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BROCK UNIVERSITY

Progress Exam: December 2010 Course: BIOL IF90 Date of Exam: Saturday, December 11 Time of Exam: 1400·1700 hrs

Instructions

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Number of Pages: 19 Number of Students: 752 Number of Hours: 3 Instructors: Fiona Hunter

Doug Bruce

Part A. Definitions. Select 5 (five) of the following terms and provide a 2 sentence definition for the term. Make sure you include an example to demonstrate that you have understood the term. 2 marks each for a total of 10 marks.

Part B. Fill in the Blanks. ~ mark each for a total of 10 marks.

Part C. Multiple Choice Questions. Use an HB pencil to record your answer to the multiple choice questions on the Scantron sheet provided. 1 mark each for a total of 50 marks.

Part D. Short Answer Questions. 5 marks each for a total of 30 marks.

NAME: LD.:

LAB DAY AND TIME.:.....: __________________ _

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Part A. Definitions. Select 5 (five) of the following terms and provide a 2-sentence definition for the term. Make sure you include an example to demonstrate that you have understood the term. 2 marks each for a total of 10 marks.

stromato lites haploid gametophyte

KIT boundary phenolic secondary metabolite

homology conidia

endosperm Deuterostome

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Part B. Fill in the blanks. ~ mark each for a total of 10 marks.

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1. There are three domains, namely, the Archaea, the Bacteria and the

2. Exchange of genetic material among different species is

called ~ _________ ~ __

3. In conifers, the haploid gametophyte is found

4. There are three domains, namely, the Archaea, the Bacteria and the

5. Most microbes that are extremophiles are _______ _

6. The 10 phyla of land plants are: (1) liverworts, (2) hornworts, (3) mosses (or

Bryophyta), (4) lycophytes, (5) ferns, horsetails, and whisk-ferns, (6)

________ -', (7) ginkgos, (8) conifers, (9) gnetophytes, and

(10) flowering plants (or angiosperms)

7. Although land plants, mosses are still tied to water because of their

8. The conspicuous green parts of ferns that you see in the woods are mostly

~ __ === __ ~-c::generation.

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9. _________ and carpals are, in fact, modified sporangia-bearing

leaves.

10. The various kinds of cells of Parazoa do not form permanent associations

into tissues or organs whereas ________ possess true, stable

tissues.

11. Mycorrhizal _____ . ______ form an association with the

roots of most seed plants.

12. Fungi are closely related to animals; both are

______________ , which means that they cannot

produce their own food.

13. Gram positive and gram negative bacteria differ in their

---------------------. [There are at least

three differences that you learned. You need only provide one difference.]

14. The most likely ancestor of Kingdom Animalia was a colonial flagellated

protist, similar to present-day _______________ _

15. Coelomates have a true coelom in which the body cavity is completely lined

with -----------------

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16. _______ genes are involved in pattern formation in early

embryos; one example that we considered was the position of the Cervical

Thoracic vertebrate in chordates.

17. Traditional and molecular phylogenies support an early split between the

Radiata and the Bilateria, with the majority of phyla belonging to the

18. An example of a Parazoan would be a(n) _________ _

19. An example of a radially symmetrical animal (i.e., belonging to the Radiata)

would be a(n) _____________ _

20. In order for pollination to occur, conspecific pollen must first land of the

sticky __________ of carpel.

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Part C. Multiple Choice Questions. Place your answers on the SCANTRON sheet provided. 1 mark each for a total of 40 marks.

1. The time it requires for exactly one-half of a given amount of a radioactive isotope of an element to decay is called that isotope's A. decay time. B. decay product. C. half-life. D. half-decay. E. useful dating range.

2. The chemical composition of the gases surrounding the Earth has changed substantially over the past 4 billion years. One notable change was due to the emergence of organisms that photosynthesized. Their photosynthesis increased the amount of which of the following gases in the atmosphere? A. Carbon dioxide (C02). B. Nitrogen (N2). C. Hydrogen sulfide (H2S04).

D. Oxygen (02). E. Water vapor (H20).

3. The process by which the major land masses have shifted their positions, changed shapes and separated from each other, is known as A. Cotranslational sorting. B. Continental drift. C. Depolarization of land masses. D. Differential land movement. E. Cyclic land drift.

4. The amniotic egg evolved as an adaptation A. against predation. B. to insure survival in the uterus. C. to prevent desiccation. D. to permit the embryo to develop undisturbed up to the time of hatching. E. to encourage seed dispersal.

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5. In 1909, Charles Walcott discovered fossils in the Burgess Shale of the Canadian Rockies. The area was formed by an underwater mudslide that provided an oxygen free environment, so decomposition was minimal. Why were these fossils so unique? A. They were from the PreCambrian. B. There were some vertebrate fossils but also a wide variety of invertebrate (soft bodied) fossils. C. Only plant fossils were found D. Before this discovery, it was thought that mudslides could not occur underwater. E. The first bird fossil, Archaeopteryx, was discovered in this area.

6. Changes that have occurred in living organisms over the past four billion years are due primarily to A. extinction of species. B. continental drift. C. changes in geological periods. D. interaction of genetic changes and environmental changes. E. the change in the orbit of the moon, causing mass extinction due to volcanic activity.

7. The Carboniferous Period is known for A. Rich coal deposits found in rocks of this age. B. The first examples of gymnosperms on land. C. The first angiosperms developed. D. The carboniferous explosion of marine invertebrates such as sea urchins, arthropods, and crustaceans. E. The appearance of reptiles and large mammals.

8. The event called the Cambrian Explosion resulted in an abrupt increase in A. geological activity. B. diversity of major animal groups. C. algal diversity. D. the number of days in the year. E. the amount of fish, of a single species, in the seas.

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9. Which of the following would likely fossilize under normal environmental conditions? A. An elephant that died near a waterhole that dried up. B. A bird that died and fell into the forest litter. C. A slug that died in leaf litter. D. A soft shelled crab that dies in an estuary. E. Both a bird and slug that die and fall in leaf litter.

10. Flowering plants (Angiosperms) originated during the A. Permian Period. B. Tertiary Period. C. Devonian Period. D. Cretaceous Period. E. Jurassic Period.

11. The term evolution is used to describe A. heritable changes in characteristics of a population from one generation to the next. B. any change in an individual that can be observed. C. changes in the number of individuals in a popUlation due to mating. D. the ability of an individual organism to pass on what it has learned, through experience, to the next generation. E. any change in an individual organism that occurs in somatic cells.


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12. Darwin's concept of evolution "the theory of descent with modification through variation and natural selection" can be demonstrated by which of the following examples? A. A giraffe stretches his neck to reach higher branches. The exercise of stretching up strengthens the muscles in the neck and legs; This ability to stretch is also seen in the giraffe's offspring. B. A monkey accidently drops her fruit in the salty water of a bay, she recovers the fruit and eats it. She discovers that the fruit is cleaner and tastes better after it has been in the salty water. She continues to wash fruit in the bay before eating. Her offspring see what she has done and also wash their fruit in the salty water. Soon the whole population is washing their fruit. C. Several turtles hatch from a clutch of eggs buried in the sand on a beach. One of the turtles is the colour of the sand, the others are darker in colour. The turtles all scurry to the water, but one by one the dark turtles are eaten by birds, only the sand coloured turtle survives. When it ,enters the water the sand colour changes to a darker brown. The turtle grows, mates and has offspring that are also sand coloured when they are born. D. A female alligator gives birth to a male alligator that has the ability to change colour to a bright white when it is in cold water. The baby male alligator is quickly spotted by a large bird of prey and eaten. E. A pigeon fancier breeds pigeons with large feathers on its feet.

13. An important message from the work of Thomas Malthus that influenced Charles Darwin was A. animals tended toward "human perfection." B. only a fraction of any population will survive and reproduce. C. population size of humans can grow without limitation. D. the inheritance of acquired characteristics. E. none of these. Charles Darwin was influenced by John Ray not Thomas Malthus.

14. The result of natural selection is A. extinction. B. catastrophism. C. adaptation. D. the modem synthesis. E. behavioural change.

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15. Why was it important that Darwin visited islands, and then compared island species with continental species? A. Because Darwin found unique species on the islands. These island species did not have any of the characteristics of their ancestral continental species. B. Because Darwin's attention was drawn to the uniqueness of the island species, even though they retained some resemblance to continental species. C. Because Darwin's attention was drawn to the uniqueness and variety of finches on the islands, determining that their adaptations came from eating different food than continental species. D. Because Darwin saw very low reproductive survival rates on the island as compared to the mainland. E. Because Darwin observed continental species of finch flying to the islands.

16. The interlocking rib cage of Titaalik roseae suggests that this transition organism had lungs; which of the following traits were also found in T. roseae but not in the ancestral form? A. An upright stance. B. Wings. C. Primitive wrist and five finger-like bones. D. Live young. E. Articulating hip bones.

17. The long snout of the giant anteater, Myrmecophaga tridactyla, of South America, and the echidna, Tachyglossus aculeatus, of Australia, are animals of different evolutionary lineages that are both adapted to eating ants. This is an example of A. selective breeding. B. anatomical homology. C. analogous traits. D. artificial selection. E. Both analogous traits and artificial selection are correct.


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18. Which of the following pairs ar,e NOT homologous? A. the wing of a bat and the front flipper of a whale B. the wing of a bat and the wing of a chicken C. the foreleg of a turtle and the front flipper of a whale D. the wing of an insect and the wing of chicken E. both the wing of an insect and chicken and the wing of a bat and chicken

19. The most ancient type of organisms on Earth originated: A. 4,004 years ago B. 7,200 years ago C. 2 million years ago D. 3.5 billion years ago E. 13 billion years ago

20. There is great diversity of shap,e among microbes. Form is one of the ways different taxa can be distinguished. Which of the following shapes are not found among the microbes? A. rods B. spheres C. octagons D. curved shapes E. spirals

21. What is the source of energy for a photoautotroph? A. carbon dioxide B. inorganic compounds C. organic compounds D.light E. living hosts

22. A bacterial "bloom" is: A. the reproductive parts of bacteria B. malformation of flowers caused by bacterial infections C. unusual colouring of the water of lakes, ponds, or the sea caused by high numbers of bacteria D. premature blooming of a flower due to a bacterial infection E. swelling of a wound because of bacterial infection


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23. Which of the following is NOT a way that bacteria benefit humans? A. produce foodstuffs such as cheese B. produce antibiotics c. break down substances harmful to humans, such as wastes, toxins, explosives, and petrochemicals D. kill harmful insects E. transfer nutrients across intestinal·membranes

24. The Kingdom Plantae arose from: A. a choanoflagellate B. a chytrid C. a charophycean D. a zygomycete E. a stramenopile

25. A sporic life cycle is NOT characteristic of which of the following groups? A. ginkgos B. angiosperms C. mosses D. conifers E. charophyceans

26. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of mosses for living on land? A. delayed meiosis B. enclosure of gametes in gametangia C. enclosure of zygotes in the gametophyte D. wind dispersal of gametes E. wind dispersal of spores

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of vascular tissue in plants? A. physical support of the plant B. transport of water C. transport of minerals D. transport of organic compounds E. transport of gametes

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28. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the stomata on the leaves of vascular plants? A. They regulate intake of carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis. B. They regulate release of oxygen to the air. C. They regulate loss of water. D. They are open or closed depending on environmental conditions. E. They regulate the absorption of light by the chlorophyll.

29. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of fruits and seeds? A. "Fruits" and "seeds" are synonymous terms. B. Fruits always have fleshy coverings and seeds always have hard ones. C. Fruits are ripened ovaries containing seeds. D. Fruits have endosperm but seeds do not. E. All of the choices provided are incorrect.

30. After a decline to an historic low about 300 million years ago, carbon dioxide levels in the Earth's atmosphere rose again for a while. Hypothesize a reason why this occurred. A. All the vegetation that had been produced in warmer times decayed and released carbon dioxide. B. There was an increase in aerobic bacteria that released large amounts of carbon dioxide. C. There was an increase in oxygen that stimulated respiration and hence greater production of carbon dioxide. D. The low carbon dioxide levels caused cooling of the Earth, resulting in the decline of ancient vegetation; with less vegetation to absorb carbon dioxide, the carbon dioxide levels rose. E. All of the other choices provided are incorrect.


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31. What is the commonly accepted reason for the extinction of the dinosaurs? A. A meteorite or comet crashed into the Earth, causing smoke and ash that blocked the sun and caused death of the plants that were food for dinosaurs. B. The cycads upon which dinosaurs fed were purgatives and when they declined the dinosaurs, unable to digest flowering plants, died of constipation. C. Increasing carbon dioxide levels produced climates too hot for the incubation of their eggs. D. Increase in the number of ferns produced so many spores in the atmosphere that dinosaurs suffered from lung irritation. E. The pollen produced by the rise in flowering plants produced allergenic responses in dinosaurs.

32. Double fertilization is: A. fertilization of two eggs in the same flower B. fertilization of an egg by two sperm C. fertilization of an egg by one sperm and of the nucleus of an endospermforming cell by another sperm D. fertilization of two eggs by the same sperm E. fertilization of an egg and an endosperm-forming cell by the same sperm

33. Which of the following statements describes the differences between pollination and fertilization? A. Pollination is the transport of pollen from a microsporangium to a stigma whereas fertilization is the fusion of a sperm with an egg. B. Pollination is the production of pollen whereas fertilization is the fusion of a sperm with an egg. C. Pollination is the transport of ponen from a microsporangium to an ovule whereas fertilization is the fusion of the pollen with an ovule. D. There is no difference; the two terms are synonymous. E. All of the other choices provided are incorrect.

34. In conifers, microspores develop into: A. flagellated sperm B. pollen grains C. ovules D. a nucellus E. male cones


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35. The perianth of a flower consists of: A. the pistil and stamens B. the petals and sepals C. the peduncle and receptacle D. the anthers and stigma E. the sty Ie and ovary

36. The function of nectar is: A. provision of carbohydrates for the plant. B. attraction of pollinators C. preservation of delicate flower parts D. a sticky trap for parasitic insects E. none of the other choices provided

37. Teosinte was the forerunner of modern: A. rice B. wheat C. oats D. barley E. maize

38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of most animals? A. They have Hox genes. B. They are heterotrophic. C. They have an extracellular matrix of proteins such as collagen. D. They have cell walls. E. They have a nervous system.

39. The putative ancestor of animals was: A. choanoflagellates B. chytrids C. gnetophytes D. stramenopiles E. euglenozoa


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40. If you conducted an experiment in which you took a complete animal and strained it through a fine-mesh cloth so that all its cells separated, then you placed all the cells together and they reunited to form a new animal, to which phylum would that animal likely belong? (This was an actual experiment.) A. Platyhelminthes (or flatworms) B. Porifera C. Ctenophora D. Nematoda E. All of the choices provided are correct.

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Part D. Short Answer questions (DB material) (5 marks each)

1. Draw an amino acid. Then draw two amino acids joined together by a peptide bond. If you also name your amino acid correctly you win receive a bonus point.

2. Draw glucose (cyclic structure)


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3. Draw a nucleotide, use the above base (thymine).

4. If you were on a "Survivor" style reality television show and were given a choice of two pounds of butter or two pounds of bread to use as your only source of food for the "starvation challenge". Which would you choose and why?


NAME I.D.#

5. Draw a graph showing the free energy of a reaction as it proceeds from reactants to products. Identify whether you have drawn an exergonic or endergonic reaction, label the activation energy and the free energy and show what the effect of an enzyme would be on the reaction.

6. Mitochondria (oxidative phosphorylation or respiratory electron transport) and chloroplasts (linear electron transport in photosynthesis) both use electron transport pathways to ultimately produce A TP. Explain any similarities and differences between the two electron transport pathways and methods of producing ATP in point form. If you choose to use simple diagrams to illustrate your points, please make sure they focus on the similarities and differences.

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