. Efficiency report
60. Which of the following are high-alert medications?
A. Morphine, heparinB. Potassium chloride, warfarinC. Hydromorphone, insulinD. All of the above
61. Which of the following medications is indicated for type 1 diabetes?
A. GlipizideB. MetforminC. Insulin glargineD. Pioglitazone
62. Which of the following would be an example of a unit-of-use package?
A. A 100-count bottle of a medicationB. A 500-count bottle of a medicationC. A pack of 30 tablets for a medication taken dailyD. A vial of medication to be reconstituted
63. Which organization requires that material safety data sheets be available?
A. FDAB. OSHAC. P&TD. DEA
64. What type of filter is used in laminar flow hoods and clean rooms to ensure 99.97% removal of air particles?
A. LEPAB. HVACC. HEPAD. EPA
65. What is an example of a portable computer?
A. MainframeB. MinicomputerC. Tablet computerD. Desktop computer
66. Which of the following is a list of medications covered under a patient’s insurance plan?
A. DAWB. HMOC. DeductibleD. Formulary
67. Which of the following pharmacy personnel can counsel a patient on how to use an insulin pen?A. Cashier
B. Pharmacy technicianC. Certified pharmacy technicianD. Pharmacist
68. The “Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act” restricts the sale of which OTC medication?
A. AcetaminophenB. IbuprofenC. GuaifenesinD. None of the above
69. The number of days a medication should last is used correctly is known as which of the following?
A. Sig codeB. Days supplyC. SuperscriptionD. Medication order
70. Which USP chapter defines guidelines for nonsterile compounding?
A. 795B. 797C. 979D. 959
71. If a patient is instructed to take a medication 1 tsp tid for 30 days, how many milliliters would the pharmacy need to give this patient for the entire order?
A. 150 mlB. 300 mlC. 450 mlD. 600 ml
72. Which medication cannot treat seizures?
A. Neurontin
B. KeppraC. WellbutrinD. Topamax
73. What is an example of a drug-disease alert?
A. Elevated INR for a patient on warfarinB. Cephalexin being prescribed for a patient with a penicillin allergyC. Lisinopril being prescribed for a pregnant patientD. Pantoprazole being ordered for a patient on esomeprazole
74. A patient brings in a prescription for buspirone 5mg #90 ---- 1 PO tid. What is the indication?
A. DepressionB. Bipolar disorderC. AnxietyD. Insomnia
75. Calculate the days supply for a medication given 1 PO qid #40.
A. 10 daysB. 15 daysC. 20 daysD. 40 days
76. DEA Form 106 is used to report which of the following?
A. Order C-II medicationsB. Document destruction of C-II medicationsC. Document theft or loss of C-II medicationsD. None of the above
77. Which of the following medications requires a package insert every time it is dispensed?
A. WarfarinB. Ethinyl estradiol and norgestrelC. Pantoprazole
D. None of the above
78. Which of the following is required to submit an insurance claim?
A. RxBin numberB. RxGroup numberC. Patient’s ID numberD. All of the above
79. How would the following prescription be interpreted: 1 gtt AU qd?
A. Instill 1 drop in the right eye 4 times dailyB. Instill 1 drop in both ears 4 times dailyC. Instill 1 drop in both ears once dailyD. Instill 1 drop in both eyes once daily
80. Pregnant women should not handle which of the following?
A. AvodartB. DetrolC. FlomaxD. Cardura
81. If a patient takes 1 tablet tid for 14 days, how many tablets will the pharmacy need to fill this order?
A. 28 tabletsB. 36 tabletsC. 42 tabletsD. 48 tablets
82. A physician orders an abciximab infusion of 8mg/250ml NS at a rate of 19ml/h. Abciximab is available as a 10mg/5ml injectable solution. What volume of this solution should be drawn up to provide the requested dosage?
A. 5 mlB. 4 mlC. 3 ml
D. 2 ml
83. Which of the following should be avoided in neonates?
A. SyrupB. ElixirC. SuspensionD. Emulsion
84. When can a patient purchase 9 g of pseudoephedrine?
A. Every monthB. Every 3 monthsC. Every 6 monthsD. Every 12months
85. A patient is instructed to take 1 tablet before breakfast, 2 tablets with lunch, 1 tablet with dinner, and 1 tablet before bedtime. If the pharmacy is requested to dispense a 30-day supply, how many tablets should be dispensed?
A. 45 tabletsB. 90 tabletsC. 150 tabletsD. 200 tablets
86. Which of the following is a cylindrical or conical-shaped container with clearly defined measurement calibrations used in nonsterile compounding?
A. GraduateB. Analytical balanceC. Ointment slabD. Meniscus
87. What should patients be instructed to do after using a Flovent inhaler?
A. Brush teethB. Rinse out mouthC. Chew a piece of gum
D. Eat a meal
88. Which of the following is a correct DEA number for a resident at Methodist Hospital?
A. BM2866626B. AH2866626-3884C. AH2866626-6626D. BM2866626-3884
89. In order to be enrolled in Medicare Part C, a patient must be enrolled in which of the following?
A. Parts A and BB. Parts A and DC. Parts B and DD. None of the above
90. If a prescription calls for a medication to be given PV, how should it be administered?
A. RectallyB. OrallyC. OpticallyD. Vaginally
