cape bio multiple choice unit i

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WESTWOOD HIGH SCHOOL MOCK EXAMINATION GRADE XII MARCH 2015 BIOLOGY Paper 01 80 minutes READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY 1. This test contains 45 items. You have 80 minutes to answer ALL questions. Each item is worth ONE point 2. Each item has four suggested answers lettered (A) (B) (C) (D), CIRCLE the letter which corresponds to the answer of your choice 3. Work quickly and carefully as you can. If you cannot answer an item, move on to the next item, and then return to the more difficult item later. 4. If you decide to change your answer, be sure to clearly omit the previous answer before choosing your new answer. 5. You may do any rough work in this booklet.

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A mock exam with only CAPE biology past questions.

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WESTWOOD HIGH SCHOOL MOCK EXAMINATIONGRADE XIIMARCH 2015BIOLOGYPaper 01 80 minutesREAD THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY1. This test contains 45 items. You have 80 minutes to answer ALL questions. Each item is worth ONE point2. Each item has four suggested answers lettered (A) (B) (C) (D), CIRCLE the letter which corresponds to the answer of your choice3. Work quickly and carefully as you can. If you cannot answer an item, move on to the next item, and then return to the more difficult item later. 4. If you decide to change your answer, be sure to clearly omit the previous answer before choosing your new answer.5. You may do any rough work in this booklet. 6. The use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.

1. Which of the following bonds between the molecules enables water to exist as a liquid rather than a gas at room temperature?A. CovalentB. HydrogenC. IonicD. Hydrophilic

2. Item 2 refers to the structures below two isomers of glucose.Which of the following statements is true for BOTH isomers?

A. Both contribute to the structure of starchB. Both contribute to the structure of celluloseC. I contributes to the structure of cellulose, II contributes to the structure of starch D. I contributes to the structure of starch, II contributes to the structure of cellulose3. Phospholipids will affect the function of which of the following cell structures?I. Endoplasmic reticulum II. CentriolesIII. MitochondrionIV. Nucleolus

A. I and IIB. I and IIIC. II and IVD. III and IV

Item 4 refers to the following chemical structure of a molecule

4. Which of the following is the molecule represented by the structure?A. TriglycerideB. TripeptideC. TriphosphateD. Trisaccharide5. In rheumatoid arthritis, cartilage of the joints is thought to be digested by the hydrolytic enzymes found in the A. NucleolusB. RibosomesC. LysosomesD. Golgi bodies6. Carbohydrates are mainly transported in the plants in the form of A. FructoseB. GlucoseC. SucroseD. Starch7. Collagen consists of three polypeptide chains held together by H-bonds, N-H groups and CO groups. Which of the following terms describe the structure of collagen?A. A triple helixB. An - helixC. A double helixD. A -helix

Item 8 refers to the diagram below which shows the ring structure of glucose

8. Which of the following indicates the form of glucose and the molecules in which it is presentForms of glucoseA.B.C.D.

Where Present

Cellulose

Cellulose

Starch

starch

9. Triglycerides are excellent source of energy for the body because of theirI. Large sizeII. Ability to insulate III. Large number of C-C bondsIV. Insolubility in water

A. I and III onlyB. I and IV onlyC. II and III onlyD. II and IV only

Item 10 refers to the tests performed by students to identify food substances present in a solution. The tests were carried out and their respective results are shown in the table below

10. Which of the following indicates the food substances present in the students solution?A. Starch, proteinB. Non-reducing sugar onlyC. Reducing sugar and non-reducing sugarD. Non-reducing sugar, protein11. In microscopy, the term resolution describes the A. Magnification by eyepiece lensB. Magnification by objective lensC. The degree to which the specimen is magnifiedD. The ability of the microscope to clearly distinguish between two points on the specimen12. The molecule that is produced during the formation of a peptide bond is A. OxygenB. WaterC. Carbon dioxideD. Nitrogen 13. When viewed under an electron microscope, the cells in a specimen were found to have closely packed mitochondria with cristae closely packed together. It is likely that the MAIN function is A. SecretionB. PhotosynthesisC. MovementD. Protein synthesis

14. Which of the following bonds hold two strands of DNA molecule togetherA. PeptideB. HydrogenC. WaterD. Glyosidic

Item 15 refers to the diagram showing a plasma membrane

15. The figure BEST demonstratesA. DiffusionB. ExocytosisC. Active transportD. Facillated diffusionItem 16 refers to a diagram below which shows the activation energy for an enzyme catalysed reaction and an uncatalysed reaction

16. The activation energy for an enzyme-catalysed reaction is represented by the region labelled:A. IB. IIC. IIID. IV17. Which of thye following diagrams best illustrates the effect of temperature on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction

Item 18 refers to the diagram below showing a segment of a strand of DNA

18. The base X isA. CytosineB. GuanineC. UracilD. AdenineItem 19 refers to a diagram below showing the general structure of a plant cell

19. Which of the options correctly indicates the organelles that contain DNAA. 1,2,3B. 2,3,5C. 2,4,6D. 3,5,620. The organelles involved in the manufacture, modification and transport of lipases respectively areA. Ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi body, lysosomesB. Nucleus, cytoplasm, rough ER, Golgi bodyC. Ribosomes, smooth ER, Golgi body, lysosomesD. Lysosomes, ribosomes, smooth ER, Golgi body

Item 21 refers to the figure below which shows the structure of a bacterial cell as seen under an electron microscope.

21. The structure involved in genetic engineering isA. IB. IIC. IIID. IV22. When a plant cell is placed with a less negative water potential than its cell sap, the cell becomes moreA. Flaccid because solution diffuses out of cellB. Flaccid because water diffuses out of cellC. Turgid because the solution diffuses into the cellD. Turgid because the water diffuses into the cell

Item 23. The sequences of bases in one strand of DNA from part of a gene is ACC CCA TTT CAT CCAThe table below shows some anticodons of some tRNA molecules and the specific amino acid each would carryAmino AcidtRNA

AlanineCGA

GlycineCCA

LysineUUU

ProlineGGA

TryptophanACC

ValineCAU

23. Which of the following amino acid sequence is coded for this part of the gene?A. Valine-glycine-tryptophan-glycine-lysineB. Tryptophan-glycine-lysine-valine-glycineC. Lysine-valine-lysine-valine-glycineD. Lysine-tryptophan-glycine-glycine-alanine24. Mendel crossed pure-breeding round-yellow peas with wrinkled-green green peas. The F1 seeds were self-pollinated and the seeds of the F2 showed the following characteristics:315 round and yellow101 wrinkled and yellow108 round and green32 wrinkled and greenThe appearance of the new combinations of characteristics, round and green, and wrinkled and yellow is due to A. Dominant epistasisB. Independent assortment of alleles for colour and shapeC. Genes for colour and shape being on the same chromosomeD. Multiple alleles25. Which of the following BEST describes the null hypothesis?A. A hypothesis which states that there is no difference between the observed and the expected dataB. A hypothesis which states that there is a significant difference between items under investigationC. A hypothesis which has zero testabilityD. A hypothesis which can only be tested by observations.26. The following are events in transcription.I. RNA nucleotides are bound togetherII. Hydrogen bonds between bases are brokenIII. The mRNA formed leaves the nucleusIV. Activated RNA nucleotides pair up with exposed bases of DNAV. Part of a DNA molecule unwindsThe correct sequence of events isA. V, I, III, II, IVB. V, II,III,I, IVC. V, II, I, IV, IIID. V, II, IV, I, III

27. In addition to human insulin gene, which of the following would be required to provide a recombinant plasmidA. Reverse transcriptaseB. DNA ligaseC. ADPD. RNA polymerase28. One implication of the use of genetically modified organisms on humans isA. Too many humans might be producedB. Organisms designed for use in humans might escape and cause harmful consequencesC. Too few humans might be producedD. Organism designed for use in humans might be produced in large numbers

29. The phenotype of an organism is BEST explained as those visible characteristics thatA. Provide a description of the overall appearance of an organismB. Are due to the impact of the environment in which the organism livesC. Reflects the genetic make-up of the organismD. Reflects the interaction of the genetic make-up and the environment on the organism.30. Both Pinus radiata and Pinus attenuata occupy the same habitat. However, Pinus attenuata flowers in February while Pinus attenuata flowers in April. What type of isolating mechanism does this exemplify?A. SeasonalB. EcologicalC. MechanicalD. Behavioural31. Some type of genetic mutations can result in frameshift. Which of the types of mutations listed below are MOST likely to result in a frameshift?A. SubstitutionB. EcologicalC. InsertionD. Duplication

A. II and III onlyB. III and IV onlyC. I,II, and III onlyD. II, III, IV only

32. Which of the following methods of asexual reproduction is INCORRECT, either by definition or its example?Type of reproductionDefinitionExamples

A. Binary FissionSplitting in two daughter cells of similar sizeAmoebabacteria

B. FragmentationSplitting into several pieces, each of which regrowsFlatwormsSpirogyra

C. BuddingProducing an outgrowth from the parent, which breaks off to become separate individualHydraYeast fungus

D. Spore formationProduces small lightweight spores, to assist in air dispersalHibiscusFlamboyant

33. Which of the following structures is NOT involved in asexual reproduction?A. StamenB. BulbC. TuberD. Rhizome34. In some plants the androecium matures before the gynoecium. Such plants are described asA. DioeciousB. MonoeciousC. ProtandrousD. Protogynous

35. When the pollen grain alights on the stigma and starts to grow, the first action is thatA. Double fertilisation occursB. The zygote divides to form a row of cellsC. A male nucleus fuses with the endosperm nucleusD. The generative cell divides into two male gametesItem 35 refers to the diagram below which shows cross section of an anther

Which of the numbered structure produces the gametes?A. IB. IIC. IIID. IV

36. The following are advantages of two types of pollinationA. No need for another parent plantB. Increases vigourC. Widens gene poolD. Does lose advantageous traitsWhich of the following are specific to cross pollinationA. I and IV onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II, III, and IV

37. Which of the following represents the possible sequence for tissue culture?A. Meristemsstimulate rooting shoot growth plantlet young plantB. Young plantmeristemsshoot growthstimulate rootingplantletC. Plantletstimulate rootingyoung plantmeristems shoot growthD. Young plantshoot growthmeristems stimulate rooting plantletItem 38 and 39 refer to the diagram below which shows the longitudinal section through an ovule of an angiosperm

38. After fertilisation, the region labelled X will develop into theA. PericarpB. Seed coatC. Fleshy part of fruitD. Flesh part of seed39. The role of Y is to A. Fuse with male nucleus to form endospermB. Fuse with male nucleus to form the cotyledonC. Fuse with male nucleus to form the embryoD. Support the position of the ovum and disintegrate after fertilisation.Item 40 refer to the following diagram below which illustrates a section of the human female reproductive system.

40. Which of the following correctly identifies the parts labelled P,Q,R,S?

Item 41 refers to the diagram below which shows a simplified version of the structure of a mammalian testis

41. Spermatozoa are stored in the region labelledA. IB. IIC. IIID. IVItem 42 refers to the diagram below which shows the stages of spermatogenesis that visible in the transverse section of a seminiferous tubule.

42. Follicle stimulating hormone acts directly on the cells labelled A. IB. IIC. IIID. IV

43. Which of the following hormones is directly responsible for the release of the ova from the ovary?A. OestrogenB. ProgesteroneC. Luteinising hormoneD. Follicle stimulating hormone44. The role of high dose progesterone only pills is to A. Directly cause lysis of spermB. Promote a build-up of the endometriumC. Promote thinning of the cervical mucusD. Completely inhibit follicular development and ovulation.Item 45 refers to the graphs below summarising the hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle of a woman45. When will ovulation occur if there is a surge of LH and FSH on day 12 of the cycle?A. Within 24 hours of the surgeB. 36 hours after the surgeC. 38 hours after the surgeD. Before day 12, LH and FSH have no impact on ovulation