assignment pack - u.s. career...
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AssignmentPack
e0204200AS03A-B4
Pharmacy TechnicianPack 3
This Assignment Pack contains the Quizzes you will need to complete your course. The Lessons will tell you when to complete each Quiz. If you have not yet accessed your Lessons, you can download your Electronic Lesson Book or order a printed copy from the Student Site, www.uscareerinstitute.edu. If you have questions, please contact Student Services at 1-800-347-7899.
No part of this document may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, for any purpose, without the express written permission of U.S. Career Institute.
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For more inFormation contact:
U.S. Career InstituteFort Collins, CO 80525
www.uscareerinstitute.edu
Assignment Pack 3
Instructions for Quizzes1. Be sure you’ve mastered the Lessons and Practice Exercises that this Quiz covers.2. Mark your answers on the Quiz, and make sure to check your answers by reviewing the Lessons.3. When you’re finished, decide how you will submit your answers and then follow the correct
instructions below. You may only submit your answers for a Quiz once. Important: When submitting your Quiz, be sure to include your name, address, student ID number and course code. Incomplete information may result in your Quiz not being processed.
Scanner Quiz InstructionsFor a Quiz that contains only multiple-choice questions, please select the method of submission:
● Online: Submit your answers online and receive your grade immediately by submitting them to the student site, www.uscareerinstitute.edu.
● Phone: Call the Quiz Line at 1-877-599-5857 and give your answers over the phone to receive your grade immediately.
● Mail or Fax: Scanner Answer Sheets and addressed envelopes are included with each print Assignment Pack. Transfer your Quiz answers to the Scanner Answer Sheet, using only blue or black ink. Mail your Scanner Answer Sheet using the enclosed envelope, or fax the form to 1-877-599-5863.
Instructor-Graded Quiz InstructionsFor the quickest response to instructor-graded Quizzes, simply e-mail your completed Quiz as an attachment to your instructor at [email protected]. In most cases, you will receive the graded Quiz back via e-mail within three business days.
To ensure your instructor can grade your Quiz electronically, please create documents using one of the following preferred software programs: Microsoft® Word, Microsoft® Works or WordPerfect®. Make sure to include your name, student ID, course code and Quiz number in the subject line of your e-mail. Include your address in the e-mail. Finally, please note that these instructions only apply to handwritten Quizzes. Thank you and good luck!
For a Quiz that contains Instructor-graded questions, please select the method of submission:
● Online: Submit your answers online for an instructor to review and grade by submitting them to the student site, www.uscareerinstitute.edu.
● Mail or Fax: Scanner Answer Sheets and addressed envelopes are included with each print Assignment Pack. Transfer your Quiz answers to the Answer Sheet, using only blue or black ink. Mail your Cover Sheet and Answer Sheet using the enclosed envelope, or fax the form to 1-877-599-5863.
After you have submitted your Quiz answers, you may begin the next lesson. You do not need to wait for your Quiz results to move on to the next lesson!
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Assignment Pack 3
Quiz 14: Introduction to Pharmacy Math and Measurement Systems
This is an Instructor-graded Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack.
For questions 1 through 3, indicate the Arabic number values for these Roman numerals. Each question is worth 1 point.
1. ss = _____
2. cdxlv = _____
3. CLIV = _____
For questions 4 and 5, use upper or lower-case letters to indicate the Roman numeral values for these Arabic numbers. Each question is worth 1 point.
4. 48 = _____
5. 63 = _____
For questions 6 and 7, fill in the blanks for the following questions. Each question is worth 1 point.
6. The top of a fraction is called the _____; the bottom is called the _____.
7. An improper fraction always has a value that is _____ than one and can also be represented as a(n) _____ number.
For questions 8 through 12, solve the problems and reduce them to their lowest terms. Each question is worth 2 points.
8. 15 1/4 + 1 1/2 + 3/20 = _____
9. 5 1/2 - 2/3 = _____
10. 5 7/8 x 4/5 = _____
11. 7/12 ÷ 1/5 = _____
12. 2/3 + 1/6 x 1/7 = _____ 1/5 – 1/10
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For questions 13 through 16, fill in the blanks. Each question is worth 1 point.
13. True or False: If a decimal number has a value less than one you must always put a zero to the left of the decimal point. _____
14. True or False: If a decimal number has a value greater than one, you must always put a decimal point and a zero at the end of it. _____
15. Select the decimal number that is expressed correctly. _____a. 0.07b. .07
16. Select the decimal number that is expressed correctly. _____a. 17b. 17.0
For questions 17 through 22, solve the following problems. Do not round your answers. Each question is worth 2 points.
17. 0.39 + 0.096 + 0.0063 = _____
18. 2.51 – 0.333 = _____
19. 0.004 x 0.08 = _____
20. 54.7 x 25.5 = _____
21. 88.2 ÷ 0.294 = _____
22. 68.2 ÷ 2000 = _____
For questions 23 through 27, answer the following questions. Each question is worth 2 points.
23. Round 1.923 to the nearest 1/10. _____
24. Round 0.3167 to the nearest 1/1000. _____
25. Express this ratio as a fraction in lowest terms: 3 : 66 _____
26. How many mg of nitroglycerin are in 60 tablets, if each tablet contains 10 mg of nitroglycerin?
27. The average aspirin tablet contains 5 grains of acetyl salicylic acid [ASA). How many gr of ASA are in a 120-tablet bottle of aspirin?
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Assignment Pack 3
For questions 28 through 30, convert the fractions to percentages. Each question is worth 2 points.
28. 1/16 = _____
29. 5/4 = _____
30. 7/25 = _____
For questions 31 and 32, convert the percentages to decimal numbers. Do not round. Each question is worth 2 points.
31. 37.9% = _____
32. 451.83% = _____
For questions 33 through 35, verify that the ratios in each proportion are equal using the product of the means and extremes. Then express each ratio as a percentage. Each question is worth 2 points.
33. 4/5 = 8/10
34. 0.25 = 1/4
35. 1 : 5 = 4 : 20
For questions 36 through 38, solve the following problems. Each question is worth 2 points.
36. A patient needs to receive 35 mg of amoxicillin orally. The drug is available in a strength of 100 mg/tsp. How many tsp of the drug must the patient swallow to receive the correct dosage?
37. The ratio of zinc oxide to ointment is 1:10. You are supposed to make up 300 g of ointment. How much zinc oxide do you need to use? Use the product of the means and extremes to support your answer.
38. Solve for x in this problem.
x + 3 - x/2 = x 4
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39. Fill in this metric measurement table with the missing prefix, meaning and abbreviation. This question is worth 1.5 points.
Prefix Meaning Abbreviationmicro
1/1,000centideca
1001,000
For questions 40 through 45, write the correct values for the metric measurements. Do not round. Each question is worth 1.5 points.
40. 3,380 mg = _____ kg
41. 0.002087 kg = _____ mcg
42. 0.0698 L = _____ mL
43. 355.56 mL = _____ L
44. 0.002289 L = _____ mcL
45. 387 cm = _____ mm
For questions 46 through 48, fill in the correct abbreviation. Each question is worth 1.5 points.
46. Grain (apothecary weight) _____
47. Dram (apothecary weight or volume) _____
48. Drop (household volume) _____
For questions 49 through 51, fill in the correct equivalencies for household measures. Each question is worth 1.5 points.
49. 1 tbs = _____ tsp
50. 1 oz = _____ tbs
51. 1 c = _____ oz
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For questions 52 through 54, answer the questions as directed. Each question is worth 1.5 points.
52. If you have two tsp of a liquid, how many milliliters do you have?
53. How many 30 mg codeine capsules can be prepared from 0.0009 kg of codeine?
54. A pharmacy buys 3 kg of flea powder and repackages it into “shaker” cans that each hold 90 g of powder. How many cans can be completely filled with powder?
For questions 55 and 56, choose the best answer from the choices provided. Each question is worth 1.5 points.
55. You need to pour 180 mL of cough syrup into a bottle. Select the size bottle below that the syrup will best fit into. a. 2 ozb. 4 ozc. 6 ozd. 8 oz
56. Select the weight below that best approximates 325 mg. a. 2 grb. 5 grc. 10 grd. 1/2 gr
For questions 57 through 60, write your answers in the space provided. Each question is worth 2 points.
57. A factory produces 5,000,000 Ibuprofen tablets to fill an order. The bottle chosen for packaging holds 250 tablets. If the active ingredient in each tablet is 200 mg of Ibuprofen, how much Ibuprofen must the factory use to fill this order? Express your answer in pounds.
58. If a car gets 28 miles per gallon, how many liters of gas will the car need for a 210-mile trip? Round your answer to the nearest 1/10 of a liter. Hint: 1 gallon = 3.84 L
59. How much do three pounds of sulfur cost if you purchase 100 kg of sulfur for $850.00?
60. The recommended dosage for a medication is 5 mg for every 10 kg of a patient’s body weight, taken every 12 hours. How much medication will a patient receive a day if she weighs 135 pounds? Round your answer to the nearest whole number.
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1. Fill in your student ID and your course code below.
STUDENT ID NUMBER COURSE CODE
2. Be sure your name and address are filled in below.3. Transfer your answers to this cover sheet.
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U.S. Career Institute2001 Lowe StreetFort Collins, CO 80525
PT-02
Grade: ___________
Pharmacy TechnicianQuiz 14
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39. Prefix Meaning Abbreviation
micro1/1,000
centideca
1001,000
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Assignment Pack 3
Quiz 15: Antimicrobial AgentsThis is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack.
For questions 1 through 25, choose the best answer from the choices provided. Each question is worth 4 points.
1. Bacteria are classified by shapes such as _____. a. spirilla b. rotund c. bacilli d. a and c
2. Which of the following is true about latent viruses? a. They show no symptoms.b. They are weak.c. They do not cause sickness.d. Both b and c
3. A pathogenic microorganism that causes infection is also called a(n) _____.a. infectious cellb. causative agentc. white blood celld. antibiotic
4. If they’re made from natural substances, these anti-infective drugs are called _____.a. antimicrobialsb. antibioticsc. both a and bd. neither a nor b
5. What pharmacological properties do doctors think about first when they’re determining treatment for anti-infective therapy? a. Whether or not the drug can reach the infected areab. Whether or not the drug can stay concentrated enough to fight the infectionc. Shape and sized. Both a and b
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6. An antimicrobial’s spectrum of activity refers to _____.a. how effective the drug is against known causative agentsb. how much of a drug it will take to fight an infectionc. white blood cell countd. both b and c
7. Antibiotic use is classified as _____.a. empiricalb. demonstrativec. prophylacticd. both a and c
8. Ototoxicity refers to _____.a. liver damageb. swelling of the anklesc. ear damage that can include hearing lossd. both a and b
9. _____ was the first antibiotic approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for treating pneumonia.a. Chloranmphenicolb. Probenecidc. Amoxicillin/Clavulanate Potassiumd. Tetracycline
10. Susceptible hosts include _____.a. elderly patients and childrenb. severity of infectionc. someone whose immune system isn’t able to fight an infectiond. both a and c
11. _____ are single-celled organisms that rely on their host for food.a. Protozoab. Fungic. Bacteriad. Viruses
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Assignment Pack 3
12. _____ is not a considered a protozoal infection. a. Gastroenteritisb. Malariac. Vaginal infectiond. Athlete’s foot
13. What could happen if either the wrong drug is prescribed to a patient with an infection or the right anti-infective is prescribed in the wrong dosage? a. Microbial resistanceb. The patient will become asymptomatic.c. The patient’s fever will spike.d. Microbial invasion
14. Which of the following describes prophylactic therapy? a. A doctor prescribes an antibiotic based on evidence collected at the infection site
although the actual cause of the infection isn’t known.b. An antibiotic is prescribed after the laboratory has identified the causative agent.c. An antibiotic is prescribed as a preventive measure to high-risk groups with lowered
immune systems (for instance, people with cancer, AIDS and surgery patients) even if they don’t have a bacterial infection at the time.
d. Both a and b
15. What is the goal of anti-infective therapy? a. To contribute to the chain of infectionb. Destroy or suppress the causative agentc. Create a super infectiond. To treat drug interactions
16. If a patient if suffering from anaphylactic shock, which of the following drugs were they most likely prescribed and allergic to? a. Penicillinb. Tetracyclinec. Warfarind. Wellbutrin
17. What does prothrombin time refer to? a. Hardening of arteriesb. A blood clot in the legc. A blood clot in the lungd. How long it takes for a patient’s blood to clot
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18. _____ is a synthetic antitubercular drug that is water based and prescribed much less than isoniazid.a. Zanamivirb. Oseltamivir phosphatec. Ethambutold. Rifampin
19. _____ can slow the onset of the illness and improve the survival rates of AIDS patients therapy.a. Prophylactic therapyb. Highly active antiretroviral therapy, also referred to as HAARTc. Empirical therapyd. Demonstrative therapy
20. Along with HIV, _____ is also used to treat influenza A and for treating babies with viral pneumonia.a. Ribavirinb. Ketoconazolec. Phenytoind. Aspirin
21. A patient is prescribed Econazole, an antifungal applied to the skin to treat fungal infections. How long until this medicine begins to produce results? a. Two daysb. Two monthsc. Two yearsd. Two weeks
22. This broad-spectrum antifungal is effective against most human fungal infections. _____ is especially useful when treating patients with compromised immune systems.a. Ketoconazoleb. Oseltamivir Phosphatec. Amphotericin Bd. Undecylenic acid
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Assignment Pack 3
23. This antifungal binds to keratin located in the skin. _____ works well against strains of Epidermophyton, Trichophyton and Microsporum.a. Griseofulvinb. Risperidonec. Amphotericin Bd. Phenytoin
24. _____ are a highly toxic category of antibacterial agents. They were introduced 50 years ago to treat tuberculosis and meningitis.a. Macrolidesb. Aminoglycosidesc. Fluoroquinolonesd. Cephalosporins
25. _____ is a life-threatening side effect that includes symptoms such nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.a. Bloatb. Goutc. Hyperglycemiad. Anaphylaxis
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Quiz 16: Antineoplastic AgentsThis is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack.
For questions 1 through 25, choose the best answer from the choices provided. Each question is worth 4 points.
1. Alkylating agents work during which two cell phases? a. G1 and anaphaseb. G2 and telophasec. G0 and prophased. S1 and metaphase
2. A prescription from a doctor is hard to read. It seems to say 80 mg/day of Deltasone. You double check, because this dosage seems too _____.a. lowb. highc. frequentd. infrequent
3. _____ is a drug that should not be taken with pentostatin because of risk of pulmonary toxicity.a. Fluorouracilb. Testolactonec. Topotecand. Fludarabine
4. Which of the following is NOT a vascular access device? a. PICCb. TCVCc. Port-A-Cathd. ARB
5. A spilled cytotoxic agent that touches the skin of a pharmacy technician can cause _____.a. cancerb. dizziness, nausea, headache and dermatitisc. vomiting, fever, rashd. loss of consciousness
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6. ______ is not a common side effect of antineoplastic agents.a. Nausea, vomitingb. Decreased immunityc. Skin rashd. Alopecia
7. Antimetabolites work during which cell phase? a. S1, DNA synthesisb. G2, RNA synthesisc. Telophased. Anaphase
8. Cisplatin interacts with which of the following? a. Anti-inflammatoriesb. Blood pressure medicationc. Aluminumd. Aspirin-containing drugs
9. 5-FU refers to which cytotoxin? a. Fluorouracilb. Fludarabinec. Fluoxymesteroned. Estramustine
10. A prescription from a doctor is hard to read. It seems to say 50 mg 3 x per week of Platinol. You double check, because this dosage seems too _____.a. lowb. high c. frequentd. infrequent
11. The trade name for Chlorambucil is _____.a. Cytoxanb. Leukeranc. Arimidexd. Teslac
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12. Which class of hormonal agents interacts with oral anticoagulants? a. Antiandrogensb. Androgensc. Corticosteroidsd. Antiestrogen
13. Which antimetabolite blocks folic acid absorption in cells? a. Mercaptopurineb. Fluorouracilc. Fludarabined. Methotrexate
14. Which of the following antineoplastic agents is not used to treat lymphocytic leukemia? a. Fludarabineb. Chlorambucilc. Cyclophosphamided. Megestrol
15. Which is not a trade name for a mitotic inhibitor? a. Vumonb. Taxolc. Adrucild. Oncovin
16. _____ is/are not known to interact with antineoplastic agents.a. Immunizationsb. Alcoholc. Caffeined. Anti-gout medicines
17. _____ is not a trade name for an antitumor antibiotic.a. Mutamycinb. Ethrymicinc. Blenoxaned. Cerubidine
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18. _____ is not known to be cardiotoxic.a. Doxorubicinb. Dactinomycinc. Testolactoned. Daunorubicin
19. Which is not a trade name for an alkylating agent? a. Mustargenb. Teslacc. Alkerand. Paraplatin
20. Which class of hormonal agents may cause blood clots? a. Estrogensb. Antiandrogensc. Progestinsd. Antiestrogen
21. _____ is the trade name for mercaptopurine.a. Efudexb. Purinetholc. Emcytd. Mutamycin
22. An assistant at a doctor’s office calls in a prescription of Arimidex of 18 mg/day. You question her, because it seems too _____.a. lowb. highc. frequentd. infrequent
23. Which hormonal agents do not have any known drug interactions? a. Antiandrogensb. Gonadotropinsc. Antiestrogensd. Androgens
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24. _____ is the only trade-name drug that is not an alkylating agent.a. Ifexb. Leukeranc. Cytoxand. Amethopterin
25. _____ is the only trade-name drug that is not a hormonal agent.a. Danocrineb. Halotestinc. Megaced. Fludara
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Assignment Pack 3
Quiz 17: Respiratory and Allergy DrugsThis is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack.
For questions 1 through 35, choose the best answer from the choices provided. Each question is worth 2.86 points.
1. An antigen is a foreign substance that stimulates the body to create _____.a. antibodiesb. antihistaminec. leukocytes (white blood cells)d. leukotriene antagonists
2. An allergic reaction often causes the release of _____.a. histamineb. antihistaminec. pollend. corticosteroids
3. Which of these substances does NOT cause allergic rhinitis? a. Dustb. Bee stingc. Animal danderd. Pollen
4. Inflammation of the nasal membranes is known as _____.a. asthmab. hay feverc. bronchitisd. allergic rhinitis
5. Which symptom is NOT a symptom of anaphylactic shock? a. Abdominal crampingb. Severe nose bleedc. Vomiting and diarrhead. Difficulty breathing
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6. Inflammation of the airways in the respiratory system, along with bronchiole contraction and mucous secretion is known as _____.a. asthmab. bronchitisc. emphysemad. cystic fibrosis
7. The trade name for the antihistamine fexofenadine is _____.a. Zyrtecb. Sudafedc. Zantacd. Allegra
8. Which type of drug blocks histamine receptor sites? a. Decongestantb. Expectorantc. Bronchodilatord. Antihistamine
9. Zyrtec is the trade name for _____.a. fexofenadineb. pseudoephedrinec. cetirizined. Benadryl
10. An antitussive suppresses _____.a. coughingb. sneezingc. runny nosed. itchy eyes
11. Which cough suppressant is an opioid suppressant? a. Benylin DMb. Sucrets Coughc. Codeined. Diphenhydramine
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12. Diphenhydramine is the generic name for a common cough suppressant known as _____.a. Robitussin DMb. Tussionexc. Benadryld. Zyrtec
13. A serious side effect of long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids on children is _____.a. coughingb. high blood pressurec. suppressed growthd. dizziness
14. Systemic corticosteroids should be used for _____.a. mild, persistent asthmab. exercise-induced asthmac. status asthmaticusd. bronchitis
15. Which asthma medication is administered orally, rather than inhaled? a. Prednisoneb. Fluticasonec. Mometasoned. Budesonide
16. The generic drug name for Advair is _____.a. prednisoneb. prednisolonec. dyphyllined. salmeterol/fluticasone
17. Which side effects are common with bronchodilators? a. Insomniab. Nausea and vomitingc. Headached. All of the above
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18. The bronchodilator Combivent is the trade name for _____.a. ipratropium/albuterolb. ephedrinec. epinephrined. albuterol
19. Ergot alkaloids may cause _____ when used with bronchodilators.a. anxietyb. low blood pressurec. constricted blood vessels in the extremitiesd. toxicity
20. Bronchodilators that are also xanthine derivatives, may cause _____.a. nose bleedb. dizzinessc. high blood pressured. low blood pressure
21. Nedocromil and asthma prophylactic may have the following side effect: _____.a. rapid heart rateb. anxietyc. unpleasant tasted. runny nose
22. Cromolyn is the generic drug name for _____.a. Singulairb. Zyfloc. Nasalcromd. Combivent
23. Leukotriene antagonists block the behavior of leukotrienes to prevent _____.a. nasal congestionb. bronchi constrictionc. high blood pressured. runny nose
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24. Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist and an asthma prophylactic? a. Zileutonb. Cromolync. Nedocromild. Fluticasone
25. Which of the following drugs interact adversely with Zafirlukast, a leukotriene antagonist? a. Phenobarbitalb. Warfarinc. a and bd. None of the above
26. The leukotriene antagonist montelukast is the generic drug name for _____.a. Singulairb. Accolatec. Zyflod. Crolom
27. Patients with which disorder should take xanthine derivatives? a. Asthmab. High blood pressurec. Diabetes mellitusd. Low blood pressure
28. Rapid heart rate is a common side effect of which class of asthma drugs? a. Xanthine derivativesb. Expectorantsc. Cough suppressantsd. Antihistamines
29. The most commonly used xanthine derivative is _____.a. theophyllineb. zileutonc. cromolynd. fluticasone
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30. ß -adrenergic agents affect the smooth muscles of the _____.a. lungs onlyb. heart onlyc. digestive tractd. heart and lungs
31. Which of the following should NOT be taken with ß -adrenergic agents? a. Antibioticsb. Hormonal contraceptivesc. MAO inhibitorsd. Theophylline
32. The ß -adrenergic agent serevent is the trade name for _____.a. timololb. salmeterolc. theophyllined. metoprolol
33. Expectorants help _____.a. dilate bronchiole tubesb. dissolve mucousc. relieve swollen nasal membranesd. calm itchy eyes
34. An expectorant used for cystic fibrosis is _____.a. Robitussinb. Combiventc. Allegrad. Dornase alfa
35. A common trade name for epinephrine is _____.a. Allegrab. Primatenec. Pseudoephedrined. Bayer
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Assignment Pack 3
Quiz 18: Pharmacy Law and EthicsThis is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack.
For questions 1 through 10, choose the best answer from the choices provided. Each question is worth 3.33 points.
1. The DEA _____.a. enforces uncontrolled substances lawsb. enforces controlled substances lawsc. enforces all drug lawsd. doesn’t enforce controlled substances laws
2. DEA Form 222 is also known as _____.a. Schedule of Drugsb. Drug Enforcement Order Formc. Official Order Formd. National Drug Code
3. The FDA stands for _____.a. Food and Drug Administrationb. Food and Disease Administrationc. Federal Drug Administrationd. Federal District Administration
4. The CDC stands for Centers for Disease Control and _____.a. Communicable Diseasesb. Infectious Diseasesc. Rare Diseasesd. Prevention
5. The expiration date on a prescription medication is _____.a. a simple thing to figure outb. not as simple as it may seemc. put on the drug by the pharmacistd. determined by the pharmacy technician
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6. The term ethics _____.a. only applies to the pharmacyb. is a study of drug law and actsc. is a study of values and principlesd. is a judicial branch of government
7. The Code of Ethics for Pharmacy Technicians _____.a. was written by the FDAb. governs all pharmacistsc. was written in 1996d. governs all pharmacies
8. Recalls are not requested by the _____.a. CDCb. DEAc. NDAd. FDA
9. Johnson & Johnson _____.a. recovered from the Tylenol traumab. never recovered from the Tylenol traumac. didn’t do a good job of managing the bad publicity from the Tylenol traumad. was responsible for the Tylenol trauma
10. The most common method of drug recall is _____.a. television and radio coverageb. Internet coveragec. a letter or telegram to pharmacies, hospitals, and prescribersd. police coverage
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For questions 11 through 30, choose the definition that best describes each term. Each question is worth 3.33 points.
11. Safe and Effective Drug _____a. The drug manufacturer must fulfill the FDA’s testing requirements. Then the drug
must be monitored to assure the FDA that the drug is safe.b. The drug manufacturer must fulfill the CDC’s testing requirements. Then the drug
must be monitored for at least two years. This involves approval by the CDC.c. The drug compounder must fulfill the FDA’s testing requirements. Then the drug
must be monitored for two years. This monitoring involves approval and evaluation of negative drug reaction reports and other relevant documentation.
d. The drug manufacturer must first file a schedule for the classification of the drug. Then the drug must be monitored to assure the FDA that the drug is safe. This monitoring involves approval and evaluation with a controlled substance report.
12. Poisoning Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 _____a. This act authorized the Consumer Product Safety Commission to create standards
for child-resistant packaging. To protect children, this act requires that most OTC and legend drugs be packaged in child-resistant containers.
b. This act authorized the FDA to create standards for child-resistant packaging. To protect children, this act requires that most OTC and legend drugs be packaged in child-resistant containers.
c. This act authorized the Consumer Product Safety Commission to create standards for child-resistant packaging. To protect children, this act requires that all OTC drugs be packaged in child-resistant containers.
d. This act authorized the Consumer Product Safety Commission to create standards for child-resistant packaging. To protect children, this act requires that all legend drugs be packaged in child-resistant containers.
13. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) _____a. The act was meant to strengthen pharmacists’ privacy rights. Because of this, the
pharmacy’s role in promoting discretion has also increased.b. This act was meant to strengthen pharmacy technicians’ privacy right. Because of
this, the pharmacy’s role in promoting discretion has also increased.c. This act was meant to strengthen doctors’ privacy rights. Because of this, the doctor’s
role in promoting discretion has also increased.d. This act was meant to strengthen the patient’s privacy rights. Because of this, the
pharmacy’s role in promoting discretion has also increased.
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14. Manufacturing vs. Compounding _____a. Manufacturing refers to starting with a designated blend of chemicals and changing
them into many different medications. Compounding refers to a process whereby a pharmacist starts with powders and compounds them to create a medication.
b. Manufacturing refers to a process whereby a pharmacist combines, mixes or modifies a chemical to create a medication for a patient. Compounding refers to starting with a designated blend of powders and changing them into a final dosage form.
c. Manufacturing refers to starting with a designated blend of chemicals and changing them into a final dosage form. Compounding refers to a process whereby a pharmacist combines, mixes or modifies a medication’s ingredients to create a medication for a patient.
d. Manufacturing refers to compounding chemicals and changing them into a final dosage form. Compounding refers to a process whereby a manufacturing company combines, mixes or modifies a medication’s ingredients to create a medication for a patient.
15. Regulatory compliance _____a. Regulatory compliance refers to following the acts that govern an industry, including
a pharmacy. Violation of a rule can lead to discipline within an administrative agency. Violation of laws can lead to prosecution in a court of law.
b. Regulatory compliance refers to following the rules and laws that govern an industry, including a pharmacy. Violation of a rule can lead to discipline within an administrative agency. Violation of laws can lead to revocation of a license.
c. Regulatory compliance refers to following the rules and laws that govern only pharmacies. Violation of a rule can lead to discipline within an administrative agency. Violation of laws can lead to revocation of a license.
d. Regulatory compliance refers to following the rules and laws that govern an industry, including a pharmacy. Violation of a rule can lead to discipline within an administrative agency. Violation of laws can lead to prosecution in a court of law.
16. Prescription labeling _____a. Not all drugs must be properly labeled. Some require no information and others do
require information.b. All drugs must be properly labeled. The information required to be on the label may
vary slightly from state to state.c. All drugs must be properly labeled. The information required to be on the label is the
same for all drugs.d. All drugs must be properly labeled in exactly the same way.
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17. Vitamins and nutritionals _____a. These haven’t been required to prove they’re effective because of recent amendments to the
FDCA. The FDA allows these to be sold without a prescription, under specific conditions.b. These are required to prove they’re effective because of recent amendments to the FDCA.
The FDA allows these to be sold without a prescription, under specific conditions.c. These are required to prove they’re effective because of recent amendments to the
FDCA. The FDA requires them to be sold only by prescription.d. These haven’t been required to prove they’re effective because of recent amendments
to the FDCA. The FDA never allows them to be sold without a prescription.
18. Controlled Substances Act (CSA) _____a. Under the jurisdiction of the CSA, drugs with potential for abuse are placed into five
schedules. Drugs in Schedule I have the highest potential for abuse and addiction and drugs in Schedule V have the least potential for abuse and addiction.
b. Under the jurisdiction of the CSA, drugs with potential for abuse are placed into four schedules. Drugs in Schedule I have the highest potential for abuse and addiction and drugs in Schedule IV have the least potential for abuse and addiction.
c. Under the jurisdiction of the CSA, drugs with potential for abuse are placed into five schedules. Drugs in Schedule V have the highest potential for abuse and addiction and drugs in Schedule I have the least potential for abuse and addiction.
d. Under the jurisdiction of the CSA, drugs with potential for abuse are placed into four schedules. Drugs in Schedule IV have the highest potential for abuse and addiction and drugs in Schedule I have the least potential for abuse and addiction.
19. The Orphan Drug Act of 1983 _____a. This allows federal money to be offered only to commercial organizations to develop and
market drugs previously unavailable in the U.S. Because of this act, drugs for such diseases as AIDS were developed on a timely basis.
b. This allows federal money to be offered only to nonprofit organizations to develop and market drugs previously unavailable in the U.S. Because of this act, drugs for such diseases as AIDS were developed on a timely basis.
c. This allows tax breaks to be offered to drug companies to develop and market drugs previously unavailable in the U.S. Because of this act, drugs for diseases, such as AIDS, were developed.
d. This allows federal money to be offered to commercial and nonprofit organizations to develop and market drugs previously unavailable in countries other than the U.S. Because of this act, drugs for such diseases as AIDS were developed on a timely basis.
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20. The Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA ’90) _____a. This act calls for pharmacy technicians to offer to discuss information about new and
refilled prescriptions and for the pharmacist to obtain information from the patient.b. This act calls for pharmacists to offer to discuss information about new and refilled
prescriptions. The pharmacy technician’s role in this program is important in obtaining information from the patient.
c. This act calls for pharmacists to offer to discuss information about new and refilled prescriptions. The pharmacy technician is not involved in this process.
d. This act calls for pharmacists to offer to discuss information about diseases with the patient. It also calls for the pharmacy technician to gather information regarding the patient’s diseases.
21. The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) _____a. The mission of the DEA is to control substances that may only be dispensed by a
practitioner for legitimate medical purposes. This agency plays a significant role in creating the rules that govern the practice of dispensing OTC drugs for legitimate medical purposes.
b. The mission of the DEA is to enforce controlled substances laws and regulations and to prosecute individuals and organizations that grow, manufacture or distribute illegal substances. This agency plays a significant role in creating the rules that govern the practice of pharmacy.
c. The mission of the DEA is to control individuals who manufacture, dispense or distribute any controlled substances. This agency plays a significant role in creating the rules that govern all controlled substances.
d. The mission of the DEA is to allow federal money to be offered to commercial and nonprofit organizations to develop and market drugs previously unavailable in the U.S. This agency plays a significant role in creating drugs that weren’t otherwise able to be purchased in the U.S.
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22. DEA Form 222 _____a. OTC substances are ordered by completing DEA Form 222. This form is required
for each distribution, purchase or transfer of a Schedule II controlled substance from one DEA registrant to another. These forms only need to be used when purchasing, distributing or transferring drugs that are federally Schedule I or II drugs.
b. Controlled substances are ordered by completing DEA Form 222. This form is required for each distribution, purchase or transfer of a Schedule V controlled substance from one DEA registrant to another. These forms only need to be used when purchasing, distributing or transferring drugs that are federally Schedule I or II drugs.
c. Controlled substances are ordered by completing DEA Form 222. This form is required for each distribution, purchase or transfer of a Schedule II controlled substance from one DEA registrant to another. These forms only need to be used when purchasing, distributing or transferring drugs that are federally Schedule I or II drugs.
d. Controlled substances are ordered by completing DEA Form 222. This form is required for each distribution, purchase or transfer of a Schedule II controlled substance from one DEA registrant to another. These forms don’t need to be used when purchasing, distributing or transferring drugs that are federally Schedule I or II drugs.
23. The FDA is _____a. only responsible for medicines, medical devices and radiation-emitting products.b. responsible for cosmetics, medicines, medical devices, radiation-emitting products
and food and drugs.c. responsible for cosmetics, medicines, food and drugs.d. responsible for cosmetics, medicines, radiation-emitting products and drugs.
24. The CDC _____a. The CDC is a federal agency that provides facilities and services for the investigation,
identification, prevention and control of illegal drugs. The CDC provides research information and statistics to health professionals regarding the use of illegal drugs that cause rare diseases.
b. The CDC is a federal agency that provides facilities and services used for the investigation, identification, prevention and control of disease. The CDC provides research information and statistics regarding the treatment of diseases.
c. The CDC is a federal agency that provides pharmacies with information related to the identification, prevention and control of disease. The CDC provides research information and statistics to military personnel regarding the treatment of common and rare diseases.
d. The CDC is a federal agency that provides facilities and services used for the investigation, identification, prevention and control of drugs. The CDC provides research information and statistics to health professionals regarding Schedule V drugs.
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25. The Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) _____a. This code is a collection of laws created by state administrative agencies, including the
FDA. These rules are an important reference for pharmacy-related laws.b. This code is a collection of rules created by federal administrative agencies, including
the CDC and the Department of Justice. These rules are an important reference for pharmacy-related laws.
c. This code is a collection of rules created by federal administrative agencies, including the FDA and the Department of Justice. These rules are an important reference for laws related to orphan drugs.
d. This code is a collection of rules created by federal administrative agencies, including the FDA and the Department of Justice. These rules are an important reference for pharmacy-related laws.
26. Beyond-use dating _____a. This refers to an expiration date on every stock bottle of medication in the pharmacy.
This date refers to the last date that the medication can be used.b. This date is based on stability studies done by the manufacturer. Once the container
is opened, the manufacturer’s expiration date is no longer valid because the contents have been exposed to moisture, light and air.
c. This is the last date that a drug should be used by a patient. This date is different from the expiration date on the repackaged drug or the expiration date on the manufacturer’s stock container. This date can never exceed the expiration date on the repackaged drug or the expiration date on the manufacturer’s stock container.
d. This date is critical when a pharmacy technician repackages medication from stock containers into packaging. The repackaged medication goes to patients or nursing staff. Each state has its own guidelines for the expiration date of a repackaged medication.
27. Ethics _____a. This refers to the point where the pharmacist fails to receive an expected shipment of
controlled substances. She should first contact the supplier to determine whether the original form was received. If not, a second order form needs to be completed.
b. This refers to checking the date of a repackaged mediation as it relates to the date on the sealed medication stock bottle. The date for the repackaged medication is generally five percent of the expiration date of the sealed bottle.
c. This refers to a pharmacy’s obligation to dispose of excess or undesired stock of a controlled substance. The pharmacy must contact the nearest DEA office and request DEA Form number 41. A cover letter needs to be attached to the report.
d. This refers to the study of values and principles that serve as guidelines for all individuals. These guidelines help us to make the best choices when faced with decisions that involve morality.
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28. The Code of Ethics for Pharmacy Technicians _____a. This code controls substances that may only be dispensed by a practitioner for
legitimate medical purposes. This code plays a significant role in creating the rules that govern the practice of dispensing drugs for legitimate medical purposes.
b. This code includes providing the best care for patients based on the moral guidelines included in the pharmacist’s code. It also includes encouraging honesty and integrity and maintaining competence, knowledge and expertise.
c. This code includes providing the best care for patients based on the guidelines of the DEA and the Schedule of prescription of medicine. It also includes encouraging honesty and integrity and maintaining competence, knowledge and expertise.
d. This code refers to following the rules and laws that govern an industry, including a pharmacy. Violation of this code can lead to discipline within an administrative agency. Violation of this code can lead to prosecution in a court of law.
29. Recalls _____a. The DEA approves drugs for public use. But, occasionally, after a drug has been
approved and is in use, negative effects occur more often than the DEA could predict. If these negative effects reach a point that isn’t within DEA’s standard of public safety, the DEA can request or require the drug manufacturer to recall the drug.
b. The NDA approves drugs for public use as soon as possible. If these negative effects reach a point that isn’t within NDA’s standard of public safety, the FDA can request or require the drug manufacturer not to manufacture the drug.
c. The NDA approves drugs for public use, only after very careful study. But, occasionally, after a drug has been approved and is in use, negative effects occur more often than the NDA could predict. If these negative effects reach a point that isn’t within NDA’s standard of public safety, the FDA can request or require a recall of the drug.
d. The FDA approves drugs for public use. But, occasionally, after a drug has been approved and is in use, negative effects occur more often than the FDA could predict. If these negative effects reach a point that isn’t within FDA’s standard of public safety, the FDA can request or require the drug manufacturer to recall the drug.
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30. Recall Procedures _____a. Based on the level distribution and harm, many recall procedures can be used to
notify the public of the recall. The most common method is a letter or telegram to pharmacies, hospitals and prescribers.
b. Based on whether the drug is a Schedule I, II, III, IV or V, many recall procedures can be used to notify the public of the recall. The most common method is a letter or telegram to pharmacies, hospitals and prescribers.
c. Based on the level distribution and harm, many recall procedures can be used to notify the public of the recall. The most common method is a radio and television alert. The Internet may also be used.
d. Based on the state in which the recall is made, many recall procedures can be used to notify the public of the recall. The most common method is a letter or telegram.
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Assignment Pack 3
Quiz 19: Central Nervous System DrugsThis is a Scanner Quiz that should be submitted according to the instructions at the beginning of this pack.
For questions 1 through 20, choose the best answer from the choices provided. Each question is worth 5 points.
1. The _____ system is comprised of the brain, spinal cord and nerves.a. integumentaryb. skeletalc. nervousd. musculoskeletal
2. The classes of nervous system drugs include _____.a. sedativesb. antipsychoticsc. antidepressantsd. all of the above
3. Sedation can cause _____.a. increased motor activityb. increased excitabilityc. increased anxietyd. decreased anxiety
4. _____ are used as sedatives and hypnotics for insomnia.a. Antidepressantsb. Barbituratesc. Antipsychoticsd. Narcotics
5. The classification groups for _____ include _____ acting.a. barbiturates, ultra-shortb. barbiturates, super-long c. antipsychotics, ultra-shortd. antipsychotics, super-long
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6. Long-term use of barbiturates can cause _____.a. blurred vision and anorexiab. blurred vision and weight gainc. bone pain and anorexiad. bone pain and weight gain
7. _____ drugs are used to treat neurosis and psychosis.a. Barbiturateb. Narcoticc. Antidepressantd. Antipsychotic
8. _____ is defined as both a disease of the nerves and a mental disorder.a. Psychosisb. Neurosisc. Anorexiad. Epilepsy
9. Antipsychotic drugs are meant to cause _____.a. irritabilityb. nervousnessc. sedationd. energy
10. Which of the following is an antianxiety drug? _____a. Lorazepamb. Doxepinc. Alprazolamd. All of the above
11. Second-generation _____ may have drug interactions with anticholinergics, guanethidine and phenothiazines.a. cyclic antidepressantsb. cyclic antipsychoticsc. cyclic barbituratesd. all barbiturates
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12. The primary use of anticonvulsants is to _____.a. tranquilize the patientb. stop repetitive seizuresc. stop hallucinationsd. all of the above
13. _____ results in resting tremor, resistance to passive movement, akinesia and loss of postural reflexes.a. Alzheimer’s diseaseb. Parkinson’s diseasec. Neurosisd. Psychosis
14. The reversible actions that _____ cause(s) include unconsciousness, immobility and amnesia.a. flu shotsb. neurosisc. anesthesiad. psychosis
15. The _____ are the three segments of a neuron.a. nucleus, axon and nerve bodyb. nucleus, axon and dendritec. axon, cell body and dendrited. axon, cell wall and dendrite
16. The adverse effects of _____ include drowsiness, ataxia, impaired judgment, rebound insomnia and build-up of tolerance.a. BZDsb. antidepressantsc. antihistaminesd. ibuprofen
17. _____ is(are) used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders, as well as to produce sleep or drowsiness.a. Benadrylb. Hypnotic drugsc. BZDsd. Ibuprofen
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18. Cocaine blocks reception of the _____ and causes intense _____.a. nerve impulse, vasodilationb. muscle contraction, vasodilationc. nerve impulse, vasoconstrictiond. muscle contraction, vasoconstriction
19. _____ alter(s) sodium transport in nerve and muscle cells to slow the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from neurons.a. Cocaineb. Lithiumc. BZDsd. Benadryl
20. _____ is a disorder of the central nervous system causing recurrent seizures.a. Strokeb. Parkinson’s diseasec. Epilepsyd. Psychosis