K101 / K102 Final Exam 4 Study Guide, Fall 2014. 200 questions, you supply the answers! Final Exam will consist of 100 questions: Some “2-pointers” taken directly as written from this study guide, and some “1-pointers” not too far from the questions below. New (~50%) = Cumulative (~50%). Good luck!

Ch 27 Bacteria: 1. Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:

a. efficient use of their flagella.b. cloaking the cell with host proteins.c. cloaking the cell with a watery capsule.d. changing their cell wall structure to resemble that of their host.e. eliminating the use of a membrane.

2. Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:a. the nuclear membranes.b. the endoplasmic reticulum.c. infoldings of the plasma membrane.d. ribosomes.e. the cell wall.

3. Extrachromosomal circles of DNA in bacteria called ______ often carry genes involved in _______:a. capsids, bacterial reproductionb. capsids, antibiotic resistance.c. plasmids, viral resistance.d. plasmids, antibiotic resistance.

4. Many Gram (+) Eubacteria like Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthraxis have the ability to survive harsh environmental conditions by protecting their DNA in a dormant structure called a(n)a. capsuleb. endosporec. endotoxind. sporangiume. capsid

5. Match the bacterium with the human disease it can causei) Clostridium tetani a. Anthrax ii) Clostridium botulinum b. Gonorrhea iii) Helicobacter pylori c. Tetanus (“Lockjaw”)iv) Bacillus anthraxis d. Stomach ulcersv) Neisseria gonorrhea e. Botulism (food poisoning)

6. Once they appeared on Earth, ___ forever changed the atmosphere on earth by the production of large quantities of oxygen gas.a. Gm (+) eubacteriab. archaebacteriac. cyanobacteriad. plantse. Gm (-) rickettsias

7. Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be the _____.a. cyanobacteriab. extreme halophilesc. methanogensd. extreme thermophiles

8. The structure in the accompanying figure labeled C (outermost layer) is ___, and the structure indicated by the letter I is _____:a. C - the plasma membrane, I – the cilia.b. C - the capsule, I – the ciliac. C - the capsule, I – the flagellad. C - the cell wall, I – the flagellae. C - the capsule, I – the pilus

9. What is the function of the structures labeled B?a. to adhere to host cells, or other bacteria, or solid substratesb. to prevent phagocytosis by a white blood cell of the hostc. to transmit DNA from one cell to anotherd. to exchange genetic material and genetic traits like antibiotic resistance between cells

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e. All answers except B 10. The ____ Archaebacteria are typically found in extremely hot environments, whereas the _______ Archaebacteria are

typically found in swampy environments lacking oxygen. a. Extreme halophile, methanogenicb. Extreme thermophile, methanogenicc. Pyrrhanogen, Extreme halophilicd. Methanogens, Extreme thermophilice. Gram positive, Gram negative.

11. Organisms that share the most DNA homology to mitochondria and chloroplasts, respectively, are:a. Proteobacteria, cyanoacteria.b. Proteobacteria, green sulfur bacteria.c. Eubacteria, green sulfur bacteria.d. Eubacteria, cyanobacteria.e. E. coli, green sulfur bacteria

12. What makes rRNA (or another sequence) a good ‘evolutionary chronometer’? a. It is universally distributed across group chosen – all organisms have rRNA.b. It is functionaly similar between organisms – rRNAs all participate in protein synthesis.c. Its sequence changes slowly - good for looking across long periods of timed. The rRNA sequences can be aligned, or matched up, between 2 organisms.e. All of the above

13. The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:a. the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.b. the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.c. the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.d. the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence.e. All of the above.

14. The first indication that Archaea were different from the Eubacteria came from:a. the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.b. Ribosome size.c. 16 S rRNA sequence.d. nuclei.e. response to antibiotics.

15. Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment bya. an efficient water pump.b. a tough cell membrane.c. pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.d. a rigid cell wall.e. a stiff capsule.

16. Gram-positive bacteria stain _____ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of _____ in their cell wallsa. green; peptidoglycanb. purple; peptidoglycanc. green; cellulosed. purple; polysaccharidese. red; polysaccharides

17. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes contains the genus Clostridium, responsible for the human diseases tetanus and botulism?a. Spirochetesb. Cyanobacteriac. Methanogensd. Gram Positive Eubacteriae. Proteobacteria

18. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes in the figure above contains the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, responsible for the human ulcers, and E. coli, beneficial intestinal bacteria in humans?a. Thermophilesb. Cyanobacteriac. Methanogensd. Gram Positive Eubacteriae. Proteobacteria

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19. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes might be found in the Great Salt Lake, the Red Sea, the Dead Sea, but NOT necessarily in the ocean?a. Cyanobacteriab. Methanogensc. Gram Positive Eubacteriad. Proteobacteria.e. Extreme Halophiles

Ch 28: Protists: 20. What type of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk, as seen in the White Cliffs of Dover?

a. Diatomsb. Dinoflagellatesc. Alveolates (Ciliates)d. Cercozoans (Forams)e. Euglenas

21. Pseudopods are used by the members of clade Amoebozoa for ingesting food as well as for:a. reproduction.b. excretion.c. digestion.d. movement.e. avoiding predation.

22. Which of the following is true about Radiolarans?a. They cause periodic red tides, poisoning shellfish and the people who eat the shellfishb. They capture prey through the use of thread-like pseudopodsc. They have a test (shell) of calcium carbonate (chalk)d. B and c e. All of the above

23. Entamoeba histolytica, a parasite that is the causative agent of Amoebic Dysentery, crawls through the small intestine of its victims via pseudopod formation. Based on this information, Entamoeba histolytica is a member of the cladea. Euglenozoab. Amoebozoac. Alveolatad. Stramenopila

24. A commercially important unicellular protist whose silica shells are used in filters, polishes, toothpaste and various industrial processes are the:a. dinoflagellates.b. euglenoids.c. apicomplexans.d. zooflagellates.e. diatoms.

25. Protists like ________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid nuclei but fusion to become a true diploid organism had not occurred.a. Plasmodiumb. Amoebac. Euglenad. Giardiae. Paramecium

26. The parasitic protist that causes malaria, Plasmodium, must spend part of its life cycle in a nonhuman host. What organism(s) serve(s) as the vector for this life cycle?a. ratsb. sand fliesc. mosquitosd. leechese. tse-tse flies

27. Trypanosomes are eukaryotes that are currently classified in the Cladea. Amoebozoa, since Trypanosomes move by lobe-like amoeboid motionb. Cercozoa, since Trypanosomes move by threadlike pseudopods c. Stramenopilia (Heterokonts), since trypanosomes have a tinsel and a smooth flagellad. Euglenozoa, since trypanosomes have a flagella with a spiral crystalline rode. Alveolata, since trypanosomes have sac-like alveoli underneath their plasma membrane

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28. Which organisms are capable of producing a "red tide", secreting a nerve agent toxic to humans?a. dinoflagellatesb. chrysophytes (diatoms)c. sporozoansd. euglenidse. red algae

29. The mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose as a result of endosymbiosis between a eukaryotic cell and aa. Cyanobacteria (Blue-green bacteria).b. Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia.c. Gram (+) bacterium like Bacillusd. Gram (-) bacterium like E. coli e. Spiral bacteria like spirochaetes

30. In paramecium and stentor, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike _____: a. pilib. pseudopodsc. flagellad. ciliae. trichomes

31. Euglena and dinoflagellates show Secondary Endosymbiosis in thata. they have both mitochondria and chloroplastsb. they have two lipid bilayers around their mitochondriac. they have chloroplasts, but they are non-functionald. they have two lipid bilayers around their chloroplastse. they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts.

32. Which parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei, 2 pairs of flagella, remnants of mitochondrial genes (but no intact mitochondria) and lives and reproduces in the small intestines of mammals?a. Charab. Giaridia c. Amoeba d. Stentore. Volvox

33. Evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory (Margulis, 1967) includesa. similarity between bacterial size and the size of mitochondria and chloroplastsb. the presence of a single circular chromosome in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplastsc. reproduction by binary fission in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplastsd. 70S ribosomes in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplastse. All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory.

34. Evidence that Chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants includesa. the mechanism of cell wall synthesis in Chara and all land plantsb. the presence of vascular tissue in Chara and all land plantsc. the presence of homologous chloroplasts (chlorophylls a and b, as well as accessory pigments) in Chara and all land plants d. the presence of a cuticle in in Chara and all land plantse. A and C only.

35. Which example below is a characteristic shared by all excavates (diplomonads and parabasalids):a. Both lack nuclei. b. Both are adapted to anaerobic environments.c. Both lack, or have highly reduced, mitochondria.d. Both have a single flagellum. e. Both have two nuclei and 4 flagella

36. Among the protists below, which typically moves with one “tinsel” flagella and one “smooth” flagella?a. Stentorb. Euglenac. Trypanosomad. Plasmodiume. Diatoms

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Ch 31 FUNGI37. Aspergillus soyae, one of the fungi used commercially to make soy sauce, reproduces asexually via conidia but has no

known sexual cycle. It is thus classified as one of the a. Ascomycotab. Basidiomycotac. Deuteromycotad. Zygomycotae. Oomycota

38. A wildlife pathologist is examining some skin tissue from a dead frog. She notes the presence of a fungus. She cultures the fungal cells and notices that some of the cells are flagellated. She concludes that the frog has a disease caused bya. an ascomycete fungus.b. a zygomycete fungus.c. a basdiomycete fungus.d. a chytridomycete fungus.

39. A coenocytic mycelium is: a. A mesh of branched filaments produced by spores. b. Formed of hyphae with chitin-reinforced walls. c. A mycelium characterized by long hyphal cells with hundreds or thousands of nuclei. d. Characteristic of the zygomycotae. All of these are correct.

40. The cell walls of fungi are composed of:a. cellulose.b. lipids.c. glycogen.d. chitin.e. chlorophyll.

Use the fungal life cycle figure at right to answer the following 2 questions 41. The cells in this mushroom are

a. 1= haploid, 2 = diploidb. 1= dikaryotic, 2 = haploidc. 1= diploid, 2 = haploidd. 1= dilkaryotic 2 = diploide. 1= haploid, 2 = dikaryotic

42. The products of meiosis released by this fungus (arrow indicated by 3):a. Are haploidb. Are diploidc. Are called basidiosporesd. Are called conidiae. A and b onlyf. A and C only

43. The sac fungi are characterized by sexual reproductive structures called__________ and asexual reproductive structures called _____________:a. asci, conidia.b. basidia, sporangiac. gemmae cups, conidia.d. conidiophores, ascocarpse. conidia, asci

44. Claviceps purpurea infests grain like rye and produces _______________, a precursor of LSD which, if accidentally ingested, can cause hallucinations and even death.a. an ergotb. a smutc. a rustd. a brown rote. a mildew

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45. Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _______________ can be fatal due to the irreversible inhibition of the enzyme RNA polymerase.a. Agaricusb. Shittakec. Portobellod. Amanitae. Oyster

46. DNA and rRNA analysis indicates that modern fungi descended from a. Plants b. Diatoms and other protists with a shell made of chitinc. Colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellatesd. Colonial, photosynthesic protists similar to volvoxe. Protists that have large masses of amoeboid cells like plasmidial slime molds

47. Puffballs and shelf fungi are most closely related to:a. molds.b. truffles.c. the common edible mushroom.d. yeast.e. the black bread mold.

48. Which two of the following choices (a-j) is mismatched?a. Bread mold - zygomycetesb. Sac fungi - Ascomycotac. Yeast - Ascomycotad. Amanita mushrooms – Ascomycotae. Shelf fungi – Basidiomycota

f. Mushroom – Basidiomycetesg. Sac fungi – Ascomycetesh. Club fungi – Basidiomycetesi. Puff balls – Basidiomycetesj. Corn smut - Ascomycetes

49. Mycorrhizal fungi benefits plants by:a. increasing photosynthetic area.b. increasing absorptive surface area of roots.c. increasing chlorophyll content.d. increasing leaf area.e. All of the above.

50. The sexual spores produced by black bread mold, Rhizopus, are calleda. zygospores. b. ascospores. c. basidiospores. d. conidiae. puffballs.

51. Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ______, which are fragments of the body of the lichen.a. conidiab. sorediac. ascid. thalli

Ch 29 SEEDLESS PLANTS - NON-VASCULAR AND VASCULAR: 52. An important difference between plants and algae is the presence of :

a. chlrorophyll.b. a waxy cuticlec. lignind. stomata with guard cellse. cellulose

53. Which is a key difference between alternation of generations in plants and sexual reproduction in non-plant organisms?a. In plants, the haploid and diploid stages are both multicellular.b. In plants, only the haploid stage is multicellular.c. In plants, the haploid generation is always dependent on the diploid generation. d. In other sexually reproducing organisms, the haploid and diploid generations are both multicellular. e. In other sexually reproducing organisms, the fusion of gametes forms a zygote before an embryo.

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54. When you see a green, "leafy" moss, you are looking at the _________ generation a. haploid sporophyteb. haploid gametophytec. diploid sporophyted. diploid gametophytee. structure where meiosis occursf. structure that results directly from a fertilized egg

55. The leafy fern that you might have as a house plant is the _____________________ generation.a. diploid sporophyteb. diploid gametophytec. haploid sporophyted. haploid gametophyte

56. Fertilization in moss occurs when sperm swim from a(n) _____ and down the neck of a(n)a. antheridium ... sporangiumb. sporangium ... antheridiumc. antheridium ... archegoniumd. archegonium ... antheridiume. sporangium ... archegonium

57. List the times each organism first appeared on earth: The last one has been done for youa. First flowering plants = _150MYA______________b. First seed plants = _360MYA_____________c. First pteridophytes (ferns) = _______________d. First land plants (bryophytes) = _______________e. First animals (ie: jellyfish) = _______________f. First fungi = _______________g. First eukaryotes (protists) = _______________h. First photosynthetic bacteria = _______________i. First bacterial life (Archaea) = 3.8 billion years ago

58. One type of asexual reproduction in liverworts involves formation of :a. setae.b. gemmae.c. fronds.d. archegonia.e. prothalli.

59. The main advancement exhibited by ferns over mosses and other byrophytes is:a. presence of leaves.b. presence of specialized vascular tissue.c. presence of gametophyte generation and

sporophyte generation.d. presence of seeds.

60. In the fern life cycle shown at right, where is the process of meiosis taking place? a. In the archaegonium - Ab. In the fern sori – A c. In the diploid zygote - Bd. In the heart-shaped Prothallus – C e. In the fiddlehead - D

61. The haploid gametohyte (C )a. develops from meiosis in the sorib. Has some cells that make flagellated spermc. Has some cells that make haploid eggsd. Will nourish the young fern fiddlehead e. All of the above

62. The "dots" on the underside of a fern frond are spore cases; therefore, what is true of the plant to which the frond belongs?a. It is a spore.b. It is a sporophyte.c. It is a gametophyte.d. It is a spermatophyte.

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D

A B

C

Diploid

Haploid

63. The simplest vascular plants are the:a. mosses.b. whisk ferns.c. charophytes.d. hornworts.e. liverworts.

64. The most recent group of plants to evolve are the:a. gymnosperms.b. hornworts.c. angiosperms.d. conifers.e. gnetophytes.

65. In plants the fertilized egg develops into a multicellular _________ within a female gametangium.a. zygoteb. seedc. embryod. endosperme. cotyledon

66. In the age of the dinosaurs (~100 million years ago), these plants were tree-sized and the dominant plants of the Carboniferous period. (Today, only 1 genus remains).a. Equisetum ,the horsetailsb. Lycopodium, the club mossc. Psilotum, the whisk fernd. Polypodium, a true fern

Ch 30 SEED PLANTS: GYMNOSPERMS AND ANGIOSPERMS67. The eggs of seed plants are fertilized within ovules, and the ovules then develop into _____

a. seedsb. sporesc. gametophytesd. fruite. ovaries

68. In this extreme close-up of the female gametophyte of a flowering plant, which will be fertilized by the 2 pollen nuclei, and what will happen as a result?a. Cell 5 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 2n embryob. Cell 2 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus,, which will become the 2n embryoc. Nuclei 7 and 8 will fuse with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 3n endospermd. Cells 4 and 6 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus,, which will become the 3n endosperme. a and cf. b and d

69. In angiosperms, double fertilization produces a. twin embryos (diploid)b. the 2n embryo and the 3n antipodalsc. the 2n embryo and the 2n seed coatd. the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperme. the 3n endosperm and the 2n seed coat

70. Following fertilization, an unequal division of the cytoplasm occurs to split the embryo into two cells. Which of the following is true? a. The upper, terminal cell becomes the embryo and eventually the new plantb. The lower, basal cell becomes the suspensor and anchors the embryo within the seedc. The upper, terminal cell becomes the endospermd. a and b onlye. b and c only

71. Seeds have advantages over spores. For example, _____a. seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective coveringb. seeds can survive for extended periods of time at reduced metabolic ratesc. seeds are single cells, demanding fewer nutrients from the parent plantsd. seeds can survive even in conditions that are unfavorable for the parent plants

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e. all answers except Cf. All of the aove

72. Pollen is __________ and contains __________. a. diploid ... sporesb. diploid ... sperm nucleic. haploid ... sporesd. haploid ... sperm nuclei

73. The receptive portion of a flower that receives the pollen is thea. ovary b. stigma c. anther d. carpel e. anther

74. In flowering plants one megaspore gives rise to _____ nucleia. four diploidb. four haploidc. eight haploidd. eight diploide. microsporangia

75. The triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the _____a. embryob. endospermc. fruitd. carpele. seed

76. A pea pod is formed from _____. A pea inside the pod is formed from _____.a. an ovule ... a carpelb. an ovary ... an ovulec. an ovary ... a pollen graind. an anther ... an ovulee. endosperm ... an ovary

77. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicots? a. two seed leavesb. parts of flowers in fours or fivesc. a taprootd. vascular bundles arranged in a ringe. veins in leaves usually parallel

Ch 35 PLANT ANATOMY: 78.Plant Anatomy: Match each of the descriptions with one of the cell types of a plant listed below (a-e).

i) Living cells that lack nuclei and ribosomes C a) Chlorenchyma; ii) Thin, tapered water transport cells with numerous pits D b) Collenchymaiii) Thick, barrel shaped cells with end plate perforations E c) Sieve Tubesiv) Cells with unevenly thickened primary walls that B d) Tracheids

support young, growing parts of a plantAv) Parenchyma cells specialized in function for photosynthesis e) Vessel Elements

79. Water and dissolved minerals are conducted from the roots to the stems and leaves via ___________, whereas sugar is conducted through specialized cells known as _____________a. Parenchyma, collenchymab. sieve tubes, xylemc. xylem, companion cellsd. xylem, sieve tubese. phloem, companion cells

80. Secondary plant tissue produced by the vascular cambium includes all of the following, except:a. Vessel elementsb. Sieve cellsc. Tracheidsd. Trichomes

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e. Companion cells81. If you were able to start your car your car at the center of a large redwood tree and than drive out to the bark, as

above, you would cross, in this order: a. Young wood, old wood, oldest wood, vascular cambium, phloem, peridermb. Oldest wood, old wood, young wood, vascular cambium, phloem, peridermc. Periderm, phloem, vascular cambium, oldest wood, old wood, youngest woodd. Young wood, old wood, oldest wood, vascular cambium, periderm, phloeme. Oldest wood, old wood, young wood, vascular cambium, periderm, phloem

82. Specialized cells of the dermal system in plants that function in gas exchange are calleda. Cuticle cellsb. Trichomesc. Peridermd. Guard cellse. Companion cells

CH 39: PLANT PHYSIOLOGY83. Name that Hormone: For the next 8 questions, use the following 5 choices to answer:

(1) abscisic acid(2) auxin(3) cytokinin(4) ethylene(5) gibberellin

a) What is the hormone that promotes elongation by loosening plant cell walls to allow expansion due to turgor pressure? b) What hormone is synthesized near the apical meristem and promotes apical dominance in plants? c) What is the hormone that promotes seed dormancy and prevents seeds from germinating too soon in the winter? d) What is the hormone that promotes stem elongation and was first discovered in "foolish seedling" disease in rice? e) Which hormone promotes cell division and lateral root formation in plants? f) Which hormone stimulates both leaf abscission and fruit ripening? g) The "stress hormone" involved in stomatal closure during water stress is: h) Unripe green fruits ripen quickly in supermarkets or commercial storage facilities after exposure to:

84. Sugar is translocated in phloem from a source, or an area of _____, to a sink, or an area of _____.a. low sugar concentration; high sugar concentrationb. high sugar concentration; low sugar concentrationc. positive water potential; negative water potentiald. negative water potential; positive water potential

85. Plant growth in response to a mechanical stimulus, such as contact with a solid object is called.a. Heliotropismb. Phototropismc. Gravitropismd. Thigmotropisme. Geotropic bending

86. Primary growth in a young stem occurs at the a. Root apical meristemb. Lateral meristemc. Shoot apical meristemd. Vascular cambiume. Epidermis

Ch 20 BIOTECHNOLOGY (from Powerpoint only, not Campbell)87. By fusing protein-coding eukaryotic DNA with bacterial promoter sequences, scientists can ensure:

a. that bacterial DNA sequences will be inserted into the eukaryotic DNA sequence.b. that the eukaryotic DNA can be expressed in bacterial cells.c. that no mutations will occur within the eukaryotic sequence.d. that transcription of the eukaryotic DNA will not occur.e. that introns of the eukaryotic DNA will not be expressed.

88. Which of the recombinant DNA drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication (the disease it is prescribed to treat)?a. Humulin (Lilly): Diabetes (Insulin)b. Epogen (Amgen): Anemia (Erythropoetin)c. Neupogen (Amgen): Mult iple sclerosis (interferon)d. Activase/TNKase (Genentech): AMI - Acure myocardial infarction (heart attack)

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e. Regranex (Novartis): Diabetic foot ulcers (PDGF)89. In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate in cycles. An

original sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total cycles to amplify the DNA ~1 billion times? (What about 2 billion times? What about 1 trillion times?)a. 20b. 21c. 30d. 31e. 40

90. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE regarding the procedure for making cloned animals? a. The recipient egg is e-nucleated before the procedureb. The donor nucleus can be either from a male or a female cellc. The donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent celld. A brief electric shock is used to simulate fertilizatione. A surrogate mother is used to carry the pregnancy to term

91. Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology

i) Ian Wilmut d a. First Human Gene Therapyii) Craig Venter f b. Dideoxy DNA Sequencingiii) W. French Anderson a c. Isolation of Bacterial Plasmidsiv) Fred Sanger b d. Cloning of Dolly the Sheepv) Stanley Cohen c e. Derivation of Human Embryonic Stem Cellsvi) Kary Mullis (1993) g f. Whole Genome Shotgun Sequencingvii) Herb Boyer h g. Polymerase Chain Reactionviii) James Thompson e h. Isolation of Restriction Enzymes, Founder of Genentech

92. Which of the following ingredients is/are necessary for PCR? a. Template DNAb. Deoxynucleotidesc. A thermostable DNA polymerased. DNA primerse. All of the above

Use the figure above to answer the next 2 questions.93. What process or enzyme was used for Step 1?

a. PCRb. a bacteriophagec. a reverse transcriptased. a DNA ligasee. a restriction enzyme

94. The use of antibiotic medium at the end of this process:a. selects against plasmids containing human DNA fragments.b. selects for plasmids containing particular DNA fragments.c. selects for bacteria containing plasmids.d. selects for bacteria lacking plasmids.e. prevents contamination of the medium

95. Match the cloned animal with their ‘claim to fame’:i) Idaho Gem C a. First cloned housecat (female calico)ii) Dolly E b. First cloned animal that was born from its genetic twiniii) Prometia B c. First cloned muleiv) Cc A d. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplantsv) Joy D e. First cloned mammal (1996)

96. Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule at right?a. ligaseb. transcriptasec. a restriction enzymed. RNA polymerasee. DNA polymerase

97. Human embryonic stem cells (hES cells) may be useful in transplantation medicine becausea. They are pleuripotent and can form virtually any cell type in the body with appropriate hormones and growth factorsb. They make the enzyme telomerase, allowing them to replicate indefinitely in tissue culture

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c. They have the same genetic karyotype as a normal human celld. They can be prepared to provide an exact tissue match to a patiente. All of the above

98. The sequencing gel below was produced from 4 samples of a DNA fragment that was incubated with chain-terminating ddNTP nucleotides. What is the sequence of nucleotides (5’ – 3’) in the original single-stranded DNA fragment?a. 5' TTCTACGCTACGb. 5' GCATCGCATCTTc. 5' AAGATGCGAAGCd. 5' CGTAGCGTAGAAe. 5’ GAATACACATGAG

99. The bacteria Bacillus thurengiensis (Bt) a. naturally makes a crystal protein toxic to Lepidopteran insects b. causes food poisoning in people who eat the crystal proteinc. is the active ingredient in the insecticide Dipeld. all of the abovee. a and c

100.In genetic engineering, the naturally-occurring plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to a. insert any gene of interest into plant chromosomesb. cut DNA at a specific base sequencec. locate specific genes on animal chromosomesd. detect and correct mistakes in DNA replicatione. do all of these

101.In 2000, scientists developed a crop called Golden Rice. This genetically modified fooda. contains 4 genes from daffodils and bacteria that together produce the pigment B-carotene in riceb. holds the potential for preventing the deaths of millions of people every yearc. can help prevent blindness resulting from vitamin A deficiency d. will be offered at low cost or no cost to developing countriese. all of the above

102.Crops that are RoundUp Readya. Make the herbicide RoundUp in every cell of the plantb. Kill weeds in the fields where they are growing c. Are genetically modified to be resistant to treatment with RoundUp herbicided. Contain a mutant form of the enzyme EPSP synthase that is unaffected by RoundUp herbicidee. c and d only

103.The results that have come from the Human Genome Project (HGP) includea. A detailed map of the DNA sequence of virtually the entire Human Genomeb. Identification of over 2,000 disease genes for human genetic disordersc. A prediction of ~25,000 genes, encoding ~100,000 proteins and thousands of miRNAs d. The development of automated sequencing technology that has allowed scientists to determine the DNA sequence of

hundreds of genomes such as Drosophila melanogaster (fruitfly), Mus musculus (mouse), and Pan troglodytes (Chimpanzee)

e. All of the above

CH 18 Viruses and Prions104.Viruses that attack bacteria are called:

a. phages.b. bacteriodsc. prions.d. virons.e. viroids.

105.In the bacteriophage shown above, the functions of the structures labeled 2 and 3 are a. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= locomotion.b. 2= mate recognition, 3= attachment to a host cellc. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= replication.d. 2= to take over host cell mechanisms, 3= attachment to a host cell.e. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= attachment to a host cell

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C A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T GC A T G

106.Retroviruses like the HIV virus differ from other viruses by:a. Using the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy their RNA into DNA.b. the shape of their capsid.c. the way they infect their host cells.d. the sugar coating on their capsids.e. lytically destroying their hosts.

107.All of the following are DNA viruses except: a. The Herpes virus that causes cold soresb. The Influenza virus that causes the ‘flu.c. The Pox-viruses that cause chicken poxd. The Human Papilloma virus that causes cervical cancer e. The Parvoviruses that cause the common cold

108.The H5N1 Influenza virus a. Caused a worldwide influenza pandemic in 1918b. Caused the deaths of 40 million people worldwide during World War Ic. Is highly similar genetically to recent viruses responsible for deadly “Bird Flu” or Avian Flud. Is a retrovirus that mutates easily and often due to ‘sloppy’ replication enzymese. All of the above

109.The five stages of a viral infection are attachment, penetration, _______, assembly, and releasea. Lysisb. Integrationc. Lysogenyd. Transductione. Replication

110.The Prion Hypothesis (Dr. Stanley Pruissner) states that a. Mad cow disease is caused by eating beef tainted with abnormally folded prion proteins.b. Cooking beef or lamb infected with prion proteins will destroy the prions, making the meat safe to eat.c. Kuru, a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy in humans, can be caused by the religious practice of ritual

cannibalism. d. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies result from the conversion of normal PrP-c to an abnormally folded PrP-sc

state e. Prion particles infect cells of the brain and redirect the cell’s protein synthesis machinery to replicate new prion

particles in the neurons responsible for memory111.Prion diseases of humans include:

a. Kuru.b. Scrapie.c. Mad Cow Disease.d. Variant Creutfeld-Jacob disease (vCJD).e. A and D

CUMULATIVE FINAL QUESTIONS Ch4 – Organic Molecules112.What do the four ‘elements of life’ -carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen-have in common?

a. They all have the same number of valence electronsb. Each element exists in only one isotopic formc. They are equal in electronegativityd. They are elements produced only by living cellse. They all have unpaired electrons in their valence shells.

113. Using the functional group diagram at right answer A – E which of the following is incorrectly matched?: a. A = amino groupb. B = thiol groupc. C = carbonyl (aldehyde)d. D= organic phosphatee. E= carboxyl group

114.In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by a. hydrogen bonds. b. nonpolar covalent bonds.

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c. polar covalent bonds. d. ionic bonds.

115.Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments demonstrated conclusively thata. life arose on Earth 3.8 bilion years ago from simple inorganic molecules.b. organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth.c. life arose on Earth from simple organic molecules, with energy from lightning and volcanoes.d. the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the origin of life.e. the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules.

116.Which functional group shown at right is:

i) is an acidic functional group that can release H+ into a solution?C

ii) a basic functional group that can accept H+?Diii) can exist as a ketone or aldehyde configuration?Biv) a characteristic of alcohols? Av) helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between

protein molecules?E117.Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because

a. oxygen has a valence of 2. b. the water molecule is shaped like a tetrahedron. c. the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds. d. the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge. e. each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge.

CH 5 – Macromolecules118.Which modifications of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures?

a. creating cis double bonds to the fatty acidsb. adding hydrogens to the fatty acidsc. creating trans double bonds to the fatty acidsd. adding hydrogens and trans double bonds to the fatty acidse. adding cis double bonds and trans double bonds to the fatty acids

119.Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that theya. are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis.b. are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.c. are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers.d. are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions.e. all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.

120.Match the molecules shown below and to the right a. cholesterol. 4b. dipeptide. 5c. saturated fatty acid.3 d. polyunsaturated fatty acid.2 e. glucose. 1 1.

2.3.

4. 5.121.Which of the following statements is/are true regarding chemical reaction (5) illustrated above?

a. It is a hydrolysis reaction.b. It results in a peptide bond.c. It joins two fatty acids together.

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d. It is a hydrolysis reaction and it results in a peptide bond.e. It is a hydrolysis reaction, it results in a peptide bond, and it joins two fatty acids together.

122.A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a ____ where one with the formula C6H12O6 is probably a ___

a. carbohydrate and fatty acid, respectivelyb. fatty acid and monosaccharide, respectivelyc. protein and monosaccharide, respectively.d. nucleic acid and fatty acid, respectively.e. fatty acid and nucleotide, respectively

CH 6 – 7 Cells & Membranes123.Match the following parts of the cell to its function

i) Nucleus C a. Sorting of proteins targeted for extracellular secretion ii) Mitochondria E b. Site of cell-cell adhesion and cell recognitioniii) Nucleolis F c. Site of transcription of mRNA and tRNA for protein synthesisiv) Rough ER G d. Synthesis of the steroid hormone testosterone v) Golgi apparatus A e. Synthesis of ATP via oxidative phosphorylationvi) Smooth ER D f. Site of rRNA for protein synthesis vii) Extracellular Matrix B g. Synthesis of the insulin receptor, a transmembrane glycoprotein

124.Proteins that are manufactured for secretion (export from the cell):a. are made in the smooth ER and packaged in transport vesiclesb. have carbohydrates covalently added when the proteins are in transport vesiclesc. are made in the cytosol and transported across the ER membraned. are threaded through special pores in the plasma membranee. are made in the rough ER and packaged in transport vesicles

125.A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cell’s phagocytosis will be digested by enzymes withina. peroxisomes.b. lysosomes.c. Golgi vesicles.d. vacuoles.e. secretory vesicles.

126.Which of the following would move through the plasma membrane most rapidly?

a. CO2 and O2b. Glutamic acid, an amino acidc. Glucosed. NaCl and H2O

127.Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?a. Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse.b. NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion.c. The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst.d. NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells.e. The blood cells will expend ATP for active transport of

NaCl into the cytoplasm.128.All of the following are functions of integral membrane

proteins except a. Cell – cell adhesion. b. Synthesis of hormones. c. Active transport of ions. d. Reception of hormone signals like epinephrine. e. Attachment to the extracellular membrane.

129.Which of the following components of the plasma membrane is incorrectly matched?a. Cholesterol – E/Db. Glycolipid - Ac. Integral Membrane Protein - Bd. Peripheral Membrane Protein -F e. Glycoprotein – C

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B C

D

F

E

A

CH 8 - ATP & ENERGY130.Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell?

a. anabolic reactionsb. hydrolysisc. respirationd. digestione. catabolic reactions

131.Increasing the substrate concentration in a reaction could overcome which of the following?a. denaturization of the enzymeb. allosteric inhibitionc. competitive inhibitiond. saturation of the enzyme activitye. insufficient cofactors

132.Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism? a. Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions. b. It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions. c. Its terminal phosphate group has unusually strong covalent bonds that generate free energy. d. A and B only e. A, B and C

133.The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is a. phosphorylase. b. phosphatase. c. protein kinase. d. ATPase. e. protease.

CH 9 & 10 – Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis134.Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high energy foods?

a. They have a lot of oxygen atoms.b. They have no nitrogen in their makeup.c. They can have very long carbon skeletons.d. They have a lot of electrons associated with hydrogen.e. They are easily reduced.

135.In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve?a. It allows for an increased rate of glycolysis.b. It allows for an increased rate of the citric acid cycle.c. It increases the surface for oxidative phosphorylation.d. It increases the surface for substrate-level phosphorylation.e. It allows the liver cell to have fewer mitochondria.

136.When skeletal muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused bya. buildup of pyruvate.b. buildup of lactate.c. increase in sodium ions.d. increase in potassium ions.e. increase in ethanol.

137.Which of the 4 kinase enzymes in glycolysis might be the enzyme shown in the figure below? a. Hexokinaseb. Pyruvate Kinase (PK)c. Phosphofructokinase (PFK)d. Phosphoglycerokinase (PGK)e. a and cf. b and d

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138.P680+ is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Why?a. It is the receptor for the most excited electron in either photosystem.b. It is the molecule that transfers electrons to plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron transfer system.

c. It transfers its electrons to reduce NADP+ to NADPH.d. This molecule has a stronger attraction for electrons than oxygen, to obtain electrons from water.e. It has a positive charge.

139.One function of alcohol and lactic acid fermentation is to

a. reduce NAD+ to NADH.

b. reduce FAD+ to FADH2.

c. oxidize NADH to NAD+.

d. reduce FADH2 to FAD+.

140.Which of the following correctly describes the energy payoffs in cellular respiration (before oxidative phosphorylation)?a. Glycolysis: 2 ATPs net, 2 NADHb. Transition reaction 2 NADHc. Kreb’s cycle 4 NADH, 2 FADH2d. All of the abovee. A and b only

141.Photosynthesis and respiration: Match with the correct location in the cella. Krebs cycle i) Thylakoid membrane Cb. Calvin cycle ii) Thylakoid lumen Ec. Light reactions iii) Mitochondrial inner membrane space Dd. Proton Gradient in cellular respiration iv) Chloroplast stromaBe. Proton Gradient in Light reactions v) Mitochondrial matrix A

142.Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis? a. 0% b. 2% c. 10% d. 38% e. 100%

143.A C4 plant initially fixes CO2 into ____ where a C3 plant fixes CO2 into _______ a. Oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco. b. G3P using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubiscoc. Malic acid using Rubisco, PGA using PEP carboxylase. d. RuBP using Rubisco, Oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylasee. ATP using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco.

144.Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy → C6H12O6 + 6 O2

a. C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.

b. O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced.

c. CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized.

d. CO2 is reduced and H2O is oxidized.

e. O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.

145.The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?a. glycolysisb. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chainc. the citric acid cycled. the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAe. the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

146.Which of the following is NOT true about Rubisco?a. It is a carboxylaseb. It is an oxygenasec. It is a kinased. It is the most abundant protein in the worlde. It fixes carbon dioxide into an organic form

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CH 11 – Cell Communication147.Up to 60% of all medicines used today influence what structures in the cell membrane?

a. Receptor tyrosine-kinases b. Epinephrine receptors c. Growth factors d. G-protein linked receptors e. Steroid hormone receptors

148.Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) are found at high levels on various cancer cells. A protein, Herceptin, has been found to bind to an RTK known as HER2 if which of the following is true?a. If Herceptin is found in the breast lymph nodes of the patient.b. If HER2, administered by injection, is in sufficient concentration.c. If the patient's breast cancer cells have detectable HER2.d. If the patient's genome codes for the HER2 receptor.e. If the patient's genome codes for the manufacture of Herceptin.

149.If you wish to design an experiment to block a G protein-coupled receptor interaction, the block would preferentially affect which of the following?a. the exterior (cytoplasmic) end of the receptorb. the cytosolic end of the receptorc. phospholipase C and IP3d. the amino acid sequence in the binding site for the G proteine. the amino acids in the binding site for adenylyl cyclase

150.The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases (R-TKs) is always characterized by a. Dimerization and auto-phosphorylation. b. Activation of adenylyl cyclase c. A phosphorylation cascade. d. GTP hydrolysis. e. Phosphorylation of Protein Kinase A .

Ch12 & 13 - Mitosis & Meiosis151.For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?

a. Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.b. Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other.c. Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.d. Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.e. Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.

152.If the cell whose nuclear material is shown at right continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?a. cell membrane synthesisb. spindle fiber formationc. nuclear envelope breakdownd. formation of telophase nucleie. synthesis of chromatids

153.In plants, triploid endosperm cells contain three sets of chromosomes. If a plant species has 42 chromosomes per diploid cell, the triploid endosperm would be expected to have:a. 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairsb. 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3c. 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatidsd. 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes

154.If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at

metaphase of meiosis I would bea. 0.25x.b. 0.5x.c. x.d. 2x.e. 4x.

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155.Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells _____a. have altered plasma membranes and cytoskeletal proteinsb. have mutations or deletions in tumor suppressors like p53c. have the ability to stimulate new blood vessel formationd. do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition of growthe. all of the above

156.In an plant with a diploid chromosome number of 2n = 46, how many pairs of homologous chromosomes are present in a cell that has just entered Meiosis II? (we want everyone correct!)a. 0b. 1c. 2d. 23e. 46

157.Homologous chromosomes synapse or pair during:a. anaphase I.b. prophase I.c. anaphase II.d. telophase II.e. prophase II.

Ch14 and 15- Genetics158.Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis?

a. synapsis of homologous chromosomesb. crossing over in prophasec. alignment of tetrads at the equator in metaphased. separation of homologs at anaphasee. separation of cells at telophase

159.In a population with two alleles for cystic fibrosis, C and c, the frequency the recessive allele is 0.6. What percent of the population would be heterozygous carriers for cystic fibrosis if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?a. 16%b. 36%c. 40%d. 48%e. 64%

160.A fruitfly with red eyes and leg bristles (genotype RrBb) was mated with a white-eyed fly lacking bristles (rrbb). Five hundred offspring were counted, with the following results:

58 Rrbb offspring; 62 rrBb offspring; 200 RrBb offspring; 180 rrbb offspring.Based on these results, how much distance is between these two genes on the chromosome?a. 24% (24 map units)b. 58% (58 map units)c. 60% (60 map units)d. 76 % (76 map units)e. 100% (100 map units)

161.Match thje following human genetics disorders with their inheritance patterns? Answers (a-e) may be used more than once

i) Marfan’s a) Autosomal recessive condition Bii) Tay Sachs b) Autosomal dominant conditionAiii) Cystic Fibrosis c) Dominant lethal conditionAiv) Hemophilia d) X-linked conditionDv) Achondroplasia e) Multifactorial conditionCvi) Schizophrenia Evii) Polydactyly B

162.Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in a range of symptoms. Which of the following terms best describes this?a. incomplete dominanceb. multiple allelesc. pleiotropyd. epistasise. codominance

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163.Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?a. 1/16b. 3/16c. 3/8d. 1/2e. 9/16

164.The trait found in the individuals is represented by the shaded symbols. Which of the following patterns of transmission for this gene is/are consistent with this pedigree? a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive

165.The pedigree at right shows a family with a disease pattern indicated by shaded symbols. Which of the following patterns of transmission for this gene are consistent with this pedigree?a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive

CH 16 & 17 – DNA Replication, Transcription & Translation 166.In E. coli, a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase enzyme. Which of the following would you expect

as a result of this mutation?a. No proofreading will occur.b. No replication fork will be formed.c. The DNA will supercoil.d. Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.e. Replication will require a DNA template from another source.f. It is not a ribonucleotide, but a deoxyribonucleotide

167.A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This DNA molecule could be comprised of , respectively,a. 120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules. b. 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules. c. 120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules.d. 120 adenine and 120 thymine molecules.

168.Match the following aspects of DNA replication (A-F) to their correct descriptionsi) Site of action of DNA Ligase Dii) Leading Strand A iii) Okasaki Fragments Eiv) Lagging Strand Bv) RNA primers Fvi) DNA Template Strand C

169.A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be thata. none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.b. proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.c. the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying

anticodons.d. the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.e. none of the options will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.

170.In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the enzyme helicase. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?a. No proofreading will occur.b. No replication fork will be formed.c. The DNA will supercoil.d. Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.e. Replication will require a DNA template from another source.

171.In the figure to the right, mRNA transcription process initiates at the area labeled _______, The messenger RNA transcript in the figure is labeled_____, and the template strand is labeled ______:

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a. E; D; Cb. E G, Dc. A; D; Cd. A; C; De. A; E C

172.The component labeled B is:a. DNase.b. RNA primase.c. Reverse transcriptase.d. DNA polymerase.e. RNA polymerase.

173.According to Beadle and Tatum, how many genes are necessary for the pathway shown below? a. 0b. 1c. 2d. 3e. It cannot be determined from the pathway.

174.A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?a. an accumulation of A and no production of B and Cb. an accumulation of A and B and no production of Cc. an accumulation of B and no production of A and Cd. an accumulation of B and C and no production of Ae. an accumulation of C and no production of A and B

175.The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results ina. a base-pair substitution.b. a nucleotide mismatch.c. a frameshift mutation.d. a polypeptide missing an amino acid.e. a nonsense mutation.

176.A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The dipeptide that will form will bea. cysteine-alanine.b. proline-threonine.c. glycine-cysteine.d. alanine-alanine.e. threonine-glycine.

177.The anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA isa. 3' GGC 5'b. 5' GGC 3'c. 5' ACG 3'd. 5' UGC 3'e. 3' UGC 5'

178.When translating secretory ormembrane proteins, ribosomes are brought to the ER membrane bya. a specific characteristic that identifies it as a “bound” ribosome itself.b. a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.c. moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus.d. a chemical signal given off by the ER.e. a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.

CH 19 – Gene Regulation 179.In human females, one X chromosome per cell is randomly inactivated during early embryonic development, forming

a Barr Body. Much of the DNA in this chromosome is then in the form ofa. Intronsb. Chromosome puffsc. Heterochromatind. Euchromatine. Tetrads

180.Which of the following are correctly matched with their description

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a. Enhancers (Distal Control Elements) = increase the rate of eukaryotic gene transcription; may be located upstream or downstream from the genes they regulate

b. Promoter TATA box = binding and attachment site for RNA polymerase; located 25-35 base pairs upstream of the transcription start site

c. Proximal Control Elements = required for accurate transcription initiation; bind numerous transcription initiation complex proteins

d. only a and b are correctly matchede. all of the above are correctly matched

181.The human Crystalline gene is contained in the genome of every cell of a human, but is only expressed (made into protein) in the lens of the eye. This is becausea. The crystalline gene is spliced out of the genome early in development in all cells in the body except lens cells b. Activator proteins (transcription factors) that bind to regulatory regions of the crystalline gene are only found in the lens

cells c. The crystalline gene has specific promoter and enhancer control elements that bind to only lens-specific activators d. All of the abovee. b and c only

182.Which of the following is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?a. the small subunit of the ribosomeb. the TATAAA boxc. the enhancerd. the Upstream Promoter Elements e. the AUG codon

183.Upstream (proximal) promoter elements in eukaryotes are:a. nucleotide sequences that act as binding sites for RNA polymerase.b. nucleotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation.c. nucleotide sequences that contain the TATA box.d. proteins that are required for RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter.e. proteins that inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter.

184.Regulation of gene expression can be accomplished by controlling:a. the amount of chromatin packing.b. the amount of mRNA that is transcribed.c. the rate of translation of mRNA.d. the rate of mRNA degradation.e. All of the above.

185.Eukaryotic enhancers are capable of which of the following?a. regulating a gene even if they are cut out of the DNA and reinserted backwardsb. regulating a gene from very long distancesc. interacting with proteins that regulate transcriptiond. increasing the rate of RNA synthesis after initiatione. all of the above

186.Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?a. Most of the DNA codes for protein.b. The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.c. Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.d. Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters.e. It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.

187. Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following?a. Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails.b. Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell.c. Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns.d. Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size.e. Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization.

188.Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?

a. a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2b. a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ERc. an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translatedd. a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attachede. an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization

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189.MicroRNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) both function to "silence" genes, bya. Causing chromatin de-acetylation and tight winding of the DNAb. Acting as a release factor to cause ribosome disassembly c. Activating the Dicer enzyme to rapidly degrade the mRNA d. Binding to complementary RNA sequences to prevent translatione. Binding to complementary DNA sequences to prevent transcription

190.Alternative RNA splicinga. is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.b. can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.c. can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.d. increases the rate of transcription.

191.Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?a. elongation of the polypeptideb. base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNAc. binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunitsd. covalent bonding between the first two amino acidse. the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA

192.Which of the following occurs in eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, gene expression?a. mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed.b. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.c. A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.d. Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little.e. RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.

193.Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?a. to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ERb. to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcriptionc. to terminate translation of the messenger RNAd. to translocate polypeptides across the ER membranee. to signal the initiation of transcription\

194.An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3' AAC. Which of the following describes the most likely result?a. tRNA will not form a cloverleaf.b. The nearby stem end will pair improperly.c. The amino acid methionine will not bind.d. The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon.e. The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed.

195.What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?a. It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein.b. It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded

protein.c. It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.d. It alters the reading frame of the mRNA.e. It prevents introns from being excised.

The following questions refer to the codon chart.196.An mRNA codon specifying leucine is

5´-CUA-3´. Its corresponding anticodon is:a. 5´-GAT-3´.b. 3´-AUC-5´.c. 3´-GAU-5´.d. 3´-GAT-5´.e. 5´-GAU-3´.

197.What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'a. met-arg-glu-arg-glu-argb. met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leuc. met-ser-leu-ser-leu-serd. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leue. met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu

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198.In the pGLO lab, how could you confirm that a transformed cell was expressing the bla gene?a. It would fluoresce green b. It would grow on Amp platesc. If would not grow on ‘LB only’ platesd. If would only grow on ‘LB only’ plates

199.After transformation of HB101 by pGLO, why are the cells grown in LB broth for 20 minutes before plating on Amp plates?a. The Green Fluorescent Protein takes 20 minutes to be transcribed and translatedb. The pGLO plasmid does not fully enter the HB101 cells until 20 minutes after the heat shockc. The Arabinose promoter needs at least 20 minutes before RNA polymerase can bind to the promoterd. There is a phenotypic lag of ~20 minutes before the b-lactamase gene for Amp resistance can be expressed e. The HB101 bacteria are weak after the heat shock treatment, and need 20 minutes to recover

200.E. coli can absorb the sugar Arabinose from its surroundings. When Arabinose is present,a. It binds to a repressor protein at the promoter of the Arabinose Operonb. It changes the conformation of the repressor protein such that RNA polymerase can begin transcribing the Ara operon. c. It binds to DNA and functions as an enhancer to turn on the Green Fluorescent Proteind. a and b e. All of the above

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Reminder: K101/ K102 Final Exam Fall 2014. 200 questions, you supply the answers!

Final Exam will consist of 100 questions: Some “2-pointers” taken directly as written from this study guide, and some “1-pointers” not too far from the questions below. New (~50%) = Cumulative (~50%). Good luck!

K101: Final Exam will be open between Tuesday 12/16 (9 am) – Friday 12/19 (8 pm) in the Testing CenterK102: Final Exam is Wednesday 12/17 between 8-10 am in IT 073