chemistry mcqs test handouts

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

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[T e s t : 1 A ] [ T o p i c : C h e m i c a l L a n g u a g e ] [ P r e p a r e d b y : O s a m a H a s a n ]

NSTC-6 Preparation Program

me| Aga Khan Higher Secondary School, Karachi.



CHEMISTRY TEST �STC PREPARATIO� PROGRAMME

TEST �O : 1A DURATIO� : 45 MI�.

TOPIC : CHEMICAL LA�GUAGE PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. What is the weight of oxygen which occupies 21 litres at S.T.P?

A) 45 g B) 50 g C) 60g D) 30g 2. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by wt. Therefore the

ratio of their number of molecules is?

A) 1:4 B) 2:7 C) 7:32 D) 3:16 3. The largest number of molecules is in?

A) 36g H2O B) 28g CO C) 46 g C2H5OH D) 54g NO5

4. 1.12 litre of oxygen at �.T.P contains 3x1022

molecules. The volume SO2 at �.T.P which

will contain the same number of molecules?

A) 22.4 l B) 1.12 l C) 0.56 l D) 4.44 l

5. Which of the following contains same no. of atoms as 6g of Mg?

A) 12 g of carbon B) 4 g of oxygen C) 6 g of O3 D) 27 g of Al

6. 2.4 g of a gaseous compound having same volume as that of 0.4 g of ethane gas. The mol.

Wt. of gaseous compound is?

A) 180 B) 240 C) 120 D) None

7. The volume occupied by 2g of Helium at S.T.P is?

A) 5.6 litres B) 2.8 litres C) 11.2 litres D) 84 litres

8. What volume occupied by 14g of �2 at S.T.P?

A) 22.5 litres B) 11.2 litres C) 44.8 litres D) 33.6 litres

9. In 0.004g of Mg, the number of atoms is equal to?

A) 24 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 1 x 1023 D) 96

10. In 18.016 g of H2O, how many molecules are present?

A) 1 B) 18.016 C) 6.02 x 1023 D) None 11. How many molecules are present in one g of Hydrogen?

A) 6.02 x 1022 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 3.0115 x 1023 D) 3.0125x 1023

12. Which of the following weights the least?

A) 24 g of Mg B) 0.9 mole of nitric oxide

C) 22.4 l of N2 D) 6.023 x 1024 molecules of O2

13. The number of molecules in 89.9 litres of a gas at O°C and 1 atm pressure is?

A) 6.023 x 1023 B) 12.04 x 1023 C) 18.06 x 1023 D) 24.08 x 1023

14. 4g of caustic soda contains?

A) 6.023 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen

B) 4g atoms of sodium

C) 6.02 x 1023 atoms of sodium

D) 4 moles of Neon

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15. 12g of magnesium on reacting completely with acid gives hydrogen gas, the volumes of

which of �.T.P would be?

A) 22.4 litres B) 11.2 litres C) 44.8 litres D) 6.1 litres

16. One litre of a gas at S.T.P weight 1.16g.It can be possible be?

A) C2H2 B) CO C) O2 D) CH4

17. 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of �a3PO4.The maximum number of mole of

Ba3(PO)4 that can be formed is?

A) 0.7 B) 0.5 C) 0.3 D) 0.1

18. 19.7kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were recovered?

A) 100 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 6.02 x 1024 D) 6.02 x 1025

19. How many formula units are there in a 42g sample of (�H4)2Cr2O7 (formula wt=252)?

A) 7.0 x 1023 B) 1x 1023 C) 6 x 1023 D) 1.4 x 1023

20. The number of atoms present in 1 g of hydrogen gas is the same as present in?

A) 0.4 g of He B) 22 g of CO2 C) 6 g of H2O D) 12 g of CO

21. The law of multiple proportions is illustrated by?

A) KCl and KClO3 B) H2O2 and H2O C) NaBr and Nal D) MnSO4 & MgSO4

22. In a balanced chemical equation

A) atoms are conserved

B) molecules are conserved

C) moles are conserved

D) reactant and product are conserved

23. The empirical formula of hydrogen peroxide is?

A) H2O2 B) HO C) H2O D) HO2

24. A hydrogen contains C=80%, H=20%. What is the empirical formula of compound

(C=12, H=1)

A) CH2 B) CH3 C) CH4 D) C2H6

25. C6H6 contains hydrogen by weight?

A) 20% B) 6% C) 24% D) 80%

26. Paracetamol C6H5(OH)�HCOOH3 has molecular mass 156. It contains nitrogen by

weight?

A) 8.9 B) 11.1 C) 14 D) None of them

27. An anti-freeze has empirical formula CH3O. Its molecular mass is 62. What is its

molecular formula

A) CH3O B) C6H186O62 C) C2H6O D) C2H6O2

28. Which compound doesn’t have molecular formula

A) NaCl B) N2 C) Cl2 D) HNO3

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29. Which one of the following compound, does not have the empirical formula CH2O

A) HCHO B) C6H12O12 C) CH3COOH D) CH3CH2OH

30. A compound contains 87.5% Si and 12.5% H. what is the empirical formula of

compound (relative atomic masses H = 1 and Si = 28)

A) SiH2 B) SiH3 C) SiH4 D) Si2H6

31. 1 mole of C-12 has mass of?

A) 18 B) .9.022 x 10-22 C) 6.022 x 1024 D) 6.022 x 1023

32. One mole of C-12 has mass of?

A) 0.012 Kg B) 0.0012 Kg C) 1 Kg D) 2 Kg

33. I mole water is equals to?

A) 22.4 dm3 B) 18 dm3 C) 1 dm3 D) none of them

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TEST �O : 1B DURATIO� : 15 MI�.

TOPIC :CHEMICAL TECH�IQUES PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. Which of the following is directly related to qualitative analysis?

A) Identification B) Separation C) Measurement D) Calculation

2. Which of the following process is used to separate insoluble particles from liquid?

A) Separation B) Filtration C) Crystallization D) Condensation

3. The pore size of the filter paper depends upon?

A) Nature of medium B) Temp. of medium C) Size of particles D) Mass of particles

4. Which one is the property of an ideal solvent?

A) Should be expensive

B) React chemically with solute

C) Impurities crystallize with solute

D) Should be safe to use.

5. If the solvent is inflammable for heating purpose, we use?

A) Ice bath B) Water bath C) Wire gauze D) Thermostat

6. To prepare the medium sized crystal the hot filtrate is cooled?

A) Slowly B) Fast C) Moderately D) None

7. When a solid which has high vapour pressure at a temperature below its boiling point, is

heated, it starts

A) Subliming B) Melting C) Decomposing D) Condensing

8. The process of filtration is used to separate

A) Solute from solution

B) Insoluble particles from liquid

C) Two immiscible liquids

D) Two miscible liquids

9. In which process solid phase and vapour phase are directly involved?

A) Sublimation B) Condensation C) Vaporization D) Filtration

10. In crystallization, the solvent is selected on the basis of?

A) Hardness B) Porous nature C) Reactivity D) Hit & trial method

11. After filtration slow cooling yields?

A) Bigger & pure crystals

B) Bigger & impure crystals

C) Smaller & pure D) Smaller & impure

12. Chromatography phenomenon is based on?

A) Separation B) Precipitation C) Filtration D) Distribution

13. The technique of chromatography is used in?

A) Separation B) Isolation C) Purification D) All of above 14. Chromatography is important in?

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A) Quality analysis B) Quantitative C) Determination of purity of substance

D) All of above

15. Without suction the filtration through filter paper is?

A) Rapid B) Slow C) Time consuming D) Effective

16. Solvent extraction is mostly applied to separate?

A) Organic compounds

B) Inorganic compounds

C) Both A & B D) None of them

17. Solvent extraction method is used for compounds?

A) Volatile B) Thermally unstable

C) Both A & B D) None

18. Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process and it is controlled by?

A) Distribution law B) Law of mass action

C) Amount of solute used

D) Amount of solvent

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TEST �O : 1C DURATIO� : 30 MI�.

TOPIC : PERIODIC TABLE PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. The valency, ionization energy, electron affinity and Electronegativity of elements are

related to its

A) Atomic Number B) Properties C) Atomic Weight D) Family Group

2. Which of the following is the most electronegative set of elements?

A) N, O, F B) Ca, Sr, Ba C) Na, Mg, Al D) Fe, Co, Ni

3. Which of the following elements has the maximum ionization potential?

A) Mg B) Al C) Na D) K

4. Which of the following has lowest first ionization potential?

A) B B) C C) N D) O

5. Which has the minimum ionization potential?

A) Mg B) AL C) Na D) K

6. Excluding H and He, the smallest element in the periodic table is?

A) Li B) F C) Cs D) I

7. Which transition series is incomplete?

A) 3rd B) 4th C) 5th D) 6th

8. Which of the following element should be least metallic in character?

A) Rb B) In C) Ti D) Po

9. Which of the following will have the largest atomic radius?

A) F B) Cl C) Br D) I

10. Which of the following will have the greatest value of Electronegativity when combined

with hydrogen?

A) Na B) Si C) S D) Cl

11. Which of the following has lowest first ionization potential?

A) Na B) F C) I D) Cs

12. Which of the following is most electronegative?

A) O B) Cl C) N D) F

13. Which of the following metal require radiation of highest frequency to cause emission of

electrons?

A) Na B) Mg C) K D) Ca 14. Which of the following have lowest ionization energy?

A) Pb B) Sn C) Si D) C

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15. Among O, C, F, Cl and Br, the correct order of increasing radii is?

A) F, O, C, Cl, Br B) F, C, O, Cl, Br C) F, Cl, Br, O, C D) C, O, F, Cl, Br

16. The correct arrangement of increasing order of atomic radius among �a, K, Mg, Rb is?

A) Mg< K<Na<Rb B) Mg<Na<K<Rb C) Mg<a<Rb<K D) Na<K<Rb<Mg

17. The correct order of electron affinity among the following is?

A) F > Cl > Br B) Br > Cl > F C) Cl > F > Br D) F > Br > Cl

18. The element with the highest value of electron affinity among the halogens is?

A) F B) Cl C) Br D) I

19. Which of the following iso-electronic ions has the lowest ionization energy?

A) K+ B) Ca2+ C) Cl- D) S2-

20. Which of the following is not iso-electronic?

A) Na+ B) Mg2+ C) O2- D) Cl-

21. Two elements whose electronegativities are 1.2 and 3.0, will form which bond?

A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Coordinate D) Metallic

22. An element with high Electronegativity has?

A) Large size B) High I.P C) Low E.A D) Low I.P

23. Which of the following ion has the highest value of ionic radius?

A) Li+ B) F- C) O2- D) B3+

24. The halogens are expected to have high electron affinity because of their?

A) Small Size B) Outer Electronic Configuration

C) Large size D) None

25. A compound with formula XY is likely to be formed, if the elements X and Y are in

group?

A) II and VII B) I and VII C) V and VII D) III and VII

26. Diagonal Relationship exists between?

A) Li and Mg B) Na and Mg C) K and Mg D) Na and B

27. The correct order of the size of iodine species is?

A) I > I- > I+ B) I > I+ > I- C) I+ > I- > I+ D) I- > I > I+

28. Which of the following is the least inert?

A) Xenon B) Neon C) Argon D) Krypton

29. Which of the following alkali metals have highest density?

A) Li B) Na C) Rb D) Cs

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TEST �O : 2 DURATIO� : 60 MI�.

TOPIC : STATES OF MATTER PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C.The

fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is?

A) ½th B) 8/9th C) 1/9 D) 16/17

2. The ratio of the rates of diffusion of SO2, O2 and CH4 is?

A) 1:√2:2 B) 1:2:4 C) 2:√2:2 D) 1:2:√2

3. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The

molecular weight of X is?

A) 64 B) 32 C) 4 D) 8

4. Helium diffuses twice as fast as another gas B. If the vapour density of Helium is two, the

molecular weight of B is?

A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24

5. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 g of the gas at �.T.P is?

A) 1 litre B) 11.2 litre C) 22.4 litre D) 44.8 litre

6. Two gases A and B, having moles ration 4:8 in a container; exert a pressure of 12 atm. If

A is removed, what would be the pressure due to B only, temperature remaining constant?

A) 4 atm B) 8 atm C) 12 atm D) None

7. A mixture in a gas cylinder at 1 atm pressure contains 65% �2, 15% O2, and 20% H2 by

volume. The partial pressure of nitrogen is?

A) 0.65 atm B) 65 atm C) 130 atm D) None

8. A closed vessel contains equal number of oxygen and hydrogen molecules at a total

pressure of 7400 mm. If oxygen is removed from the system, the pressure will?

A) become 1/9th of 740 mm

B) become ½th of 740 mm

C) remain unchanged

D) becomes double of 740 mm

9. At what temperature will be the volume of a gas at 0°C double itself pressure remaining

constant?

A) 546 °C B) 273 K C) 546 °F D) 546 K

10. When the temperature of 23 ml of dry CO2 gas changed from 10°C to 90°C at constant

pressure of 760 mm the volumes of the gas becomes closest to?

A) 21 ml B) 29.5 ml C) 24.6 ml D) 25 ml

11. If 2 moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupies a volume of 44.8 litres the pressure must be?

A) 2 atm B) 4 atm C) 3 atm D) 1 atm

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12. A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which CO2 is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO2

behaves like an ideals gas, the volume of the dissolved CO2, at STP is?

A) 0.224 litre B) 0.448 litre C) 22.4 litres D) None

13. The temperature of a sample of SO2 gas is raised from 27°C to 327°C.The average

kinetic energy of the gas molecule is?

A) doubled B) halved C) multiplied by the factor of 327/27

D) raised to the power of two

14. The ratio of the rates of diffusion of CO2 and a gaseous oxide is 1.2:1 .The molecular

weight of the gaseous oxide is?

A) 63.36 B) 0.6336 C) 6.336 D) None

15. The volume of a given mass of gas is 117 ml at 39°C .At what temperature will it be 213

ml?

A) 273 K B) 39°C C) 426 K D) 153 K

16. If 3 litres of oxygen are heated from 27°C to 45°C keeping pressure constant at 1 atm,

the new volume will be?

A) 5 litres B) 4.67 litres C) 4.06 litres D) 3.18 litres

17. The rate of diffusion of a gas A and B of mol. Wt. 100 and 81 respectively are in the

ratio of?

A) 9:10 B) 10:09 C) 100:81 D) 81:100

18. If 10 g of a gas at 1 atm pressure is cooled from 273C 10 0C keeping the volume

constant, its pressure would become?

A) 1/2 atm B) 1/273 atm C) 2 atm D) 273 atm

19. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to?

A) mean kinetic energy per unit volume

B) half of mean kinetic energy per unit volume

C) two third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume

D) One third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume

20. The internal energy of a gram-molecule of an ideal gas depends on?

A) pressure alone B) volume alone C) temperature alone

D) Both on pressure as well as temperature

21. The absolute temperature of a gas is determined by?

A) the average momentum of the molecules

B) the velocity of sound in the gas

C) the no. of molecules in the gas

D) The mean square velocity of the molecules

22. The motion of the molecules of a mono atomic gas is?

A) Translatory B) Vibratory C) Rotatory D) All of the above

23. Gases exert pressure on the walls of the containing vessel because of the gas molecules

A) Possess momentum

B) Collide with each other

C) Have finite volume

D) Obey gas laws

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24. In the kinetic molecular theory of gases; One assumes that the collisions between the

molecules are?

A) Perfectly elastic B) Perfectly inelastic

C) Partly inelastic D) It depends upon the nature of the gas

25. According to kinetic molecular theory of gases, at absolute zero of temperature?

A) Molecule are in motion

B) Liquid helium freezes

C) Molecular motion stops

D) Liquid hydrogen freezes

26. At constant volume, the temperature is increased then?

A) collision on walls will be less

B) no. of collisions per unit time will increase

C) collisions will be in straight line

D) collisions will not change

27. Boyle's law is applicable in?

A) isochoric process B) isothermal process C) isobaric process D) isotonic process

28. Which of the following have strong intermolecular forces?

A) gases B) liquids C) amorphous solids D) crystalline solids

29. Which of the following is an amorphous solid?

A) Diamond B) Graphite C) Glass D) Common salt

30. Which one of the following is a covalent solid?

A) Fe B) Diamond C) NaCl D) Cu

31. Most crystals show good cleaning because their atoms, ions and molecules are?

A) Weakly bonded together

B) Strongly bonded together

C) Spherically symmetrical

D) Arranged in planes

32. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied because?

A) Its critical temperature is always above 0°C

B) Its molecule are relative small in size

C) It solidifies before becoming a liquid

D) Forces operative between its molecules are negligible

33. If the concentration of water vapour in the air is 1% and the total atmospheric pressure

equals to 1 atm then partial pressure of water vapour is?

A) 0.1 atm B) 1 mm of Hg C) 7.6 mm of Hg D) 100 atm

34. The pressure of gas having 2 moles in 44.8 litre vessel at 540 K is?

A) 1 atm B) 2 atm C) 3 atm D) 4 atm

35. Which of the following is most polarized among noble gases?

A) He B) Xe C) Kr D) Rn

36. If the rate of diffusion of A is 5 times that of B. What will be the density ratio of A and

B?

A) 1/25th B) 1/5th C) 25 D) 5

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37. If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by

1°C its initial temperature

A) 250 K B) 250°C C) 2500 K D) 25°C

38. Which has the highest rate of diffusion under similar conditions of P and T?

A) CO2 B) NH3 C) N2 D) O2

39. Select one correct statement. In the gas equation PV=nRT

A) n is the number of molecules of a gas

B) n moles of the gas have a volume V

C) V denotes volume of one mole of the gas

D) P is the pressure of the gas when only one mole of gas is present

40. The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of

pressure is called?

A) Critical temperature

B) Boyle Temperature

C) Inversion Temperature

D) Reduced Temperature

41. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C.The

fraction of the total pressure exerted by Hydrogen is?

A) ½th B) 8/9th C) 1/9th D) 16/17th

42. The density of CO2 at 100°C and 800 mm of Hg is?

A) 1.51 g/litre B) 1.51 g/ml C) 1.51 g/cm3 D) None

43. A gas will approach ideal behaviour at?

A) low T and high P B) low T and low P C) high T and low P D) high T and high P

44. The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at?

A) NTP B) 0°C and 2 atm C) 127°C and 1 atm D) 273°C and 2 atm

45. If the gas expands at constant temperature?

A) Pressure decreases

B) kinetic energy of molecules remain the same

C) kinetic energy of molecules decreases

D) No. of molecules of the gas increases

46. The densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1:16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is?

A) 16:1 B) 4:1 C) 1:4 D) 1:16

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TEST �O : 3 DURATIO� : 60 MI�.

TOPIC : ATOMIC STRUCTURE PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. If, in the path of cathode rays an opaque object is placed, the rays are?

A) Unaffected B) Deflected C) Absorbed D) Produce Sharp Shadows

2. The nature of cathode rays remains the same irrespective of the material used for?

A) Class B) Gas C) Electrode D) Cathode

3. The most important factor in determining the chemical behaviour of an atom is its?

A) Nuclear Structure B) Electronic Configuration

C) Atomic Weight D) Solubility

4. The nuclear particle positron has?

A) Charge +1, Mass 0 B) Charge 0, Mass 0 C) Charge -1, Mass 0 D) Charge 0, Mass 1

5. In the conductors, the electric current is due to the movement of?

A) Charged Particles B) Electrons C) Protons D) Neutrons

6. The lightest and simplest canal ray particles are formed when a gas discharge tube

contains?

A) Nitrogen B) Hydrogen C) Helium D) Oxygen

7. Which gas has the highest value of e/m?

A) Hydrogen B) Nitrogen C) Oxygen D) Helium

8. The diameter if an atom is of the order of?

A) 10-5 m B) 10-8 m C) 10-10 m D) 10-2 m

9. When electrons are allowed to pass through magnetic field, they bend towards?

A) North Pole B) South Pole C) None D) All

10. The nuclear radiation that has the maximum capacity to ionize the gases is called?

A) Beta B) Gamma C) Alpha D) Cathode Rays

11. Which of the following colours have the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum of

light?

A) Red B) Violet C) Green D) Yellow

12. Which of the following colours have the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum of

light?

A) Red B) Violet C) Green D) Yellow

13. Which of the following was the major discovery in the field of atomic science, credited

to Sit Rutherford?

A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron D) Nucleus

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14. Which of the following quantum numbers is in that describes the energy of an electron

in an atom?

A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principal

15. Which of the following quantum numbers is in that describes the shape of an orbital?

A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principal

16. Which of the following quantum numbers is the one that describes the orientation of an

orbital?

A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principle

17. Which of the following quantum numbers is the one that describes the magnetic

properties of an electron?

A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principle

18. An orbital can have maximum of ____ electrons?

A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12

19. P-fund series lies in?

A) Visible Region B) Ultraviolet Region C) Infra Red & Far Infra Red Region

D) None

20. If the value of l=1, the orbital in dumbbell in shape and is called?

A) s B) p C) d D) f

21. If the value of ‘l’=0, the orbital is

A) s B) p C) d D) f

22. In the following nuclear reaction,

13Al27

+ 2He4───>15X

30 + 0n

1

The element ‘X’ is?

A) Sulphur B) Carbon C) Phosphorous D) Silicon

23. With Increasing principal quantum number, the energy difference between adjacent

energy levels in H atom?

A) Decreases B) Increases C) Remains Constant D) Changes with Z

24. The mass of the neutron is of the order of?

A) 10-23 kg B) 10-24 kg C) 10-26 kg D) 10-27 kg

25. The maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell for which l=3 is?

A) 14 B) 10 C) 8 D) 4

26. The number of electrons in the M shell of the element with atomic number 24 is?

A) 14 B) 12 C) 13 D) 8

27. When electrons revolve in stationary orbits?

A) There’s no change in energy level

B) They become stationary

C) They gain Kinetic Energy

D) There energy increases

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28. Which quantum number is sufficient to describe the electron in hydrogen atom?

A) l B) n C) m D) s

29. The valence orbital configuration of an element with the atomic number 23 is?

A) 3d5 B) 3d3, 4s2 C) 3d3, 4s1, 4p1 D) 3d2, 4s2, 4p1

30. The number of neutrons in the element 9

4Be is?

A) 4 B) 5 C) 9 D) 13

31. Sodium Chloride imparts yellow colour to the Bunsen flame. This can be interpreted

due to?

A) Low I.P of Sodium

B) Sublimation of metallic Na to give yellow vapour

C) emission of excess energy absorbed as a radiation in visible region

D) Photosensitivity of Sodium

32. Subsidiary quantum number specifies?

A) Size of Orbital B) Shape of Orbital C) Orientation of Orbitals

D) Nuclear Stability

33. The spectrum of Helium is expected to be similar to that of?

A) H B) Li+ C) Na D) He+

34. If atomic numbers of nickel and copper are 28 and 29 respectively, which of the

following does the electronic configuration 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

6 represent?

A) Cu+ B) Cu2+ C) Ni2+ D) Ni

35. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals is?

A) One B) Three C) None D) Two

36. The number of neutrons in heavy hydrogen atom is?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

37. The total number of possible values of magnetic quantum number for the value of l=3

is?

A) 3 B) 1 C) 5 D) 7

38. If the value of principal quantum number is 3, the total possible values for magnetic

quantum number will be?

A) 1 B) 4 C) 9 D) 12

39. For which of the following sets of quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest

energy?

A) 3, 2, 1, ½ B) 4, 2, -1, ½ C) 4, 1, 0, -½ D) 5, 0, 0, ½

40. Azimuthal quantum number of the last electron of 11�a is?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0

41. If the radius of first Bohr orbit be a0, then the radius of third Bohr orbit would be?

A) 3 x a0 B) 6 x a0 C) 9 x a0 D) ½ x a0

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42. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (a) subshells and (b)

orbitals would be?

A) 3 and 5 B) 3 and 7 C) 3 and 9 D) 2 and 5

43. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium are?

A) 4, 1, 1, ½ B) 4, 0, 0, ½ C) 4, 1, 0, ½ D) 4, 4, 0, ½

44. Heaviest particle is?

A) Neutron B) Proton C) Electron D) Meson

45. Which of the following has more unpaired d-electrons?

A) Zn+ B) Fe2+ C) Ni3+ D) Cu+

46. The third line of the Balmer series, in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom is due to

the transition from the?

A) 4th Bohr orbit to 1st Bohr Orbit

B) 6th Bohr orbit to 3rd Bohr Orbit

C) 7th Bohr orbit to 3rd Bohr Orbit

D) 5th Bohr orbit to 2nd Bohr Orbit

47. Which is not true for the cathode rays?

A) A stream of Electrons

B) Charged Particles C) Move with speed as that of light

D) Can be deflected by magnetic rays

48. Which of the following element’s outermost orbits last electron has magnetic quantum

number m=0?

A) Na B) O C) Cl D) N

49. Which of the following is not isoelectronic?

A) Na+ B) Mg2+ C) O2- D) Cl-

50. The configuration 1s2 2s

2 2p

5 3s

1 shows?

A) Excited state of O2

- B) Excited state of

Neon C) Excited state of

Fluorine D) Ground state of

Fluorine atom

51. The orbital in Rutherford’s model is?

A) Spiral B) Circular C) Both D) None

52. The atomic number of an element is 35. What is the total number of electrons present in

all the p-orbitals of the ground state atom of that element?

A) 6 B) 11 C) 17 D) 23

53. For the principal quantum number, n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is?

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9

54. The correct set of quantum numbers (n, l & m) respectively of the unpaired electron of

chlorine atom is?

A) 2, 1, 0 B) 2, 1, 1 C) 3, 1, 1 D) 3, 2, 1

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

16 | P a g e o u t o f | 3







TEST �O : 4 DURATIO� : 1 HOUR

TOPIC :CHEMICAL BO�DI�G PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. An example of a molecule containing coordinate covalent bond is?

A) NH4 B) HF C) BF3, NH3 D) NaCl

2. Highest covalent character is found in which of the following

A) CaF2 B) CaCl2 C) CaI2 D) CaBr2

3. Methanol and Ethanol are miscible in water due to?

A) Covalent Character

B) Hydrogen Bond C) Ionic Bonding D) tendency to form co-ordinate bond

4. Which of the following has the smallest bond length?

A) O2 B) O2- C) O2

+ D) O2-2

5. The ion iso-electronic with CO is?

A) CN B) O2+ C) N2

+ D) O2-

6. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in?

A) Ethanol B) Diethyl ether C) Ethyl chloride D) Triethyl amine

7. Total number of electrons that take part in the forming bonds in �2 is?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 10

8. Hybridization in SO2 is?

A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d

9. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO2-?

A) sp3 B) sp2 C) sp D) None

10. The H-O-H angle in water molecule is about?

A) 50 ° B) 80° C) 105° D) 75°

11. Among the following one with the highest second ionization potential is?

A) Nitrogen B) Carbon C) Fluorine D) Oxygen

12. Variable valency is exhibited by?

A) Iron B) Zinc C) Magnesium D) Sodium

13. First ionization energy is highest for?

A) Alkali metals B) Alkaline earth metals

C) Halogens D) Noble gases

14. The bond present in diamond is?

A) Electrovalent B) Covalent C) Hydrogen D) None

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

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15. Type of bonding in HCl molecule is?

A) Pure covalent B) Polar covalent C) Highly polar D) H-bonding

16. The molecule having one unpaired electron is?

A) O2 B) CN- C) CO D) NO

17. The C--H bond distance is longest in?

A) C2H2 B) C2H4 C) C2H2Br2 D) C2H6

18. The molecule which has the largest dipole moment is?

A) CH4 B) CHCl3 C) CCl4 D) CHI3

19. Which of the following ions is not isoelectronic with O2-?

A) N3- B) F- C) Ti+ D) Na+

20. Which of the following compounds has a three centre bond?

A) Boron Trifluoride B) Carbondioxide C) Diboron D) Ammonia

21. Which of the following compound is the most ionic?

A) Cs--Cl B) Al--Cl C) C--Cl D) H--Cl

22. Which of the following has three fold axis of symmetry?

A) NH3 B) C2H4 C) CO2 D) SO2

23. Which of the following halogen has the highest bond energy?

A) F2 B) Cl2 C) Br2 D) I2

24. Which one of these is the weakest?

A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Metallic bond D) Vander Waal forces

25. Which of the following has unchanged valency?

A) H B) Na C) Fe D) O

26. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?

A) molten NaOH B) molten KOH C) Solid NaCl D) Aqueous NaCl

27. Inter molecular forces in solid hydrogen are?

A) Covalent forces B) Vander Waal's forces

C) Hydrogen bonds D) All of these

28. Stability of ionic compound is due to?

A) Electronegativity B) Electron affinity C) Sublimation energy

D) Lattice energy

29. Which of the following has a covalent as well as an ionic valency?

A) NaCl B) NaOH C) H2O D) HCl (g)

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

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30. In the electronic structure of H2SO4 the total number of unshared electrons is?

A) 16 B) 20 C) 12 D) 8

31. Covalent compounds are soluble in?

A) All solvents B) Polar solvents C) Conc. acids D) Non-polar solvents

32. Which of the following compound can form hydrogen bond?

A) CH4 B) H2O C) NaCl D) CHCl3

33. In ice, the bond present between two molecules of water is?

A) Ionic bond B) Metallic bond C) Covalent bond D) All of the above

34. The type of bonding between two atoms is determined by the difference of?

A) Electron Affinity Values

B) Electronegativity Values

C) Ionization Potential Values

D) None

35. Which set of electrons offer more repulsion?

A) Lone-Bond Pair B) Bond-Bond Pair C) Lone-Lone Pair D) None

36. Which compound has fast reaction?

A) Covalent Compound

B) Ionic Compound C) Metallic Compound

D) Co-ordinate Compound

37. Strongest crystal lattice has?

A) Covalent Bonding B) Hydrogen Bonding

C) Ionic Bonding D) Dative Bonding

38. The atomic number of Magnesium is 12. When magnesium reacts to form an ionic

compound, the electronic configuration of the magnesium ion formed is?

A) 2, 8 B) 2, 8, 1 C) 2, 8, 2 D) 2, 8, 3

39. HCl possesses?

A) Polar Bond B) Ionic Bond C) Coordinate Bond D) Non-polar Bond

40. The double bonds are present between the atoms of the molecules of?

A) CO2 B) H2O C) CH3 D) CH4

41. Which of the following is non-polar molecule?

A) CH3 B) H2O C) NH3 D) H2S

42. Which one of the following is not a polar solvent?

A) HCl B) H2O C) C2H5OH D) CH3-O-CH3

43. Polarity produced in a molecule is due to difference in?

A) Electronegativity B) Ionization Potential

C) Atomic Radii D) Size

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

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44. The formation of H2 molecules from hydrogen atom is?

A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Both (A) & (B) D) None

45. Vander Waal’s bond exists in?

A) Solid metal B) Solid Non-metal C) Molecular Crystal

D) Ionic Crystal

46. Pi-bond is ___________ than sigma.

A) Stronger B) Weaker C) More Polarized D) None

47. Which bond is the strongest?

A) s-s B) s-p C) p-p D) None

48. The order of increasing bonf energy in Hydrogen halides is?

A) HCl>Hf>HBr>HI B) HBr>HI>HCl>HF C) HF>HCl>HBr>HI D) HI>HBr>HCl>HF

49. Which of the following molecule has angular shape?

A) H2S B) CO2 C) CO D) HF

50. In a double bond, connecting two atoms, there is a sharing of?

A) 2 electrons B) 4 electrons C) 1 electron D) All electrons

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

20 | P a g e o u t o f | 3







TEST �O : 3B DURATIO� : 30 MI�.

TOPIC :THERMOCHEMISTRY PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. Respiration is a/an __________ reaction?

A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Substitution D) Addition

2. Energy required to break bond of HF is 556. Formation of HF is a/an?

A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Addition D) Replacement

3. In Thermochemical equations, coefficient of the reactants and products indicate their?

A) Atoms B) Molecules C) Ions D) Moles

4. Which one of the following is endothermic reaction?

A) Vaporization B) Sublimation C) Melting D) All

5. Which condition is correct for all the exothermic reactions?

A) A catalyst is needed

B) Light is absorbed C) Products have less energy than the reactants

D) Require heat to start

6. The state of system can be defined completely by which of the following properties?

A) Volume B) Pressure C) Temperature D) All of the above

7. Internal Energy ∆E of a system is a state function and depends only on?

A) Amount of substance

B) Steps of the reaction

C) Initial and Final Sates of System

D) All of these

8. What possibilities are associated with increase in internal energy?

A) Temperature increases

B) Phase Changes C) Chemical Reaction takes place

D) All of these

9. Which is not a state function?

A) Temperature B) Enthalpy C) Entropy D) Internal Energy

10. Under adiabatic conditions and constant volume a system will be in equilibrium when

which of the following quantities is at minimum?

A) Internal Energy (E or U)

B) Enthalpy (H) C) Helmholtz Energy (A)

D) Gibb’s Energy (G)

11. Heat absorbs at constant pressure?

A) q p = ∆H B) q p = E2 + PV2 C) q p = E1+ PV1 D) q p = H2

12. The sum of internal energy and product of its pressure and volume is called?

A) Thermochemistry B) 1st Law of Thermodynamics

C) Enthalpy D) Heat of system

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

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13. In a process 240 J of heat is absorbed by a system, while 120 J of work is done on the

system. The change in internal energy is?

A) 240 J B) 260 J C) 360 J D) 160 J

14. If 600 calories of heat are added to a system, which does work equivalent to 800 calories

by expanding against the surrounding. What is the value of ∆E for the system?

A) 200 B) -200 C) 1400 D) -1400

15. If two moles of hydrogen at 3 atm pressures expand isothermally at 50°C, the change of

internal energy is?

A) 12 J B) 6 J C) 100 J D) Zero

16. Which substance have ∆H = ∆E?

A) Solids B) Liquids C) Gases D) Liquids & solids

17. A decrease in the internal energy of the system usually accompanied by decrease in?

A) Potential Energy B) Kinetic Energy C) Thermal Energy D) Chemical Energy

18. The mechanical work done by the engine of an automobile is a result of which of the

following processes?

A) Combustion B) Oxidation C) Reduction D) Catalysis

19. The entropy of the universe tends to?

A) Become maximum B) Become Minimum C) Be zero D) Remain constant

20. The energy of a system can?

A) Not be changed to mass

B) Be interchanged into a different form

C) Not be measured into a different form

D) Be measured only as kinetic energy

21. ∆H �eutralization is always?

A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Both (A) & (B)

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

22 | P a g e o u t o f | 3







TEST �O : 6A DURATIO� : 20 MI�.

TOPIC : HYDROGE� A�D WATER PREPARED BY : OSAMA HASA�

1. Large amounts of Hydrogen are present in the atmosphere of?

A) Earth B) Sun C) Moon D) None

2. Which compound has high heat of vaporization?

A) CH4 B) HCl C) Br2 D) H2O

3. Which gas is insoluble in water?

A) H2 B) HCl C) NH3 D) CO2

4. Hydrogen was first prepared by Cavendish in 1766 by the action of Zn on?

A) HCl B) NaOH C) NaNO3 D) All

5. CuO + H2 ───> Cu + H2O is an example of?

A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Hydrogenation D) All

6. Formation of vegetable ghee from vegetable oil is an example of?

A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Dehydogenation D) All

7. Hydrogen Gas is used as a?

A) Coolant B) Fuel C) Drying Agent D) None

8. Hydrogen is obtained industrially as a by-product during the electrolysis of?

A) H2O B) NaCl C) CH4 D) None

9. Hydrogen is used in the manufacture of?

A) Fertilizers B) CO2 C) O2 D) None

10. Hydrogen is used in the manufacture of ____________ bulb filaments.

A) Mercury B) Sodium C) Tungsten D) None

11.Ionic Hydrides are usually

A) Liquids at room temperature

B) Good reducing agents

C) Good electrical conductors

D) Easily reduced

12. The atoms of the same element which have the same atomic number but different mass

numbers are called?

A) Isotopes B) Actinides C) Isobars D) None

13. Atoms having same atomic weights but different atomic numbers are called

A) Isotopes B) Actinides C) Isobars D) None

14. The ionization of Hydrogen atom would give rise to?

A) Hydride ion B) Hydronium ion C) Proton D) Hydroxyl ion

CHEMICAL LANGUAGE

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15. Which liberates H2 with KOH?

A) Zn B) B C) Al D) All

16. An aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide is?

A) Alkaline B) Neutral C) Acidic D) Weakly Acidic

17. Hydrogen Peroxide is used as?

A) An oxidant only B) An acid only C) A reductant only D) All of these

18. The absorption of hydrogen by platinum is known as?

A) Reduction B) Hydrogenation C) Occlusion D) Dehydrogenation

19. Hydrogen generally combines with other elements to form?

A) Ionic Bond B) Polar Bond C) Covalent Bond D) None of these

20. Hydrogen occurs in how many isotropic forms?

A) one B) two C) three D) four

21. Heavy Water is termed heavy because it?

A) Is an oxide of deuterium

B) Contain chlorides of Ca2+&Mg2+ ions

C) Is denser than common water

D) Has a heavier isotope of oxygen

22. Water is said to be permanently hard when it contains?

A) Chlorides of Ca2+ & Mg2+ ions

B) Carbonates of Ca2+ & Mg2+ ions

C) Bicarbonates of Ca2+ & Mg2+ ions

D) Sulphates of Na+ and Mg2+ ions

23. Temporary hardness of H2O is due to _______________ of Ca2+

& Mg2+

ions?

A) Chloride B) Sulphate C) Carbonates D) Bicarbonates

24. Which is the purest form of water?

A) Surface Water B) Rain Water C) Well water D) Mineral Water

25. Which of the properties best explains – Why water is such a good solvent?

A) High dielectric constant

B) Relatively small molecule

C) Hydrogen bonding

D) Symmetrical orientation of polar bonds

26. The laws of chemical combination of are not obeyed by which hydrides?

A) Polymeric B) Covalent C) Interstitial D) None of these

27. Soft water is used in industrial operation because it?

A) tastes better B) better conductor of electricity

C) Boils at a lower temperature

D) Leaves fewer mineral deposits

28. Producer gas is represented by?

A) CO + N B) CO2 + N2 C) CO + H2 D) CH4

29. Hydrogen is not absorbed by?

A) Pt B) CO C) Pd D) Au

ANSWER KEYS PREPARED BY

TEST HANDOUTS OSAMA HASAN





CHAPTER # 2

Topic: _____CHEMICAL LANGUAGE____

1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

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20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E

24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E

29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E

CHAPTER # 3

Topic: ____CHEMICAL TECHNIQUES___

1. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

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17. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 56. A B C D E

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20. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 60. A B C D E

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24. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 65. A B C D E

28. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

29. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 74. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 75. A B C D E







CHAPTER # 4

Topic: ________PERIODIC TABLE_______

1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

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20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E

24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

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29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E

CHAPTER # 5

Topic: ______STATES OF MATTER______

1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E

20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

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24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

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29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E







CHAPTER # 6

Topic: ______ATOMIC STRUCTURE____

1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E

20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E

24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E

29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E

CHAPTER # 7

Topic: ______CHEMICAL BONDING____

1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E

20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E

24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E

29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E







CHAPTER # 8

Topic: _____THERMOCHEMISTRY____

1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E

20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E

24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E

29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E

CHAPTER # 13

Topic: ___ HYDROGEN AND WATER___

1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E

19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E

20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E

23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E

24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E

28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E

29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E

31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E

32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E

33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E

34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E

35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E

36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E

37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E

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