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QUESTION: 1In information technology, we often build products requirements/specifications whichalthough documented not true quality needs of our customers.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to [email protected]

QUESTION: 2Our products must be corrected so that they will eventually meet our customers' true qualityneeds.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 3Quality without timeliness and cost consideration is ________________

A. MeaninglessB. BeneficialC. One of product deficienciesD. Cheaper


QUESTION: 4We can produce products at our convenience and at any cost

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 5Those responsible for quality must include –

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A. Cost considerationB. delivery at required timeC. At required qualityD. 1 & 2E. 2 & 3F. All the above


QUESTION: 6Quality is ----------------'s responsibility.


QUESTION: 7Management must create an _______________ and _______________ for quality tohappen.

A. Environment , enthusiasmB. Principles, rewardC. Empowerment, rewards


QUESTION: 8Management must make quality number one and then reward quality work.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 9Monetary and non monetary rewards can be considered management to make people enjoywhat they are doing.

A. TrueB. False

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QUESTION: 10Product inspections and testing can be eliminated by building processes to eliminate rootcauses of defects and producing defect free products.


QUESTION: 11The following comprise the processes - Which is correct

A. Policies, standards, proceduresB. standards, procedures, policiesC. Procedures, policies, standardsD. Policies, procedures, standards


QUESTION: 12Quality is not an attribute of product.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 13Quality is not a binary state

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 14Quality need not be defined in quantitative terms in order to be measurable.

A. True

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B. False


QUESTION: 15Quality can be controlled only if it is measured.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 16Judgement is an audit function

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 17AQL means –

A. Audit quality levelB. Audit quantity levelC. Accepted quality level


QUESTION: 18 Management must support zero defects

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 19

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Deficiencies of AQL are –

A. Undermines the concept of qualityB. Does not aim at eradicating the cause of defects From the processes.C. 1 & 2D. None of the above.


QUESTION: 20Non conformance must be detected as early as possible measured.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 21High defect prone products and processes are identified testing the product after allprocesses are over.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 2280% of all defects are attributable to incorrect ineffective processes.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 23_____________ is responsible for processes and must accept the responsibility fornonconformance at least to 80% attributable to the processes.

A. QA departmentB. QC departmentC. Information technology management

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QUESTION: 24The concept that is an integral part of information technology function is –

A. Meeting the requirementsB. Producing a quality productC. Customer's view of quality is the correct view quality.


QUESTION: 25Probability of being successful is extremely high, customer's problems are taken ascompany's problems.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 26Quality work can be rewarded.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 27The topics of standards and nonconformance should discussed in every meeting to improvequality.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 28

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Quality is a ______________ Responsibility.

A. StaffB. LineC. Both


QUESTION: 29Everyone should be involved in quality improvement programs.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 30The responsibility of supervisor –

A. Teach subordinates how to performB. To evaluate subordinate performanceC. Assist and support workers until they become proficientD. 1 &2E. 1 & 3F. 2 & 3G. 1, 2 and 3


QUESTION: 31Standards, procedures and metrics are to be established workers doing the job.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 32Management can always override standards and procedures established by workersabsolutely when necessary.

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QUESTION: 33It is better to deal with more number of vendors


QUESTION: 34Quality pyramid illustrates core processes (building blocks) of quality) and implementationdimension of each process

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 35Baselining is quantitatively determining what you want be.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 36Analysis is performed before baselining is done.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 37Analaysis is done to determine which area is in need improvement.

A. TrueB. False

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QUESTION: 38Vision provides an umbrella for focusing all the plans in order to achieve constancy ofpurpose.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 39Planning involves agreeing on specific objectives and you hope to get there.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 40Six sigma quality is ___________

A. 1.2 Defects per million lines of codeB. 3.4 Defects per million lines of codeC. 6.1 Defects per million lines of code


QUESTION: 41Deming's 14 quality principles emphasize the following strategy:1. Management must lead, direct, train, empower and support rather than supervise andcontrol.2. MBP is important rather than MBO3. Long term continual quality improvement must be focus rather than short termprofit/cost.

A. 1 only;B. 1 & 2;C. 1 & 3;D. 2 & 3;E. all the above.

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QUESTION: 42The three levels of management are -

A. Lower, middle and upperB. Executive, middle, line


QUESTION: 43Executive is __________ and ____________

A. Directional and tacticalB. Tactical and strategicC. Visionary and strategicD. Visionary and directional


QUESTION: 44Middle is ___________ and ____________

A. Visionary and tacticalB. Visionary and directionalC. Directional and tactical


QUESTION: 45Line is ____________

A. DirectionalB. TacticalC. Operational


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QUESTION: 46Executive must establish a working relationship with middle management and middlemanagement must establish a working relationship with line management and linemanagement establish a working relationship with executive management

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 47CASE tools can be introduced duly integrating standards and supporting procedures.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 48Tools supporting processes to be ensured rather processes supporting tools.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 49Quality control is the responsibility of people who evolve the processes.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 50Quality defect is non conformance to standards.

A. TrueB. False

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QUESTION: 51Techniques for identifying deviations from standards Deviations from productspecifications must be integrate into all work processes.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 52Verification activity is a static analysis.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 53Common verification techniques are -

A. Walkthroughs, checkpoint reviews, inspectionsB. Test plan, test execution


QUESTION: 54Testing is not a verification technique

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 55Types of measurement of performance are –

A. strategic, statical, operational

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B. Strategic, tactical, operational


QUESTION: 56Match:

A. Strategic - a. Operational managementB. Tactical - b. Executive managementC. Operational - c. Middle management


QUESTION: 57Management must retain decision making authority identify and resolve problems.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 58Rational, analytical techniques can be used for problem resolution/problem solving.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 59Seven core processes are

A. Baseline, analyse, vision and planB. Establish a TQM processC. Install and improve processesD. Control quality (walkthrough, reviews and inspectionsE. Quality control (validation-test plan/test execution)F. Perform quantitative analysisG. Perform continuous improvement

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QUESTION: 60Plan - Baseline, plan - approach partDo - Set short term objectives , compare results targets, revise approach if requiredCheck & act - check results, replan and recheckResults - final resultsApproach is repeatable.


QUESTION: 61Quality means

A. conformance to requirementsB. meeting customer needsC. bothD. none

Answer: C

QUESTION: 62AQL stands for

A. Allowable Quality LevelB. Allocated Quality LevelC. Acceptable Quality LevelD. Allowed Quality Level

Answer: C

QUESTION: 63For quality to happen, there must be well-defined standards and procedures which arefollowed.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 64Many technical personnel believe that standards inhibit their creativity.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 65Achieving quality (defect-free products and services) is easy.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

QUESTION: 66The challenge of making quality happen is

A. a miniscule challengeB. a monumental challenge

Answer: B

QUESTION: 67Accomplishing quality requires "a thought revolution by management.". Who stated asabove?

A. Dr. Malcolm BaldrigeB. Dr. Kaoru IshikawaC. Bill Gatesd)William J Clinton

Answer: B

QUESTION: 68Taylor approach refers to

A. Engineers create work standards and specifications. Workers merely follow.

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B. Engineers create work standards and specifications. Both engineers and workers follow.C. Engineers create work standards and specifications and follow them.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 69In Zero defect movement all responsibilities and defects are borne by the workers.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 70The word "kick-off" is used in

A. Zero Defect MovementB. Deming's CircleC. QAI's Quality Improvement Model

Answer: A

QUESTION: 71Dr. W. Edwards Deming has stated that it takes ____________ years to change a culturefrom an emphasis on productivity to an emphasis on quality.(10 years/20 years/2 to 5years/none of these)

Answer:20 years

QUESTION: 72Quality means meeting requirements. This is ____________view. (producer's /customer's )

Answer:producer's view

QUESTION: 73Quality means fit for use. This is ________________view. (producer's /customer's )

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Answer:customer's view

QUESTION: 74Which one of the following definitions of quality is more important.

A. Quality means meeting requirements.B. Quality means fit for use.

Answer: B

QUESTION: 75Quality control is a ______________ function. (line/staff)

Answer:line

QUESTION: 76Quality assurance is a ____________ function. (line/staff)

Answer:staff

QUESTION: 77By what other two names is PDCA process referred to?

Answer:Management Cycle/Deming's wheel

QUESTION: 78What does "Going Around the PDCA Circle" connote?

Answer:The four-step procedure, viz., Plan-Do-Check-Act is referred to as PDCA. Repeatedlygoing through the management cycle is known as "going around the PDCA circle".

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QUESTION: 79The no of principles in Dr. W. Edwards Deming's quality principles is ____________.(8/10/12/14/16)

Answer:14

QUESTION: 80 For quality to happen it is not necessary that all the Deming's principles are usedconcurrently.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

QUESTION: 81The award has three eligibility categories which are Manufacturing, Service and Smallbusiness.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 82Manufacturing Companies includes

A. AgricultureB. MiningC. ConstructionD. All the aboveE. b & c


QUESTION: 83Upto two awards can be given in each category each year.(T/F)

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A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 84Please tick which of the following are covered under award criteria.

A. Leadership.B. Strategic Planning.C. Customer & Market Focus.D. Information & Analysis.E. Human Resource Development & Management.F. Process Management.G. Business Results.H. Funds Management.I. Materials Management.


QUESTION: 85The total maximum points for award criteria is

A. 100 pointsB. 500 pointsC. 1000 pointsD. 10000 points


QUESTION: 86Under strategic planning, we have

A. Strategy planningB. Strategy DevelopmentC. Human resource plansD. Only a & bE. a, b, & c.

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QUESTION: 87Leadership category includes

A. Leadership systemB. Societal ResponsibilitiesC. Community InvolvementD. a,b & cE. a & b only.


QUESTION: 88Describing how company practices a good citizenship is a part of leadership category.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 89Performance projections forms part of strategic planning.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 90Customer and Market focus examines

A. Customer and Market knowledgeB. Customer satisfaction & relationship enhancementC. Financial & Market results.D. All the aboveE. Only a & b.

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QUESTION: 91Accessibility and complaint management forms part of customer and market knowledge.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 92Information and Analysis deals with

A. Selection and use of Information and dataB. Selection and use of comparative Information & dataC. Analysis of dataD. Only a & cE. a,b & c.


QUESTION: 93Analysis of data comprises

A. Customer related performanceB. Operational performanceC. Competitive performanceD. Financial & market related performanceE. All the aboveF. b,c & d.


QUESTION: 94HRD Management includes

A. Compensation & RecognitionB. Work and Job design

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C. Employee education, training & developmentD. Work environmentE. All the aboveF. Only a,c & d


QUESTION: 95Employee support services not forms part of a HRD Management category

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 96Process Management includes

A. Design ProcessB. Management of Support ProcessC. Supplier and Partnering processD. Only a & bE. a,b & c.


QUESTION: 97Company's key support process should be designed, __________ and improved.


QUESTION: 98Business results include

A. Customer satisfaction resultsB. Financial and market resultsC. Human resource principlesD. Supplier and Partner results

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E. Company specific resultsF. All the aboveG. a,b,d & e.


QUESTION: 99Pricing is also important to competitive success and customer satisfaction.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 100Human resource results does not cover work system performance

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 101Organisation at initial level can improve their performance by instituting

A. Project ManagementB. Management OversightC. Quality AssuranceD. Change ControlE. All the aboveF. Only a,b, & d


QUESTION: 102Establishing project management requires

A. Adequate PreparationB. Clear Responsibility

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C. Dedication to PerformD. All the aboveE. None of the above.


QUESTION: 103Management oversight does not include review and approval of all major developmentplans prior to official commitment.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 104Quality Assurance Dept should not have independent reporting line to senior managementand they should report to middle management for better performance.

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 105Generally the strength of QA dept should be ______________ percent of size oforganisation.

A. 1 to 2B. 3 to 6C. 10 to 20D. 70 to 80


QUESTION: 106Change control for software is fundamental to ____________ and ______________ controlas well as to _______________ stability.

A. business, finance, technical

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B. finance, technical, businessC. technical, business, financeD. None of the above.


QUESTION: 107In repeatable process, the organisation provides control over its _______________ and___________________.

A. Resources and commitmentsB. Plan & commitmentsC. Resources & quality ControlD. None of the above.


QUESTION: 108The changes that effect organisation at repeatable process are

A. New tools & methods.B. When organisation ventures into new fieldC. Major organisational changesD. All the aboveE. None of the above


QUESTION: 109To overcome the changes that affect repeatable process the organisation should do

A. Establish process groupB. Establish S/W development process architectureC. Introduces S/W Engg methods & technologiesD. All the above.E. Only a,b & c.

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QUESTION: 110In defined process, the organisation has

A. achieved foundation for major and continuing progressB. able to face crisisC. BothD. Neither a or b.


QUESTION: 111The Defined process is still only qualitative but not measurable qantatively

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 112Key steps required to be initiated at defined process are

A. Establish quality and cost parametersB. Establish process databaseC. Provide resources to gather & maintain dataD. Establish Total quality planE. All the aboveF. Only a,b & c.


QUESTION: 113The greatest potential problem with the managed process is the cost of gathering data

A. TrueB. False


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QUESTION: 114In managed process

A. Data should be definedB. Automate gathering of dataC. Use process data to analyzeD. All the aboveE. Only a & b


QUESTION: 115In optimising process, process optimising is done to produce major quality & productivitybenefits

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 116The Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award is an annual award to recognise UScompanies which excel in

A. Quality achievement and quality controlB. Quality assurance and quality controlC. Quality achievement and quality management

Answer: C

QUESTION: 117Which of the following is inaccurate ? The award promotes

A. Awareness of quality as an increasingly important element in competitivenessB. Understanding of the strategies for quality excellenceC. Understanding of the requirements for quality excellenceD. Sharing of information on successful strategies and on the benefits derived fromimplementation of these strategies

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Answer: B

QUESTION: 118The Malcolm Baldridge Award was created by Public Law 100-107, signed into law on20th Aug 1987.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 119Greater emphasis on statistical process control can lead to dramatic improvements in thecost and quality of manufactured products.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 120Quality improvement programs must be management led and customer oriented.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 121The match the three eligibility categories of the awardA Companies or subsidiaries that produce and sell manufactured products or manufacturingprocesses and those companies which produce agricultural, mining or constructionproducts.B Companies or subsidiaries that sell services.C Complete businesses with not more than 500 full time employees. Business activitiesmay include manufacturing and / or service.1. Small business2. Manufacturing3. Service

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A. 1 2 3,B. 3 2 1,C. 2 3 1.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 122The small business must be able to document that it functions through its equity owners.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

QUESTION: 123The number of awards given in each category each year is

A. 3B. 1C. 2

Answer: C

QUESTION: 124The National Quality Award model is divided into _______ categories which cover themajor components of a ______________________.

Answer:7, total quality management system

QUESTION: 125Match the followingA Driver 1. Quality resultsB System 2. Customer satisfactionC Measures of Progress 3. Information and analysis

A. Strategic quality planningB. Human resources utilisation

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C. Quality Assurance of product and servicesD. Goal 4. Leadership

Answer:a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2

QUESTION: 126Leadership category examines the senior executives leadership

A. in creating quality valuesB. building the values into the way the company does businessC. how the executive and company project the quality values outside the companyD. create a quality department and appoint a quality officerE. all the aboveF. a, b & c

Answer: F

QUESTION: 127Leadership evaluations are based upon the appropriateness, effectiveness and extent of theexecutives' and of the company's involvement in relation to the size and type of business.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 128Quality department or officer / regulatory affairs office or officer is a prerequisite foreligibility under leadership criteria.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

QUESTION: 129Information and analysis category examines the scope, validity and use of data to determinethe adequacy of the data system to support total quality management.

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A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 130The scope, management and analysis of data depend upon

A. the type of business, its resourcesB. number and geographical distribution of business unitsC. and other factorsD. all of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION: 131Information and analysis evaluations are based upon

A. the appropriateness and effectiveness of methods for management of dataB. information and analysisC. and of technology in relation to these business factorsD. all of the above.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 132Information and analysis evaluations do not depend on

A. how activities are organised orB. whether or not the company has an information department or an officer orC. uses particular technologies to analyse data orD. to make data available throughout the company E. all of the above.

Answer: E

QUESTION: 133

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Strategic quality and planning category examines the company's approach to planning todetermine its adequacy to achieve or sustain quality leadership.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 134Competitive and benchmark data are essential for planning quality leadership because theymake possible clear and objective quality comparisons.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 135While the planning processes and priority development do not depend appreciably upon thesize and type of business, the scope and type of benchmark may depend upon such businessfactors.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 136The principal considerations in assessing the effectiveness of competitive and benchmarkdata are in relation to

A. the competitive environment and resources of the companyB. the type and size of the companyC. a & bD. b only

Answer: A

QUESTION: 137

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Evaluations of planning are based upon the thoroughness and effectiveness of processesincluding the information used.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 138Evaluations for strategic quality planning do not depend upon

A. how planning activities are organisedB. whether or not the company has a planning department or officerC. a & b

Answer: C

QUESTION: 139Human resources utilisation category examines the company's efforts to develop andinvolve

A. the entire workforce in total qualityB. the management in total qualityC. the line staff in total quality d. all the above

Answer: A

QUESTION: 140The organisation of efforts to develop and involve employees depend upon

A. the number of employeesB. resources of the companyC. geographical distribution of business unitsD. and other factorsE. all the above

Answer: E

QUESTION: 141

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Evaluations depend upon the appropriateness and effectiveness of approaches to humanresource development and do not depend upon whether or not the company has either ahuman resource department or officer, or training and education specialists or facilities

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 142Quality assurance of products and services category has a very strong process and systemsorientation throughout.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 143The degree of formality in systems and processes depends upon a number of factors such as

A. size of the businessB. types of products and servicesC. customer and government requirementsD. regulatory requirementsE. number of business locationsF. all the above

Answer: F

QUESTION: 144Quality assurance of products and services evaluations take into account consistency ofexecution of quality operations that incorporate a sound prevention basis accompanied bycontinuous quality improvement activities.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 145

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Consistency of execution is taken to mean the existence of defined and

A. suitably recorded processes with clear delineation of responsibilitiesB. consistently executing operationsC. other factors

Answer: A

QUESTION: 146Evaluations for quality assurance of products and services depend upon

A. how responsibilities are distributed or organised orB. whether or not the company has a quality organisation or officerC. none of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION: 147Quality results category examines the company's quality improvement and quality levels bythemselves and in relation to those of competitors.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 148The number and types of measures for quality results depend upon factors such as

A. the company's sizeB. types of products and servicesC. competitive environmentD. all the above

Answer: A

QUESTION: 149Quality results evaluations consider whether or not the measures are sufficient to supportoverall improvement and to establish clear quality levels and comparisons.

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A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 150Customer satisfaction category examines

A. the company's knowledge of customer requirementsB. service and responsivenessC. satisfaction results measures through a variety of indicator D. all the above

Answer: D

QUESTION: 151The scope and organisation of activities to gather information to serve and to respond tocustomers depend upon many factors such as

A. company resourceB. types of products and servicesC. geographical distribution of business unitsD. customersE. none of the aboveF. all of the above

Answer: F

QUESTION: 152Customer satisfaction evaluations are based upon the appropriateness and effectiveness ofefforts in relation to these business factors.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 153Customer satisfaction evaluations do not depend upon

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A. how responsibilities are distributed orB. whether or not the company has separate departments for customer service, complaintsor other special purposesC. Both of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION: 154The seven examination categories address all major components of an integrated,prevention - based quality system built around continous quality improvement.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 155The system for scoring examination items is based upon which of thefollowing evaluationdimensions

A. ApproachB. DeploymentC. ResultsD. All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION: 156Approach refers to the method the company uses to achieve the

A. Evaluation of approachesB. purposes addressed in the examination itemsC. a & b

Answer: B

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QUESTION: 157The scoring criteria used to evaluate approaches

A. the degree to which the approach is prevention basedB. the appropriateness of the tools, techniques, and methods to the requirementsC. the effectiveness of the use of tools, techniques and methodsD. the degree to which the approach is systematic, integrated and consistently appliedE. the degree to which the approach embodies effective self-evaluation, feedback andadaptation cycles to sustain continuous improvementF. the degree to which the approach is based upon quantitative information that is objectiveand reliableG. the indicators of unique and innovative approaches, including significant and effectivenew adaptations of tools and techniques used in other applications or types of businesses.H. all of the aboveI. any one or more of the above

Answer: I

QUESTION: 158Deployment refers to the extent to which the approaches are applied to all relevant areasand activities addressed and implied in the examination items.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 159Scoring criteria used to evaluate deployment include

A. any one or more of the belowB. the appropriate and effective application to all product and service characteristicsC. the appropriate and effective application to all transactions and interactions withcustomers, suppliers of goods and services and the publicD. the appropriate and effective application to all internal processes, activities, facilities andemployees

Answer: A

QUESTION: 160

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Results refers to outcomes and effect in achieving the purposes addressed and implied inthe examination items

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 161The scoring criteria used to evaluation results include

A. any one or more of the belowB. the quality levels demonstratedC. the contributions of the outcomes and effects to quality improvementD. the rate of quality improvementE. the breadth of quality improvementF. the demonstration of sustained improvementG. the significance of improvements to the company's businessH. the comparison with industry and world leadersI. the company's ability to show that improvements derive from their quality practices andactions

Answer: A

QUESTION: 162Match the following Initial

A. Initiate rigorous project management of commitments, costs, schedules and changesRepeatableB. At this point advanced technology can be usefully introducedDefinedC. Achieve rudimentary predictability of schedules and costsManagedD. Foundation for continuing improvement and optimisation of processOptimisingE. Most significant quality improvements begin

Answer:

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1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - e, 5 - d

QUESTION: 163The five maturity levels have been selected because they reasonably represent the actualhistorical phases of evolutionary improvement of real software organisation represent ameasure of improvement that is reasonable to achieve from the prior level suggest interimimprovement goals and progress measures make obvious a set of immediate improvementpriorities, once an organization’s status in this framework is known all the above

A. Initiate rigorous project management of commitments, costs, schedules and changesRepeatableB. At this point advanced technology can be usefully introducedDefinedC. Achieve rudimentary predictability of schedules and costsManagedD. Foundation for continuing improvement and optimisation of processOptimisingE. Most significant quality improvements begin

Answer: E

QUESTION: 164The primary objective of the maturity level transitions is to achieve a controlled andmeasured process as the foundation for continuing improvement.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 165Assessment methodology helps an organisation establish a structure for implementing thepriority improvement actions.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 166Management system helps an organisation identify its specific maturity status.

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A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 167Once its position in the maturity structure is defined the organisation can concentrate onthose items that will help it advance t the next level.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 168Poor project planning generally leads to unrealistic schedules, inadequate resources andfrequent crises.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 169When a software organisation does not have an effective project planning system, it may bedifficult or even impossible to introduce advanced methods and technology.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 170In initial process (level 1) software installation and maintenance often present seriousproblems.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 171In organisations in level1, there is no mechanism to ensure that formal procedures forplanning and tracking their work are used.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 172In a crisis, if the organisation abandons established procedures and essentially reverts tocoding and testing it is likely to be in at____________________ level

A. repeatable processB. initial processC. both a & bD. none of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION: 173Because many effective software actions (such as design and code inspections or test dataanalysis) do not appear directly to support shipping the product, they are expendable.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

QUESTION: 174Organisations at the initial process level can improve their performance by insisting basiccproject controls like

A. project managementB. management oversightC. quality assuranceD. change controlE. all the above

Answer: E

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QUESTION: 175For software, project management starts with an understanding of the job's magnitude.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 176The fundamental role of the project management system is to ensure effective control ofcommitments. This requires adequate preparation, clear responsibility, a public declarationand a dedication to performance.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 177In any but the simplest projects, a plan must be developed to determine the best scheduleand the anticipated resources required.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 178A suitably disciplined software development organisation must have senior managementoversight. This includes review and approval of all major development plans prior to theirofficial commitment.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 179A quarterly review in Initial Process should be conducted of

A. Facility-wide process compliance

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B. Installed quality performanceC. Schedule trackingD. Cost trendsE. Computing serviceF. Quality and productivity goals by projectG. All the above

Answer: G

QUESTION: 180The lack of reviews typically results in uneven and generally inadequate implementation ofthe process as well as frequent over commitments and cost surprises.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 181A quality assurance group is charged with assuring management that software work is donethe way it is supposed to be done.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 182To be effective the assurance organisation must have an independent reporting line tosenior management and sufficient resources to monitor performance of all

A. Key planning, implementation and verification activitiesB. Implementation and verification activitiesC. Change control, verification and planning

Answer: A

QUESTION: 183_____________ for software is fundamental to business and financial control as well as totechnical stability.

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A. Design and code changeB. Change controlC. a & b

Answer: B

QUESTION: 184To develop quality software on a predictable schedule _____________________ andmaintained with reasonable stability throughout the development life cycle.

A. Change control must be establishedB. Requirements must be established

Answer: B

QUESTION: 185While requirement changes are often needed, historical evidence demonstrates that manyhave to be deferred indefinitely.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

QUESTION: 186Design and code changes must be made to correct problems found in ________ ____, butthese must be carefully introduced.

A. Development planB. Test planC. Development and test

Answer: C

QUESTION: 187If changes are not controlled, then orderly _________________ is impossible and noquality plan can be effective.

A. Design, implementation and test

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B. Design and testC. Design and code

Answer: A

QUESTION: 188Organisations at the repeatable process level face major risks when they are presented withnew challenges.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 189Repeatable process provides control over the way the organisation establishesits__________.

A. plans and commitmentsB. processes and productsC. both the above

Answer: A

QUESTION: 190Organisations in the _________ process level have achieved a degree of statistical controlthrough learning to make and meet their estimates and plans.

A. definedB. initialC. repeatable

Answer: C

QUESTION: 191New tools and methods will affect the process if they are not introduced with great care inthe repeatable process.

A. TrueB. False

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Answer: A

QUESTION: 192At the repeatable process level, a new manager has orderly basis for understanding theorganisation's operation, and new team members must learn the ropes through documents.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

QUESTION: 193The key actions required to advance from the repeatable to the next stage, the definedprocess are

A. to establish a process groupB. establish a development process architectureC. introduce a family of software engineering methods and technologiesD. all the above.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 194The process of establishing a software development process architecture or developmentlife cycle, that describes the technical and management activities required for properexecution of the development process must be attuned to

A. the documentation procedure of the organizationB. the specific needs of the organisation

Answer: B

QUESTION: 195The decomposition of architecture continues until each defined task is performed by anindividual or single management unit.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 196The architecture is a structural decomposition of the development cycle into tasks each ofwhich has a defined set of prerequisites, functional descriptions, verification proceduresand task completion specifications

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 197The family of software engineering methods and technologies that can be introduced inrepeatable process are

A. Design and code inspectionsB. Formal design methodsC. Library control systemsD. comprehensive testing methodsE. all the above

Answer: E

QUESTION: 198With the defined process the organisation has achieved the foundation established forexamining the process and deciding how to improve it.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 199Defined process is quantitative.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: B

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QUESTION: 200With a defined process, we can focus the measurements on specific tasks.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 201The process architecture is an essential prerequisite to effective measurement.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 202The key steps to advance from the defined process to the managed process are establish aminimum basic set of process measurements to identify the quality and cost parameters ofeach process step.

A. establish a process data base and the resources to manage and maintain it.B. provide sufficient process resources to gather and maintain this process data and toadvise project members on its use.C. assess the relative quality of each product and inform management where quality targetsare not being met.D. all the aboveE. a, b ,c only

Answer: E

QUESTION: 203The greatest potential problem with the managed process is the cost of gathering data.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 204

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In managed process approach data gathering with care and precisely define each piece ofdata in advance.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 205Productivity data is essentially meaningless unless explicitly defined.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 206It is rare that two projects are comparable by any simple measures. The variations in taskcomplexity caused by different product types ca exceed five to one.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 207The degree of requirements change can make no difference as can the design status of thebase program in the case of enhancements.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 208Process data must be used to compare projects or individuals.

A. TrueB. False

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Answer: B

QUESTION: 209The purpose of process data is to illuminate the product being developed and to provide aninformal basis for improving the process.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 210When process data is used by the management to evaluate individuals or teams, thereliability of the data itself will deteriorate.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 211The fundamental requirements for advancing from the managed process to optimisingprocess are

A. support automatic gathering of process dataB. use process data both to analyse and to modify the process to prevent problems andimprove the efficiencyC. both the above

Answer: C

QUESTION: 212In varying degrees, process optimisation goes on at all levels of process maturity.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 213Up to managed process level, software development managers have largely focused ontheir products and will typically gather and analyse only data that directly relates to productimprovement.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 214In the optimising process the data is available to tune the process itself.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 215With a little experience, management can soon see that process optimisation can producemajor quality and productivity benefits.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 216Many types of errors can be identified and fixed far more economically by design and codeinspections than by testing.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 217The data that is available with the optimising process gives us a new perspective on testing.

A. TrueB. False

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Answer: A

QUESTION: 218For most projects, a little analysis shows that there are two distinct activities involved

A. the removal of defectsB. the assessment of program qualityC. application of technology to critical tasksD. a & b

Answer: C

QUESTION: 219To reduce the cost of removing defects, inspections should be emphasised, together withany other cost-effective techniques. The role of functional system testing should then bechanged to one of gathering quality data on the programs

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 220With the optimising process, the data is available to justify the application of technology tovarious critical tasks, and numerical evidence is available on the effectiveness with whichthe process has been applied to any given product.

A. TrueB. False

Answer: A

QUESTION: 221With the optimising process, the organisation has the means to identify the weakestelements of the process and to fix them.

A. TrueB. False

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Answer: A

QUESTION: 222Verification is:

A. Checking that we are building the right systemB. Checking that we are building the system rightC. Performed by an independent test teamD. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

Answer: B

QUESTION: 223A regression test:

A. Will always be automatedB. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affectedC. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affectedD. Can only be run during user acceptance testing

Answer: B

QUESTION: 224If an expected result is not specified then:

A. We cannot run the testB. It may be difficult to repeat the testC. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failedD. We cannot automate the user inputs

Answer: C

QUESTION: 225Which of the following could be a reason for a failure1) Testing fault2) Software fault3) Design fault4) Environment Fault5) Documentation Fault

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A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are notB. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is notC. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are notD. All of them are valid reasons for failure

Answer: D

QUESTION: 226Test are prioritized so that:

A. You shorten the time required for testingB. You do the best testing in the time availableC. You do more effective testingD. You find more faults

Answer: B

QUESTION: 227Which of the following is not a static testing technique

A. Error guessingB. WalkthroughC. Data flow analysisD. Inspections

Answer: A

QUESTION: 228Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?

A. Component testing should be performed by developmentB. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testingC. Component testing should have completion criteria plannedD. Component testing does not involve regression testing

Answer: D

QUESTION: 229During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

A. Execution

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B. DesignC. PlanningD. Check Exit criteria completion

Answer: C

QUESTION: 230Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?

A. Being diplomaticB. Able to write softwareC. Having good attention to detailD. Able to be relied on

Answer: B

QUESTION: 231The purpose of requirement phase is

A. To freeze requirementsB. To understand user needsC. To define the scope of testingD. All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION: 232The process starting with the terminal modules is called –

A. Top-down integrationB. Bottom-up integrationC. None of the aboveD. Module integration

Answer: B

QUESTION: 233The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from

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A. Project planB. Business planC. Support planD. None of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION: 234Function/Test matrix is a type of

A. Interim Test reportB. Final test reportC. Project status reportD. Management report

Answer: C

QUESTION: 235Defect Management process does not include

A. Defect preventionB. Deliverable base-liningC. Management reportingD. None of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION: 236What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside yourcountry, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country?

A. Does not meet people needsB. Cultural differenceC. Loss of control over reallocation of resourcesD. Relinquishments of control

Answer: B

QUESTION: 237

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Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?

A. 10-20B. 40-50C. 70-80D. 5-10

Answer: B

QUESTION: 238A reliable system will be one that:

A. Is unlikely to be completed on scheduleB. Is unlikely to cause a failureC. Is likely to be fault-freeD. Is likely to be liked by the users

Answer: B

QUESTION: 239How much testing is enough

A. This question is impossible to answerB. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirementsC. The answer depends on the maturity of your developersD. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

Answer: B

QUESTION: 240Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

A. OperabilityB. ObservabilityC. SimplicityD. Robustness

Answer: B

QUESTION: 241Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.

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A. White boxB. Black boxC. Green boxD. Yellow box

Answer: A

QUESTION: 242Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?

A. Simple LoopsB. Nested LoopsC. Concatenated LoopsD. All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION: 243To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function andpasses it test data.

A. StubB. DriverC. ProxyD. None of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION: 244Equivalence partitioning is:

A. A black box testing technique used only by developersB. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testingC. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testingD. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

Answer: C

QUESTION: 245

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When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

A. A small team to establish the best way to use the toolB. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the toolC. The independent testing teamD. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Answer: A

QUESTION: 246Inspections can find all the following except

A. Variables not defined in the codeB. Spelling and grammar faults in the documentsC. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documentsD. How much of the code has been covered

Answer: D

QUESTION: 247Define the following along with examplesA. Boundary Value testingB. Equivalence testingC. Error GuessingD. Desk checkingE. Control Flow analysis

Answer:A. Boundary value Analysis: - A process of selecting test cases/data by identifying theboundaries that separate valid and invalid conditions. Tests are constructed to test the insideand outside edges of these boundaries, in addition to the actual boundary points. or Aselection technique in which test data are chosen to lie along “boundaries” of the inputdomain [or output range] classes, data structures, procedure parameters, etc. Choices ofteninclude maximum, minimum, and trivial values or parameters.E.g. - Input data 1 to 10 (boundary value)Test input data 0, 1, 2 to 9, 10, 11B. Equivalence testing: - The input domain of the system is partitioned into classes ofrepresentative values, so that the no of test cases can be limited to one-per-class, whichrepresents the minimum no. of test cases that must be executed.

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E.g.- valid data range: 1-10Test set:-2; 5; 14C. Error guessing: - Test data selection technique. The selection criterion is to pick valuesthat seem likely to cause errors Error guessing is based mostly upon experience, with someassistance from other techniques such as boundary value analysis. Based on experience, thetest designer guesses the types of errors that could occur in a particular type of software anddesigns test cases to uncover them.E.g. - For example, if any type of resource is allocated dynamically, a good place to lookfor errors is in the de-allocation of resources. Are all resources correctly deallocated, or aresome lost as the software executes?D. Desk checking: - Desk checking is conducted by the developer of the system orprogram. The process involves reviewing the complete product to ensure that it isstructurally sound and that the standards and requirements have been met. This is the mosttraditional means for analyzing a system or program.E. Control Flow Analysis: - It is based upon graphical representation of the programprocess. In control flow analysis; the program graphs has nodes which represent a statementor segment possibly ending in an unresolved branch. The graph illustrates the flow ofprogram control from one segment to another as illustrated through branches .the objectiveof control flow analysis is to determine the potential problems in logic branches that mightresult in a loop condition or improper processing.

QUESTION: 248You find that there is a senior tester who is making more mistakes than the junior testers.You need to communicate this aspect to the senior tester. Also, you don’t want to loose thistester. How should one go about the constructive criticism?

Answer:In the quality approach, it is the responsibility of the supervisor to make His/Hersubordinates successful. The effective use of criticism is a tool for improving subordinateperformance.In giving constructive criticism, you should incorporate the following tactics: -• Do it privately.• Have the facts.• Be prepared to help the worker improve His/Her performance.• Be specific on Expectations.• Follow a specific process in giving the criticism.

QUESTION: 249Your manager has taken you onboard as a test lead for testing a web-based application. Hewants to know what risks you would include in the Test plan. Explain each risk factor thatwould be a part of your test plan.

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Answer:Web-Based Application primary risk factors:-A. Security: anything related to the security of the application.B. Performance:- The amount of computing resources and code required by the system toperform its stated functions.C. Correctness:-Data entered, processed, and outputted in the system is accurate andcompleteD. Access Control:-Assurance that the application system resources will be protectedE. Continuity of processing:-The ability to sustain processing in the event problem occursF. Audit Trail:-The capability to substantiate the processing that has occurred.G. Authorization:-Assurance that the data is processed in accordance with the intents of themanagement.General risk or secondary risk’s:-A. Complex - anything disproportionately large, intricate or convoluted. B. New - anythingthat has no history in the product.C. Changed - anything that has been tampered with or “improved”.D. Upstream Dependency - anything whose failure will cause cascading failure in the restof the system.E. Downstream Dependency - anything that is especially sensitive to failures in the rest ofthe system.F. Critical - anything whose failure could cause substantial damage. G. Precise - anythingthat must meet its requirements exactly.H. Popular - anything that will be used a lot.I. Strategic - anything that has special importance to your business, such as a feature thatsets you apart from the competition.J. Third-party - anything used in the product, but developed outside the project.K. Distributed - anything spread out in time or space, yet whose elements must worktogether.l. Buggy - anything known to have a lot of problems.M. Recent Failure - anything with a recent history of failure.

QUESTION: 250You are in the contract stage of a project and are developing a comprehensive proposal fora safety critical software system. Your director has consulted you for preparing a guidelinedocument what will enlist user’s role during acceptance testing phase. Indicate the keyroles you feel that the user should play during acceptance stage. Also indicate thecategories into which the acceptance requirements should fall.

Answer:1) Ensure user involvement in developing systems requirement and acceptance criteria.2) Identify interim and final products for acceptance their acceptance criteria and schedule.3) Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed.4) Plan resources for providing information.

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5) Schedule adequate time for buyer staff to receive and examine the products andevaluation prior to acceptance review.6) Prepare the acceptance plan.7) Respond to the analysis of project entitles before accepting and rejecting.8 ) Approve the various interim software products.9) Perform the final acceptance activities, including the formal acceptance testing atdelivery.10) Make an acceptance decision for each product.

QUESTION: 251What is parallel testing and when do we use parallel testing? Explain with example?

Answer:Testing a new or an altered data processing system with the same source data that is used inanother system. The other system is considered as the standard of comparison. OR we cansay that parallel testing requires the same input data be run through two versions of thesame application.Parallel testing should be used when there is uncertainty regarding thecorrectness of processing of the new application. And old and new versions of theapplications are same.E.g.-1) Operate the old and new version of the payroll system to determine that the paychecksfrom both systems are reconcilable.2) Run the old version of the application system to ensure that the operational status of theold system has been maintained in the event that problems are encountered in the newapplication.

QUESTION: 252What is the difference between testing Techniques and tools? Give examples.

Answer:Testing technique: - Is a process for ensuring that some aspects of the application system orunit functions properly there may be few techniques but many tools.Tools: - Is a vehicle for performing a test process. The tool is a resource to the tester, butitself is insufficient to conduct testingE.g.:- The swinging of hammer to drive the nail. The hammer is a tool, and swinging thehammer is a technique. The concept of tools and technique is important in the testingprocess. It is a combination of the two that enables the test process to be performed. Thetester should first understand the testing techniques and then understand the tools that canbe used with each of the technique.

QUESTION: 253Quality control activities are focused on identifying defects in the actual productsproduced; however your boss wants you to identify and define processes that would

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prevent defects. How would you explain to him to distinguish between QA and QCresponsibilities?

Answer:Quality Assurance:1) A planned and systematic set of activities necessary to provide adequate confidence thatrequirements are properly established and products or services conform to specifiedrequirements2) An activity that establishes and evaluates the processes to produce the products.3) Helps establish processes.4) Sets up measurements programs to evaluate processes.5) Identifies weaknesses in processes and improves them.6) QA is the responsibility of the entire team.7) Prevents the introduction of issues or defectsQuality Control:1) The process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards; and theaction taken when nonconformance is detected.2) An activity which verifies if the product meets pre-defined standards.3) Implements the process.4) Verifies if specific attribute(s) are in a specific product or service5) Identifies defects for the primary purpose of correcting defects.6) QC is the responsibility of the tester.7) Detects, reports and corrects defects

QUESTION: 254Differentiate between Transaction flow modeling, Finite state modeling, Data flowmodeling and Timing modeling?

Answer:Transaction Flow modeling: -The nodes represent the steps in transactions. The linksrepresent the logical connection between steps.Finite state modeling:-The nodes represent the different user observable states of thesoftware. The links represent the transitions that occur to move from state to state.Data flow modeling:-The nodes represent the data objects. The links represent thetransformations that occur to translate one data object to another.Timing Modeling:-The nodes are Program Objects. The links are sequential connectionsbetween the program objects. The link weights are used to specify the required executiontimes as program executes.

QUESTION: 255List what you think are the two primary goals of testing

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Answer:1) Determine whether the system meets specifications (producer view)2) determine whether the system meets business and user needs (Customer view)

QUESTION: 256As a general rule, __________ measures are much more important.

A. SubjectiveB. Objective


QUESTION: 257If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the term as

A. ReliabilityB. ValidityC. CalibrationD. Ease of Use and Simplicity


QUESTION: 258The term __________ refers the degree to which a measure actually measures what it wasintended to measure.

A. ReliabilityB. ValidityC. CalibrationD. Ease of Use and Simplicity


QUESTION: 259When basic quality aspects have been identified the “standards” should be defined by

A. IT TeamB. Project ManagerC. Quality Assurance personalD. ManagementE. Development Team

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QUESTION: 260The “standards” for the software developed using new technology should be defined by

A. IT TeamB. Project ManagerC. Quality Assurance personalD. ManagementE. Development Team


QUESTION: 261If the COTS software developed by the contractor which is from the another country, thenthe following problem arises:

A. Cultural differencesB. Communication barriersC. The two words having the same name in diff. countriesD. All of the aboveE. None of the above


QUESTION: 262The ‘V’ represents the following term:

A. Verification and ValidationB. Static testing and Dynamic testingC. Black box and White Box testingD. Software development process and Software testing process


QUESTION: 263Test Readiness Review is conducted by the

A. Project Manager

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B. Test ManagerC. Quality Assurance PersonnelD. User/Customer


QUESTION: 264Acceptance testing is the ________ type of testing

A. Black box testingB. White box testingC. Shoe box testingD. Structural testing


QUESTION: 265__________ is not the White box testing technique.

A. Condition CoverageB. Decision CoverageC. Test script coverageD. User specified Data coverageE. All of the above


QUESTION: 266Event identification, Risk Response are the term defined in the ___internal control model

A. COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM. ModelB. COSO Internal Control ModelC. CobiT Model


QUESTION: 267A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process.

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A. Pareto ChartB. Control ChartC. Run ChartD. Cause and Effect DiagramE. Histogram


QUESTION: 268Determination to continue with the software development or not is determined from the

A. InspectionB. In-process ReviewC. Phase end reviewD. Don’t remember other options


QUESTION: 269The following is the component for the FIT

A. DataB. StructureC. PeopleD. RuleE. All of the above


QUESTION: 270A major obstacle for deployment of wireless networks is in the

A. StandardsB. CoverageC. Security


QUESTION: 271Hand-held and internet enabled devices are example of

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A. Electronic equipmentB. Wireless ApplicationsC. Computer devices


QUESTION: 272Therapeutic listening is

A. Sympathetic listeningB. Listening to pieces of information…C. Analyzing the listening of the speaker


QUESTION: 273Function point is a measure of

A. EffortB. ComplexityC. UsabilityD. Size


QUESTION: 274Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:

A. ProgrammerB. Project LeaderC. Independent TesterD. Assistance programmerE. User


QUESTION: 275While deciding the Test tool the following factors should be considered

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A. Testing for the next builds/releases after making changesB. Testing where large volumes of data is requiredC. Testing based on the UI interfaceD. All of the above


QUESTION: 276Completeness can be defined as the

A. Customer says the product is readyB. Tester says the testing is completedC. Don’t remember the other options


QUESTION: 277Auxiliary code which sets up an appropriate environment and calls the module is termed as

A. DriverB. FunctionC. StubD. None of the above


QUESTION: 278A question on fit components. Which of the following contributes to fit.

A. DataB. StructureC. PeopleD. RuleE. All of the above


QUESTION: 279Reliability, timeliness, consistency are included in which component of fit

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A. DataB. StructureC. PeopleD. Rule


QUESTION: 280Who will develop the test process for software development using new technology?

A. ManagementB. Project teamC. AuditorD. Tester and few more options


QUESTION: 281Which of the following are relatively complete acceptance criteria? A. Performance shouldincreaseB. Response time should be with in 10 sec Few more statements.


QUESTION: 282Which of the following model has these steps .. event identification , risk assessment, riskresponse

A. ERMB. COSO internal control frameworkC. CobiT model


QUESTION: 283Utilize the computer resources to perform their work.. belong to which type of activityspecified below

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A. InterfaceB. DevelopmentC. Computer operation


QUESTION: 284Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in detail in which part of thecontract?

A. WhatB. WhoC. WhenD. How


QUESTION: 285Test planning activity which includes starting and end time for each test milestone.

A. BudgetingB. SchedulingC. EstimationD. Staffing


QUESTION: 286Which communication skill will be neglected by most

A. ReadingB. ListeningC. Writing


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QUESTION: 287Therapeutic listening is

A. Sympathetic listeningB. Listening to pieces of information…


QUESTION: 288Which model demonstrates relation between 2 or more parameters of effort, duration orresource?

A. CostB. ConstraintC. Function Point


QUESTION: 289In which model expertise can be used to estimate cost

A. Top-DownB. Expert JudgmentC. Bottom-Up


QUESTION: 290Fit for use is

A. TranscendentB. Product BasedC. User BasedD. Value Based


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QUESTION: 291Re-Use of data is done in which type of testing (Similar type 2 questions on retesting andregression testing)

A. Capture/Play backB. System TestingC. Regression TestingD. Integration Testing


QUESTION: 292In Acceptance testing, which data is used.

A. Test CasesB. Use CaseC. Test Plan


QUESTION: 293In four components of FIT, reliability is included in (Similar type 2 qs)

A. DataB. PeopleC. StructureD. Rules


QUESTION: 294Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in

A. What is doneB. Who does itC. When it is doneD. How it is done

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QUESTION: 295Dates on which Obligations need to be filled out should be specified in

A. What is doneB. Who does itC. When it is doneD. How it is done


QUESTION: 296Who defined the standards?

A. ISOB. QAI

Answer: A

QUESTION: 297Juran is famous for

A. Quality ControlB. Management

Answer: A

QUESTION: 298Which one is not Statistical Tool?

A. Cause & effect GraphingB. StratificationC. Run ChartD. Regression Analysis

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 299Histogram refers to

A. Bar ChartB. Run ChartC. Pareto

Answer: A

QUESTION: 300Who are there in External IT TEAM?

A. Non DeveloperB. Customer/ User


QUESTION: 301Which one is not Structural Testing?

A. RegressionB. ParallelC. AcceptanceD. Stress

Answer: C

QUESTION: 302Who is not part of Inspection?

A. Prj ManagerB. AuthorC. ModeratorD. ReaderE. Inspetor

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 303Tester job is not to

A. Report DefectB. Who entered the defect in system

Answer: B

QUESTION: 304Which one is not secondary role of tester

A. Raising IssuesB. Instilling ConfidenceC. cts improving processD. InsightE. developer work

Answer: E

QUESTION: 305Acceptance testing is

A. White BoxB. Black boxC. White box & black BoxD. none of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION: 306Deming 14 principle includes

A. mobility of mgmtB. new philosphyC. adobt leadershipD. both b& cE. both a & c

Answer: E

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QUESTION: 307Configuration Management tool used in which phase.

A. Unit tetsingB. IntegrationC. acceptingD. all the phases

Answer: D

QUESTION: 308Max Defects created in which phases

A. reqB. designC. ImplementaionD. Coding

Answer: A

QUESTION: 30950% Defect found in which phase


Answer: A

QUESTION: 310defects are least costly in which phase


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Answer: A

QUESTION: 311Software inspections categorize defects as Wrong, Missing and Extra.

A. TRUEB. FALSE


QUESTION: 312The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to

A. Eliminate RisksB. Minimize RisksC. Avoid risksD. Anticipate the risks


QUESTION: 313Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is:

A. Black box testingB. System testingC. Independent testingD. Acceptance Testing


QUESTION: 314Function point is a measure of

A. EffortB. ComplexityC. UsabilityD. None of the above


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QUESTION: 315An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures thatresources are conserved is

A. an inspectionB. an auditC. a reviewD. an assessment


QUESTION: 316Which is the application for the process management and quality improvement concepts tosoftware development and maintenance.

A. Malcolm BaldridgeB. ISO 9000C. QAID. QS14000


QUESTION: 317Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?

A. 10-20B. 30-60C. 70-80


QUESTION: 318Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?

A. RequirementsB. ConstructionC. Acceptance testD. Design


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QUESTION: 319Which of the following test approaches is not a Functional test approach?

A. Control TechniqueB. Stress TechniqueC. Regression TechniqueD. Cause/effect GraphingE. Requirements


QUESTION: 320Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 321Juran is famous for

A. Quality ControlB. Quality AssuranceC. Trend Analysis


QUESTION: 322Top down & Bottom Up are the part of Incremental Testing

A. TrueB. False


QUESTION: 323

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Achieving quality requires:

A. Understanding the customers expectationsB. Exceeding the customers expectationsC. Meeting all the definitions of qualityD. Focusing on the customerE. All the above


QUESTION: 324Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:there is a application which is delivered to the customer now customer found bugs andassume each bug cost is $125 and there are 4 bugs found each day and there are 5 workingday. What should be the cost to fix those bugs

A. $300B. $25000C. $ 15000D. $ 13,000E. $ 26,000

Answer: B

QUESTION: 325Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Tester should know

A. Test planningB. Automation toolC. Defect tracking toolD. programming language

Answer: C

QUESTION: 326Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Pareto Analysis

A. 80-20 ruleB. Trend analysis

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Answer: A

QUESTION: 327Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Testing efforts in SDLC

A. 10-20 %B. 30-60%C. 60-80%D. 80-90%

Answer: B

QUESTION: 328Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Critical Listening is

A. Listen analyses what speaker saidB. Listen what is requiredC. Listen only summary

Answer: A

QUESTION: 329Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Who finds vulnuralibility in system?

A. ICOB. ISSC. It Manager

Answer: A

QUESTION: 330Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:COQ is not

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A. ProductionB. AppraisalC. PreventionD. Failure

Answer: A

QUESTION: 331Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Training come under what category cost of quality?

A. AppraisalB. PreventiveC. FailureD. none of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION: 332Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Why testing is called negative

A. EasyB. delay in implementationC. No training reqd Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to [email protected]

QUESTION: 333Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Incremental testing is Top down & bottom Up testing

A. TrueB. false


QUESTION: 334Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Effectiveness is doing right thing & efficiency is doing thing right

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A. TrueB. false

Answer: B

QUESTION: 335Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Which one is not part of Demind

A. PlanB. doC. checkD. actE. risk analysis

Answer: E

QUESTION: 336Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Defect fixed in which phase is lease cost

A. same phaseB. productionC. next phaseD. none

Answer: A

QUESTION: 337Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:In White box testing test coverage is

A. DecisionB. StatementC. branchD. modified decisionE. user specified data coverage

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Answer: A

QUESTION: 338Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Test Plan should not contain

A. ScopeB. ObjectiveC. PolicyD. Risk Analysis

Answer: C

QUESTION: 339Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:

A. ProgrammerB. Project LeaderC. Independent TesterD. Assistance programmerE. User/Customer


QUESTION: 340Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:Cost of Quality is least among

A. PreventionB. AppraisalC. Failure


QUESTION: 341Which of the following is not a perspective of quality?

A. transcendentB. product-basedC. translucentD. user-based

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E. value-basedF. manufacturing based


QUESTION: 342Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things.

A. TrueB. False.


QUESTION: 343Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?

A. Adopt a new philosophyB. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work forceC. Mobility of managementD. Create constancy of purpose


QUESTION: 344The largest cost of quality is from production failure.

A. TrueB. False.


QUESTION: 345Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?

A. RequirementsB. Analysis & DesignC. ConstructionD. Implementation


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QUESTION: 346A review is what category of cost of quality?

A. PreventiveB. AppraisalC. Failure


QUESTION: 347A defect is related to the term fault.

A. TrueB. False.


QUESTION: 348What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior change?

A. LifestyleB. VocabularyC. InternalD. Management


QUESTION: 349Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?

A. 10-20B. 40-50C. 70-80D. 5-10


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QUESTION: 350The purpose of software testing is to:

A. Demonstrate that the application works properlyB. Detect the existence of defectsC. Validate the logical design


QUESTION: 351One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be an expert in leading groups asopposed to an expert in a topical area.

A. TrueB. False.


QUESTION: 352Match the following terms with their definitions:

A. Black box testingB. White box testingC. Conversion testingD. Thread testingE. Integration testing


QUESTION: 353List what you think are the two primary goals of testing. What is a test strategy?

Answer:A test strategy must address the risks and present a process that can reduce those risks. Thetwo components of Test strategy are:a) Test Factor: The risk of issue that needs to be addressed as a part of the test strategy.Factors that are to be addressed in testing a specific application system will form the test

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factor.b) Test phase: The phase of the systems development life cycle in which testing win occur.)

QUESTION: 354When to stop testing?

Answer:a) When all the requirements are adequately executed successfully through test cases b) Bugreporting rate reaches a particular limitc) The test environment no more exists for conducting testing d) The scheduled time fortesting is overe) The budget allocation for testing is over

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