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1. School Name of student State Rank Lancer Not 1 st Columbus Not Badal Not in Andhra Pradesh Leelavati Rahman Not from Leelavati Maharashtra 3 rd Karnataka Not 1 st Tabulating the given information that we have, we get the above table. The name of student from Columbus school is not Badal, it implies that Badal must be from Lancer school and Binod must be from Columbus. Leelavati school is not in Maharashtra it implies that Rahman is not from Maharashtra and did not secure 3 rd rank. Also, The contestant from Maharashtra stood 3 rd and the candidate from Karnataka is not 1 st implies that the candidate from Andhra Pradesh must have stood 1 st and the one from Karnataka 2 nd . Rahman stood 1 st and the position of Badal and Binod cannot be determined with the given information. From the given options only option 1 can be true. Hence, option 1. Note : Since both the options 1 or 3 could have been correct according to the original paper, therefore option 3 has been changed and is not the same as in the original paper. 2. No. of packets Rate Revenue 2000 20 40000 2200 19 41800 2400 18 43200 2600 17 44200 2800 16 44800 3000 15 45000 3200 14 44800 After 3000 packets the total revenue decreases, the optimum revenue would be achieved at 3000 packets. Hence, option 2. 3. Guard Amount in her purse Amount paid to the Guard Amount Left 1 2 3 Let us assume she initially had Rs. x with her, then the amount she paid to each of the guard would be: She was left with Rs. 1 in the end, Thus she had Rs. 36 in the beginning. Hence, option 2. 4. Consider option 1: Prof. Chaudhury must be assigned HRM or Finance or no assignment but cannot be assigned Development studies. Consider option 2: Does not violate any condition. Consider option 3: Both Prof. Das and Prof. Fotedar cannot be given assignments together. Consider option 4: Prof. Chaudhury cannot be assigned Trade Policy. Hence, option 2. 5. Options 1, 2 and 3 do not violate any condition. Option 4: Prof. Das is assigned Trade Policy, Prof. Banik has to be assigned Psychology. Hence, option 4. DETAILED SOLUTION IIFT 2008 4

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Page 1: DETAILED SOLUTION 4 - Entranceindia · detailed solution iift 2008 4 . iift 2008 ... iift 2008 . . . . .

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1.

School Name of

student State Rank

Lancer Not 1st

Columbus Not Badal Not in Andhra

Pradesh

Leelavati Rahman

Not from

Leelavati Maharashtra 3rd

Karnataka Not 1st

Tabulating the given information that we have, we get

the above table.

∵ The name of student from Columbus school is not

Badal, it implies that Badal must be from Lancer school

and Binod must be from Columbus.

∵ Leelavati school is not in Maharashtra it implies that

Rahman is not from Maharashtra and did not secure

3rd rank.

Also,

∵ The contestant from Maharashtra stood 3rd and the

candidate from Karnataka is not 1st implies that the

candidate from Andhra Pradesh must have stood 1st

and the one from Karnataka 2nd.

∴ Rahman stood 1st and the position of Badal and

Binod cannot be determined with the given

information.

From the given options only option 1 can be true.

Hence, option 1.

Note : Since both the options 1 or 3 could have been

correct according to the original paper, therefore

option 3 has been changed and is not the same as in the

original paper.

2.

No. of packets Rate Revenue

2000 20 40000

2200 19 41800

2400 18 43200

2600 17 44200

2800 16 44800

3000 15 45000

3200 14 44800

∵ After 3000 packets the total revenue decreases, the

optimum revenue would be achieved at 3000 packets.

Hence, option 2.

3.

Guard Amount in

her purse

Amount paid

to the Guard Amount Left

1

2

3

Let us assume she initially had Rs. x with her, then the

amount she paid to each of the guard would be:

∵ She was left with Rs. 1 in the end,

Thus she had Rs. 36 in the beginning.

Hence, option 2.

4. Consider option 1: Prof. Chaudhury must be assigned

HRM or Finance or no assignment but cannot be

assigned Development studies.

Consider option 2: Does not violate any condition.

Consider option 3: Both Prof. Das and Prof. Fotedar

cannot be given assignments together.

Consider option 4: Prof. Chaudhury cannot be assigned

Trade Policy.

Hence, option 2.

5. Options 1, 2 and 3 do not violate any condition.

Option 4:

∵ Prof. Das is assigned Trade Policy, Prof. Banik has to

be assigned Psychology.

Hence, option 4.

DETAILED SOLUTION

IIFT 2008 4

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6. We have:

Order Name Amount

spent Remarks

1 Aradhana Not 2517

2 Chandrima Spent the smallest

amount

3 Deepika Not 1340

4 Heena Spent more than

Deepika

5 Sumitra Spent the largest

amount

Amounts spent are: 2517, 2234, 1340, and 1193

Case 1: If Rs. 2517 is the highest amount spent then the

least amount spent would be Rs. 1139

Case 2: If Rs. 1193 is the least amount spent, then the

highest amount spent would be Rs. 2571

Consider case 1: 2517, 2234, 1340, 1193 and 1139

In this case Sumitra must have spent Rs. 2517 and

Chandrima must have spent Rs. 1139 as they are the

highest and lowest amounts.

Deepika cannot spend Rs. 2234 as it is given that

Heena spent more than Deepika.

∴ Deepika must have spent Rs. 1193, then Heena

should have spent Rs. 1340 and Aradhana would have

spent Rs. 2234.

This information can now be tabulated as:

Order Name Amount

spent Remarks

1 Aradhana 2234 Not 2517

2 Chandrima 1139 Smallest

3 Deepika 1193 Not 1340

4 Heena 1340 Spent more

than Deepika

5 Sumitra 2517 Largest

Consider Case 2: 2571, 2517, 2234, 1340 and 1193

Sumitra must have spent Rs. 2571 and Chandrima

must have spent Rs. 1193 as they are the highest and

lowest amounts.

Now,

∵ Heena spent more than Deepika, Heena could not

have spent 1340.

∵ Deepika did not spend 1340, it implies that Aradhana

spent 1340 and then Heena would have spent 2517

and Deepika would have spent 2234.

Order Name Amount

spent Remarks

1 Aradhana 1340 Not 2517

2 Chandrima 1193 Smallest

3 Deepika 2234 Not 1340

4 Heena 2517 Spent more than

Deepika

5 Sumitra 2571 Largest

∵ The woman who spent 2234 had arrived before the

woman who spent 1193, in this case it would mean

violation of this condition.

∴ This case is not possible.

Only case 1 will hold good.

∴ The amounts spent by the women are as follows:

1) Aradhana – Rs. 2234

2) Chadrima – Rs. 1139

3) Deepika – Rs. 1193

4) Heena – Rs. 1340

5) Sumitra – Rs. 2517

Heena spent Rs. 1340.

Hence, option 2.

7. Rs. 1139 was spent by Chandrima.

Hence, option 1.

8. Rs. 1193 was spent by Deepika.

Hence, option 3.

9. Tabulating the given information:

Number of guards Red Green

1 Turn right 2 kmph

2 Turn left 4 kmph

3 Stop 10 kmph

In case of Kartikay:

Signal

Number Red caps Green caps

No. of

guards Direction

No. of

guards Speed Duration Distance

Start nil North 1 2

kmph 30 mins 1 km

1 2 Turn left 2 4

kmph 15 mins 1 km

2 1 Turn right nil 4

kmph 30 mins 2 km

3 1 Turn right 3 10

kmph 24 mins 4 km

4 2 Turn left 2 4

kmph 15 mins 1 km

5 3 Stop

Total distance travelled by Kartikay is 9 kms.

Hence, option 1.

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10.

Signal

Number Red caps Green caps

No. of

guards Direction

No. of

guards Speed Duration Distance

Start 0 North 1 2

kmph 30 mins 1 km

1 1 Turn right

(East) 2

4

kmph 15 mins 1 km

2 1 Turn right

(South) nil

4

kmph 30 mins 2 km

3 1 Turn right

(West) 3

10

kmph 24 mins 4 km

4 2 Turn left

(South) 2

4

kmph 15 mins 1 km

5 3 Stop

∴ Kartikay would have travelled 1 + 2 − 1 = 2 km

towards South

And he would have travelled 4 − 1 = 3 km towards

West

∴ His final position would be 3 km towards west and 2

km towards south.

Hence, option 1.

11.

Signal

Number Red caps Green caps

No. of

guards Direction

No. of

guards Speed Duration Distance

Start 0 South 1 2

kmph 30 mins 1 km

1 2 Turn left

(East) 2

4

kmph 15 mins 1 km

2 1 Turn right

(South) nil

4

kmph 30 mins 2 km

3 1 Turn right

(West) 3

10

kmph 24 mins 4 km

4 2 Turn left

(South) 2

4

kmph 15 mins 1 km

5 3 Stop

Thus Kartikay would have travelled 1 + 2 + 1 = 4 km

towards South

And he would have travelled 4 − 1 = 3 km towards

West

Thus, his final position would be 3 km towards West

and 4 km towards South.

Hence, option 3.

12.

Birth

order Sex Name

School

Name Game

1 M Saurav Trinity Chess

2 M Mahi/ Nilesh Mansarover Cricket

3 M Nilesh/ Mahi Mansarover Cricket

4 F Kuntala Trinity Chess

5 F Tamanna St. Stefan

6 M Arun St. Stefan Football

7 M Rohit St. Stefan Hockey

8 F Janki Trinity Chess

From the given information we have:

Sons: Arun (Ar), Mahi (Ma), Rohit (Ro), Nilesh (Ni) and

Saurav (Sa).

Daughters: Tamanna (Ta), Kuntala (Ku) and Janki (Ja).

St. Stefan: 3 children: Offers any sports: Tamanna,

Rohit.

Mansarover: 2 children: Offers only cricket: Mahi and

Nilesh.

Trinity: 3 children: Offers only chess: Kuntala.

∵ Mansarover and Trinity offer only Cricket and chess

respectively, it implies that Arun who plays football

must be in St. Stefan.

This means that Saurav and Janki must be in Trinity.

∵ Mahi and Nilesh were born in succession, it implies

that they can occupy only slots 2 and 3 in any order.

∵ Kuntala was the eldest daughter, she needs to occupy

slot 4, and hence Tamanna would be 5th.

The only place left for Arun is 6th.

Arun is the 6th child.

Hence, option 3.

13. Saurav is a student of Trinity school.

Hence, option 1.

14. From the given information Tamanna’s game cannot be determined.

Hence, option 4.

15. The only pair that was not born in succession was

Kuntala and Arun.

Hence, option 2.

16. From I and II, the conclusion which can be drawn is,

“Some drivers are engineers” or “Some engineers are

drivers.”

From I and III: No conclusion is possible since all

parameters are different.

From II and III: No conclusion is possible since the

middle term, Engineers, is not distributed.

∴ Only conclusion 4 follows.

Hence, option 2.

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17. From I and II, the conclusion that can be derived is

“Some barbers are not businessmen.” Conclusion: 4

From II and III, the conclusion possible is “Some

Traders are not Fashion designers. Conclusion: 2.

Looking at the options none of them fits in the above

satisfying them.

Hence, option 4.

18. Let Pritu’s father be Mr. Z.

Pritu’s father’s sister’s grandfather is Pritu’s great

grandfather.

Let him be Mr. X.

∴ The only son of Mr. X is Pritu’s grandfather or

granduncle.

Let him be Mr. Y.

∴ Mr. Y is Mr. Z’s father or uncle.

Let the wife of Mr. Y be Mrs. A.

∴ Mrs. A is grandmother of Pritu or grandaunt of Pritu.

Now Priya is the daughter of daughter of Mrs. A or

granddaughter of Mrs. A.

Now, if Sushma is the sister of Pritu, then she becomes

either a real sister of Priya or a cousin sister of Priya.

Hence, option 4.

19. Kamaljeet fulfilled all the conditions except 3 as he

scored 56% marks.

There is no alternative to condition 3, thus he cannot

be admitted.

Hence, option 2.

20. Gaurav had fulfilled all the conditions except 2 since he

is 37 years old.

The alternative to this is that the candidate must be

admitted under the sponsor quota if he has got at least

10 years of experience in supervisory cadre.

Gaurav has got 12 years of experience in supervisory

cadre thus he can be admitted under sponsor quota.

Hence, option 4.

21. The film Dainandini fulfils all the criteria and must be

selected.

Hence, option 1.

22. The film Bhadrasalem fulfils all the conditions except

condition 3.

There is no information on the director clearing the

course.

∴ The given data is not sufficient to make a decision.

Hence, option 2.

23. The film Ek Baar Achanak has not fulfilled condition 1

as it was submitted on 30th November 2007.

∴ It cannot be selected.

Hence, option 4.

24. The machine is arranging the numbers in the

increasing order of the sum of the digits on the

number.

Input: 245 (11), 316 (10), 436 (13), 519 (15), 868 (22),

710 (8), 689 (23).

The number in the bracket indicates the sum of digits

of the given number.

Step 1: 710 (8), 316 (10), 436 (13), 519 (15), 868 (22),

245 (11), 689 (23).

∴ The machine has swapped 710 (8) with 245 (11).

Step 2: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 519 (15), 868 (22),

436 (13), 689 (23).

Thus it has swapped 436 (13) with 245 (11).

Step 3: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 436 (13), 868 (22),

519 (15), 689 (23).

Thus it has swapped 436 (13) with 519 (15).

Step 4: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 436 (13), 519 (15),

868 (22), 689 (23).

Thus it has swapped 519 (15) with 868 (22).

Going by the logic mentioned above,

Input: 655 (16), 436 (13), 764 (17), 799 (25), 977 (23),

572 (14), 333 (9).

Step 1: 333 (9), 436 (13), 764 (17), 799 (25), 977 (23),

572 (14), 655 (16).

Step 2: 333 (9), 436 (13), 572 (14), 799 (25), 977 (23),

764 (17), 655 (16).

Step 3: 333 (9), 436 (13), 572 (14), 655 (16), 977 (23),

764 (17), 799 (25).

This is the required sequence which is achieved in Step

3.

Hence, option 1.

25. Input: 544 (13), 653 (14), 325 (10), 688 (22), 461 (11),

231 (6), 857 (20).

Step 1: 231 (6), 653 (14), 325 (10), 688 (22), 461 (11),

544 (13), 857 (20).

Step 2: 231 (6), 325 (10), 653 (14), 688 (22), 461 (11),

544 (13), 857 (20).

Step 3: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 688 (22), 653 (14),

544 (13), 857 (20).

Step 4: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 544 (13), 653 (14),

688 (22), 857 (20).

Step 5: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 544 (13), 653 (14),

857 (20), 688 (22).

∴ Total 5 steps would be required.

Hence, option 2.

26. Cannot be determined as the process backward is not

possible.

Hence, option 4.

27. Input: 653 (14), 963 (18), 754 (16), 345 (12), 364 (13),

861 (15), 541 (10).

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Step 1: 541 (10), 963 (18), 754 (16), 345 (12), 364

(13), 861 (15), 653 (14).

Step 2: 541 (10), 345 (12), 754 (16), 963 (18), 364

(13), 861 (15), 653 (14).

Step 3: 541 (10), 345 (12), 364 (13), 963 (18), 754

(16), 861 (15), 653 (14).

Hence, option 3.

28. Input: She was interested in doing art film.

Step 1: art she was interested in doing film.

Step 2: art was she interested in doing film.

Step 3: art was in she interested doing film.

Step 4: art was in film she interested doing.

Step 5: art was in film doing she interested.

The words get arranged according to the last alphabet

of each word in the reverse order.

Input: he is going out to search air.

Step 1: out he is going to search air.

Step 2: out is he going to search air.

Step 3: out is air he going to search.

Step 4: out is air to he going search.

Step 5: out is air to search he going.

Step 6: out is air to search going he.

Hence, option 2.

29. Step 2: not is the casino considering legal action.

Step 3: not is casino the considering legal action.

Step 4: not is casino action the considering legal.

Step 5: not is casino action legal the considering.

Thus the required sequence is achieved in Step 5.

This is not given in any of the options.

Hence, option 4.

30. Input: Father needs to check on the boy.

Step 1: boy Father needs to check on the.

Step 2: boy needs Father to check on the.

Step 3: boy needs Father to on check the.

Thus, only 3 steps are required to get to the final

output.

Hence, option 4.

31. On thickness parameter we have:

Anil is fatter than Debu but thinner than Bibek.

Debu is fatter than Eswar.

Charu is thinner than Debu but fatter than Eswar.

Thus the descending order of fatness is as follows,

Bibek > Anil > Debu > Charu > Eswar.

∴ The thinnest person is Eshwar.

Hence, option 4.

32. Yuvraj is pointing to the brother of his sister’s

maternal grandmother’s only daughter, i.e. his

mother’s only brother. His mother’s brother means his

uncle.

Saurav is pointing to the brother of his sister’s

maternal grandmother’s only daughter, i.e. his

mother’s only brother. His mother’s brother means his

uncle.

∵ Yuvraj is not pointing out Saurav it has to be Saurav

who is pointing towards Yuvraj.

∴ Yuvraj is Saurav’s maternal uncle.

Hence, option 2.

33. Z units are produced at a total cost of Rs. R where

Now, the variable cost Rv for producing Z units is given

by,

∴ The average variable cost for Z units is given by,

∴ Z = 25

Hence, option 3.

34. H1, H2, H3, …, Hn, are n Harmonic means between ‘a’ and

‘b’ (≠ a), implies that the required Harmonic series is:

a, H1, H2, H3, H4, …, Hn, b

Similarly,

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Hence, option 2.

35. We have: (n + 2)C8 : (n – 2)P4 = 57 : 16

∴ (n + 2)(n + 1)(n)(n – 1) = 19 × 3 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3

Now consider options.

Option 1: n = 20

∴ (n + 2) = 22, but our product is not a multiple of 22.

Option 2: n = 22

But our product is not a multiple of 22.

Option 3: n = 15

∴ (n + 2) = 17, but our product is not a multiple of 17.

∴ None of the options gives the correct value of n.

Hence, option 4.

36. As a, b and c are in A.P.,

As a2, b2 and c2 are in G.P., so b4 = a2c2

Now considering options, we see that only option 4

satisfies equation (ii).

Hence, option 4.

37. As a, b, c are in H.P.,

∴ log (a + c) + log (a – 2b + c) = log [(a + c)2 – 2b(a + c)]

= log [(a + c)2 – 4ac)]

= log (a – c)2

= 2 × log (a – c)

= 2 log(c – a) … (∵ c > a)

Hence, option 3.

38. 12 – 22 = (1 – 2)(1 + 2) = –3

32 – 42 = (3 – 4)(3 + 4) = –7

52 – 62 = (5 – 6)(5 + 6) = –11

72 – 82 = (7 – 8)(7 + 8) = –15

And so on till 20012 – 20022 = –4003

∴ The given expression = –(3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + … + 4003)

+ 20032

= 2007006

Hence, option 1.

39. 2 men can be selected in 9C2 ways from 9 men and 2

women to be selected should not be the wives of the 2

men selected.

∴ These 2 women can be selected from the remaining 7

women in 7C2 ways.

∴ 4 players of the game can be selected in 9C2 × 7C2 =

756 ways

But, the number of mixed doubles games that can be

played among 2 men and 2 women is 2.

∴ The number of ways in which a mixed doubles game

can be played = 9C2 × 7C2 × 2 = 1512

Hence, option 2.

40. The interior angles are 120°, 125°, 130°, 135°, 140°

and so on and the corresponding exterior angles are

60°, 55°, 50°, 45°, 40° and so on.

Now the sum of exterior angles needs to be 360°.

∴ 60° + 55° + 50° + 45° + 40° + 35° + 30° + 25° + 20°

= 360°

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∴ The number of sides would be 9.

Hence, option 3.

41. The initial position of the ladder is as shown below:

By Pythagoras theorem,

The final position would be:

∴ The foot must be drawn out by approximately 22 – 7

= 15 metres

Hence, option 4.

42. The term 3600840049 can be written as:

36(108) + 84(104) + 49 = 600072

The term 6407522209 can be written as:

64(108) + 752(104) + 2209 = 800472

Hence, option 1.

43. The arithmetic mean of n numbers is greater than or

equal to their geometric mean.

As a, b and c are in Arithmetic Progression, their

arithmetic mean = b

Hence, option 2.

44. ax2 + bx + c = 0

Let the roots of the given equation are β and 2β.

2b2 = 9ac

Hence, option 1.

45. Let the time taken to go of 30 km upstream be 3x

hours. Then the time taken to go 40 km upstream is 4x

hours.

Let the time taken to go 44 km downstream be 4y

hours. Then the time taken to go 55 km downstream is

5y hours.

Then we have:

3x + 4y = 10 …(i)

4x + 5y = 13 …(ii)

Solving for x and y, we have,

x = 2 and y = 1

Hence, option 3.

46.

Similarly,

2524

7

25

12

22~~481

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Hence, option 2.

47. Let P be the pole.

As P lies on the circumference and AB is the diameter,

m ∠APB = 90°

Now, (x + 7)2 + x2 = 132 = 169

∴ x2 + 7x – 60 = 0

∴ (x + 12)(x – 5) = 0

Solving for x, we get,

x = 5 and x + 7 = 12

Hence, option 3.

48. The total length of the spiral

Hence, option 2.

49. The mean salary was Rs. 1,500 and standard deviation

(SD) was Rs. 400. Since after 1 year each employee got

a raise of Rs. 100, it would mean that the SD would still

remain same.

Now in next year, since the increase in salary was 20%

for all of the employees, it means that the SD will have

gone up by 20%.

Standard Deviation after 20% raise = 400 + 20% of

400 = 400 + 80 = Rs. 480

∴ The new SD would be 480.

Hence, option 2.

50. We have,

Let us take 200 people forming 4 groups (say A, B, C

and D) containing 50 people each.

As 1 person in 100 suffers, so 2 persons will be

suffering from 200 people.

These 2 people (suffering) will be either from 1 group

or 2 groups.

Case 1: 2 people (suffering) from 1 group

There 2 suffering people are either from group A or B

or C or D.

So there are 4 possibilities.

In this case, operator will have to perform 54 tests i.e.

4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 50 individual tests for

group containing 2 suffering people.

Case 2: 2 people (suffering) from 2 groups

There 2 suffering people are either from groups (A and

B) or (A and C) or (A and D) or (B and C) or (B and D)

or (C and D).

So there are 6 possibilities.

In this case, operator will have to perform 104 tests i.e.

4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 100 individual tests for

2 groups containing 2 suffering people.

Hence, option 3.

51. If the number selected does not appear on any of the

three dice then the person loses €1, i.e. he does not

win.

Hence, option 3.

A

P

B13

x + 7 x

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52. First let us begin by tabulating the given data as shown

below:

Jagan Bhola James

Present Coverage 55% 40% 25%

Claimed Coverage 60% 75%

Probability that

claim is true 0.60 0.20

Choices are:

1. 5 year contract to Jagan.

2. 1 year contract to Bhola and then to Bhola or

Jagan for next four years.

3. 1 year contract to James and then to James or

Jagan for next four years.

Market Credentials:

Profit potential for the current year: 5 crores

Profit potential for next four years: 15 crores

Expected value of profits for each of the choices:

Choice 1: 55% of 20 crores = 11 crores

Choice 2: With 60% coverage:

60% of 20 crores = 12 crores

As Probability is 0.6, Expected value = 12 × 0.6 = 7.2

crores

If the contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year

onwards, then:

1st year: 40% of 5 crores = 2 crores

2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores

Expected value = 0.4(8.25 + 2) = 4.1 crores

Total Expected value = 7.2 + 4.1 = 11.3 crores

Choice 3: With 75% coverage:

75% of 20 crores = 15 crores

As probability is 0.2, Expected value = 15 × 0.2 = 3

crores

If contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year onwards,

then:

1st year: 25% of 5 crores = 1.25 crores

2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores

Expected value = 0.8 × 9.5 crores = 7.6 crores

Total expected value = 3 + 7.6 = 10.6 crores

Hence, option 2.

53. Option 1: Choice 1 is more profitable than Choice 2:

False

Option 2: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 2:

False

Option 3: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 1:

False

Hence, option 4.

54. In choice 1: Expected value = 11 crores

In choice 2: Expected value = 11.3 crores

Choice 3: With 55% coverage:

55% of 20 crores = 11 crores

As probability is 0.7, Expected value = 11 × 0.7 = 7.7

crores

If contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year onwards,

then:

1st year: 25% of 5 crores = 1.25 crores

2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores

Expected value = 0.3 × 9.5 crores = 2.85 crores

Total expected value = 7.7 + 2.85 = 10.55 crores

Option 1: Choice 1 is more profitable than Choice 2:

False

Option 2: Choice 2 is more profitable than Choice 3:

True

Option 3: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 1:

False

Hence, option 2.

55. To get the prize the customer must uncover two

pictures which match each other before uncovering

any of ‘No Prize’ pictures. The other signs then become

insignificant.

These five signs can occur in 120 ways.

In 12 of these permutations, the two matching pictures

occur before ‘No Prize’ sign.

∴ The probability of winning = 12/120 = 0.1

Hence, option 1.

56. Since there are 3 pairs of shoes, so shoes can be

selected in 3 ways.

The lower wear can be selected in 7 ways.

The upper wear can be selected in 27 ways (6 + 3 + 6 ×

3).

The jacket can be selected in 3 ways (2 ways for 2

jackets and one way when he does not wear a jacket).

∴ The total number of ways = 3 × 7 × 27 × 3 = 1701

ways

Hence, option 4.

57. We have,

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∴ Tan 3x = 1

Hence, option 3.

58. The figure would be as shown below (not drawn to

scale).

Now, BD = DC, then by Apollonius theorem in ∆ABC, we

have,

And in ∆ADC, we have,

From (i) and (ii), we get,

Hence, option 1.

59. Since in case of Hemi-sphere, radius is same as height,

it implies that the height for all the three shapes is

same, i.e. equal to r.

Assuming the base radius to be r in all the three cases,

we then have,

In case of cylinder: The curved surface area = 2 r2

In case of hemisphere: The curved surface area = 2 r2

Hence, option 4.

60. Consider statement 1

Year

Total

Wagons

Covered

wagons

Covered wagons as %

of total wagons

Number Number

1993 337562 157581 46.68

1994 312405 138642 44.38

1995 291360 121946 41.85

1996 280791 114065 40.62

1997 272127 106634 39.19

1998 263981 102217 38.72

1999 252944 96371 38.10

2000 234397 86024 36.70

2001 222193 75768 34.10

2002 216717 71950 33.20

2003 214760 68467 31.88

2004 227752 67870 29.80

2005 222379 64417 28.97

As can be seen from the above table, the percentage of

covered wagons did consistently drop from 1993 –

2005, but it did not increase in year 2003 when

compared to previous year

∴ This statement is false.

Consider statement 2:

Year

Total

Wagons

Special

type

wagons

Special wagons as % of

total wagons

Number Number

1993 337562 50282 14.90

1994 312405 49208 15.75

1995 291360 47927 16.45

1996 280791 46225 16.46

1997 272127 45341 16.66

1998 263981 43853 16.61

1999 252944 42242 16.70

2000 234397 40316 17.20

2001 222193 38884 17.50

2002 216717 37275 17.20

2003 214760 37650 17.53

2004 227752 39401 17.30

2005 222379 36454 16.39

The special wagons expressed as a percentage of total

wagons was highest in 2003.

∴ The given option is true.

Hence, option 2.

A

B D C

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61. Again from table given in the solution of the previous

question, it can be readily seen that this would hold

good for the pair 2000 and 2002, where the required

percentage for both of these years was 17.20%.

Hence, option 3.

62.

Year Total

Wagons

Departmental

wagons

Departmental

wagons as

% of total wagons

2002 216717 9536 4.40

2003 214760 10718 4.99

2004 227752 11388 5.00

2005 222379 10964 4.93

It was highest in 2004.

Hence, option 3.

63. The calculation is as shown below;

For special type wagons,

We see that option 1 had seen the lowest annual

growth rate.

Hence, option 1.

64. Consider statement 1:

Annual growth rate of covered wagons in

Annual growth rate of covered wagons in 2000

024 371

371 10 73

Thus, statement 1 is true.

Consider statement 2:

For open high sided wagons,

Annual growth rate in 1 7 0 2 7

2 7

0 2

Annual growth rate in 2003 07 5 0371

0371

0 44

Thus, statement 2 is true.

Consider statement 3:

It was maximum in the year 2001 as can be seen from

table below.

∴ Statement 3 is false.

Year Average wagon

capacity (Tonnes) Growth rate

1994 36.2 3.72%

1995 36.9 1.93%

1996 37.8 2.44%

1997 39.1 3.44%

1998 40.5 3.58%

1999 42.3 4.44%

2000 43.8 3.55%

2001 45.9 4.79%

2002 46.6 1.53%

2003 46.5 −0.215

2004 46.8 0.65%

2005 47.7 1.92%

Hence, option 3.

65. Consider statement 1:

Consider statement 2:

Consider statement 3:

Consider statement 4:

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The highest annual growth rate amongst these

occurred in case of statement 2.

Hence, option 2.

66. Observing the given chart carefully it becomes evident

that the growth rate was highest in 1992.

Hence, option 2.

67.

Year 90 91 92 93 94 95 Total Average Stability

P 45 25 40 38 75 55 278 46.33 0.93

Q 98 40 108 60 40 70 416 69.33 1.02

R 72 92 106 62 132 120 584 97.33 1.39

S 115 158 165 139 88 95 760 126.67 1.645

The stability was maximum for product S as can be

seen from the above table.

Hence, option 4.

68.

Year 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995

P Rs.

9 45 405 25 225 40 360 38 342 75 675 55 495

Q Rs.

4 98 392 40 160 108 432 60 240 40 160 70 280

R Rs.

13 72 936 92 1196 106 1378 62 806 132 1716 120 1560

S Rs.

3 115 345 158 474 165 495 139 417 88 264 95 285

Total 2078 2055 2665 1805 2815 2620

The total revenue was minimum in 1993

Hence, option 3.

69.

Year Total Revenue

P 2502

Q 1664

R 7592

S 2280

The table above shows the total revenue from each

product using the table from the solution of the

previous question.

Product Q fetched the least revenue.

Hence, option 2.

70. Using the table from the above answer:

Consider statement 1:

In 1991, product R fetched the highest revenue,

∴ Statement 1 is false.

Consider statement 2:

Sum of revenue of P, Q and S in 1994 = 675 + 160 + 264

= Rs. 1099 whereas the revenue of R in 1994 is Rs.

1716

∴ Statement 2 is false.

Consider statement 3:

Revenue of P and Q together in 1993 = 342 + 240 = Rs.

582, whereas the revenue of S in 1993 is Rs. 417

∴ Statement 3 is true.

Hence, option 3.

71. The results are as follows

We see that option 3 has the highest value.

Hence, option 3.

72. The growth rate for each of the statement is as shown

below:

We see that option 1 has the least value.

Hence, option 1.

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73. Consider statement 1:

∴ Statement 1 is false.

Consider statement 2:

∴ Statement 2 is false.

Consider statement 3:

∴ Statement 3 is true.

Hence, option 3.

74. Consider statement 1:

Annual increase in FDI in Bihar in 2001

= 55 − 5 = 4 27

Annual increase in FDI in Rajasthan in 2007

= 10034 − 5077 = 4 57

∴ Statement 1 is true.

Consider statement 2:

∴ Statement 2 is true.

Consider statement C:

Annual increase in FDI in Madhya Pradesh in 2004

= 177 1 − 13 1 = 3 70

Annual increase in FDI in Maharashtra in 2005

= 10 75 − 0 = 37

∴ Statement 3 is false.

Hence, option 3.

75. Consider statement 1:

Annual increase in FDI inflow in Haryana in 2006

= 5577 − 2 5 = 2 2

Annual increase in FDI inflow in Punjab in 2007

= 22 − 340 = 2

∴ Statement 1 is false.

Consider statement 2:

The increase in FDI inflow was highest for

Maharashtra.

∴ Statement 2 is false.

Consider option: 3:

Annual increase in FDI inflow in Bihar in 2003

= 34 − 52 = 2 4

Annual increase in FDI inflow in Karnataka in 2001

= 3553 − 32 = 254

∴ Statement 3 is true.

Hence, option 3.

76.

∴ Statement 4 has the lowest value.

Hence, option 4.

77. Consider statement 1:

∴ Statement 1 is false.

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Consider statement B:

∴ Statement 2 is false.

Consider statement 3:

∴ Statement 3 is true.

Hence, option 3.

78.

∴ Statement 2 has the highest value.

Hence, option 2.

79. Consider statement 1:

∴ Statement 1 is true.

Consider statement 2:

∴ Statement 2 is true.

Consider statement 3:

∴ Statement 3 is true.

Consider statement 4:

∴ Statement 4 is false.

Hence, option 4.

80. Consider statement 1:

Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2003

= 2138300 – 1807800 = 330500

Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2006

= 3577700 – 3059000 = 518700

∴ Statement 1 is true.

Consider statement 2:

Absolute annual increase in exports from Germany in

2001 = 571645 – 551818 = 19827

Absolute annual increase in exports from US in 2003 =

724771– 693103 = 31668

∴ Statement 2 is false.

Hence, option 2.

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81.

Year Unit

Price Revenue Units Profit Cost

Per Unit

Cost

2000 10 700 70 0 700 10

2001 14 1400 100 100 1300 13

2002 12 1200 100 300 900 9

2003 12 900 75 150 750 10

2004 11 1100 100 0 1100 11

2005 8 400 50 150 250 5

2006 10 200 20 100 100 5

2007 14 700 50 200 500 10

2008 10 600 60 0 600 10

2009 10 800 80 400 400 5

2010 15 900 60 300 600 10

The table above shows the complete analysis of cost.

We see that the cost per unit is highest in the year

2001.

Hence, option 2.

82. From the table given in the solution of the above

question, the total units sold in the period 2000–2010

= 765

∴ Average is 69.55 or 70 units.

Hence, option 2.

83.

Max

Value

Min

Value

Average

Value Volatility

Price per

unit 15 8 11.45 0.611

Cost per

unit 13 5 8.91 0.898

Total

profit 400 0 154.55 2.588

Revenue 1400 200 809.09 1.483

The table above shows the volatility of each parameter.

We see that volatility is maximum for Total Profit.

Hence, option 3.

84.

Year Unit Price Per Unit

Cost Units Profit

2000 8 10 70 -140

2001 11.2 13 100 -180

2002 9.6 9 100 60

2003 9.6 10 75 -30

2004 8.8 11 100 -220

2005 8 6 50 100

2006 10 6 20 80

2007 14 12 50 100

2008 10 12 60 -120

2009 10 6 80 320

2010 15 12 60 180

The table above shows the new price per unit and cost

per unit.

∴ We see that there is loss for 5 years.

Hence, option 3.

85. Cumulative Profit before the change is Rs. 1700

Cumulative Profit after the change is Rs. 150

∴ Change in cumulative profit is Rs. 1700 − Rs. 150 =

Rs. 1550

Hence, option 2.

86. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that the direct

model was not at all being exploited by any of their

competitors.

Option 2 is incorrect as the analysis points out that the

warehouse sends the product to the dealer.

Option 3 is incorrect as the author states that the norm

of the industry is to push the production of the factory

to the customers. It does not depend upon the

customer feedback.

Option 4 is correct whenever the production exceeds

the demand, manufacturers put down the prices to

push sales.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

87. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that direct

model helped the company to achieve a stellar

performance with regards to efficiency in raw material.

Option 2 is incorrect as the author states this in the

fifth paragraph by saying, “The quality of information

is inversely ... in this case excess inventory.”

Option 3 is eliminated as the author states this in the

8th paragraph by saying, “We also learned to take into

account ... limited variety of expensive parts.”

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

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88. Options 1 and 2 are eliminated as the market cannot be

matched with warehouse or stockpiles.

Option 4 is incorrect as the author states that the

conventional manufacturing process requires to

maintain stockpiles. Also, distributors cannot be

matched with velocity as they need to be matched with

warehouses.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

89. The author states that it was their company alone

which incorporated information gathering process and

customer feedbacks which enabled them to market

products with latest available technologies.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

90. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that there

were always more pirates than enough in the

Caribbean seas but he does not state that there were

more pirates at Belize than in the Caribbean seas.

Option 2 is incorrect as the author confesses that he

was not an experienced sailor and that he would sink

the ship in less than an hour if he was given charge.

Option 3 is incorrect as the author states that they used

to consider corporal Charker as the most authoritarian

non commissioned officer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

91. Option 3 is false as the author states that although they

not seen the notorious pirate gang, they had heard so

much about them that reinforcements were sent for.

All the other options are true.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

92. Option 4 is the correct answer as the author states this

in the first sentence of the 7th paragraph.

All the other options are false.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

93. Option 4 is incorrect because the author was the one

walking around the harbour with Corporal Charker. It

can be inferred from the last line that Gill is the name

of the author. The name of the sergeant was Drooce.

All the other options are true.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

94. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that on the

26th January, the moon was only two days old.

Option 2 is incorrect as the author states that

according to Conseil, the Captain of Nautilus was a

person who returned contempt for indifference.

Option 4 is incorrect as from the chronicle; it is clear

that the Nautilus was not in the vicinity of Island

Crespo, but had just left Keeling Island for the Indian

Peninsula.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

95. Option 2 is false because the author states that the

second officer came to take the altitude of the sun

before the 21st January. It is however unclear on which

day this event occurred.

All the other options are true.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

96. The author describes the tentacles of the molluscs, the

snouts of the Isabella sharks, cocos of the coral

formations and the colourless infusorias that adhere to

themselves for several leagues.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.

97. Option 1 is eliminated as Nautilus was travelling at that

speed between 21st and 23rd January and not 22nd and

24th January.

Option 2 is incorrect as the author saw the molluscs on

25th January and not 26th January.

Option 3 is incorrect as the author fancied (imagined)

the boat to be owned by the PO Company and

travelling from Ceylon to Sydney.

Option 4 is explained in the second paragraph of the

passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

98. A “rumble” is a ‘deep, heavy, muffled sound’. A “fracas” is a ‘riotous brawl’.

An “aquifer” is any ‘geological formation containing or

conducting ground water’.

A “chalice” is a bowl shaped drinking vessel’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

99. “Briny” means ‘salty’. “Puerile” means ‘childishly foolish’.

“Prophylactic” means ‘defending or protecting from

disease or infection’.

“Vitriolic” means ‘something highly caustic or severe or

a strong and erosive acid’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

100. A “maelstrom” is a large powerful whirlpool.

“Alacrity” is ‘cheerful readiness or promptness’.

“Slighting” is ‘treating as of small importance’.

“Acclivity” is an ‘upward slope of ground’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

101. Since the Hon. Ige was confronted with incivility, the

word in the blank should have a negative connotation.

This eliminates options 2 and 4.

“Proscription” is an ‘act of banishing’. Since Justice Ige

cannot banish the cads and only curses them, this

option is eliminated.

Malediction means to utter a curse.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

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102. “Prophesy” is the verb which means to ‘predict something’.

“Prophecy” is the noun which means a ‘prediction’.

The first blank needs a verb and the second blank

needs a noun.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

103. The public figure is said to be facing inquiry into

allegations of having obtained money by deception, the

person has to be troubled or engaged in a struggle or

conflict. This eliminates options 1 and 4.

“Endangered” is generally used to denote a ‘threat with

extinction’. The threat here is of a much larger degree

and hence can be eliminated.

“Embattle” means to be ‘engaged in a struggle or

conflict’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

104. “Lugubrious” is ‘mournful’. His listeners will not enjoy his mournful wit. Moreover, satire is sarcastic and

ironic but not mournful. Thus, options 1 and 3 are

eliminated.

“Smarted” means to ‘cause a sharp and superficial

pain’. The victims cannot smart and suffer at the same

time. Hence, option 2 is also eliminated.

“Trenchant” wit is ‘caustic and cutting’ wit. To “wince”

is to ‘draw back or tense the body as from pain’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

105. The sentence talks about the President’s

Administration and not the President, the pronoun that

can be used is ‘it’ only. This eliminates options 1 and 4.

Option 3 is incorrect as it talks about the president

losing the vote and not the President’s Office. This

eliminates option 3 as well.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

106. The verb ‘indicate’ should agree with ‘the rise’ and not ‘negative attitude’ and should, therefore, should be

singular. This eliminates option 1.

Option 3 is eliminates as the word ‘that’ is not required

after ‘therefore’.

Option 4 is incorrect because of the tense used. The

sentence talks about an on-going process and the

present continuous tense is needed.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

107. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect as the correct usage

would be a single sentence.

Option 3 puts forward the same idea as option 1 but

option 1 is better expressed.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

108. The use of chemical spill as a subject is awkward in

option 2. It seems as if the chemical spill were a person

causing the delay.

There is nothing incorrect about options 3 and 4.

But the directions of the question are clear. The

original sentence is correct and there is no reason to

alter it.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

109. “Travesty” is a ‘literary or artistic composition, so inferior in quality as to be an imitation of its model’.

“Paragon” is ‘a model or pattern of excellence’. Hence

the relation between the two is that of approximate

opposites.

“Disqualification” can be the ‘effect of ineptitude which

means quality or condition of being without skill’.

Hence, option 2 is eliminated.

A “sentinel” is a ‘person or a thing that watches or

stands as if watching’. “Creed” is ‘any system or

codification of belief’. Since these words are not

opposites of each other, option 3 is incorrect.

“Conundrum” is ‘anything that puzzles’.

“Accountability” is not the opposite of conundrum and

hence, option 4 is also eliminated.

“Autonomy” is ‘independence or freedom’.

“Subordinate” is an ‘inferior or a dependent person or

thing’. These two words are opposites of each other.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

110. “Contrite” means to ‘be filled with a sense of guilt’. “Obdurate” means to be ‘stubbornly resistant to moral

influence’. These two words are opposites of each

other.

Grief and lament are approximate synonyms of each

other. Thus, option 1 is eliminated.

Sophisticated and cultured are synonyms of each other

and hence, option 3 is incorrect.

Since favourable and assenting are synonyms, option 4

is eliminated.

“Aphoristic” means ‘giving or making a brief statement

of a principle which is available to all’. “Esoteric” is that

which is ‘known by a restricted number of people’.

These two are opposites.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

111. A “peccadillo” is a ‘very minor or slight sin or offense; a trifling fault’. A “flaw” is a ‘feature that mars the

perfection of something; defect; fault’. Therefore the

relationship is synonymous in nature.

“Clandestine” is ‘something executed with secrecy’.

Since openness is an antonym of clandestine, option 1

is eliminated.

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“Forensics” is the ‘art or study of argumentation and

courts of law’. “Judiciary” means ‘pertaining to the

judicial branch or system or to judges’. These words

are not synonyms but one is used in another. Forensics

cannot lead to judiciaries. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

An “invasion” is an ‘entrance as if to take possession or

overrun against any form of enemy’. A “putsch” is a

‘plotted attempt to overthrow a government’. Since,

they are not synonyms and since an invasion cannot

lead to a putsch; option 4 is incorrect.

A “nick” is a ‘small notch, groove, chip, or the like, cut

into or existing in something’. A “score” is a ‘notch,

scratch, or incision; a stroke or line’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

112. A “mutter” is an ‘utterance of indistinct words in a low tone’.

A definition is not necessarily easy. Hence, option 1 is

incorrect.

Blunder and polished cannot be related and thus,

option 2 is eliminated.

To “expedite” is to ‘speed up the process’. It may not

necessarily complete the process. Hence, option 4 is

incorrect.

To “articulate” is to ‘speak well in distinct syllables’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

113. “Requiem” is a ‘musical service or a dirge for the repose of the dead’.

“Humility” is the ‘quality of being humble’.

“Prerequisite” means ‘required beforehand’.

“Reign” means ‘royal rule’.

“Resolution” means ‘a formal expression of opinion or

intention made, usually after voting, by a formal

organization, a legislature, a club, or other group’.

None of these words are opposite in meaning to

requiem.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Note: Fifth option has been added to reduce the

ambiguity seen in the question.

114. “Aspersion” is a ‘damaging or a derogatory remark or criticism’.

“Infamy” is ‘evil fame or reputation’.

“Restriction” is ‘confinement’.

“Tradition” is ‘something that is handed down’.

“Obeisance” is ‘a movement of body expressing deep

respect or deferential courtesy’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

115. “Stolidity” is the ‘ability to remain not easily stirred or moved emotionally’.

“Posterity” means ‘all descendants of one generation’.

“Proximity” is ‘nearness in place, time, order,

occurrence or relation’.

“Agility” is the ‘power of moving quickly and easily’.

“Sobriety” is the ‘state or quality of being sober’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

116. Options 2 and 4 are eliminated as the paragraph

cannot start with statement I. Statement I states ‘even

more’, which suggests a continuing idea.

Statement IV talks of a contraction which has been

introduced in Statement II. Statement IV cannot come

before Statement II.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

117. Statement I cannot start the paragraph as it talks about

‘at the time’. Since the statement is talking about a

specific time, it needs to be introduced before using

this statement. Thus, options 2 and 4 are eliminated.

Statement III states that ‘he’ says. This person needs to

be introduced before using this statement and since

there is only one person mentioned in all statements

put together; statement I should precede statement III.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

118. Option 3 is eliminated as statement II talks about ‘its effects’. Since the cause of this effect should be

introduced before using this statement, statement II

cannot start the paragraph.

Statement V talks about ‘formate’ which is further

explained in statement II. Thus, statement II should

follow statement V.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

119. “Disinterested” means ‘unbiased’. “Uninterested” means ‘not interested’.

With these definitions, only S2 and S4 are the

sentences where the word has been used correctly.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

120. To use ‘on the contrary’ correctly, the sentence must have two contradicting ideas.

Intelligence and Impatience are not contradicting

ideas. Hence, S2 is incorrect.

It is not contradicting if a cosmopolitan city is

expensive. Thus, S3 is also incorrect.

Being rich and being in debt are two contradicting

ideas, thus, S1 is correct.

Passing and failing are two contradicting ideas and

hence, S4 is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

121. China is not a member of the G8 group of countries.

Hence, option 2.

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122. UNESCO launched the ‘Education For All’ (EFA)

movement.

Hence, option 4.

123. Mexico is a member of the OECD group.

Hence, option 3.

124. The correct match is

Year Olympic host

cities

1 1976 iii Montreal

2 1992 iv Barcelona

3 1964 ii Tokyo

4 2012 i London

Hence, option 4.

125. The correct match is

IPL Franchise Owner

1 Mumbai Indians iii Reliance

Industries

2 Royal Challengers i UB group

3 Chennai Super Kings iv India Cements

4 Delhi Daredevils ii GMR Holdings

Hence, option 2.

126. Albania is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers

Group.

Hence, option 4.

127. The correct match is

Bharat Ratna

recipients Year

1 Pandit Ravi Shankar ii 1999

2 Ustad Bismillah Khan iii 2001

3 M S Subbulakshmi iv 1998

4 Satyajit Ray i 1992

Hence, option 1.

128. Siouguluan River flows in Taiwan not Malaysia.

Hence, option 4.

129. International Monetary Fund is headquartered at

Washington D.C, USA.

Hence, option 3.

130. In 1994 the Hockey World cup, hosted in Sydney, was

won by Pakistan.

Hence, option 3.

131. Accidental Empires: How the Boys of Silicon Valley

Make Their Millions, Battle Foreign Competition, and

Still Can’t Get a Date is written by Robert X Cringely.

Hence, option 2.

132. Storting is Parliament of Norway and Riksdag is the

Parliament of Sweden.

Hence, option 2.

133. View from the outside: Why good economics works for

everyone is written by P. Chidambaram.

Hence, option 1.

134. Maastricht Treaty was signed by the European nations

to enter into a monetary union.

Hence, option 3.

135. Bajaj has a tie up with a Germen insurer.

Hence, option 3.

136. Tata Chemicals has acquired General Chemical

Industrial Products Inc. of USA in 2008.

Hence, option 1.

137. Anti-Naxalite Force is not part of the Central Police

Forces under the Union Government of India.

Hence, option 4.

138. The correct order in terms of decreasing length of land

border shared with India is Bangladesh, China,

Pakistan, Nepal, and Myanmar.

Hence, option 4.

139. The IAEA was established in 1957. France conducted

its first nuclear weapons test in 1960 and China

conducted its first nuclear test in 1964.

Hence, option 3.

140. Daulagiri, the seventh highest mountain peak in the

world, is located in Nepal.

Hence, option 1.

141. The correct match is

Organization Purpose

1 NABARD ii Refinancing agricultural

credit

2 NCDC i Financial assistance for

warehousing

3 SCARDB iv Land development

4 NAFED iii Inter-state sale of

agricultural products

Hence, option 1.

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142. The correct order in terms of decreasing sex ratio is

Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and

Orissa.

Hence, option 1.

143. The correct match is

Artists Instruments

i. N. Rajam b. Violin

ii. Satish Vyas a. Santoor

iii. Vilayat Khan d. Sitar

iv. Asad Ali Khan c. Rudra Vina

Hence, option 2.

144. The correct match is

Sobriquets Primary Names

i. Emerald Island b. Ireland

ii. Island of pearls a. Bahrain

iii. Holy land d. Palestine

iv. Land of thunderbolt c. Bhutan

Hence, option 3.

145. In 2007, Indra Nooyi was awarded Padma Bhushan by

Government of India.

Hence, option 1.

146. The antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium

fungi.

Hence, option 2.

147. The correct match is

Railway Zone Head Quarter

i. South-East Central c. Bilaspur

ii. North-East Frontier b. Maligaon

iii. North Eastern d. Gorakhpur

iv. West Central a. Jabalpur

Hence, option 1.

148. The correct match is

Inventions/Discoveries Inventors/ Discoverer

i. Cassette(Audio) a. Philips Co.

ii. Super Computer b. J. H. Van Tassel

iii. Cloning(Mammal) c. Wilmut et al

iv. HIV d. Mortagnier

Hence, option 1.

149. The correct match is

Diseases Plants

i. Black heart d. Potatoes

ii. Red Rot c. Sugarcane

iii. Karnal Bunt b. Wheat

iv. Powdery Mildew a. Peas

Hence, option 2.

150. In April 2008 ISRO launched the satellite

CARTOSAT-2A form Sriharikota.

Hence, option 2.