dgtest1mc
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Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: A
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DG Test MC
Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Two similar chromosomes that you inherit from your parents (one from your mother, one from your father) are calleda. homologous chromosomes.b. sister chromatids.c. sex chromosomes.d. homozygous alleles.
2. Meiosis produces cells with how many chromosomes?a. 44b. 22c. 46d. 23
3. Which of the following cell types is diploid?a. ovumb. sex cellc. somatic celld. gamete
4. A distinguishing characteristic that can be inherited is a(n)a. cross.b. allele.c. gene.d. trait.
5. Which of the following phrases describes the Punnett square in Figure 6.1?
a. 1/4 probability of heterozygous offspringb. monohybrid heterozygous-heterozygous crossc. 3/4 probability of homozygous offspringd. dihybrid heterozygous-heterozygous cross
6. Which of the following statements is true of homozygous alleles?a. They are always inherited together.b. They are different forms of the same trait.c. They are identical forms of the same gene.d. They are identical forms of two different
genes.
7. Which law states that organisms inherit two copies of each gene and donate one copy to each of their offspring?a. law of genetic linkageb. law of segregationc. law of independent assortmentd. law of inheritance
8. Which pair of genes in Figure 6.2 would be most likely to be inherited together?
a. A and Bb. A and Cc. A and Dd. A and E
9. Which event takes place during anaphase II of meiosis II?a. Nuclear membrane breaks down.b. Spindle fibers disassemble.c. Sister chromatids separate.d. Cytoplasm divides.
10. Recessive alleles may not be expressed because they area. masked by a dominant allele.b. the least common allele in a population.c. the most common allele in a population.d. less likely to have crossing over.
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11. Which of the following events is an important factor in increasing variety among sexually reproducing organisms?a. testcrossb. gene linkagec. crossing overd. mitosis
12. Mendel's observation that traits are inherited separately was based on which set of experiments?a. monohybrid crossesb. purebred crossesc. testcrossesd. dihybrid crosses
13. Imagine two heterozygous parents. Each has a dominant allele X for brown eyes and a recessive allele x for blue eyes. The phenotypic ratio for brown:blue eyes in their children isa. 1:2:1.b. 3:1.c. 9:3:3:1.d. 1:3:1.
14. A person who has a disorder caused by a recessive allele isa. considered a carrier of the disorder.b. homozygous for the recessive allele.c. unable to pass the allele to offspring.d. certain to have offspring with the disorder.
15. Gene expression is influenced by many factors. Which of the following is a factor in gene expression?a. karyotypeb. pedigreec. environmentd. phenotype
16. The Punnett square in Figure 7.1 shows a cross between two parents who have the genotype Ss for a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele. Which of the following will have the genetic disorder?
a. Ss parentb. Ss offspringc. SS offspringd. ss offspring
17. Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele. What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder?a. 25%b. 50%c. 75%d. 100%
18. Human height occurs in a continuous range because it is affected by the interaction of several genes, making it aa. autosomal trait.b. sex-linked trait.c. polygenic trait.d. codominant trait.
19. Suppose a mouse is homozygous for alleles that produce black fur and homozygous for alleles of an epistatic gene that prevents fur coloration. What color fur will the mouse have?a. all whiteb. mostly blackc. entirely grayd. black and white
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20. The gene linkage map shown in Figure 7.2 shows the order of genes A, B, and C. Which of the following statements about the genes is true?
a. The distance between A and B is 14.5 map units.
b. A and B cross over 2.5% of the time.c. A and C are linked 8.5% of the time.d. B and C are most likely to be inherited
together.
21. Two genes cross over 6% of the time. This percentage means that the genes area. inactivated in 6 out of 100 offspring.b. incompletely dominant in 6 out of 100
offspring.c. not inherited together in 6 out of 100
offspring.d. on sex chromosomes in 6 out of 100
offspring.
22. A female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype. Which of the following genotypes could her parents have?a. RR and RRb. Rr and RRc. Rr and rrd. RR and rr
23. Suppose a person is a carrier for a genetic disorder. Which of the following phrases about this person is true?a. does not have the disorder but can pass it onb. will develop the disorder only late in lifec. cannot pass the disorder to sons, just
daughtersd. the allele is not passed on due to Y
chromosome inactivation
24. Which of the following tools is used to match up chromosome pairs using chemical stains?a. pedigree chartb. karyotypec. meiosis mapd. linkage map
25. What did Hershey and Chase know about bacteriophages that led them to use these viruses in their DNA experiments?a. Bacteriophages are made up of a protein coat
surrounding DNA.b. Sulfur in all bacteriophages is radioactive.c. Protein from bacteriophages enters bacteria.d. Bacteriophages have no DNA of their own.
26. Which scientist conducted tests on extracts made of bacteria to show that the genetic material in bacteria is DNA?a. Martha Chaseb. Oswald Averyc. Frederick Griffithd. Alfred Hershey
27. The main difference between the four nucleotides that make up DNA is that they have differenta. sugars.b. uracil.c. bonds.d. bases.
28. Which scientists figured out the three-dimensional structure of DNA by using a model of metal and wood?a. Hershey and Chaseb. Watson and Crickc. Pauling and Franklind. Chargaff and Griffith
29. In humans, where does DNA replication take place?a. cytoplasmb. ribosomec. nucleusd. vacuole
30. During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is toa. bind nucleotides together.b. send messages.c. receive messages.d. locate replication sites.
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31. Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the complementary RNA strand.
a. AUTb. CTAc. AUCd. ACG
32. During transcription, what does messenger RNA do?a. It delivers DNA's instructions for making
proteins.b. It constructs proteins out of random amino
acids.c. It strings together two complementary DNA
strands.d. It strings together two complementary RNA
strands.
33. In order to produce all the protein that a cell needs, transcription takes placea. on a gene segment over and over again.b. on a gene segment only once.c. using double-stranded RNA.d. using single-stranded RNA.
34. The central dogma states that information flows froma. RNA to DNA to polysaccharides.b. DNA to RNA to proteins.c. RNA to DNA to proteins.d. DNA to polysaccharides to RNA.
35. Where is messenger RNA "edited" into its final form?a. in the cytoplasmb. in the ribosomesc. in the nucleusd. in the anticodon
36. What is the term for the sections of messenger RNA that are spliced together during processing?a. operatorsb. promotorsc. exonsd. introns
37. In bacteria, what binds with the repressor to activate the lac operon?a. enzymesb. lactosec. repressorsd. promoters
38. Genetic engineering is possible because all organisms are based on the samea. proteins.b. DNA copies.c. plasmid loops.d. genetic code.
39. Which of the following technologies uses electricity to sort DNA fragments based on their sizes?a. genetic screeningb. gel electrophoresisc. DNA microarraysd. genetic engineering
40. In the restriction map shown in Figure 9.1, which line, or band, represents the smallest DNA fragments?
a. Ab. Bc. Cd. D
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41. Which of the following processes could a scientist use to make an amount of DNA that is large enough to study?a. polymerase chain reactionb. genetic engineeringc. bioinformaticsd. gel electrophoresis
42. Which of the following is the study of entire genomes?a. gene sequencingb. proteomicsc. genomicsd. transgenics
43. In polymerase chain reaction, which of the following acts as the starting point for new DNA strands?a. cDNAb. plasmidsc. enzymesd. primers
44. The restriction enzymes used by scientists to cut DNA molecules at specific nucleotide sequences come froma. mice.b. yeasts.c. bacteria.d. viruses.
45. Which of the following experimental techniques involves treating a genetic disorder by replacing a defective gene with a functional gene?a. genetic screeningb. bioinformaticsc. genomicsd. gene therapy
46. Suppose the restriction site for a particular restriction enzyme is: GATC | | | | CTAG. The enzyme cuts the DNA between the A and the T on the top strand, and between the T and the A on the bottom strand. How many restriction sites for this enzyme are there in the DNA sequence shown in Figure 9.2?
a. 2b. 3c. 4d. 5
47. What goal of the Human Genome Project has been achieved?a. learning how DNA sequences vary among all
peopleb. sequencing all the base pairs of the human
chromosomesc. understanding the function of each human
gened. discovering the proteins that play a part in
cancer
48. Genetic screening can help determine a person's risk of passing on a genetic disorder through a combination of family history anda. recombinant DNA.b. gene knockouts.c. DNA microarrays.d. DNA testing.
49. The purpose of genetic engineering is toa. develop safer pesticides.b. study obesity and cancer.c. reduce Earth's biodiversity.d. give organisms new traits.
50. Proteomics is the study and comparison ofa. proteins within and among species.b. genomes of various organisms.c. DNA sequence variations among people.d. transgenic organisms in different
environments.
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Short Answer
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
51. Figure 6.4 shows the results of a cross between a plant with a known genotype and a plant of unknown genotype. What is the term for this type of cross?
52. In this plant species, the allele for purple flowers is dominant and the allele for white flowers is recessive. Write the genotype for the offspring that have white flowers.
Short Answer
53. Which type of interaction is shown by the alleles for flower color?
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
54. What type of chart is shown in Figure 7.4?
55. What do the shaded shapes represent?
Short Answer
56. Suppose translation has just begun. Write the number in the diagram that corresponds to the start codon.
57. Write the number in a diagram that corresponds to the ribosome. How does the ribosome interact with mRNA and tRNA during translation?
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Short Answer
58. What is this type of DNA analysis used for?
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
59. What is the term for the structure in part 3 of the diagram?
60. Describe one way transgenic plants are used.
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DG Test MCAnswer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_14TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_22TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_30TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_38TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_46TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
6. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_54TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_62TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
8. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_70TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_87TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_95TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
11. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_111TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
12. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_119TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_127TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_194TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_202TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
16. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_210TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
17. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_223TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_240TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
19. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_248TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
20. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_256TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_272TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
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22. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_280TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_296TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
24. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_320TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_14TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_22TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_46TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_38TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_54TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
30. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_62TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
31. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_70TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
32. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_79TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
33. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_87TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
34. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_95TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
35. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_111TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
36. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_119TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
37. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_127TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
38. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_14TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_46TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
40. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_22TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_54TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
42. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_62TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
43. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_70TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
44. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_78TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
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45. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_86TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
46. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_94TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
47. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_102TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
48. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_110TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
49. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_118TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
50. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_126TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
SHORT ANSWER
51. ANS: testcross
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_172TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
52. ANS: ff
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_176TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
53. ANS: 1 = C1C1, 2 = C1C2, 3 = C1C2, 4 = C2C2; incomplete dominance
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_354TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
54. ANS: a pedigree chart
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_374TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
55. ANS: individuals with a given phenotype
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_378TOP: Ch 7 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
56. ANS: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_152TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
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57. ANS: 5; the small ribosomal unit binds to mRNA in the cytoplasm. The binding attracts a tRNA with methionine to the start codon.
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_156TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
58. ANS: This technology is used to identify people at the molecular level.
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_147TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
59. ANS: recombinant DNA
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_179TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5
60. ANS: Transgenic plants are used to increase crop yield. Transgenic crops can be made to be more resistant to frost, disease, and insects.
PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_189TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5