at 0405 preweek quizzer b xx

AUDITING THEORY CPA Review School of the Philippines Preweek Quizzer

1. How did the framework of Philippines Standards on Auditing conceptually describe an assurance?A. It refers to the auditor’s satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one

party for use by another party.B. The level of assurance which may be provided is determined by the reporting objective.C. An assurance is expressed positively in the report.D. Because of the inherent limitation in an audit, the assurance is of limited one.

2. Which of the following are authoritative sources for auditing standards for members of the Accountancy profession in the Philippines?I. Pronouncements on GAAS, issued by ASPC.II. Pronouncements on GAAS issued by PICPA which are not superseded or amended by

statements issued by ASPC.III. Pronouncements issued by AICPA.A. I only. C. I and III onlyB. I and II only. D. I, II and III

3. In the absence of pronouncements issued by ASPC and the PICPA, published statements and guidelines by other authoritative bodies, like AICPA, IAPC and AFA are the basis of determining generally accepted auditing standards. What effect do these pronouncements provide in determining the generally accepted auditing standards?A. Authoritative C. AlternativeB. Persuasive D. Parallel

4. Specifically, the Board of Accountancy is officially represented in the ASPC byA. Secretary of the BOAB. Chair, PRCC. Chair, BOAD. BOA member who handles Auditing Theory subject

5. A draft of statement, studies or standards should be discussed by the Council en banc. How many members are required to approve the draft to consider it for exposure?A. Majority C. TenB. Eight D. Twelve

6. How many members of ASPC are needed to approve the exposed draft of Philippine Standards in Auditing as Philippine Standards on Auditing?A. Majority of the regular members C. At least eight.B. At least ten. D. At least twelve.

7. Which of the following is a correct statement?A. ASPC should normally expose a proposed interpretation of statements.B. ASPC should normally expose its opinion on specific queries from a practicing CPA.C. To make the statements on Philippine Standards on Auditing operative, the final

statements shall be submitted to the Board of Accountancy for approval.D. When it is deemed necessary to expose for a comment on proposed interpretations of

statements, the exposure period is understandably shorter than those of the regular drafts of standards.

8. Which of the following is not represented by the signatories to the Joint Memorandum of Support to the creation and operation of the Auditing Standards and Practices Council?A. Board of AccountancyB. Philippine Institute of Certified Public Accountants (PICPA)C. Association of Certified Public Accountants in Public Practice (ACPAPP)D. Philippine Institute of Certified Public Accountants Foundation, INC.

9. Ethically, how many years can a partner who survived the death or withdrawal of other partner(s) an continue to practice under the partnership name though he becomes a sole practitioner?A. 1 year C. 2 yearsB. 3 years D. No prescribed rule

10. This exists because business people, investors and the general public perceive the duties and responsibilities of auditors differently from the way in which auditors themselves perceive those duties and responsibilities.A. Assurance C. Expectation gapB. Audit standards D. Ethics

11. Which of the following public perceptions least likely manifests an expectation gap?A. The general public expects that the auditors are independent of the financial statements

that they audit.B. The general public believes that an unqualified audit opinion guarantees the accuracy of

financial statements.C. The general public believes that detection of fraud is the primary objective of financial

audit.

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D. The general public believes that an unqualified opinion is an assurance as to the viability of an entity’s future operations.

12. Conflict between financial statement users and auditors often arises because of theA. high cost of performing an audit.B. extremely technical vocabulary which the auditor uses in the report.C. placement of the auditor’s report in the back of the client’s annual report where it is hard to

locate.D. expectation gap.

13. The subsequent discovery of material misstatements of the financial statements resulting from fraud or error existing during the period covered by the auditor’s reportA. Indicates that the auditor has failed to the basic principles and essential procedures of an

audit.B. Always results to litigation due to the auditor’s negligence.C. Does not, in itself, indicate that the auditor has failed to adhere to the basic principles and

essential procedures of an audit.D. Does not make the auditor liable because he just provides a reasonable and not an

absolute assurance.

14. Most accounting and auditing professionals agree that when an audit has failed to uncover material misstatements, and the wrong type of audit opinion is issued, the audit firmA. has failed to follow generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS).B. deserves to lose the lawsuit.C. should be asked to defend the quality of the audit.D. should not be held responsible for the financial loss suffered loss suffered by others.

15. The understanding between the client and the auditor as to the degree of responsibility to be assumed by each is normally set forth in a(n)A. Representation letter C. Engagement letter.B. Management letter D. Letter of reportable conditions.

16. In a financial statement audit, audit risk represents the probability thatA. Internal control fails and the failure is not detected by the auditor’s procedures.B. The auditor unknowingly fails to modify an opinion on materially misstated financial

statements.C. Inherent and control risk cause errors that could be material to the financial statements.D. The auditor is not retained to conduct a financial statement audit in the succeeding year.

17. The auditor’s judgment concerning the overall fairness of the presentation of financial positions, results of operations, and cash flows is applied within the framework of

A. Quality control.B. Generally accepted auditing standards that include the concept of materiality.C. The auditor’s evaluation of the audited company’s internal controls.D. Generally accepted accounting principles.

18. In “auditing” accounting data, the concern is withA. determining whether recorded information properly reflects the economic events that

occurred during the accounting period.B. determining if fraud has occurred.C. determining if taxable income has been calculated correctly.D. analyzing the financial information to be sure that it complies with government

requirements.

19. The responsibility for adopting sound accounting policies, maintaining an adequate internal control structure, and making fair representations in the financial statements restsA. with management. C. equally with management and the auditor..B. with the independent auditor. D. with the internal audit department.

20. The auditor’s best defense when material misstatements in the financial statements are not uncovered in the audit is thatA. the audit was conducted in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.B. client is guilty of contributory negligence.C. the audit was conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditingD. the financial statements are client’s responsibility.

21. Which of the following circumstances would ordinarily not impair the auditor’s independence?A. Litigation by client against auditor related to tax services.B. Litigation by client against auditor claiming a deficiency in the previous audit.C. Litigation by CPA firm against client claiming management fraud or deceit.D. Intent to start a lawsuit at some future date, after the current audit is completed, claiming a

deficiency in the previous audit.

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22. The members of a client’s “audit committee” must all beA. members of management.B. directors who are not a part of company management.C. non-directors and non-managers.D. directors and managers.

23. When a CPA firm is requested to provide a written or oral opinion on the application of accounting principles or the type of audit opinion that would be issued for a specific or hypothetical transaction relating to an audit client of another CPA firm, primarily among the requirements set forth is thatA. client is entitled to confidentiality, so the consulting CPA firm is forbidden from

communicating with the CPA firm which does the audit.B. the consulted CPA firm should communicate with the entity’s existing auditors to ascertain

all the available facts relevant to forming a professional judgment on the matters that the firm has been requested to report on.

C. client is entitled to confidentiality, so the CPA firm which does the audit should refuse to share any information with the consulting CPA firm under any circumstances.

D. client is not entitled to confidentiality under these circumstances, so the existing auditors should share all information with the consulting CPA firm.

24. “Absence of reasonable care that can be expected of a person in a set of circumstances” is the definition ofA. ordinary negligence. C. constructive fraud.B. gross negligence. D. fraud.

25. When CPA’s are able to maintain an independent attitude in fulfilling their responsibility, it is referred to as independenceA. in fact C. in conductB. in appearance D. in total

26. In rare cases auditor’s have been held liable for criminal acts. A criminal conviction against an auditor can result only when it is demonstrated that the auditorA. was negligent.B. was grossly negligent.C. intended to deceive or harm others.D. caused financial loss to an innocent third party.

27. The auditor’s responsibility for failure to detect fraud arisesA. when such failure clearly results from failure to comply with generally accepted auditing

standards.B. whenever the amounts involved are material.C. only when the examination was specifically designed to detect fraud.D. only when such failure clearly results from negligence so gross as to sustain an inference

of fraud on the part of the auditor.

28. There is agreement within the auditing profession and the courts that the auditorA. is not a guarantor or insurer of financial statements.B. is a guarantor but not an insurer of the statements.C. is an insurer but not a guarantor of the statements.D. is both a guarantor and an insurer of the financial statements.

29. The auditor is not liable to his client forA. negligence. C. dishonestyB. bad faith. D. errors of judgment

30. An individual who is not party to the contract between CPA and client, but who is known by both and is intended to receive certain benefits from the contract, is aA. common law inheritor. C. third party beneficiary.B. third party. D. tort.

31. The prudent person concept establishes in law thatA. the CPA firm is not expected to be infallible.B. an audit in accordance GAASC. the courts do not require that the auditor become the insurer or guarantor of the accuracy

of the statements.D. all three of the above are true.

32. The leading precedent-setting auditing case in the third party liability isA. Escott et al. v. Bar Chris Construction Corp.B. Hochfelder v. Ernst & Ernst.C. Ultramares Corporation v. Touche.D. United States v. Simon.

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33. The leading case of criminal action against CPAs is theA. 1136 Tenants case.B. United States v. Simon case, aka Continental VendingC. Escott et al. v. Bar Chris case, aka Bar ChrisD. Ultramares Corporation v. Touche case.

34. A CPA is subject to criminal liability if the CPAA. refuses to turn over the working papers to the client.B. performs an audit in a negligent manner.C. willfully omits a material fact required to be stated in a financial statement.D. willfully breaches the contract with the client.

35. Fraudulent financial reporting is often called:A. management fraud C. defalcationB. theft of assets D. employee fraud

36. Management assertions areA. directly related to generally accepted auditing standards.B. directly related to generally accepted accounting principles.C. indirectly related to generally accepted auditing standards.D. indirectly related to generally accepted accounting principles.

37. A CPA is subject to criminal liability if the CPAA. refuses to turn over the working papers to the client.B. performs an audit in a negligent manner.C. willfully omits a material fact required to be stated in a financial statement.D. willfully breaches the contract with the client.

38. Fraudulent financial reporting is often called:A. management fraud C. defalcationB. theft of assets D. employee fraud

39. Management assertions areA. directly related to generally accepted auditing standards.B. directly related to generally accepted accounting principles.C. indirectly related to generally accepted auditing standards.D. indirectly related to generally accepted accounting principles.

40. The following are some of the quality control policies that CPAs should have:1. Skills and competence 4. Acceptance and retention of clients2. Delegation 5. Direction

3. Consultation 6. ReviewWhich of the foregoing are classified as control policies at the level of the firm?A. 1, 3, 5, 6 C. 1, 2, 5, 6B. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 3, 4, 6

41. Which of the following least satisfies skills and competence as an objective of quality control policies?A. Advancement C. HiringB. Professional development D. Consultation

42. The following are quality control procedures that are observed by a firm:I. Identifies on a timely basis the staffing requirements of specific auditsII. Periodically counsels personnel as to their progress and career opportunitiesIII. Prepares time budget for audit to determine manpower requirements and to schedule

audit work.IV. Evaluates partners periodically by means of senior partner or fellow partner evaluation

and counseling as to whether they continue to have the qualifications to fulfill their responsibilities.

Which of the foregoing procedures is (are) necessary to achieve the objectives of assignment of personnel?A. I C. I, IIIB. II, IV D. I, II, III, IV

43. The objectives of the quality control policies to be adopted by an audit firm will ordinarily include the following?A. Professional requirements, skills and competence, assignment, inspection, due

professional care, consultationB. Professional requirements, skills and competence, Assignment, consultation, inspection,

monitoringC. Professional requirements, skills and competence, assignment, delegation, monitoring,

consultationD. Skills and competence, due professional care, consultation, assignment, monitoring,

delegation

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44. Which of the following is the least factor to consider for a firm to have quality control?A. The form of organization. C. Geographical dispersion of the firm.B. Size and nature of the firm’s practice. D. Appropriate cost/benefit considerations.

45. Which of the following constitutes “directing an audit assistant”A. Identifying in advance the audit personnel requirements of a particular audit engagement.B. Informing assistants of their responsibilities and the objectives of the procedures they are

to perform.C. Resolving any differences in professional judgment between audit personnel.D. Providing audit staff the necessary on-the-job training.

46. The work of each assistant needs to be reviewed by personnel of at least equal competence. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of this requirement?A. The work performed and the results obtained have been adequately documented.B. The objectives of the audit procedures have been achieved.C. All available evidences have been obtained, evaluate and documented.D. The conclusion expressed are consistent with the result of the work performed and

support the opinion.

47. It involves informing assistants of their responsibilities and the objectives of the procedures they have to perform:A. Supervision. C. Delegation.B. Direction D. Review

48. A practice of providing sufficient direction, supervision and review of the work at all levels to provide reasonable assurance that the work performed meets appropriate standards of quality is a control policy ofA. Assignment. C. MonitoringB. Delegation D. Consultation

49. Quality control policies and procedures should be implemented at both the level of the audit firm and on individual audits. Classify the following control policies as to audit firm level or individual audit:I. Consultation II. Assignment III. DirectionWhich of these control policies are individual audit level?A. I only. C. III only.B. I and II D. All of these

50. Which one of the following policy statements relates to delegation?A. Personnel in the firm are to adhere to principles of independence, integrity, objectivity,

confidentiality, and professional behavior.

B. There is to be a sufficient direction, supervision, and review of work at all levels to provide reasonable assurance that the work performed meets appropriate standards of quality.

C. Audit work is to be assigned to personnel who have the degree of technical training and proficiency required in the circumstances.

D. Whenever necessary, consultation within or outside the firm is to occur with those who have appropriate expertise.

51. What is the responsibility of a successor auditor to communicate with the predecessor auditor in connection with a prospective new client?A. The successor auditor has no responsibility to contact the predecessor auditor.B. The successor auditor should obtain permission from the prospective client to contact the

predecessor auditor.C. The successor auditor should contact the predecessor auditor if the client authorizes

contact.D. The successor auditor need not contact the predecessor if the successor is aware of all

available relevant facts.

52. In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to acceptance of a client, a CPA firm is not likely toA. Make inquiries of the proposed client’s legal counsel.B. Review financial statements of the proposed client.C. Make inquiries of previous auditors.D. Review the personnel practices of the proposed client.

53. Any deviation from the independence rule is consideredA. immaterial. C. material.B. slightly material D. highly material

54. Internal control procedures are not designed to provide reasonable assurance thatA. Transactions are executed in accordance with management’s authorization.B. Irregularities will be eliminated.C. Access to assets is permitted only in accordance with management’s authorization.D. The recorded accountability for assets is compared with the existing assets at reasonable

intervals.

55. After consideration of a client’s internal control, an auditor might decide toA. Increase the extent of substantive testing in areas where the control structure is strong.B. Reduce the extent of tests of controls in areas where the controls are strong.C. Reduce the extent of both substantive tests and tests of controls in areas where the

controls are strong.D. Increase the extent of substantive testing in areas where the controls are weak.

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56. In an auditor’s consideration of internal control, the completion of a questionnaire is most closely associated with which of the following?A. Separation of duties C. Understanding the system.B. Flowchart accuracy D. Tests of controls.

57. Tests of controls may include the following, except:A. Reperformance of internal control proceduresB. Inquiries about, and observation of, internal control which leave no audit trail.C. Analytical procedures involving comparison of operating expenses with budgeted amount.D. Inspection of documentary support for transactions evidencing authorization

58. In considering internal control within the revenue/receipt cycle, what is the purpose of a transaction walk-through?A. To assure that employees are performing assigned functions accurately.B. To confirm the auditor’s understanding of the internal control structure.C. To select documents for detailed tests of controls.D. To verify the results of the auditor’s sampling plan.

59. Following are four steps an auditor undertakes in assessing control risk:A. Determine what control procedures are used by the entity.B. Identify the system’s control objectives.C. Design tests of controls.D. Consider the potential errors or irregularities that could result.In what order would an auditor perform these steps?A. DBAC C. BDACB. BCDA D. DCAB

60. The purpose of tests of controls over shipping is toA. Determine whether billed goods have been shipped.B. Determine whether shipments are billed.C. Determine whether shipping department personnel are competent.D. Determine whether credit is approved before goods are shipped.

61. The purpose of tests of controls over billing is toA. Determine whether billed goods have been shipped.B. Determine whether shipments are billed.C. Determine whether shipping department personnel are competent.D. Determine whether credit is approved before goods are shipped.

62. After finishing the review phase of the study and evaluation of internal control in an audit engagement, the auditor should perform tests of controls onA. those controls that the auditor plans to rely upon.B. those controls in which material weaknesses were identified.C. those controls that have a material effect upon the financial statement balances.D. a random sample of the controls that were reviewed.

63. The primary emphasis by auditors is on controls overA. classes of transactions.B. account balances.C. both a and b, because they are equally weighted.D. both a and b, because they vary from client to client.

64. The three key concepts that underlie the study of an internal control structure and the assessment of control risk would not include a criteria thatA. the control risk may range from zero to 100%.B. management, not the auditor, must establish and maintain the entity’s controls.C. the internal control structure provides reasonable, but not absolute assurance that the

financial statements are fairly stated.D. the internal control structure can never be regarded as completely effective.

65. When the auditor attempts to determine the operation of the accounting system by tracing one or few transactions through the accounting system, this is referred to asA. tracing. C. tests of controls.B. vouching. D. a walk-through.

66. The procedures to test effectiveness of control policies and procedures in support of a reduced assessed control risk are calledA. tests of transactions. C. analytical tests.B. tests of controls. D. a walk-through.

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67. Understanding components of internal control and assessing the level of control risk are primarily used by the auditor toA. determine whether procedures and records concerning the safeguarding of assets are

reliable.B. ascertain whether the opportunities to allow any person to both perspective and conceal

irregularities are minimized.C. modify the initial assessments of inherent risk and preliminary judgments about materiality

levels.D. determine the nature, timing, and extent of substantive tests for financial statement

assertions.

68. Tests of controls are directed toward the control’sA. efficiency C. efficiency and effectivenessB. effectiveness D. cost benefit ratio

69. The final step in the evaluation of the audit results is the decision toA. accept the population as fairly stated or to require further action.B. determine sampling error and calculate the estimated total population error.C. project the point estimate.D. determine the error in each sample.

70. The primary factor from the audit risk model which affects the auditor’s decision about acceptable risk of incorrect acceptance isA. control risk C. detection riskB. audit risk D. inherent risk

71. In comparison of detecting material fraud and material error, which of the following is least likely a reason why the auditor may discover material error but less of fraud’s?A. Collusion between or among employees.B. Intentional misrepresentations by the client personnel.C. Sampling of transactions.D. Forgery.

72. Ordinarily, the likelihood of detecting errors is higher than that of detecting fraud becauseA. The auditor is responsible to detect errors but not fraud.B. The effect of fraudulent act is likely omitted in the accounting records.C. Fraud is ordinarily accompanied by acts specifically designed to conceal its existence.D. Fraud is always a result of connivance between or among employees.

73. Which of the following least likely affect the judgment of the auditor in determining the extent of modified or additional procedures when he believes that fraud or error possibly exists?A. The types of fraud and error indicated.B. The reason why fraud or error has been committed.C. The likelihood that a particular type of fraud or error could have a material effect on the

financial statements.D. The likelihood of their occurrence.

74. When the auditor discovers fraud or error, the effect of which is material to the financial statements, he should most likely consider the following, exceptA. The implications of fraud and significant error in relation to the reliability of management

representations.B. The auditor should assume that the instance of fraud or error is an isolated occurrence.C. The auditor may necessarily adjust the nature, timing and extent of substantive

procedures.D. The auditor may reconsider risk assessment.

75. Which of the following is the most compelling reason for the auditor to resign from an audit engagement when he discovers material irregularity?A. The top management is the perpetrator of fraud.B. The irregularity is committed through connivance of rank and file employees.C. The extent of effect of fraud on the financial statements cannot immediately be estimated.D. The management takes remedial action regarding fraud.

76. Which of the following statements is true?A. It is usually easier for the auditor to uncover irregularities than errors.B. It is usually easier for the auditor to uncover errors than irregularities.C. It is usually equally difficult for the auditor to uncover errors or irregularities.

77. Should the auditor uncover circumstances during the audit that may cause suspicions of management fraud, the auditor mustA. issue an adverse opinion.B. issue a disclaimer.C. evaluate their implications and consider the need to modify audit evidence.D. withdraw from engagement.

78. An auditor should recognize that the application of auditing procedures may produce evidential matter indicating the possibility of errors or irregularities and therefore should a design audit tests to detect unrecorded transactions.A. design audit tests to detect unrecorded transactions.B. extend the work to audit most recorded transactions and records of an entity.

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C. plan and perform the engagement with an attitude of professional skepticism.D. not depend on internal accounting control features that are designed to prevent or detect

errors or irregularities.

79. What is expected of auditor in determining noncompliance by an entity to existing laws and regulations?A. Whether an act constitutes noncompliance is a legal determination that is ordinarily within

the auditor’s professional competence.B. The auditor’s training, experience and understanding of the entity and its industry cannot

provide a basis for recognition that some acts coming to the auditor’s attention may constitute noncompliance with laws and regulations.

C. The determination as to whether a particular act constitutes or is likely to constitute noncompliance is generally based on the understanding of the auditor but ultimately can only be determined by an expert who is qualified to practice law.

D. In order to plan the audit, the auditor should obtain a general understanding of the legal and regulatory framework applicable to the entity and the industry and how the entity is complying with the framework.

80. A type of fraud in which an employee takes assets from an organization for personal gain:A. Fraudulent financial reporting C. Defalcation.B. Window dressing D. Secret reserve.

81. When the auditor becomes aware of information concerning a possible noncompliance to laws or regulations, the auditor should appropriately:A. Obtain an understanding of the nature of the act and the circumstances in which it has

occurred, and evaluate the possible effect on the financial statements.B. Discuss his suspicion with the management.C. Ask management to determine whether a violation is readily committed.D. Consult with the entity’s legal counsel as to what appropriate action the auditor should do.

82. If the auditor suspects that members of senior management, including members of the board of directors, are involved in noncompliance to laws as regulations, and he believes his report may not be acted upon, he would.A. Do nothing.B. Issue a disclaimer of opinion.C. Consider seeking legal advice.D. Make special investigation in order to fully determine the extent of client’s noncompliance.

83. The auditor is examining copies of sales invoices only for the initials of the person responsible for checking the extensions. This is an example of aA. Test of controls C. Substantive test.

B. Dual-purpose test D. Test of balances.

84. After the auditor has prepared a flowchart of internal control for sales and cash receipts transactions and evaluated the design of the system, the auditor would perform tests of controls on all control proceduresA. Documented in the flowchart.B. Considered to be deficiencies that might allow errors to enter the accounting system.C. Considered to be strengths that the auditor plans to rely on in assessing control risk.D. That would aid in preventing irregularities.

85. To determine whether internal control effectively minimized errors of failure to bill a customer for a shipment, the auditor would select a sample of transactions from the population represented by theA. Customer order file C. Shipping records fileB. Subsidiary customer accounts ledger D. Sales invoice

86. Which of the following sampling methods is most useful to auditors when performing tests of controls?A. Discovery sampling.B. Attribute estimation.C. Variable sampling.D. Unrestricted random sampling with replacement.

87. At times, a sample may indicate that the auditor’s assessed level of control risk for a given control is reasonable when, in fact, the true compliance rate does not justify the assessed level. This situation illustrates the risk ofA. Assessing control risk too low C. Assessing control risk too high.B. Incorrect precision D. Incorrect rejection.

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88. Which of the following is an element of sampling risk?A. Choosing an audit procedure that is inconsistent with the audit objective.B. Choosing a sample size that is too small to achieve the sampling objective.C. Failing to detect an error on a document that has been inspected by the auditor.D. Failing to perform audit procedure that are required by the sampling plan.

89. If the auditor is concerned that a population may contain exceptions, the determination of a sample size sufficient to include at least one such exception is a characteristic ofA. Discovery sampling C. Variables sampling.B. Random sampling D. Probability-proportional-to-size sampling.

90. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of sampling risk?A. A randomly chosen sample may not be representative of the population as a whole on the

characteristic of interest.B. An auditor may select audit procedures that are not appropriate to achieve the specific

objective.C. An auditor may fail to recognize errors in the documents examined for the chosen sample.D. The documents related to the chosen sample may not be available for inspection.

91. Discovery sampling should be used to estimate whether a population containsA. Errors of any kind C. Noncritical errors.B. Critical deviations D. No errors.

92. In assessing sampling risk, the risk of incorrect rejection and the risk of assessing control risk too high relate to theA. Efficiency of the audit C. Effectiveness of the audit.B. Selection of the sample D. Audit quality controls.

93. An advantage of using statistical sampling is that such techniquesA. Mathematically measure risk.B. Eliminate the need for judgmental decision.C. Define the value of reliability necessary to provide audit assurance.D. Have been established in the courts to be superior to nonstatistical sampling.

94. Management assertions areA. stated in the footnotes to the financial statements.B. implied or expressed representations about the financial statements.C. explicitly expresses representations about the financial statements.D. provided to the auditor in the assertions letter, but are not disclosed on the financial

statements.

96. The reason an independent auditor gathers evidence is toA. Form an opinion on the financial statements.B. Detect fraud.C. Evaluate managementD. Evaluate internal controls.

97. It refers to the auditor’s ability to perform audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances:A. Scope and Audit C. Substantive ProceduresB. Objectivity D. Reporting Objective

98. Which of the following factors will least affect the independent auditor’s judgment as to the quantity, type and content of the working papers desirable for a particular engagement?A. Nature of the auditor’s report.B. Nature of the financial statements, schedules, or other information upon which the auditor

is reporting.C. Need for supervision and review.D. Number of personnel assigned to the audit.

99. Which of the following is not a primary purpose of audit working papers?A. To coordinate the examination.B. To assist in preparation of the audit report.C. To support the financial statements.D. To provide evidence of the audit work performed.

100.The reliability of internal evidence varies according to the following, exceptA. The effectiveness of the client’s internal control structure.B. The potential motivation management to misstate financial statements.C. The formality of the documentation.D. The quantity of audit evidence.

101.The following statements were made in a discussion of audit evidence between two CPAs. Which statement is not valid concerning evidential matter?A. I am seldom convinced beyond all doubt with respect to all aspects of the statements

being examined.B. I would not undertake that procedure because at best the results would only be

persuasive and I’m looking for convincing evidence.C. I evaluate the degree of risk involved in declining the kind of evidence I will gather.D. I evaluate the usefulness of the evidence I can obtain against the cost to obtain it.

102.Evidence is generally considered competent when

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A. it has the qualities of being relevant, objective, and free from known bias.B. there is enough of it to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion on financial statements.C. it has been obtained by random selection.D. it consists of written statements made by managers of the enterprise under audit.

103.The primary emphasis in most tests of details of balances is on theA. balance sheet accounts C. cash flow statement accountB. income statement accounts D. three statements given

104.More types of evidence are obtained by using this test than by using any other type of test.A. Tests of controls C. Tests of balancesB. Tests of transactions D. Analytical procedures

104.In testing for cutoff, the objective is to determineA. whether all of the current period’s transactions are recorded.B. that no transactions from the prior period are included in the current period’s balances.C. that no transactions of the current period have been delayed and recorded in a future

period.D. whether the transactions are recorded in the proper period.

105.In determining the quantity and quality of evidence to gather, the auditor will be satisfied when the evidence isA. irrefutable. C. highly persuasive.B. conclusive. D. completely convincing.

106.“The detailed instructions for the collection of a particular type of audit evidence that is to be obtained at some time during the audit” is the definition of a(n)A. sampling plan. C. audit plan.B. audit procedure. D. audit program.

107.The third standard of field work requires the auditor to accumulate sufficient competent evidence to support the opinion issued. Because of the nature of audit evidence, it isA. unlikely that auditor will be completely convinced that the opinion is correct.B. likely that auditor will be completely convinced that the opinion is correct.C. unlikely that auditor will arrive at a conclusion.D. likely that the auditor would change his/her mind about the opinion if he/she took the time

to gather additional evidence.

108.Evidence is usually more persuasive for balance sheet accounts when it is obtainedA. from various times throughout the client’s year.B. only from transactions occurring on the balance sheet date.C. as close to the balance sheet date as possible.D. from the time period when transactions in that account were most numerous during the

fiscal period.

109.Which of the following statements is not correct?A. Analytical procedures use comparisons and relationships to determine which account

balances are in error.B. For certain immaterial accounts, analytical procedures may be the only evidence needed.C. In some instances, other types of evidence may be reduced when analytical procedures

indicate that an account balance appears reasonable.D. Analytical procedures are used to isolate accounts or transactions that should be

investigated more extensively.

110.The working papers prepared during the engagement are the property ofA. the auditor, but do not include the working papers prepared by client for the auditor.B. the auditor, even including those prepared by client for auditor.C. the client.D. the auditor and client jointly.

111.Before applying principal substantive tests to the details of asset and liability accounts at an interim date, the auditor shouldA. assess the difficulty in controlling incremental audit risk.B. investigate significant fluctuations that have occurred in the asset and liability accounts

since the previous balance-sheet date.C. select only those accounts which can effectively be sampled during year-end audit work.D. consider the tests of controls that must be applied at the balance-sheet date to extend the

audit conclusions reached at the interim date.

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112.An auditor should examine minutes of the board of directors’ meetings.A. through the date of his report.B. through the date of the financial statements.C. on a test basis.D. only at the beginning of the audit.

113.Which of the following is a basic tool used by the auditor to control the audit work and review the audit progress?A. Time and expense summary. C. Progress flowchartB. Engagement letter. D. Audit program.

114.Audit programs are modified to suit the circumstances on particular engagements. A complete audit program for an engagement generally should be developedA. prior to beginning the actual audit work.B. after the auditor has completed an evaluation of the existing internal accounting control.C. after reviewing the client’s accounting records and procedures.D. when the audit engagement letter is prepared.

115.The current file of the auditor’s working papers generally should includeA. a flowchart of the internal controls C. a copy of the financial statementsB. organization charts D. copies of bond and note indentures

116.Which of the following eliminates voluminous details from the auditor’s working trial balance by classifying and summarizing similar or related items?A. Account analyses. C. Control accounts.B. Supporting schedules D. Lead schedules

117.The estimate for sampling error results because the auditor has sampled only a portion of the population. Sampling error represents theA. maximum misstatements in the audited accounts.B. minimum misstatements in the audited accounts.C. maximum misstatements in accounts not audited.D. minimum misstatements in accounts not audited.

118.Tracing copies of sales invoices to shipping documents will provide evidence that allA. Shipments to customers were recorded as receivables.B. Billed sales were shipped.C. Debits to the subsidiary accounts receivable ledger are for sales shipped.D. Shipments to customers were billed.

119.To gather audit evidence about the proper credit approval of sales, the auditor would select a sample of documents from the population represented by theA. Customer order file C. Bill of lading file.B. Subsidiary customers’ accounts ledger D. Sales invoice file.

120.A sales cutoff test of billings complements tests ofA. Sales returns C. Cash.B. Accounts receivable D. Sales allowances.

121.Which of the following is the best argument against the use of negative accounts receivable confirmations?A. The cost-per-response is excessively high.B. There is no way of knowing if the intended recipients received them.C. Recipients are likely to feel that in reality the confirmation is a subtle request for payment.D. The inference drawn from receiving no reply may not be correct.

122.As one of the year-end audit procedures, the auditor instructed the client’s personnel to prepare a standard bank confirmation request for a bank account that had been closed during the year. After the client’s treasurer had signed the request, it was mailed by the assistant treasurer. What is the major flaw in this audit procedure?A. The confirmation request was signed by the treasurer.B. Sending the request was meaningless because the account was closed before the year-

end.C. The request was mailed by the assistant treasurer.D. The CPA did not sign the confirmation request before it was mailed.

123.Customers with substantial due balances have failed to reply after second requests had been mailed to them directly. Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate?A. Examine shipping documents.B. Review cash collections during the year being audited.C. Intensify the study of internal controls for receivables.D. Increase the balance in the accounts receivable allowance account.

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124.Which of the following procedures relating to the audit of accounts payable could the auditor delegate entirely to the client’s employees?A. Test footings in the accounts payable ledger.B. Reconcile unpaid invoices to vendors’ statements.C. Prepare a schedule of accounts payable.D. Mail confirmations for selected account balances.

125.Negative confirmation of accounts receivable is less effective than positive confirmation of accounts receivable becauseA. A majority of recipients are usually unwilling to respond objectively.B. Some recipients may report incorrect balances that require extensive follow-up.C. The auditor cannot infer that all nonrespondents have verified the account information.D. Negative confirmations do not produce evidence that is statistically quantifiable.

126.In order to efficiently establish the correctness of the accounts payable cutoff, the auditor will be most likely toA. Coordinate cutoff tests with physical inventory observation.B. Compare cutoff reports with purchase orders.C. Compare vendors’ invoices with vendors’ statements.D. Coordinate mailing of confirmations with cutoff tests.

127.Which of the following is incorrect about the management’s responsibility to make an assessment of an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?A. In assessing whether the going concern assumption is appropriate, the management

takes into account all available information for the foreseeable future, which should be at least twelve months from the balance sheet date.

B. Though there is a history of profitable operations and a ready access to financial resources, management must make its assessment with detailed analysis.

C. Management’s assessment of the going concern assumption involves making a judgment, at a particular point of time, about the future outcomes of events or conditions which are inherently uncertain.

D. Management should make explicit assessment of its ability to continue as a going-concern entity.

128.Which of the following least likely is an action that may mitigate an entity’s difficulty to continue as a going concern?A. Increased cash dividends.B. Retirement of outstanding capital stock in order to improve earnings per share.C. Retirement of long-term debt in order to improve profitability.D. Disposal of property in a sale-leaseback arrangement.

129.Which of the following least likely indicate a potential going-concern problem of an entity?A. Historical negative operating cash flows.B. Failure to comply with loan covenants.C. Refinancing of large short-term obligation with a medium-term loan.D. Pending regulatory proceedings against the entity.

130.Which of the following is correct about the auditor’s responsibility with respect to the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?A. The auditor is responsible to make an assessment of the entity’s ability to continue as a

going concernB. The auditor’s responsibility is to consider the appropriateness of the management’s use of

the going concern assumption in the preparation of the financial statements.C. The auditor can predict future events or conditions that may cause an entity to cease to

continue as a going concern.D. The auditor may allow the management to make an assessment of its ability to continue

as a going concern if the management is believed to be objective in doing such an assessment.

131.In evaluating management’s assessment of the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern, he should consider the following, except:A. The independence of the management.B. The process that the management has followed to make its assessment.C. The assumptions on which the assessment is based and management’s plan for future

action.D. Whether the assessment has taken into account all relevant information of which the

auditor is aware of as a result of the audit procedures.

132.Which of the following is an appropriate procedure to test for an indication of events or conditions that cast significant doubt on the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern beyond the period assessed by management?A. Inspection. C. InquiryB. Observing D. Analysis

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133.The management’s assessment of those events that may cast significant doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern should be at leastA. Two years from the balance sheet date.B. Two years from the date of the audit report.C. One year from the balance sheet date.D. One year from the date of the audit report.

134.When events or conditions have been identified to cast significant doubt on the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern, the auditor shouldA. Consider reassessing control risk at the maximum.B. Consider the issuance of disclaimer of opinion due to scope limitation.C. Review management plans for future actions based on its going-concern assessments.D. Report the matter to the board of directors and stockholders.

135.Which of the following statements that relate to subsequent events is inappropriately described?A. The auditor is expected to conduct a continuing review of all matters to which previously

applied procedures have provided satisfactory conclusions.B. The auditor should consider the effect of subsequent events on the financial statements

and on the auditor’s report.C. The procedures to identify events that may require adjustment of, or disclosure in the

financial statements would be performed as near as practicable to the date of the auditor’s report.

D. The procedures that are designed to obtain sufficiently appropriate audit evidence that all events up to the date of the audit report that may require adjustment of, or disclosure in, the financial statements are in addition to routine procedures which may be applied to specific transactions.

136.When, after the financial statements have been issued, the auditor becomes aware of a fact that existed at the date of the auditor’s report, the auditor should do the following, except:A. Consider whether the financial statements need revisions.B. Discuss the matter with management.C. Take the action appropriate in the circumstance.D. Inform those users who are currently relying on the financial statements.

137.Which of the following is a correct response of the auditor when he lowers the acceptable level of detection risk?

Substantive Testing ProceduresNature Timing Amount

A. Less effective Year-end More extensiveB. Less effective Interim Less effectiveC. More extensive Year-end More extensiveD. More extensive Year-end Less effective

138.Which of the following auditing procedures is ordinarily performed last?A. Reading of the minutes of the director’s meetings.B. Confirming accounts payable.C. Obtaining a management representation letter.D. Testing of the purchasing function.

139.If no material differences are found using analytical procedures and the auditor concludes that differences should not have occurred.A. it will be necessary to increase the tests of balances.B. other tests may be reduced.C. it will be necessary to increase the tests of transactions.D. it will not be necessary to perform tests of balances.

140.A representation letter issued by a clientA. Is essential for the preparation of the audit program.B. Is a substitute for testing.C. Does not reduce the auditor’s responsibility.D. Reduces the auditor’s responsibility only to the extent it is relied upon.

141.After an auditor has issued an audit report on a nonpublic entity, there is no obligation to make any further audit tests or inquiries with respect to the audited financial statements covered by that report unlessA. New information comes to the auditor’s attention concerning an event that occurred prior

to the date of the auditor’s report that may have affected the auditor’s report.B. Material adverse events occur after the date of the report.C. Final determination or resolution was made on matters that had resulted in a qualification

in the auditor’s report.D. Final determination or resolution was made of a contingency that had been disclosed.

142.The auditor’s report may be appropriately addressed to the client’s:A. Board of directors and stockholdersB. Board of directors and audit committee

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C. Audit committee and stockholdersD. Board of directors, audit committee and stockholders

143.Which of the following is explicitly included in the scope paragraph of the auditor’s report?A. Financial reporting frameworkB. Generally accepted accounting principlesC. Generally accepted auditing standardsD. Auditing procedures

144.When the auditor concludes that the financial statements are presented fairly in all material respects, in accordance with the identified financial reporting framework, he should issue:A. Standard unqualified opinionB. Qualified opinionC. Disclaimer of opinionD. Unqualified opinion with explanatory paragraph

145.The primary concern in measuring materiality when a client has failed to follow GAAP is usuallyA. the total peso error in the accounts involved, compared with some base.B. measurability of the peso error.C. the nature of the item in error.D. whether it can materially affect some future period.

146.When the client fails to make adequate disclosure in the body of the statements or in the related footnotes, it is the responsibility of the auditor toA. inform the reader that disclosure is not adequate, and to issue a qualified or an adverse

opinion.B. inform the reader that disclosure is not adequate, and to issue an unqualified or qualified

opinion.C. present the information in the audit report and to issue a qualified or an adverse opinion.D. present the information in the audit report and issue an unqualified or qualified opinion.

147.When an auditor expresses an opinion other than unqualified opinion, a clear description of all substantive reasons for the modification of the opinion should be included in the report. This explanation should be presented:A. As a separate paragraph that precedes the opinion paragraph of the audit report.B. As a separate paragraph, preferably after the opinion paragraph, of the audit report.C. In the opinion paragraphD. As a separate paragraph in the notes to financial statements.

148.Where a limitation on the scope of the auditor’s work requires modification of an unqualified opinion, the auditor’s report should describe the limitation and:A. Indicate that the auditor is no longer responsible to his opinion.B. Indicate the possible adjustments to the financial statements that might have been

determined to be necessary had the limitation not existed.C. Refer the users to the particular note to financial statements that adequately discusses the

limitationD. Indicate that the auditor is not satisfied of the results of the alternative procedures that he

had performed.

149.Which of the following is least considered a scope limitation in an audit engagement?A. The timing of auditor’s appointment is too late which results to inability of the auditor to

perform prescribed procedures.B. The entity’s accounting records are inadequate.C. The auditor is unable to carry out an audit procedure believed to be desirable.D. The audit engagement requires an audit of balance sheet only.

150.Which of the following disagreements with management is not a possible reason for an auditor to issue an adverse opinion?A. Acceptability of accounting policies.B. Method of application of accounting policies.C. Adequacy of disclosures in the financial statements.D. The need to observe physical inventory count

151.When the client does not disclose restrictions of future cash dividends and the CPA discloses the omitted information in the separate paragraph of the audit report, the opinion should be:A. Unqualified C. AdverseB. Qualified D. Disclaimer of opinion

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152.The audit report of the incoming auditor least likely include an indicationA. That the financial statements of the prior period were audited by another CPA.B. The type of report issued by the predecessor auditor.C. The reason why there was a change of auditor.D. The date of the predecessor auditor’s report.

153.If the auditor believes that required disclosures are omitted from the financial statements, the auditor should decide between issuingA. A qualified opinion or an adverse opinion.B. A disclaimer of opinion or a qualified opinion.C. An adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.D. An unqualified opinion or a qualified opinion.

154.When a CPA has concluded that action should be taken to prevent future reliance on his report, he shouldA. advise his client to make appropriate disclosure of the newly discovered facts and their

impact on the financial statements to persons who are known to be currently relying or who are likely to rely on the financial statements and the related auditor’s report.

B. recall the financial statements and issue revised statements and include an appropriate opinion.

C. advise the client and others not to rely on the financial statements and make appropriate disclosure of the correction in the statements of a subsequent period.

D. recall the financial statements and issue a disclaimer of opinion which should generally be followed by revised statements and a qualified opinion.

155.When a fact, that existed before the date of the report is discovered and the management revises previously issued audited financial statements, the following are appropriate except:A. A new auditor’s report should include an emphasis of a matter paragraph that refers to a

note to financial statements that discusses the reason for the revision of the financial statements and to the earlier report issued by the auditor.

B. The new auditor’s report should contain the original date.C. The performance of the procedures that are designed to obtain sufficient evidence as to

subsequent events would ordinarily be extended to the date the revised financial statements are approved by the entity’s management.

D. The auditor is permitted to restrict the audit procedures regarding the financial statements to the effects of the subsequent event that necessitated the revision.

156.A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unqualified opinion has been issued is theA. inherent risk C. statistical risk.

B. acceptable risk D. financial risk.

157.Which of the following procedures is not included in a review engagement on a nonpublic entity?A. Inquiries of management.B. Inquiries regarding events subsequent to the balance sheet date.C. Any procedures designed to identify relationships among data that appear to be unusual.D. A study and evaluation of internal control structure.

158.An accountant who reviews the financial statements of a nonpublic entity should issue a report stating that a reviewA. is substantially less in scope than an auditB. provides negative assurance that the internal control structure is functioning as designed.C. provides only limited assurance that the financial statements are fairly presented.D. is substantially more in scope than a compilation.

159.When a change in the type of engagement from higher to lower level of assurance is reasonably justified, the report based on the revised engagementA. Should contain a separate paragraph that refers to the original engagementB. Should always refer to any procedures that may have been performed in the original

engagementC. Should qualify the opinion due to scope limitationD. Omits reference to the original engagement

160.When an accountant performs more than one level of service concerning the financial statements of a nonpublic entity, the accountant generally should issue the report that is appropriate forA. the lowest level of service rendered. C. a compilation engagement.B. the highest level of service rendered. D. a review engagement.

161.An accountant may accept an engagement to apply agreed-upon procedures to prospective financial statements provided thatA. distribution of the report is to be restricted to the specified users involved.B. the prospective financial statements are also examined.C. responsibility for the adequacy of the procedures performed is taken by the accountant.D. negative assurance is expressed on the prospective financial statements taken as a

whole.

162.Which of the following is least considered if the auditor has to determine whether specialized CIS skills are needed in an audit?

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A. The auditor needs to obtain a sufficient understanding of the accounting and internal control system affected by the CIS environment.

B. The auditor needs to determine the effect of the CIS environment on the assessment of overall risk and of risk at the account balance and class of transactions level.

C. The need of the auditor to make analytical procedures during the completion stage of audit.

D. Design and perform appropriate tests of controls and substantive procedures.

163.The nature of the risks and the internal characteristics in CIS environment that the auditors are mostly concerned include the following except:A. Lack of segregation of functionsB. Cost-benefit ratioC. Lack of transaction trailsD. Dependence of other control over computer processing

164.Which of the following significance and complexity of the CIS activities should an auditor least understand?A. The organizational structure of the client’s CIS activities.B. Lack of transaction trailsC. The significance and complexity of computer processing in each significant accounting

application.D. The use of software packages instead of customized software.

165.Which of the following least likely indicates a complexity of computer processing?A. The system generates a daily exception report.B. Transactions are exchanged electronically with other organizations without manual review

of their propriety.C. The volume of the transactions is such that users would find it difficulty to identify and

correct errors in processing.D. The computer automatically generates material transactions or entries directly to another

applications.

166.Which of the following is an inherent characteristic of software package?A. They are typically used without modifications of the programs.B. The programs are tailored-made according to the specific needs of the user.C. They are developed by software manufacturer according to a particular user’s

specifications.D. It takes a longer time of implementation.

167.The disadvantages of using personal computers include:A. They are relatively expensive

B. They are easily transportableC. They are easy to operateD. The operating system is less comprehensive

168.Which of the following best protects critical and sensitive information from unauthorized access in a personal computer environment?A. The use of secret file names and hiding the files.B. Using anti-virus software programs.C. Segregating data into files organized under separate file directories.D. Keeping of back up copies offsite.

169.The test-data method is used by auditors to test theA. Accuracy of input data.B. Validity of the output.C. Procedures contained within the program.D. Normalcy of distribution of test data.

170.Which of the following is true of generalized audit software?A. They can be used only in auditing on-line computer systems.B. They can be used on any computer without modification.C. They each have their own characteristics, which the auditor must carefully consider before

using in a given audit situationD. They enable the auditor to perform all manual compliance test procedures less

expensively.

171. Which of the following is likely to be of least importance to an auditor when assessing control risk in a company that processes data by computer?A. The segregation of duties within the computer department.B. The control over source documents.C. The documentation maintained for accounting applications.D. The cost-benefit ratio of data processing operations.

172.In considering a client’s internal control structure in a computer environment, the auditor will encounter general controls and application controls. Which of the following is an application control?A. Organization charts C. Hash total.B. Systems flowcharts D. Control over program changes

173.Hitech, Inc., has changed from a conventional to a computerized payroll clock card system. Factory employees now record time in and out with magnetic cards, and the computer system automatically updates all payroll records. Because of this change,

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A. The auditor must audit through the computer.B. Internal control has improved.C. Part of the audit trail has been lost.D. The potential for payroll-related fraud has been diminished.

174.Controls which are designed to assure that the information processed by the computer is valid, complete, and accurate are calledA. input controls. C. output controls.B. Processing controls D. General controls

175.The auditor’s objective to determine whether the client’s computer program can correctly handle valid and invalid transactions as they arise is accomplished through theA. test data approach C. microcomputer-aided auditing approachB. generalized audit software approach D. generally accepted auditing standards

176.The audit approach in which the auditor runs his or her own program on a controlled basis in order to verify the client’s data recorded in a machine language isA. the test data approach.B. the generalized audit software approach.C. the microcomputer-aided auditing approach.D. called auditing around the computer.

177.Internal control is ineffective when computer personnelA. participate in computer software acquisition decisions.B. design documentation for computerized systems.C. originate changes in master files.D. provide physical security for program files.

178.An auditor’s investigation of a company’s electronic data processing control procedures has disclosed the following four circumstances. Indicate which circumstance constitutes a weakness in internal control.A. Machine operators do not have access to the complete run manual.B. Machine operators are closely supervised by programmers.C. Programmers do not have the authorization to operate equipment.D. Only one generation of back-up files is stored in an off-premises location.

179.A collection of files that is shared and used by a number of different users:A. Database C. Permanent fileB. Archive file D. Flat file

180.They are control procedures that provide reasonable assurance that all transactions are authorized and recorded, and are processed completely, accurately and on a timely basis.A. General controls C. Hardware controlsB. Application controls D. Software controls

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Answer Key1. 31. 61. 91. 121. 151. 2. 32. 62. 92. 122. 152. 3. 33. 63. 93. 123. 153. 4. 34. 64. 94. 124. 154. 5. 35. 65. 95. 125. 155. 6. 36. 66. 96. 126. 156. 7. 37. 67. 97. 127. 157. 8. 38. 68. 98. 128. 158. 9. 39. 69. 99. 129. 159. 10. 40. 70. 100. 130. 160. 11. 41. 71. 101. 131. 161. 12. 42. 72. 102. 132. 162. 13. 43. 73. 103. 133. 163. 14. 44. 74. 104. 134. 164. 15. 45. 75. 105. 135. 165. 16. 46. 76. 106. 136. 166. 17. 47. 77. 107. 137. 167. 18. 48. 78. 108. 138. 168. 19. 49. 79. 109. 139. 169. 20. 50. 80. 110. 140. 170. 21. 51. 81. 111. 141. 171. 22. 52. 82. 112. 142. 172. 23. 53. 83. 113. 143. 173. 24. 54. 84. 114. 144. 174. 25. 55. 85. 115. 145. 175. 26. 56. 86. 116. 146. 176. 27. 57. 87. 117. 147. 177. 28. 58. 88. 118. 148. 178. 29. 59. 89. 119. 149. 179. 30. 60. 90. 120. 150. 180.

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