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Biology 112 – Introduction to Ecology

MTX 2 Example Practice

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1 of 39 BIO 112 SM 2017 71203 MTX 2 Q Example 170707.1.doc

Chapter Number 9 City Living

1. Which event (s) corresponded with a rapid increase in the population growth rate of Las Vegas, NV?

a) the end of World War II

b) completion of the trans-continental railroad

c) construction of the Hoover Dam

d) recent climate change

e) all of these choices are correct

2. Which of the following problems is commonly shared by cities in both highly developed and developing countries?

a) lack of adequate medical facilities

b) lack of adequate clean water

c) lack of adequate technology

d) lack of adequate schools

e) lack of adequate shelter

3. Mexico City:

a) is representative of urbanization in a developing country.

b) is a good example of a megacity

c) was one of the 10 largest cities in the world in 2005

d) had a population of 19.4 million in 2005


4. What percentage of the U.S. population lives in cities?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 79%

d) 85%

e) 100%

5. Urbanization:

a) is growing more quickly in developing countries than in developed countries.

b) currently accounts for housing about 75% of the global population.

c) results in fewer employment opportunities in developed countries as compared to rural areas.

d) refers to the migration of city people to the country to enjoy country living.

e) describes a grouping of 10,000 or more individuals.



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6. The young age structure of urban areas can be attributed to:

a) high birth rates in urban areas

b) influx of young people from rural areas

c) high death rates in urban areas

d) the presence of more females than males in urban areas

e) shortened life expectancy of urban dwellers

7. Unlike people who live in urban areas, people who live in rural areas

a) are employed in occupations which involve industrial labor

b) are far more heterogeneous with respect to race

c) are far more heterogeneous with respect to religion

d) are generally younger than those in the surrounding cities

e) are employed in occupations which involve harvesting natural resources

8. What characteristic defines a megacity?

a) a city that has more than 10 million inhabitants

b) a city that grows by approximately 1,000 new immigrants each day from overpopulated rural areas

c) a cluster of small or medium-sized cities, each with population of less than 1 million

d) a suburban sprawl of developed suburbs

e) a city that has over 100 high-rise buildings

9. The process in which people increasingly move from rural areas to densely populated cities is termed:

a) high density accommodation

b) rural redistribution

c) urbanization

d) metropolitan relocation

e) municipality magnetism

10. 10. Urban ecologists study urban trends and patterns in the context of four variables (POET) referring to:

a) pollution, opportunity, emigration, and transportation

b) population, organization, environment, and technology

c) pain & suffering, overt crime rate, employment, and trades

d) poverty, overcrowding, education, and traffic

e) politics, options, ecosystems, and travel

11. 11. Sustainable urban development, ideally, involves



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a) green space

b) recycling

c) urban farmers

d) solar energy


12. A patchwork of vacant and developed tracts around the edges of cities that contain a low population density is considered:

a) smart growth

b) sustainable development

c) green architecture

d) suburban sprawl

e) compact development

13. All of the following are considered a part of a city’s infrastructure except:

a) roads

b) department stores

c) garbage trucks

d) prisons

e) water treatment plants

14. What is gentrification?

a) The movement of wealthier people back to older, run-down homes that have been renovated.

b) The remaining people in the city and older suburbs who find themselves the victims of declining property values and increasing isolation from suburban jobs

c) The movement of more affluent citizens to the suburbs to avoid the noise and pollution of inner cities.

d) The remaining of people in the inner city because of prejudice encountered when they seek to move out to suburban neighborhoods

e) The movement of people to the suburbs to pay less in terms of taxes but more in terms of transportation costs.

15. Transportation has affected the spatial structures of cities because:

a) as cities grow, a grid must be maintained for street development

b) as cities grow, a plan must be in place to evenly distribute the accumulation of heat from automobile use

c) as cities grow, they expand along public transportation routes

d) as cities grow, they expand in the direction of waterways

e) as cities grow, the dependence on transportation is lessened



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16. 1Designing and constructing buildings that are energy efficient, economical, and made of recycled materials, is a trend called:

a) friendly construction.

b) green architecture.

c) environmental building.

d) passive design.

e) ecology construction.

17. In 2007 __________ was the fourth largest city in the world with 19 million people. By 2025, this city’s population is projected to be 26.4 million, which will make it the second largest city in the world.

a) Mumbai (Bombay), India

b) Mexico City, Mexico

c) Calcutta, India

d) Shanghai, China

e) New York, U.S.A.

18. A program in Curitiba, Brazil which pays bus tokens, surplus food, or school supplies for filled garbage bags is:

a) Trash to Treasure Program

b) Rubbish Reward Program

c) Debris Barter Program

d) Garbage Purchase Program

e) Waste Watchers Program

19. A brownfield is an urban area of

a) vacant house lots that are overgrown with weeds and vegetation

b) parking lot pavement that collects heat during the day and emits heat at night

c) meadows that are earmarked for industrial development

d) sports arenas for baseball, football, and soccer

e) abandoned, vacant factories, warehouses, and residential sites that may be contaminated from past uses.

20. The National Science Foundation has two long-term research (LTER) sites (Baltimore and Phoenix) to gather information on:

a) interactions among humans in urban settings

b) the ecological effects of humans on their urban environment

c) the effects of natural disasters on plant and animal populations

d) public awareness of environmental policy decisions

e) the flow of money into and out of the urban region

21. All of the following are negative effects of prolonged exposure to noise pollution EXCEPT:

a) hearing damage

b) increased blood pressure



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c) increased frequency of heart disease

d) psychological stress

e) all of these can be caused by prolonged exposure to noise pollution

22. All of the following historical events have led to movement of people into cities EXCEPT:

a) development of agriculture

b) the American Revolution

c) the Industrial Revolution

d) a search for jobs associated with natural resource extraction

e) the American Revolution and a search for jobs associated with natural resource extraction.

Chapter Number 10 Energy Sources and Uses

1. Which of the following is a true statement regarding sustainable building design?

1. Construction costs are usually less than traditional building practices. 2. There are currently no agreed-upon standards, making it difficult to learn what works and what does not. 3. Some benefits, such as reduced pollution from fossil fuel burning, are difficult to quantify. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 are true e) 1 and 3 are true Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

2. Compared to energy use practices hundreds of years ago, modern societies: a) rely less on fossil fuels b) rely more on biomass c) rely more on local sources d) rely more on highly concentrated sources e) rely more on biomass and rely more on local sources Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

3. Which of the following correctly lists solar, nuclear and crude oil energy sources from most to least versatile?

a) crude oil > solar > nuclear b) crude oil > nuclear > solar c) solar > crude oil > nuclear d) solar > nuclear > crude oil e) nuclear > solar > crude oil Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

4. Which of the following is a completely clean energy source? a) coal b) nuclear c) solar d) none of these choices is correct Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy



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5. Fill in the blank. Although _____ of the world’s population lived in highly developed countries in 2014, they consumed _____ of the commercial energy produced worldwide.

a) 15%, 65% b) 20%, 60% c) 30%, 50% d) 30%, 60% e) 40%, 70% Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

6. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the global increase in energy use since 1982?

a) China now consumes more energy than the United States. b) Energy use in the United States and Japan has increased dramatically in the last five years. c) Recent increases in global energy use are on the order of 4.5%. d) Increases in energy use are distributed relatively equally across the globe. Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

7. Which country has the highest rate of per capita energy use? a) United States b) China c) Japan d) Germany Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

8. Which of the following practices will increase energy efficiency? a) turning off lights when not in use b) changing incandescent light bulbs to compact fluorescent light bulbs c) lighting fewer rooms in the house d) turning off lights when not in use and lighting fewer rooms in the house Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

9. Compared to development of new energy sources, energy efficiency and energy conservation: a) cost less b) improve the economy’s productivity c) save energy for future use d) all of these choices are correct e) cost less and improve the economy’s productivity Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

10. 10) Which term below is defined as “The amount of available energy in a source that is transmitted into useful work”?

a) energy waste b) energy production c) energy use d) energy conservation e) energy efficiency Section You will have to find it



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11. Highly developed countries contain less than 20% of the world’s population but they consume _____ of the energy worldwide.

a) 20 b) 40 c) 60 d) 80 Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy



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12. All of the following are energy saving methods that can be incorporated into homes except

a) Installing programmable thermostats b) Eliminating energy vampires c) Installing low-flow shower heads d) Using incandescent bulbs Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

13. Using batteries to store energy is an example of a) Kinetic energy storage b) Electrochemical energy storage c) Compressed air energy storage d) Superconducting magnetic energy storage Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage



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14. Fuel consumption increases approximately ______ percent if a car is driven at 75 mph rather than 55 mph

a) 15 b) 30 c) 50 d) 65 Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

15. Carbon in the form of CO2 is released into the atmosphere with the use of all of the following except

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Electricity d) Oil Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

Chapter Number: 11 Fossil Fuels

16. What does the term “Peak Oil” refer to?

a) the time period during which the rate of oil use is highest b) the point in time at which the maximum amount of oil is being pumped from underground c) an environmentally friendly synthetic oil with much lower greenhouse gas emissions than conventional oil d) the time period during which oil refineries operate at their highest capacity e) the time period during which international economies based on petroleum products arose Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

17. Which of the following statements regarding fossil fuel formation is NOT true? a) The sun is the ultimate source of the energy they contain b) They are formed at a much slower rate than they are currently being consumed c) They are formed in an oxygen-rich environment d) They are composed of the remnants of ancient organisms e) They require millions of years to form Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

18. Which of these fossil fuels was/were formed from the remains of ancient microscopic algae and aquatic organisms?

a) oil b) natural gas c) gas hydrates d) methane e) all of these Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

19. Which of these fossil fuels is composed primarily of methane? a) oil b) natural gas c) coal d) tar sands e) lignite Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels



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20. Combustion of which of these fossil fuels is/are linked to global warming?

a) oil b) natural gas c) coal d) methane e) All of these Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

21. Which fossil fuel reserves will most likely last the longest? a) oil b) natural gas c) coal d) peat e) uranium Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

22. Which fossil fuel is most abundant in North America? a) oil b) natural gas c) uranium d) coal e) peat Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

23. The type of fossil fuel made from the remains of ancient plants that lived millions of years ago is a)peat b) coal c) oil d) natural gas e) synfuel Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

24. Anthracite coal a) causes the most air pollution b) has the highest sulfur content c) is very hard and burns cleanly d) is the most abundant grade of coal e) is very soft and burns at high temperatures Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

25. 1Bituminous coal: a) is the most common grade of coal b) causes the least amount of air pollution of any type of coal c) is very soft and burns at high temperatures d) is very hard and burns cleanly e) has the lowest sulfur content of any type of coal Section; You will have to find it



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Given:

• Coal contains about 24 million Btu per ton,

• Only about 40% of this energy can be converted into electricity

• The average US household uses 108.7 Million BTU (31,857 kWh) per year

• Coal produces about 2.71 tons carbon dioxide (CO2) per ton of coal

26. How many tons of CO2 will be released each year to provide electricity for this household, if the electricity supply is entirely produced from coal?

a) 50.40 tons of CO2 b) 40.11 tons of CO2 c) 30.68 tons of CO2 d) 11.32 tons of CO2 Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

27. In 2004, China used 6684 barrels of oil per day. This was 15.8% more than they used in 2003. If the rate of increase stays the same, how much total oil would they use in 2015?

a) 33,555 barrels of oil per day b) 13,916 barrels of oil per day c) 25,023 barrels of oil per day d) 12,018 barrels of oil per day Section Reference 1: 11.3

28. A car consumes approximately 6530 BTU’s per person per mile compared to the bus which consumes 939 BTU’s per person per mile. How many times more energy efficient is it for you to take the bus to work than to drive your own car?

a) 5 times b) 10 times c) 7 times d) 3 times Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

29. Cars consume gasoline at certain efficiency; it has been shown that a car will get better fuel economy when driven at 55 mph compared to 75 mph. Fuel consumption can be increased by 50% when a car is driven at 75 mph rather that 55 mph. Considering that a car will get 20 (mpg) miles per gallon at 75 mph, on a trip of 300 miles how much less gas will be used if the car is driven at 55 mph.

a) 15 gallons b) 10 gallons c) 5 gallons d) no difference Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas



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Chapter Number: 12 Renewable Energy

30. Plant material used for food is called:

a) hydromass. b) tidalmass. c) biomass. d) cogeneration. e) fertilizer. Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

31. Which of the following is not an emerging alternative, renewable resource energy technology? a) nuclear energy b) wind farms c) alcohol fuels d) photovoltaic solar cells e) geothermal energy Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

32. The amount of solar radiation hitting the Earth depends on: a) the amount of cloud cover. b) the distance from the equator. c) the time of day. d) the season of the year. e) All of these Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

33. In the United States, solar radiation is greatest in: a) the southwest. b) the northeast. c) the northwest. d) the mid-west e) Florida. Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

34. All of the following materials are examples of biomass fuels except: a) wood b) oil c) animal waste d) crop wastes e) sawdust Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

35. Passive solar heating: a) cannot be used to heat buildings. b) is effective only in the summer. c) uses the sun’s energy without machines. d) is a non-renewable resource. e) depends on x-rays. Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy



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36. Which of the following is part of a home designed with passive solar heating?

a) south facing windows b) mirrors and lenses c) use of solar collectors on the roof d) little insulation e) a greenhouse Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

37. Which of the following can be used to store the heat from passive solar heating? a) containers of water b) reflective glass windows c) solar panels d) photovoltaic solar cells e) wooden roof beams Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

38. Which of the following renewable energy sources is not used to produce electricity? a) solar heating b) geothermal c) biomass conversion d) photovoltaics e) wind Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

39. Which of the following does not involve solar energy? a) geothermal energy b) photovoltaic cells c) solar power towers d) wind farms e) solar thermal collectors Chapter Number 12

40. Given the following information determine how large of an area of photovoltaic cells will be necessary to power a house. The house uses 1000 kilowatt-hours (kWh) per month. It receives 6 kWh/m2/day of solar radiation. (m2 is square meter) The available photovoltaic cells have 15% efficiency. Assume perfect battery storage (0% losses) of the generated electricity.

a) 166 m2 b) 66 m2 c) 40 m2 d) 37 m2 e) 5.6 m2 Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy



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41. Calculate the total amount of electricity (in MW) used globally in a year given the following information. Photovoltaic (PV) solar cells currently provide about 21,000MW of electricity worldwide. PV cells account for only about 0.7% of global electricity.

a) 75,000 MW b) 7,500 MW c) 15,000MW d) 29,790 MW e) 2,970 MW Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

42. Uranium-235 (U-235) has an atomic mass of 235 and an atomic number of 92. What are the number of protons and neutrons in an atom of U-235?

a) 92 protons and 92 neutrons b) 235 protons and 92 neutrons c) 92 protons and 235 neutrons d) 92 protons and 143 neutrons e) 143 protons and 92 neutrons Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

43. Starting with 1 kg of Plutonium-239, which has a half-life of approximately 24,000 years, how many grams will remain after 24,000 years? How many will remain after 96,000 years?

a) 500 grams and 62.5 grams b) 1000 grams and 125 grams c) 500 grams and 0 grams d) 0 grams and 0 grams e) 500 grams and 250 grams Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

44. The Yucca Mountain high level Nuclear Waste Storage Facility has a design capacity of 70,000 metric tons of radioactive waste and is designed to last to the year 2025. In 2000 the United States had an estimated 42,710 metric tons. Approximately how many metric tons per year of high level radioactive waste can be generated in the United States without exceeding the design capacity?

a) 1,000 b) 500 c) 100 d) 10,000 e) 10 Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

45. Uranium ore is a mixture of isotopes of which 0.71% is U-235. How much uranium ore must be mined to obtain one ton of fuel grade U-235 at 3% enrichment?

a) 20 b) 42 c) 50 d) 2.1 e) 7 Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power



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Chapter Number: 14 Dirt

Chapter Number: 14 1) Soil is formed from parent material by biological, chemical, and physical: a) digestion processes. b) weathering processes. c) composting. d) terracing. e) leaching. Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 2) Soil is composed of: a) mineral particles. b) organic materials. c) air. d) water. e) All of these Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 3) Which of the following may affect the mineral composition of soil? a) soil age b) soil pH c) soil organisms d) parent material e) All of these Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 4) Humus is composed of: a) weathered rocks b) fresh leaf litter c) iron and aluminum compounds. d) decomposed organic matter. e) various inorganic minerals. Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 5) The removal of dissolved minerals from the soil as water moves downward is called: a) illuviation. b) leaching. c) deposition. d) decomposition. e) weathering. Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 7) The uppermost layer of soil that is rich in plant litter and other organic material is the: a) A horizon.



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b) B horizon. c) C horizon. d) O horizon. e) E horizon. Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 8) The ____________ is a lighter-colored soil layer where iron and aluminum often accumulate. a) A horizon. b) B horizon. c) C horizon. d) O horizon. e) E horizon. Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 9) The ____________ contains weathered pieces of rock and is found just above the solid bedrock. a) A horizon b) B horizon c) C horizon d) O horizon e) E horizon Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 10) _________ describes the pathway of various nutrient minerals or elements from the environment through organisms and back to the environment. a) Crop rotation b) Leaching and illuviation c) Mycorrhizae d) Nutrient cycling e) none of these choices is correct Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 11) In soil, the smallest particles (less than .002mm) are called: a) sand. b) silt. c) parent material. d) clay. e) illuviation particles. Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 12) Water tends to drain rapidly through soil that is high in: a) sand. b) silt. c) humus. d) clay. e) illuviation particles. Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 13) Which of the following sequences is in the correct order from largest particle size to smallest particle size?



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a) Sand > Silt > Gravel > Clay b) Sand > Gravel > Clay > Silt c) Gravel > Sand > Clay > Silt d) Gravel > Sand > Silt > Clay e) Clay > Silt > Gravel > Sand Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 14) Clay content is particularly important in soil because high-clay soils: a) provide excellent drainage b) have large surface areas that can “hold” mineral ions for plant use c) contain abundant oxygen d) are ideal for most agricultural crops e) are easy to till for agriculture Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 15) Loam: a) contains about 40% each of sand and silt. b) is an ideal agricultural soil. c) has good aeration and drainage. d) has a medium ability to hold nutrients and water. e) All of these choices are correct Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 19) The soils of tropical rain forests tend to be nutrient-poor due to: a) extensive wind erosion. b) the fact that nutrient minerals are stored primarily in the vegetation. c) removal of native plants, largely grasses, depleting the nutrient minerals. d) sediment washing into streams from intact forests. e) poor crop rotation practices in slash-and-burn agriculture. Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 20) Worldwide, 75 billion metric tons (83 billion tons) of topsoil is lost annually, primarily due to: a) poor agricultural practices. b) global warming. c) ozone depletion. d) the soil rustler's black market. e) conservation tillage. Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 21) Which of the following two regions have the largest land areas with extensive soil damage? a) Europe and Asia b) North and South America c) Africa and Asia d) Europe and South America e) Africa and North America Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 22) The desertification of the Sahel [Sub-Sahara Africa] is caused by: a) overgrazing. b) overcultivation. c) periodic droughts. d) soil erosion. e) All of these choices are correct Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil



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23) Which of the following is true of conservation tiling? Mark all that apply. a) a method of cultivation in which residues from previous crops are left in the soil b) residues are partially covering soil and helping it to hold seeds c) there are several types including no tilling d) over 70% of US farmland was planted using conservation tilling in the early 2000s e) all these are false Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 24) A major problem with conservation tillage is: a) the soil becomes compact. b) soil erosion increases. c) it increases insect populations. d) it requires greater use of herbicides to control weeds. e) the soil contains less organic matter. Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 25) An important plant to use in crop rotation because of its association with nitrogen-fixing bacteria is: a) corn b) wheat. c) oats. d) alfalfa. e) potatoes. Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneratio 26) Legume plants like soybeans add which of the following to the soil? a) sulfur b) nitrogen c) trace minerals d) phosphorus e) potassium Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 27) Planting the same crop year after year: a) increases damage by insects and disease. b) decreases soil erosion. c) does not deplete essential nutrients from the soil. d) will slowly increase crop yields. e) is a new and innovative agricultural practice. Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 28) Organic fertilizers: a) have nutrients immediately available to plants. b) can consist of manure, crop residues, or bone meal. c) are quickly leached out of the soil by rain. d) are manufactured. e) have minimal effect on the production of a given crop. Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration



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29) Mulch: a) helps to control weeds. b) reduces evaporation. c) extends the growing season. d) decreases soil erosion. e) All of these choices are correct Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 30) Compost is: a) a natural fertilizer b) used to minimize soil erosion. c) placed on the soil surface when used. d) used to minimize water loss from the soil. e) used to control weeds. Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 32) Scientists know relatively little about the roles of most soil organisms because a) very few soil organisms have been identified b) it is hard to study them in a natural environment c) they are too small to see, even with high-powered microscopes d) they do not affect soil much and are not worth studying e) none of these; scientists have a good understanding of most soil organisms Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 36) Increased soil erosion may be caused by all of the following except: a) construction of buildings. b) construction of roads. c) construction of shelterbelts. d) clearcutting large forested areas. e) agriculture. Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 37) Soil erosion: a) may result in decreased water quality for fishes and other aquatic organisms. b) does not reduce the fertility of the soil, just the quantity. c) is exclusively linked to human activities. d) is not affected by the extent of plant cover. e) is never responsible for or related to water pollution. Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 38) The American Dust Bowl was caused by all of the following except: a) the fact that the Great Plains of North America have low annual precipitation. b) the extensive removal of native prairie grasses to plant crops. c) overgrazing. d) unusually severe wind and storm conditions. e) the poor (nutrient) quality of the soil of the Great Plains. Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil



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40) Of the following, which has the greatest permeability? a) clay b) loam c) sand d) silt e) humus Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 42) Which of the following represents an “ecosystem service” performed by soil organisms? a) maintaining soil fertility by decaying and cycling organic material b) providing minerals by assisting in weathering c) altering topography by amplifying erosion d) preserving toxic materials by situating toxins into encapsulated structures e) contributing to desertification by removing excess moisture from the soil Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 43) Which of the following is a type of contour plowing? a) strip cropping b) native prairie seizure c) grasslands reserve program d) sod busting e) crop rotation Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 45) Soil degradation is primarily attributed to: a) wildfires, surplus soil organisms and dense vegetation. b) poor agricultural practices, overgrazing and deforestation. c) erosion, excessive tillage and coastal location. d) exhaustion of parent material, severe climate and leaching. e) heavy rainfall, agroforestry and crop rotation. Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 48) Crop rotation and strip cropping alternate crops such as corn and wheat. The difference is: a) In strip cropping, the crops are alternated by size. In crop rotation, the crops are alternated by color. b) In strip cropping, one crop is exposed and the other covered. In crop rotation, dual crops form concentric circles. c) In strip cropping, one crop transforms into the other by genetic seed manipulation. In crop rotation, each crop is alternated according to the type of pollinator required. d) In strip cropping, the crops are alternated by row. In crop rotation, the crops are alternated by years. e) There is no difference. Crop rotation is another word for strip cropping. Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 49) The 1930’s Dust Bowl in the western United States is an example of: a) prolonged drought, hottest years measured on the planet, and accelerated wind erosion caused by use of marginal land for agriculture. b) the use of flood plains for agriculture leading to desertification. c) the natural cycle of climate disasters in that region. d) the relationship between economics and annual precipitation. e) human activities not being the cause of or accentuating soil problems. Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil



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50) The difference between compost and mulch is: a) compost is mixed into soil to improve fertility; mulch is placed on soil’s surface to control weeds and retain moisture. b) compost is made of inorganic materials; mulch is made of organic materials. c) compost is used in landfills, individual property owners use mulch. d) composting is an expensive commercial process; mulching is a do-it-yourself endeavor. e) There is no difference. Mulch and compost are synonyms. Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration

Chapter Number: 15 Minerals

1) A rock that contains a large enough concentration of a particular mineral to profitably mine and extract it is called a/an: a) atom. b) slag. c) metal. d) ore. e) compound. Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 2) Which of the following is an example of a nonmetallic mineral? a) ore b) chromium c) zinc d) nickel e) silicon Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 3) _______ are minerals that are usually malleable, good conductors of heat and electricity, and lustrous. a) Rocks b) High-grade ores c) Low-grade ores d) Metals e) Phosphates Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 4) Which of the following is an example of a mineral? a) bronze b) rock c) copper d) petroleum e) water Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals



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5) Which of the following is NOT an example of a mineral? a) bronze b) oxides c) salt d) sulfur e) platinum Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 6) The difference between a high-grade ore and a low-grade ore is the: a) amount of a particular mineral within the ore. b) relative abundance of the ore worldwide. c) relative ease with which the ore can be mined. d) type of minerals present within the ore. e) distribution of the ore worldwide. Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 7) Surface mining is more common than subsurface mining because it: a) does not cause as much land disturbance. b) is less expensive. c) requires fewer spoil banks. d) does not cause any water pollution. e) None of these statements is correct; subsurface mining is more common. Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 10) Chemical and physical weathering processes are part of which mineral deposit-forming process? a) magmatic concentration b) hydrothermal mineral concentration c) sedimentation d) evaporation e) spoil bank formation Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 11) Evaporation: a) increases the concentration of dissolved minerals in bodies of water. b) can occur in bodies of water that exchange large volumes with the ocean. c) occurs when warm river water meets colder ocean water. d) leads to extensive deposits of tin, copper, and iron. e) is responsible for the formation of nickel and manganese deposits. Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 13) __________ use a variety of instruments to locate valuable mineral deposits. a) Astronomers b) Ecologists c) Geologists d) Marine biologists e) Meteorologists Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals



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14) The hill of loose rock produced as a by-product of strip mining is known as: a) an overbank. b) a spoil bank. c) an open pit. d) acid mine drainage. e) tailings. Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 15) Which of the following is used to separate impurities from molten metal? a) tailings b) phytoremediation c) mine drainage d) smelting e) recycling Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 16) Smelting of which of the following minerals is done in a blast furnace? a) copper b) tin c) lead d) iron e) All of these choices are correct Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 17) Acids and other toxic substances that cause problems when they enter streams and the groundwater system are called: a) tailings. b) slag. c) spoil banks. d) acid mine drainage. e) overburden. Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 18) _______ is an impurity in many mineral ores and can cause acid rain when it escapes during the smelting process. a) Arsenic b) Cadmium c) Lead d) Sulfur e) Zinc Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 19) What usually happens to mine tailings? a) they are treated with scrubbers b) they are removed using phytoremediation c) they are left in piles on the ground d) they are treated with electrostatic precipitators e) they are treated with both scrubbers and electrostatic precipitators .Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals



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20) Which of the following is not an environmental impact of mining? a) groundwater depletion b) enrichment of waterways c) erosion d) acid mine drainage e) air pollution Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 22) The environmental degradation of the Copper Basin, Tennessee region is the result of all of the following except: a) destruction of nearby aquatic communities. b) deforestation. c) acid precipitation. d) soil erosion. e) All of these choices are associated with the environmental degradation of the Copper Basin area. Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 24) Which of the following can be used to help remove pollutants from water draining away from mining lands? a) topsoil b) legume plants c) seeds d) fertilizer e) wetlands Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 25) Phytoremediation is a process used to: a) remove impurities from metal ores. b) absorb toxic materials from the soil. c) treat harmful gases produced by smelting. d) neutralize acid mine drainage. e) minimize erosion in open-pit mines. Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 26) Which of the following statements about wetlands is True/ Mark all that apply a) Artificial wetlands may take 50 to 100 years to adequately neutralize acidity for aquatic life. b) Bacteria in wetlands consume the sulfur in the acid mine drainage, thereby decreasing the acidity of the water. c) Creating and maintaining wetlands are expensive solutions to the problem of acid mine drainage. d) As water in the wetland becomes more basic, zinc and copper precipitate out and enter the sediments. e) Wetlands trap sediments and pollutants so that water quality downstream from the wetland is improved. Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 27) The world reserve base of minerals includes: a) deposits that have been identified and located. b) deposits of low-grade ores, which may be profitable to extract in the future. c) deposits of high-grade ores. d) deposits that have not been identified yet. e) All of these statements are correct Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective



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28) _____ is stockpiling and controls the global supply of rare-earth metals, which are used in high-tech industries. a) South Africa b) Japan c) The United States d) China e) India Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 29) Estimates of mineral reserves are dependent upon: a) technological changes. b) economic changes. c) political changes. d) price fluctuations. e) all of these statements are true Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 30) All of the following statements are TRUE except: a) Examples of nonmetallic minerals include phosphates, salt, and sand. b) Subsurface mining disturbs the land less than surface mining. c) Highly developed nations still have large mineral reserves within their boundaries. d) Many developing countries lack any significant mineral deposits. e) Four of the world’s top five mineral producers are highly developed countries. Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 31) Which of the following best characterizes the relationship between nations and their consumption of minerals? a) Highly developed nations often rely on developing nations for strategically important minerals. b) The nations with the richest concentration of minerals consume the largest portion of minerals. c) Highly developed nations consume a fair and proportionate share of the world’s minerals. d) As developing nations industrialize, their consumption of minerals decreases. e) The richest concentrations of minerals in developing countries have been depleted. Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 32) Mineral ________ have been identified and are currently profitable to extract, while mineral ________include ores that are undiscovered or currently unprofitable to extract. a) funds; collections b) caches; refuges c) resources; reserves d) reserves; resources e) stores; hoards Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 35) Which of the following statements about Antarctica is FALSE? a) The Antarctic Treaty of 1961 limits activity in Antarctica to peaceful uses, such as tourism and research. b) Polar regions are extremely vulnerable to human activities and impact. c) Substantial mineral deposits have been found in Antarctica. d) The Madrid Protocol contains a moratorium on mineral exploration and development for at least 50 years. e) This continent plays a pivotal role in regulating many aspects of the global environment. Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals



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36) Large potato-sized nodules found on the sea floor contain manganese, copper, and nickel. What is the main reason these minerals have not been mined? a) it would cost more to mine the minerals than they are currently worth b) international agreements for seafloor mining do not yet exist c) nobody is really sure where these nodules are located d) the metals are of limited use and abundantly available elsewhere e) none of these statements is correct Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals 37) What is the difference between an ore and a rock? a) ores contain a large concentration of a particular mineral; a rock may or may not be an ore b) ores contain only metallic minerals; rocks contain only nonmetallic minerals c) ores are always profitable to extract; rocks are never profitable to extract d) ores are good conductors of heat and electricity; rocks are not good conductors of heat and electricity e) ores are usually formed through hydrothermal processes; rocks are usually formed through sedimentation Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals

Chapter Number: 16 BIO Diversity

1. Ecosystem diversity is:

a) variety of interactions among organisms in natural communities. b) the number of different species in a given area. c) the variety of abiotic characteristics within a given area. d) the genetic variety within all populations of a given species. e) synonymous with ecosystem services.

2. Bacteria and fungi are important to humans because they:

a) help control weeds. b) pollinate crop plants. c) provide shelter. d) deplete nutrient minerals in the soil. e) provide foods and antibiotics.

3. The continuous, low-level extinction of species that has occurred throughout the history of life on Earth is known as:

a) mass extinction. b) evolution. c) background extinction. d) human impact extinction. e) biotic pollution.

4. A species in imminent danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range is said to be:

a) endemic. b) commercially extinct. c) endangered. d) threatened. e) invasive.



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5. Most species facing extinction today are threatened because of:

a) living in biodiversity hotspots. b) changing climate. c) the recent impact of a large comet. d) large quantities of dust in the atmosphere. e) human activity.

6. Which of the following characteristics is known to make a species more vulnerable to extinction? Royale Isle Wolves is an example.

a) herbivory b) occupying a small (localized) range c) living on a continent d) population less than 1 million e) high reproductive success

7. Endemic species:

a) are commonly found on islands. b) often have small populations. c) have few natural defenses. d) represent a high percentage of recently extinct (bird) species. e) all of these choices are correct

8. The single greatest threat to biological diversity is:

a) the introduction of foreign species. b) air pollution. c) overexploitation. d) habitat loss. e) water pollution.

9. Biodiversity hotspots:

a) house only 10% of all species of vascular plants. b) are home to nearly 20% of the world's population. c) are all located in tropical regions. d) contain few endemic species. e) all of these choices are correct

10. Which of the following have been linked to the dramatic global decline of amphibian populations? Multi-legged frogs was the example.

a) drainage of wetlands b) pollutants c) infectious diseases d) global climate warming e) all of these choices are correct

11. The global ban on commercial whaling:

a) went into effect in 1946. b) has allowed many populations of whales to recover. c) defined the Southern Ocean Whale Sanctuary, where commercial whaling is prohibited. d) resulted in the removal of the southern blue whale from the endangered species list. e) all of these choices are correct



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12. Organisms that provide an early warning of environmental damage are known as: Cnary in the mine shaft is the example

a) endemic species. b) endangered species. c) threatened species. d) indicator species. e) commercial species.

13. Humans depend on other organisms for all of the following requirements except:

a) carbon dioxide. b) food. c) shelter. d) medicines. e) clothing.

14. Which of the following is a mismatch between the animal poached and the highly valued black-market product? White Rhino is the example.

a) rhinoceros – liver b) bears – gall bladder c) gorilla – bushmeat d) caimans – skin e) birds – pets

15. All of the following are ecological benefits of habitat corridors EXCEPT:

a) facilitating exchange of genetic material among populations b) increasing the probability that suitable habitat will be recolonized after a local population goes extinct c) preventing the spread of disease among populations d) providing access to more food resources e) reducing encounters with humans

Chapter Number: 17 Land

1) What is the current percentage of land used by humans for agriculture? a) 28% b) 42% c) 55% d) 31% e) 36% Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 2) Cities make up what percentage of the world’s total land area? a) 9% b) 17% c) 3% d) 12% e) 7% Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use



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3) Which U.S. government agency manages federally owned land? a) Bureau of Land Management b) U.S. Fish and Wildlife c) National Park Service d) U.S. Forest Service e) All of these choices are correct Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 5) All of the following are benefits of coastal wetlands except: a) reduced flooding through their ability to hold excess water b) improved water quality c) reduced impact of ozone depletion. d) Provide habitat for endangered species e) Produce important commercial products Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 6) Which of the following is NOT one of the top 5 countries with the greatest tree harvests? a) United States b) Canada c) China d) Germany e) Brazil Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 7) Which of the following statements about clear cutting is false? a) It is the most cost-effective way to harvest trees b) When done on a small scale, it can benefit some wildlife species c) It increases soil erosion and causes mudslides d) Clear cutting forests at higher altitudes is more difficult to regenerate than low altitudes e) None of these statements is false Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 8) Which of the following is a direct cause of deforestation? a) Insects b) Indigenous people c) Decrease of agriculture d) Diseases e) Both insects and diseases are direct causes of deforestation Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 10) Which of the following statements about forest ownership in the United States is true? a) Federal government owns the majority of the forests b) State and local governments own about 25% of the forests c) Private individuals own the majority of the forests d) Corporations own about half of the forests e) None of these statements is true Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests



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11) Which of the following is not a method currently used to harvest trees? a) clear cutting b) selective cutting c) seed tree cutting d) shelterwood cutting e) All of these choices are currently used. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 12) The natural or human-induced process that decreases the future ability of the land to support crops or livestock is known as: a) desertification b) land degradation c) overgrazing d) clear cutting e) undergrazing Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands 13) Approximately 55 percent of the land in the United States is owned by: a) the federal government, as national parks. b) Native Americans. c) citizens, corporations, and non-profit organizations. d) state and local governments. e) the federal government, as national forests and rangelands.. Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 14) Most of the federally owned land in the United States is located in: a) Alaska and 11 western states. b) Alaska and the Rocky Mountain area. c) 11 western states and the Upper Midwest. d) Alaska and Texas. e) Alaska, Arizona, California, and Nevada. Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 15) The Wilderness Act of 1964: a) established five new national parks. b) limits the percentage of an area that can be developed for human habitation and other activities. c) gives designated wilderness areas the highest protection of any public lands d) established wilderness areas, but only within existing national parks. e) safeguards mountain areas but not tundra or desert. Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 16) National parks may include: a) significant modern architecture. b) economically significant areas or buildings. c) historic battlefields. d) farm land. e) None of these statements is correct Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use



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17) Which of the following is not a threat to national parks? a) ecosystem services b) vandalism c) collecting plants, minerals, and fossils d) declining wildlife populations e) proliferating wildlife populations Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 18) The National Wildlife Refuge System was established by which President of the United States? a) Abraham Lincoln b) Woodrow Wilson c) Harry Truman d) Herbert Hoover e) Theodore Roosevelt. Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 19) Forests: a) fix large amounts of oxygen, removing it from the atmosphere. b) promote soil erosion. c) maintain watersheds. d) provide habitat for few animal species. e) release large amounts of carbon monoxide into the atmosphere. .4 Define sustainable forestry and explain how monocultures are related to forestry. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 20) Timber companies prefer to harvest trees by: a) clearcutting. b) seed tree cutting. c) selective cutting. e) shelterwood cutting. e) even-age harvesting. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 21) The removal of all mature trees in an area over an extended period of time is known as: a) clearcutting. b) even-age harvesting. c) selective cutting. d) seed-tree cutting. e) shelterwood cutting. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 22) Tropical dry forests are being destroyed largely due to demand for: a) food. b) pharmaceutical products. c) mining ores. d) industrial wood and wood fiber. e) fuel. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests



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23) Boreal forests: a) comprise the world's largest biome. b) are currently the primary source of the world's industrial wood and wood fiber. c) are harvested primarily by clearcut logging. d) are comprised of evergreen trees, such as spruce, fir, cedar, and hemlock. e) All of these statements are correct , including clear-cutting, and describe the main causes of tropical deforestation. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 24) Public rangelands in the United States: a) have been on the decline since the early 1900s. b) are maintained exclusively by fees collected from private livestock operators. c) do not currently support large populations of free-ranging grazers. d) make up approximately 50% of the total land area in the United States. e) can be used for grazing private livestock for a fee if you have a permit. Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands 25) Which of the following is not a commercial product of freshwater wetlands? a) blueberries b) cranberries c) grapes d) peat moss e) wild rice Section Reference 1: 17.5 Wetlands and Coastal Areas 26) Which of the following includes a provision to protect and restore freshwater wetlands? a) Wilderness Act b) Wild and Scenic Rivers Act c) Federal Land Policy and Management Act d) Land and Water Conservation Fund Act e) Food Security Act Section Reference 1: 17.5 Wetlands and Coastal Areas 27) Conservation strategies that set aside ecosystems for preservation: a) are the best way to preserve an area’s diversity. b) increase the likelihood that a given ecosystem will be exploited. c) decrease the number of endangered species living in that ecosystem. d) can only be carried out by government agencies. e) are impractical and not encouraged. Section Reference 1: 17.6 Conservation and Land Resources 29) According to the Defenders of Wildlife, the top three most endangered ecosystems in the U.S. include: a) Northwestern grassland, Heartland savanna, and California native grassland b) South Florida landscape, Southern Appalachian spruce-fir forest, and longleaf pine forests and savannas. c) Alaskan tundra, Hawaii’s rainforest, and coastal wetlands d) Bogs, Arizona’s deserts, and Rocky Mountain evergreen forests e) Freshwater lakes, prairie lands, and volcanic landscapes Section Reference 1: 17.6 Conservation and Land Resources



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30) An ecological simplification in which only one type of plant is cultivated over a large area is called a: a) wildlife corridor b) natural regulation c) wise-use move d) monoculture e) single species standard Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 31) Which of the following is not an ecosystem service performed by rural lands? a) flood and erosion control b) waste recycling c) leaching of mineral nutrients d) wildlife habitat e) groundwater recharge Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 32) The controversy involving the decline of white pine trees (source of a major part of the grizzly bears' diet) is based on: a) the popularity of the grizzly bears compared to their destruction of the local forest community. b) the fact that global warming and ozone depletion are responsible for the trees' decline. c) the exotic nature of the fungus that is killing the trees. d) the provision of the Wilderness Act that intentional ecological management will be avoided. e) None of these statements is true Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges 33) Which of the following statements regarding trees and climate change is true? a) The oxygen produced by trees helps to moderate climate change. b) When trees act as carbon “sinks,” they accelerate climate change. c) There is much more carbon stored in trees than there is in the atmosphere. d) The process of photosynthesis removes greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. e) Trees take greenhouse gases and turn them into CO2, an important compound for many living organisms. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 34) Which of the following federal agencies is not charged with the managing of federally owned lands? a) Department of Agriculture b) Department of Interior c) Bureau of Land Management d) U.S. Forest Service e) Department of Commerce Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 35) According to recent climate projections, how is Amazonia likely to be affected by deforestation? I. Rainfall will decrease.



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II. Temperatures will increase due to a negative feedback loop between forest cover, drought, and air temperature. III. Drought frequency could increase forest loss. IV. All of these a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) I and III Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 36) The purpose of the National Wildlife Refuge System is to: a) preserve lands and waters for the conservation of wildlife. b) preserve historically significant buildings. c) maintain quality drinking water for urban areas. d) raise money to protect wilderness areas of the United States. e) More than one of these statements are correct Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges 37) What prompted the 88th Congress to implement the Wilderness Act of 1964? a) The need to preserve areas of land for future timber harvest b) Concern that human population expansion could drastically reduce the amount of land remaining in pristine condition c) Lobbying by individuals such as John Muir d) The need to make more land accessible to citizens for recreational purposes e) A decrease in land prices, facilitating purchases of large areas by the Federal Government Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges 38) Forests play an important role in the hydrologic cycle by: a) returning most moisture to underground storage as groundwater. b) recycling small amounts of water to the atmosphere. c) recycling 75% of precipitation to the atmosphere by transpiration and evaporation. d) removing large amounts of carbon monoxide from the atmosphere. e) increasing runoff to local streams. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 39) Forest management for timber production: a) includes the harvesting of trees. b) results in forests with high biodiversity. c) maintains the natural species composition of the forest. d) results in forests less susceptible to disease. e) specifically avoids producing monoculture forests. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 40) Habitat corridors are intended to provide: a) further habitat fragmentation. b) increased species richness within forest monocultures. c) a means for controlling insect pests and invasive species. d) increased timber production. e) opportunities for larger animals to establish larger territories. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests



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41) Deforestation is linked to all of the following except: a) release of CO2, which may contribute to an increase in global temperature. b) decreased soil fertility. c) the extinction of many species. d) increasingly dry local climates. e) increased groundwater infiltration Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 42) Why are tropical rain forests considered so important to global ecology? a) they contribute greatly to the world's carbon and oxygen cycles b) they retard soil erosion c) they contain much of the world's biodiversity d) they mitigate floods and droughts e) All of these choices are correct . Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 43) The countries of Indonesia and the Philippines have which of the following in common? a) desertification b) drought c) rare cold fronts during winter d) high rates of deforestation e) extensive dry tropical forests Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 44) Subsistence agriculture: a) has little or no impact on deforestation since it is a small-scale approach. b) is where a family produces just enough food to feed itself. c) is only used by 1 to 2 million farmers today since it is an outdated farming practice. d) does not use the slash-and-burn agriculture method. e) is a typical land use practice in highly developed countries.. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 45) Which of the following is not a way to slow deforestation? a) replant trees b) allow the land that has been under slash-and-burn agricultural practices to rest for 20 to 100 years c) promote additional slash-and-burn agricultural practices d) harvest trees only at the time they reach harvestable size e) promote land reform changes. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 46) Which of the following statements is true? a) Temperate forests are currently the primary source of the world's industrial wood and wood fiber. b) Temperate forests in the eastern United States are holding steady or even expanding. c) Government protection is responsible for the expansion of virgin stands in the eastern United States. d) Well over sixty percent of U. S. forests are owned and supervised by the government. e) The Forest Legacy Program is a provision of the1990 Farm Bill that helps to further protect public lands. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests



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47) Which of the following statements about Tongass National Forest is false? a) A single large Sitka spruce from Tongass may yield as much as 10,000 board feet of high-quality lumber. b) Tongass is the largest forest in the National Forest System. c) Tongass is a prime logging area because it was clearcut in the early 1900s and has now regrown. d) The modified Tongass Land Management Plan calls for reduced road density to protect wildlife habitat. e) The 1999 modified Tongass Land Management Plan increased timber harvest rotations to 200 years. Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests 48) Which of the following statements about rangelands is true? a) Rangelands have native grasses with fibrous root systems that can survive extended periods of drought. b) Rangelands are valuable for food production but yield no other economically valuable resources. c) Rangelands can benefit from overgrazing by cattle since it may actually increase the plant diversity. d) Rangelands are found in temperate regions, but not in tropical climates. e) About 10% of the human population lives in rangelands that border deserts. Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands 49) All of the following are benefits of coastal wetlands except: a) providing food. b) acting as nurseries for many marine organisms. c) reducing the impact of ozone depletion. d) protecting coastlines from erosion. e) reducing the damage from hurricanes. Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 50) The policy of no net loss of wetlands in the U.S. is only partially successful because: I. wetland dynamics are not totally understood. Reconstructed wetlands do not always provide the essential elements necessary to attract the species of the original habitat. I. wetlands developed for the drinking water supply do not have to be replaced. This contributes to overall net loss of wetland . III. There is no routine tracking of compliance to document success. IV. The definition of wetland was broadened by Congress, adding marginal wetlands in addition to swamps and marshes. a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) I and III Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 51) What is the relationship of overgrazing to desertification? a) Overgrazing is the destruction of vegetation; desertification is the destruction of a desert ecosystem b) Overgrazing results in barren exposed soil; if erosion continues, it contributes to desertification c) Overgrazing is brought about by cattle; desertification is brought about by temperature d) Overgrazing is caused by too fertile rangeland; desertification is caused by too fertile agricultural land e) Overgrazing is a synonym for desertification. Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands



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SM 2017

71203 3 Units

NVC 1436

MTWTh 1:00 PM – 3:05 PM

RIDDELL


52) Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) There is at least one wildlife refuge is each of the 50 states. b) Hunting is not allowed in wildlife refuges. c) The National Wildlife Refuge system has made it a priority to expand the limited ecosystems currently represented d) Wildlife refuges are managed by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) e) The primary mission of the National Wildlife Refuge system is to provide public recreation areas for wildlife observation, photography and environmental education. Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges 53) Which of the following is a true statement regarding farms in the United States? a) The number of farms has decreased, while the size of farms has increased b) The number of farms has increased, while the size of farms has decreased c) Both the number and size of farms has increased d) Both the number and size of farms has decreased e) Both the number and size of farms has remained about the same Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands

Chapter Number: 18 Food

1. The two areas of the world with the greatest food insecurity are:

a) South America and South Asia. b) South America and sub-Saharan Africa. c) China and sub-Saharan Africa. d) South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. e) the Middle East and South Asia.

2. The quantity of various grains remaining from previous harvests is known as:

a) subsistence agriculture. b) food security. c) world grain stocks. d) yield. e) organic farming surplus.

3. The main cause of malnutrition is:

a) poverty. b) inadequate global food production. c) polyculture. d) decreasing livestock yields. e) organic farming practices.

4. The most common foods eaten in the world today are:

a) corn (maize), rice, sweet potato, and wheat. b) barley, corn, rice, and wheat. c) corn, rice, and wheat. d) cassava, potato, rice, and wheat. e) corn, potato, soybean, and rice.



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SM 2017

71203 3 Units

NVC 1436

MTWTh 1:00 PM – 3:05 PM

RIDDELL


5. All of the following are among the most important livestock species except:

a) pigs. b) turkeys. c) goats. d) water buffalo. e) deer

6. The decline in genetic diversity within a given variety of crop plant results in loss of: All crop plants and livestock are identical genetically [GMO’s] is the example.

a) color variations. b) flavor differences. c) nutritional differences. d) size variations. e) All of these choices are correct

7. Which of the following is/are currently used to increase livestock yields in industrialized countries?

a) maintaining a wide variety of genetically diverse livestock b) using genetically engineered foodstuffs c) implementing integrated pest management d) administering antibiotics and hormones e) increasing use of nomadic herding

8. Which of the following fishing practices has been banned by most countries but continues to be used illegally? Sea Lions was the example.

a) longlines b) bycatch c) trawl bag d) drift nets e) purse-seine nets

9. Aquaculture is:

a) fish farming. b) growing plants without soil. c) using desalinated water for irrigation. d) a type of germplasm storage. e) fishing without hooks.

10. Livestock is an expensive source of food because:

a) it is particularly rich in protein. b) of the amount of land area needed to house the animals. c) the antibiotics and hormones needed to support high yield are exceedingly expensive. d) it is the preferred food source in many developing countries. e) animals are inefficient at converting plant food into meat.

11. Domesticated plants and animals: [GMO] is the hint.

a) are characterized by high genetic diversity. b) are less likely to succumb to new strains of disease-causing organisms. c) tend to lose genetic diversity as the farmer selects for more desirable agricultural characteristics. d) can readily survive in both cultivated and wild (natural) settings. e) readily adapt to changing environmental conditions.



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SM 2017

71203 3 Units

NVC 1436

MTWTh 1:00 PM – 3:05 PM

RIDDELL


12. Concern over the routine use of antibiotics in raising livestock centers around:

a) the potential that bacterial resistance to antibiotics may increase as a result. b) violations of U.S. government policy that prohibits their indiscriminate use in livestock. c) the fact that the antibiotics may be toxic to small children. d) a tentative link between antibiotics and cancer. e) the excessively high concentrations of chemicals that are then found in the meat products.

13. Sustainable agricultural practices are characterized by all of the following except:

a) crop selection. b) water and energy conservation. c) monoculture. d) use of manure as a fertilizer. e) increasing biological diversity to control pests.

14. GM (genetically modified) crops and foods:

a) may have higher nutritional value than the original product. b) may be resistant to pests, diseases, and stressful (weather)/climate conditions. c) may produce unexpected allergic reactions in some consumers. d) have been largely banned by the European Union. e) All of these choices are correct

15. Which areas of the world are at the greatest risk for famine?

a) developing nations in South America b) developing nations in Africa c) Western Europe d) Impoverished cities in highly developed countries e) Developing nations in both South America and Africa

biology 112 introduction to ecology ... - napa valley college 112/bio 112 s… · a) friendly...

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