answer keys of upsc cse-2017 held on 18.06.2017 set-d …‘’apti plus academy for civil...

‘’APTI PLUS ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES,Bhubaneswar & Kolkata’’

ANSWER KEYS OF UPSC CSE-2017

Held On 18.06.2017

Set-D

(There are lots of confusion among aspirants Regarding Que:No-23,27,31,36,49,54,55,65,68,75,78 &

89 & many have given different options/answers,however we have tried our best to present most

accurate keys with respective sources.Any genuine representation on answer keys with valid

argument may be mailed @ [email protected] .)

1. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya Kingdom? (a) Kakinada

(b) Motupalli (c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) (d) Nelluru

Ans:B.

A very well-known sea-port of this kingdom was Motupalli (Krishna district)

2. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are

correct? (1) It is an initiative of the European Union (2) It provides technical and financial

support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development

policies and budgets. (3) It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World

Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the

codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:A

The GCCA was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and

cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed countries (LDCs) and small

island developing States (SIDS). The GCCA program is implemented in cooperation with FAO and

focuses on strengthening the resilience of rural populations with an emphasis on agriculture.

3. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: (1)

Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism. (2) Sarvastivadin held that the constituents

of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form. Which of the

statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:B

The Sautrantika were an early Buddhist school generally believed to be descended from the Sthavira

nikaya by way of their immediate parent school, the Sarvastivadins. Their name means literally

"those who rely upon the sutras", and indicated their rejection of the Abhidharma texts of other

early Buddhist schools.

mailto:[email protected]


The Saṃmitiya were one of the eighteen or twenty early Buddhist schools in India, and were an

offshoot of the Vatsiputriya sect. Like its predecessor, it claims the person as a carrier of skandhas

endures, and as such was a representative (perhaps the most prominent one) of the Pudgalavada

schools.

4. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries? (1) Jordan (2) Iraq (3)

Lebanon (4) Syria Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2

and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans:C

The countries with coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and

Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco,

Monaco, Montenegro, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia and Turkey. In addition, the Gaza Strip and the

British Overseas Territories of Gibraltar and Akrotiri and Dhekelia have coastlines on the sea.

5. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following

statements is/are correct? (1) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. (2) It has a corpus of Rs. 4,00,000

crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)

Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:D

National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a fund created by the Government of India for

enhancing infrastructure financing in the country.

This is different from the National Investment Fund

Present Corpus is 40000 Crore. The government will invest Rs.20,000 crores into it from budget

while the remaining Rs. 20,000 crores are expected to come from private investors. Government

stake has been fixed at 49%. This stake structure (49% government, 51% private) will help NIIF to be

seen with characters of both sovereign fund as well as private sector.

6. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia

and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank. (b) World Bank collaboration that

facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships

(PPPs) to enable mobilisation of private sector and institutional investor capital. (c)

Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on

expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private

investment. (d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure

development in the world.

Ans:B


The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a global, open platform that facilitates the preparation and

structuring of complex infrastructure public private partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of

private sector and institutional investor capital. The GIF platform coordinates and integrates the

efforts of Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs), private sector investors and financiers, and

governments interested in infrastructure investment in Emerging Markets and Developing

Economies (EMDEs).

7. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by (a) anyone residing in India. (b)

a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested. (c) any citizen of India

whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. (d) any citizen of India.

Ans:C

Exp: • For contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter.Sec 4 (d)

of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in

any parliamentary constituency.

8. Consider the following statements: (1) In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.

(2) Western Ghats are spread over five States only. (3) Pulicat Lake is spread over two States

only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3

only (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer:B

• Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lake or lagoon in India, after Chilka Lake. It

straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states

9. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood.

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems. (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems. (d)

Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions.

Answer:C

Standard method for indirect measurement of the amount of organic pollution (that can be oxidized

biologically) in a sample of water. BOD test procedure is based on the activities of bacteria and other

aerobic microorganisms (microbes), which feed on organic matter in presence of oxygen. The result

of a BOD test indicates the amount of water-dissolved oxygen (expressed as parts per million or

milligrams per liter of water) consumed by microbes incubated in darkness for five days at an

ambient temperature of 20°C. Higher the BOD, higher the amount of pollution in the test sample.

For the contaminants that cannot be oxidized biologically, chemical oxygen demand (COD) method

is used.

10. . With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations Programme working towards a

better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct? (1) UN-Habitat has been mandated

by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable


towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. (2) Its partners are either governments or

local urban authorities only. (3) UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United

Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic

sanitation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

Answer:B

The United Nations Human Settlements Programme, UN-HABITAT, is the United Nations agency for

human settlements. It is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and

environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all.

UN-Habitat envisions well-planned, well-governed, and efficient cities and other human

settlements, with adequate housing, infrastructure, and universal access to employment and basic

services such as water, energy, and sanitation.

11. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements

given below is/are correct? (1) Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for

competency only through formal learning. (2) An outcome expected from the implementation of

NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. Select the correct answer using

the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:B

The National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) is a competency-based framework that

organizes all qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude. These

levels, graded from one to ten, are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must

possess regardless of whether they are obtained through formal, non-formal or informal learning.

12. In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to (a) Division of the

central legislature into two houses (b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State

governments. (c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi. (d) Division of

the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories

Answer:D

The principle of dyarchy was a division of the executive branch of each provincial government into

authoritarian and popularly responsible sections. The first was composed of executive councillors,

appointed, as before, by the crown. The second was composed of ministers who were chosen by the

governor from the elected members of the provincial legislature. These latter ministers were

Indians.

13. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:


(1) National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training,Government

of India.(2) National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the

employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:B

National Career Service (NCS) project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labour and

Employment (India)Government of India as a Mission Mode Project for establishing quick and

efficient career related services. It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 20 July 2015

as part of government’s focus on providing right skills and generating employment.

14.Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of

Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news: (a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of

developmental schemes formulated by the Government. (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the

financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties. (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the

Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings. (d) It is an important provision in ‘The

Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government

Answer: B

The S4A is RBI’s latest attempt to try and chip away at the mountain of stressed loans smothering

Indian banks. The scheme tries to strike a compromise between banks with problem accounts and

corporate defaulters of the non-wilful variety, by converting a portion of large loan accounts into

equity shares.

For a distressed company to be eligible for S4A, the RBI has laid down three conditions. The project

must be operating and already generating cash. The total loans to the entity should be ₹500 crore or

more. The lending banks are required to hire an independent agency to evaluate how much of the

debt is ‘sustainable’. For the loan to be eligible for S4A, at least 50 per cent of it should be

‘sustainable’.


While RBI’s earlier ideas to resolve bad loans such as Strategic Debt Restructuring (SDR) required

banks to oust existing promoters, S4A allows the incumbent management to continue, as long the

default isn’t wilful.

Why is it important?

The borrowing binge by Indian companies during the boom times from 2003 to 2008 has left Indian

banks saddled with a large pile of bad loans. At last count, they amounted to 11.5 per cent of their

total book. This pile of unpaid debt has led to big write-offs that have dented bank profits, gobbled

up bank capital and made them wary of giving out new loans that can keep the wheels of the

economy turning.

The RBI is thus keen to push banks to quickly resolve the problem accounts. Given that they come in

all shapes and sizes, there’s no one-shot solution to all the different kinds of bad loans. The central

bank is thus trying out a carrot and stick approach.

By straightaway allowing as much as half of the loan to be written off through conversion into

equity, S4A gives corporate borrowers the opportunity to trim their debt pile and start afresh. Yes,

banks are forced to take a haircut by giving up on one part of the loan. But they at least have

certainty on the remaining loans getting repaid. Who knows? If the fortunes of the business turn,

they may get to pocket gains on the free equity shares too.

15.Consider the following statements: (1) Climate and Clear Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived

Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. (2) The CCAC focuses on methane,

black carbon and hydro-fluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:C

The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society and

private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few decades by

reducing short-lived climate pollutants across sectors.Complementary to mitigating CO2 emissions,

the Coalition acts as a catalyst to create, implement and share immediate solutions addressing near-

term climate change to improve people’s lives rapidly, and to ensure sustainable development for

future generations.

The Coalition's initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs. At the same time, partners

recognize that action on short-lived climate pollutants must complement and supplement, not

replace, global action to reduce carbon dioxide, in particular efforts under the UNFCCC.


The Coalition's objectives are to address short-lived climate pollutants by:

Raising awareness of short-lived climate pollutant impacts and mitigation strategies

Enhancing and developing new national and regional actions, including by identifying and

overcoming barriers, increasing capacity, and mobilizing support

16.With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting

Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) IOD phenomenon is characterised

by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern

Pacific Ocean. (2) An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the

correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:B

The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two

areas (or poles, hence a dipole) – a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an

eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. The IOD affects the climate of Australia

and other countries that surround the Indian Ocean Basin, and is a significant contributor to rainfall

variability in this region.

17.If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to

visit? (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) Chambal River (c) Pulicat Lake (d) Deepor Bell

Ans: B

In India, small populations are present and increasing in the rivers of the National Chambal

Sanctuary, Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary, and Son River Sanctuary. Another small population

exists in the rainforest biome of Mahanadi in Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary, Odisha, where they

apparently do not breed.

In Nepal, small populations are present and slowly recovering in tributaries of the Ganges, such as

the Narayani-Rapti river system in Chitwan National Park and the Karnali-Babai river system in

Bardia National Park.

18.Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (1) Inaugural IONS

was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. (2) IONS is a voluntary initiative

that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies oof the littoral states of the Indian

Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:B


The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime

co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open

and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. In the process, it

endeavours to generate a flow of information between naval professionals that would lead to

common understanding and possibly cooperative solutions on the way ahead.

19. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustratedpaintings at

(a) Ajanta (b) Badami (c) Bagh (d) Ellora

Ans:A

Bodhisattva Padmapani, detail from a wall painting in cave 1, second half of the fifth century. Ajanta

Caves, India.

20. Consider the following pairs :

Traditions Communities

1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis

2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds

3. Wari-Warkari — Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Ans. A

Exp: Nanda Devi Raj Jaat Yatra is a festival of Gharwali and kumauoni people in Uttarakhand

Wari Warkari or Varkari(Pandharpur Wari) is a Maharashtrian festival celebrated by Marathas.

21. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? (1) Reduced or

zero tillage of the land (2) Applying gypsum before irrigating the field (3) Allowing crop residue to

remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:D


Reduced tillage is a practise in which the soil is tilled to some extent but not completely inverted.

There are several ways of achieving reduced tillage. For example, the plough can be supplemented

with discs or a chisel harrow, and the land ploughed in narrow strips, coinciding with the spacing of

the row crops, leaving the intervening space untilled. Reduced tillage means a smaller volume of soil

is exposed to erosion and moisture loss by evaporation; hence, conserving moisture.

Gypsum can be used for water Conservation

Retain crop residues:Advantages:One review found reduced water runoff, increased water storage

and reduced soil erosion.

22. . Consider the following statements: The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (1)

expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. (2) enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans

to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. (3) checking the overuse of fertilizers in

farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS: B

The Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi in a bid to improve productivity of soil by the

appropriate use of fertilizers, water and nutrients launched the centrally-sponsored nationwide "Soil

Health Card" scheme on February 19, 2015.Over use of fertilizers and short term methods have

reduced the fertility of soil in our nation and has made farming expensive and improductive.This

card will carry crop wise recommendations and scientific advice on nutrients, fertilizers, water etc

required by farmers to improve the quality of their crops and their production.

23. Consider the following pairs :

Commonly used materials / Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them

1. Lipstick — Lead

2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils

3. Chinese fast food — Monosodiumglutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:C/D*


Brominated vegetable oil is used primarily to help emulsify citrus-flavored soft drinks, preventing

them from separating during distribution. Brominated vegetable oil has been used by the soft drink

industry since 1931.

On May 5, 2014, Coca-Cola and PepsiCo said they will remove BVO from their products.Standards

for soft drinks in India have prohibited the use of BVO since 1990.Hense Doubtful on Option C/D

24. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What

are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays? (1) OLED displays can be fabricated

on flexible plastic substrates. (2) Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.

(3) Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given

below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer:C

➢ OLEDs are thinner, lighter and more flexible than the crystalline layers in an LED or LCD. The

plastic, organic layers of an OLED are 100 to 500 nanometres thick or about 200 times

smaller than a human hair.

➢ Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs

25. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples? (1) Arasavalli (2) Amarakantak (3)

Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and

3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:A

Amarkantak-

Omkareshwar-Lord Shiv

26. . Consider the following statements: (1) In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning

candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. (2) According to the

provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority

party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:D

Both of the statements are incorrect.


27. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalisation of economic policies in

1991? (1) Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. (2) Share of India’s exports in world trade

increased. (3) FDI inflows increased. (4) India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select

the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,

2, 3 and 4

Ans:B

The share of agriculture in total GDP has registered a steady decline from 28.3% in 1991 to

18.5% in 2006-07 in India

28. . What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology? (a) Production of biolarvicides

(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics (c) Reproductive cloning of animals (d) Production of

organisms free of diseases

Ans:C

Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is a laboratory strategy for creating a viable embryo from a

body cell and an egg cell. The technique consists of taking an enucleated oocyte (egg cell) and

implanting a donor nucleus from a somatic (body) cell. It is used in both therapeutic and

reproductive cloning. Dolly the Sheep became famous for being the first successful case of the

reproductive cloning of a mamma.

29. Consider the following statements:

(1) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the

country. (2) NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:C

Reserve Bank of India, after setting up of the Board for Payment and Settlement Systems in

2005, released a vision document incorporating a proposal to set up an umbrella institution for

all the RETAIL PAYMENT SYSTEMS in the country. The core objective was to consolidate and

integrate the multiple systems with varying service levels into nation-wide uniform and

standard business process for all retail payment systems. The other objective was to facilitate

an affordable payment mechanism to benefit the common man across the country and help

financial inclusion.

NPCI had Launched Rupay Card

30. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (a) Captive breeding of Wild

Fauna (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System (d) Security of

National Highways


Ans:B

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), which has been upgrading monitoring

mechanism for the large cats, brought in field officials and technical staff of 11 tiger reserves

(TRs) of the country to Baripada to introduce them to Monitoring System for Tiger-Intensive

Protection and Ecological Status, known as M-STrIPES.

The android-based monitoring software M-STrIPES will be used across all the TRs of the

country. Its pilot use has already been completed.

31. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (1) It will

replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. (2)

It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign

exchange reserves. (3) It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will

enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a)

1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:A/C*

1. Under the GST regime, exports will be zero-rated in entirety unlike the present system

where refund of some taxes may not take place due to fragmented nature of indirect taxes

between the Centre and the States. This will boost Indian exports in the international

market thus improving the balance of payments position. Exporters with clean track

record will be rewarded by getting immediate refund of 90% of their claims arising on

account of exports, within seven days.

2. GST is expected to bring buoyancy to the Government Revenue by widening the tax base

and improving the taxpayer compliance. GST is likely improve India’s ranking in the

Ease of Doing Business Index and is estimated to increase the GDP growth by 1.5 to 2%

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=161273

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/forex/heres-how-gst-may-impact-

rupee/articleshow/53545336.cms

http://www.cnbc.com/2016/08/04/indias-goods-and-services-tax-may-disrupt-economy-in-

the-short-term.html

As per words used in options like’drastically/enromously’ and in question’Most Likely’ we are doubtful

on Option A & C.

32. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context

of negotiations held between India and (a) European Union (b) Gulf Cooperation Council (c) Organization

for Economic Cooperation and Development (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/forex/heres-how-gst-may-impact-rupee/articleshow/53545336.cms

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/forex/heres-how-gst-may-impact-rupee/articleshow/53545336.cms

http://www.cnbc.com/2016/08/04/indias-goods-and-services-tax-may-disrupt-economy-in-the-short-term.html

http://www.cnbc.com/2016/08/04/indias-goods-and-services-tax-may-disrupt-economy-in-the-short-term.html


Ans:A

At a time when the bilateral trade in goods between India and the European Union was € 40 billion,

when India exported € 3.8 billion worth of services to EU, and when EU was India’s largest source of

foreign direct investment; or in short when there were healthy trends in bilateral trade and investment

between the two, the seeds of a High Level Trade Group (HLTG) were sown during the 2005 India-EU

Summit to explore ways to give further boost to trade and investment between the duo. Different

platforms were thought over during the brainstorming discussions by the HLTG. It was commonly agreed

upon during the discussions that only after the removal of non-tariff obstacles to trade could the dream

of strong trade ties be built. It was finally recommended that a broader platform for expanded trade ties

be inculcated through the negotiations of a broad-based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement

(BTIA). The India-EU BTIA talks have since then discussed issues related to trade in goods and services,

sanitary & phyto-sanitary measures, intellectual property rights, technical barriers to trade, dispute

settlement, customs and trade facilitation and procurement among others.

33.

Consider the following statements: (1) India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.

(2) TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. (3) TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d)

1, 2 and 3

Ans:A

WTO members concluded negotiations at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference on the landmark

Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which entered into force on 22 February 2017 following its

ratification by two-thirds of the WTO membership. The TFA contains provisions for expediting

the movement, release and clearance of goods, including goods in transit. It also sets out

measures for effective cooperation between customs and other appropriate authorities on

trade facilitation and customs compliance issues. It further contains provisions for technical

assistance and capacity building in this area.

34. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (a) India’s trade with African

countries will enormously increase. (b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be

strengthened. (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. (d)

Pakistan will facilitate and protet the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Ans:-C

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/shipping-/-transport/iran-may-link-

chabahar-port-with-central-asian-corridors/articleshow/59060361.cms

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/shipping-/-transport/iran-may-link-chabahar-port-with-central-asian-corridors/articleshow/59060361.cms

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/shipping-/-transport/iran-may-link-chabahar-port-with-central-asian-corridors/articleshow/59060361.cms


35. . In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? (1)

Service providers (2) Data centres (3) Body corporates Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:D

https://cis-india.org/internet-governance/blog/incident-response-requirements-in-indian-law

The CERT Rules also impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body

corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely

action. This mandatory obligation of reporting incidents casts a fairly wide net in terms of private sector

entities, however it is notable that prima facie the provision does not impose any obligation on

government entities to report cyber incidents unless they come under any of the expressions “service

providers”, “data centres”, “intermediaries” or “body corporate”.

36. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right (c) Constitutional

Right (d) Legal Right

Ans:D*

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/columns/The-draconian-ban-on-prisoner-

voting/article10142992.ece

37. . What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project? (a) To detect

neutrinos (b) To detect gravitational waves (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system (d)

To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems.

Ans:B

The evolved Laser Interfermoter Space Antenna (eLISA) is a mission aiming at exploring the

Gravitational Universe from space for the first time. It involves scientists from eight European

countries ‒ Denmark, France, Germany, Italy, The Netherlands, Spain, Switzerland, and the UK ‒

as well as the support of several US-based ones. “The Gravitational Universe” theme (with

eLISA as foreseen implementation) was proposed to the European Space Agency and selected

as a science theme for the third large-class mission to be launched in 2034 within the agency’s

Cosmic Vision science program.

The eLISA mission consists of a “Mother” and two “Daughter” spacecrafts. These will orbit the

Sun in a triangular configuration, as shown the figure. The three satellites will form a precision

https://cis-india.org/internet-governance/blog/incident-response-requirements-in-indian-law

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/columns/The-draconian-ban-on-prisoner-voting/article10142992.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/columns/The-draconian-ban-on-prisoner-voting/article10142992.ece


interferometer, with the two Daughter spacecrafts connected to the Mother one by 1 million

km long laser beams.

38. What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (1) To enable the famous foreign educational institutions

to open their campuses in India. (2) To increase the quality of education provided in government schools

by taking help from the private sector and the community. (3) To encourage voluntary monetary

contributions from private individuals and organisations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for

primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 2 only (b) 3

only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans:A

Vidyanjali - (School Volunteer Programme) is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resource

Development, Department of School Education & Literacy to enhance community and private

sector involvement in Government run elementary schools across the country under the overall

aegis of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.

This programme has been envisaged to bring together people willing to volunteer their services

at schools which really need them. The volunteers will act as mentors, confidantes and

communicators with children.

39. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (a) Achieving 100% literacy by

promoting collaboration between volutnary organizations and government’s eduction system and local

communities. (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address

development challenges through appropriate technologies. (c) Strengthening India’s scientific research

institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. (d) Developing human capital by

allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill

development programmes and vocational training for them.

Answer:B

Vision:

To involve professional and other higher educational institutions of the country in the process

of indigenous development of self-sufficient and sustainable village clusters in tune with the

notion of 'GramSwaraj' propounded by Mahatma Gandhi

Mission:


In accordance with the above mentioned vision, Unnat Bharat Abhiyan will strive to pursue the

following: Develop the necessary mechanism and proper networking among educational

institutions, implementation agencies (PanchaytiRaj Institutions) and the grass root voluntary

organizations to enable effective intervention at the field level. Select suitable rural clusters

and effectively participate in the holistic development of these clusters using eco-friendly

sustainable technologies and local resources creating sufficient employment opportunities in

the process, harnessing multifarious Govt. schemes as well as the efforts of voluntary

organizations. Simultaneously, reorient the ethos, the academic curricula and research

programs in professional institutions to make these more compatible with the national needs

including those of rural areas, thus contributing to capacity building towards indigenous

development.

40. Consider the following statements: (1) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. (2)

Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections

and by-elections. (3) Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised

political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and

3 only (d) 3 only

Ans:D

41. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)

Act, 1972, what does it imply? (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. (b) It no longer

exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its

extinction. (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in

this context.

Ans: A

For offences relating to wild animals (or their parts and products) included in schedule-I or part II of

Schedule- II and those relating to hunting or altering the boundaries of a sanctuary or national park the

punishment and penalty have been enhanced, the minimum imprisonment prescribed is three years

which may extend to seven years, with a minimum fine of Rs. 10,000/-. For a subsequent offence of this

nature, the term of imprisonment shall not be less than three years but may extend to seven years with

a minimum fine of Rs. 25,000.

42. In India, Judicial Review implies (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the

constitutionality of laws and executive orders. (b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of

the laws enacted by the Legislatures. (c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative

enactments before they are assented to by the President. (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its

own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Ans:A


Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to examine the

constitutionality of the Acts of the Parliament and the state legislatures and executive orders

both of the centre and state governments. If it is found that any of its provisions are in violation

of the provisions of the constitution, they can be declared unconstitutional or ultra-vires of the

constitution and a law declared by the Supreme Court as unconstitutional cannot be enforced

by the government.

43. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: (1) Mutiny in Royal Indian

Navy (2) Quit India Movement launched (3) Second Round Table Conference What is the correct

chronological sequence of the above events? (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3 (c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2

Ans:C

44. Consider the following statements: (1) Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily

increased in the last decade. (2) Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the

last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d)

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:D

https://tradingeconomics.com/india/government-budget

45. . Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat

to which one of the following sites? (a) Corbett National Park (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (c)

Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Sariska National Park

Ans:B

http://www.hindustantimes.com/bhopal/environment-ministry-committee-approved-kuno-

palpur-in-madhya-pradesh-as-second-home-for-asiatic-lions/story-

kYQwBbXZxWiULLBdVnlHdK.html

46. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s

rule in a State? (1) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly (2) Removal of the Council of Ministers

in the State (3) Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a)

1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:B

Assembly can be kept in suspended animation, without dissolving it.

47. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

(1) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. (2) Abolition of untouchability. (3)

https://tradingeconomics.com/india/government-budget

http://www.hindustantimes.com/bhopal/environment-ministry-committee-approved-kuno-palpur-in-madhya-pradesh-as-second-home-for-asiatic-lions/story-kYQwBbXZxWiULLBdVnlHdK.html




Protection of the interests of minorities. (4) Prohibition of employment of children in factories and

mines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1

and 4 only

Ans:D

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (1) Traffic in human beings and begar and other

similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence

punishable in accordance with law (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing

compulsory service for public purpose, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any

discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them

Article 23 & 24 of Indian Constitution deal with the Right against Exploitation. Article 23 prohibits the

traffic in human beings and forced labor such as begar. Begar was a system in which government (yes,

the British Government officers) and Zamindars used to compel the persons to carry their goods when

they moved from one place to other place and this was a forced labor in which no remuneration was

paid. The Human Trafficking is the illegal trade in human beings for the purposes of commercial sexual

exploitation, prostitution or forced labor. It is the modern form of slavery.

48. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar? (a) Sumatra (b) Borneo (c) Java (d)

Sri Lanka

Ans:A

49. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet

form of Government: (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose

responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all. (b) A mechanism for speeding

up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day. (c) A mechanism of

parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people. (d) A

device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a

state of decline.

Ans:C

The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the

principle of collective responsibility. The Prime Minister and the members of the Council of Ministers

belong to the same party except in the rare instances of Coalition Governments. In fact all ministers are

important party leaders. Collective responsibility obliges the ministers to hold the same views and to

champion the same policy.

50. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (a) There is an independent

judiciary in India. (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States. (c) The


federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. (d) It is the result of an

agreement among the federating units

Ans:D

1.Two sets of governments

2. Constitutional Division of Powers

3. Written and Rigid Constitution

4.Independent Federal Court

51. . The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to (a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and

Provincial Governments. (b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India. (c) Impose censorship

on national press. (d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Ans:D

A three -member committee headed by Harcourt Butler, appointed on December 16, 1927 to examine

the relations between the native states and the paramount power, and to improve the relationship

between the Government of India and the Indian States It clearly stated that “paramountcy must remain

paramount”. The committee fully endorsed that the viceroy, should remain the Crown agent in dealing

with the native states.

52. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to (a)

Developing solar power production in our country. (b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our

country. (c) Exporting our food products to other countries. (d) Permitting foreign educational

institutions to set up their campuses in our country.

Ans:A

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/domestic-content-requirement-tenders-

are-all-but-disappearing-mercom-india/articleshow/58398282.cms

53. Consider the following statements: (1) The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the

aegis of the United Nations. (2) The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International

Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both

1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:D

Nuclear Security Summits has no relation in Hosting /monitoring with UN ,However UN was a participant

as a world organization.

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/domestic-content-requirement-tenders-are-all-but-disappearing-mercom-india/articleshow/58398282.cms

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/domestic-content-requirement-tenders-are-all-but-disappearing-mercom-india/articleshow/58398282.cms


The first Nuclear Security Summit was held in Washington, DC in 2010, and was followed by additional

Summits in Seoul in 2012 and The Hague in 2014. These Summits have achieved tangible improvements

in the security of nuclear materials and stronger international institutions that support nuclear security.

The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM), established in 2006, is a group of independent

nuclear experts from 18 countries: Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Iran, Japan, the

Netherlands, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan, South Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the United Kingdom,

and the United States.

54. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (a) Resident Indian citizens

only (b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only (c) All State Government employees joining the services after

the date of notification by the respective State Governments. (d) All Central Government employees

including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

Answer:C

Central Government Employees

NPS is applicable to all new employees of Central Government service (except Armed Forces) and

Central Autonomous Bodies joining Government service on or after 1st January 2004. Any other

government employee who is not mandatorily covered under NPS can also subscribe to NPS under "All

Citizen Model" through a Point of Presence - Service Provider (POP-SP).

State Government Employees

NPS is applicable to all the employees of State Governments, State Autonomous Bodies joining services

after the date of notification by the respective State Governments. Any other government employee

who is not mandatorily covered under NPS can also subscribe to NPS under "All Citizen Model" through

a Point of Presence - Service Provider (POP-SP).

Corporate

A Corporate would have the flexibility to decide investment choice either at subscriber level or at the

corporate level centrally for all its underlying subscribers. The corporate or the subscriber can choose

any one of Pension Fund Managers (PFMs) - External website that opens in a new window available

under “All Citizen Model” and also the percentage in which the funds are allocated in various asset

classes.

Individual

All citizens of India between the age of 18 and 60 years as on the date of submission of his / her

application to Point of Presence (POP) / Point of Presence-Service Provider (POP-SP) can join NPS.

Unorganised Sector Workers - Swavalamban Yojana


A citizen of India between the age of 18 and 60 years as on the date of submission of his / her

application, who belongs to the unorganized sector or is not in a regular employment of the Central or a

state government, or an autonomous body/ public sector undertaking of the Central or state

government, can open NPS -Swavalamban account. The subscriber of NPS -Swavalamban - External

website that opens in a new window account should not be covered under social security scheme like

Employees' Provident Fund and miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, The Coal Mines Provident Fund and

Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1948, The Seamen's Provident Fund Act, 1966, The Assam Tea Plantations

Provident Fund and Pension Fund Scheme Act, 1955 and The Jammu and Kashmir Employees' Provident

Fund Act, 1961.

55. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: (1) The source of river Teesta is

the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. (2) River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and

it is a tributary of river Teesta. (3) River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and

Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3

only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

The Teesta River is a 309 km long river flowing through the Indian states of West Bengal and Sikkim,

before going to Bay of Bengal through Bangladesh. It carves out from the verdant Himalayas in

temperate and tropical river valleys and forms the border between Sikkim and West Bengal. The Teesta

River originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier above 7,068 metres (23,189 ft), and flows

southward through gorges and rapids in the Sikkim Himalaya.the river is met by its main tributary, the

Rangeet River.

56. . Consider the following statements: (1) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the

same mosquito that transmits dengue. (2) Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of

the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Zika virus disease is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitoes.Zika virus is primarily

transmitted to people through the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes

aegypti in tropical regions. Aedes mosquitoes usually bite during the day, peaking during early morning

and late afternoon/evening. This is the same mosquito that transmits dengue, chikungunya and yellow

fever. Sexual transmission of Zika virus is also possible. Other modes of transmission such as blood

transfusion are being investigated.

57. Consider the following statements: (1) The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is

mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. (2) AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the

Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:A


http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/BIS-certification-to-be-made-mandatory-for-tyres-and-

tubes/article12079528.ece

http://dgft.gov.in/Exim/2000/NOT/itc(hs)/Appen-III.pdf

AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform

to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, an agency of the

Government of India. The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and

Marking) Act of 1937 (and amended in 1986). The present AGMARK standards cover quality guidelines

for 213 different commodities spanning a variety of pulses, cereals, essential oils, vegetable oils, fruits

and vegetables and semi-processed products like vermicelli.

58.

What is/are the advantage/ advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme? (1)

It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. (2) It provides the farmers access

to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct

answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:C

59.

With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

(1) It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. (2)

Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property

rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d)

Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:C

http://www.thehindu.com/business/all-you-need-to-know-about-the-intellectual-property-rights-

policy/article8600530.ece

60. According to the Wildlife (Protection Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by

any person except under some provisions provided by law? (1) Gharial (2) Indian wild ass (3) Wild

buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:D

61. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? (1) A

legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. (2) They are correlative to legal duties.

http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/BIS-certification-to-be-made-mandatory-for-tyres-and-tubes/article12079528.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/BIS-certification-to-be-made-mandatory-for-tyres-and-tubes/article12079528.ece

http://dgft.gov.in/Exim/2000/NOT/itc(hs)/Appen-III.pdf

http://www.thehindu.com/business/all-you-need-to-know-about-the-intellectual-property-rights-policy/article8600530.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/business/all-you-need-to-know-about-the-intellectual-property-rights-policy/article8600530.ece


Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1

nor 2

Ans:D

The Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties are sections of the Constitution of India

that prescribe the fundamental obligations of the State to its citizens and the duties of the citizens to

the State. The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a

spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties, set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution

concern individuals and the nation. Citizens are morally obligated by the Constitution to perform these

duties. The Fundamental Duties are however, not legally enforceable, i.e. without any legal sanction in

case of their violation or non-compliance.

62. 1. Radhakanta Deb –First President of the British Indian Association

2.Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha

3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and3

Answer – B

Explanation:Madras Mahajana Sabha was established by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. SubramaniaIyer

and P. Anandacharluin May 1884

63. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought (b) Economic liberty (c) Liberty of expression (d) Liberty of belie

Ans:B

As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a "sovereign democratic republic". In 1976 the

Forty-second Amendment changed this to read "sovereign socialist secular democratic republic".

Text of the Preamble Edit These are the opening words of the preamble of the Indian Constitution.

“ WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST,

SECULAR ,DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:JUSTICE, social, economic and political;

LIBERTY of thought , expression, belief, faith and worship;


EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all[6]

FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;

IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT

AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

64.

With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements: (1) QCI was set up

jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. (2) Chairman of QCI is appointed by the

Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above

statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a pioneering experiment of the Government of India in setting

up organizations in partnership with the Indian industry.

Chairman appointed by PM http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/ex-

mckinsey-india-chief-adil-zainulbhai-to-head-quality-council-of-india/articleshow/42698780.cms

65. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? (1) To supply credit to small

business units (2) To supply credit to small and marginal farmers (3) To encourage young entrepreneurs

to set up business particularly in rural areas Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1

and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:A

Key features of the Small Finance Bank guidelines are:

i) Objectives:

The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to further financial inclusion by (a) provision of

savings vehicles, and (ii) supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and

small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations.

https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=32614

66. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development

(APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements: (1) The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the

theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and governance Structure’. (2) India hosts all the

Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements

given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1st APMCHUD At Nairobi

http://www.apmchud.com/PDF/1st%20Meeting%20Minutes%20at%20Nairobi.pdf

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/ex-mckinsey-india-chief-adil-zainulbhai-to-head-quality-council-of-india/articleshow/42698780.cms

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/ex-mckinsey-india-chief-adil-zainulbhai-to-head-quality-council-of-india/articleshow/42698780.cms

https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=32614

http://www.apmchud.com/PDF/1st%20Meeting%20Minutes%20at%20Nairobi.pdf


http://www.pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=43656

Inida doesn’t host all the annual ministerial conference.

67. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity (a) the intelligence and character

of ordinary men and women. (b) the methods of strengthening executive leadership. (c) a superior

individual with dynamism and vision. (d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Ans:A

68. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface

(UPI)’? (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. (b) Digital currency will totally

replace the physical currency in about two decades. (c) FDI inflows will drastically increase. (d) Direct

transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

Ans:D


http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=145042

https://dbtbharat.gov.in/data/documents/npci%202%20upi.pdf

UPI not meant for Online payments(Unlike Mobile Wallets) but conceptually it’s FOR transfer of money.

69. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in

the news in the context of (a) Observation and understanding of the Universe (b) Study of the solar and

the lunar eclipses (c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth (d) Origin and evolution of living

organisms on the Earth

Answer:A

In general relativity, an event horizon is a boundary in spacetime beyond which events cannot affect an

outside observer. In layman's terms, it is defined as the shell of "points of no return", i.e., the points at

which the gravitational pull becomes so great as to make escape impossible, even for light. An event

horizon is most commonly associated with black holes.

70. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in

the news, be used in the immediate future? (1) Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic

markets for disease reistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. (2) This technique helps in

reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. (3) It can be used to decipher the

host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

http://www.pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=43656


http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=145042

https://dbtbharat.gov.in/data/documents/npci%202%20upi.pdf


Ans:D

http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/genome-sequencing-can-spin-

diseasefree-jute-soon/article9686799.ece

72. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that (a) The executive and

legislature work independently (b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient (c) The executive

remains responsible to the legislature. (d) The head of the government cannot be changed without

election.

Ans:C

73. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (a) The

Preamble (b) The Fundamental Rights (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy (d) The Fundamental

Duties

Ans:A

The Preamble of the Constitution like the preamble of any statute furnish the key to open the mind of

the makers of the Constitution more so because the Constituent Assembly took great pains in

formulating it so that it may reflect the essential features and basic objectives of the Constitution.

74. . If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India

through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

Ans:B

Nagaland (Kohima) – Assam – WestBengal – Orissa – Andhra Pradesh – Tamilnadu – Kerala(Kottayam)

75. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through (1)

Adjournment motion (2) Question hour (3) Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the

codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:D

Powers of the Lok Sabha

± Makes Laws on matters included in Union List and Concurrent List. Can introduce and enact money

and non money bills.

± Approves proposals for taxation, budgets and annual financial statements.

± Controls the executive by asking questions, supplementary questions, resolutions and motions and

through no confidence motion.

± Amends the Constitution.

± Approves the Proclamation of emergency.

http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/genome-sequencing-can-spin-diseasefree-jute-soon/article9686799.ece

http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/genome-sequencing-can-spin-diseasefree-jute-soon/article9686799.ece


± Elects the President and Vice President and removes Judges of Supreme Court and High Court.

± Establishes committees and commissions and considers their reports.

http://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/keps205.pdf PAGE-10

Members of the Parliament have a right to ask questions and supplementary question to the Ministers.

Any lapses or mishandling on the part of the Government can be exposed in the Parliament.

Adjournment motions may be moved to discuss serious administrative lapses. Through adjournment

motions, matters of public importance can be brought to the notice of the Government by the members

of the

76. . With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (1) A private

member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by

the President of India. (2) Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India

for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/only-14-private-members-bills-passed-since-

independence-115042400948_1.html

78. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people,

which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet

in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilisation did not leave any evidence of using them. (2)

Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.

(3) Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people

having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2

and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A*

http://www.thehindu.com/thehindu/op/2002/03/05/stories/2002030500130100.htm

https://www.harappa.com/blog/wheel-indus-times

79. ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (a)

Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. (b) Enrolling the

persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. (c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and

urban poor in some public sector undertakings. (d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the

National Skill Development Programme

http://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/keps205.pdf

http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/only-14-private-members-bills-passed-since-independence-115042400948_1.html

http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/only-14-private-members-bills-passed-since-independence-115042400948_1.html

http://www.thehindu.com/thehindu/op/2002/03/05/stories/2002030500130100.htm

https://www.harappa.com/blog/wheel-indus-times


Ans:A

http://www.nationalskillsnetwork.in/recognition-of-prior-learning-rpl/

80. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good

link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (b)

Nallamala Forest (c) Nagarhole National Park (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Ans:A

Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is a protected area and tiger reserve along the

Western Ghats in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.

Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between

the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the four other

protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur

Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park. The sanctuary covers parts of

Sathyamangalam taluk and Gobichettipalayam taluk of Erode District in north western Tamil Nadu.

81. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (a) Privileges (b) Restraints (c)

Competition (d) Ideology

Ans:A

The Constitution-makers sought to abolish the titles by inserting Article 18 (1) in the Constitution of

India in order to do away with varied inequalities.2 The abolition of titles stated reassuringly that

amongst men all are equals, and there cannot be a class of men who are to be treated as more equal.

However, the spirit and purpose of this new injunction was lost when the Government of India sought to

bring back the same old inequities by conferring titles and decorations by an executive order. The

reintroduction of this practice consequently yielded increasing urges amongst the citizens for being

included in the list of award recipients. The tendency assumed larger proportions so much so that:

"These new titles were at first given to very few and exceptional persons. This small stream has since

become quite a flood and on more than one occasion in a year long lists of names of recipients of new

distinctions have been issued by the authorities.

82. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in

commerce (TRAFFIC): (1) TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). (2)

The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the

conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1

and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:B

TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, composed of members of TRAFFIC’s partner

organizations, WWF and IUCN.

http://www.nationalskillsnetwork.in/recognition-of-prior-learning-rpl/


83. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the

42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women (b)

Participation of workers in the management of industries (c) Right to work, education and public

assistance (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Ans:B

84. . Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (a)

World Economic Forum (b) UN Human Rights Council (c) UN Women (d) World Health Organization

Ans-A

85. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? (1) It is a

centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. (2) It

is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our

country. (3) It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely

digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3

only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans:B


86. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

(1) It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates

(2) It is a 12-membeer body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. (3) It

functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the

code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans:A

9 members,Chairperson –RBI Governor


87. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (1) It is a song and dance

performance. (2) Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. (3) It is performed

to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,

2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

Ans:B

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-newdelhi/manipuri-sankirtana-inscribed-on-

unescos-intangible-heritage-list/article5435312.ece



http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-newdelhi/manipuri-sankirtana-inscribed-on-unescos-intangible-heritage-list/article5435312.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-newdelhi/manipuri-sankirtana-inscribed-on-unescos-intangible-heritage-list/article5435312.ece


http://pib.nic.in/newsite/backgrounders.aspx?relid=102493

88.

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India

during the British rule? (1) Lord Cornwallis (2) Alexander Read (3) Thomas Munro Select the correct

answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:B

Ryotwari system, one of the three principal methods of revenue collection in British India. It was

prevalent in most of southern India, being the standard system of the Madras Presidency (a British-

controlled area now constituting much of present-day Tamil Nadu and portions of neighbouring states).

The system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas (later Sir Thomas) Munro at the end of

the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras (now

Chennai).

89. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of

bioremediation technique? (1) It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same

biodegradation process that occurs in nature. (2) Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium

and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. (3) Genetic

engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the

correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:

D

Bioremediation of metal pollutants from industrial wastewater using metal resistant bacteria is a very

important aspect of environmental biotechnology. Bioremediation is a biotechnology of using living

organisms, mainly microorganisms' metabolic activities, to degrade the environmental contaminants

into less toxic forms. It uses biological agents such as bacteria, fungi or plants to degrade or neutralize

hazardous pollutants.

Biomass of bacterium can be used for bioremediation of cadmium from industrial waste processing

plants with high efficiency.

http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0045653506009738

90. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for (a) the participation fo workers in the management of

industries. (b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes. (c) an intervention by

the British Court in the event of a trade dispute. (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes

Ans:D

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/backgrounders.aspx?relid=102493

http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0045653506009738


91 . Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in (a) Federalism (b) Democratic

decentralisation (c) Administrative delegation (d) Direct democracy

Ans:B

92. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive

Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon (1) Legislative function (2) Executive function Which

of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:D

93. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS (c) EU (d)

G20

Ans:C

94. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the

sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and

you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at (a)

Bhavnagar (b) Bheemunipatnam (c) Chandipur (d) Nagapattinam

Ans:C

http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/chandipur-beach-sea-water-chandipur-odisha/1/178011.html

95. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider

the following statements: (1) A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner

of the property is not aware of the transaction. (2) Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by

the Government. (3) The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for

any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1

and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans:B


96. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be

its likely consequence/ consequences? (1) Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. (2)

There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. (3) It could lead to a

fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the

code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:C

https://www.ufz.de/index.php?en=35336

http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/chandipur-beach-sea-water-chandipur-odisha/1/178011.html


https://www.ufz.de/index.php?en=35336


97.

It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing

countries in promoting this industry? (1) Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and

not on continents. (2) Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level

of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. (3) Economically viable production

necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select

the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:B

98.

Which of the followings are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (1) To create awareness

relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. (2) To reduce the incidence of

anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. (3) To promote the consumption of

millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. (4) To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the

correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3

and 4 only

Ans:A


99. Consider the following statements: (1) The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the

wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. (2) N.M. Lokhande was a

pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are

correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:B

100. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of

carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? (1)

Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams (2) Depleted oil and gas reservoirs (3) Subterranean deep saline

formations Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3

only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: Technology required for CO2 storage in geological formations like oil/gas reservoir, deep saline

aquifers etc. is almost developed and mostly adopted from reservoir exploration in petroleum

industries. Considering present petroleum price, enhanced oil recovery has good economic potential but

has limited capacity. Serious concern has been expressed about the impact of CO2 on marine life in case



of deep oceanic storage. These technological challenges, I am sure, are going to be addressed to by

CSLF.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=16939

APTI PLUS ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES

‘’Eastern India’s Premier Coaching For Civil Services’’

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=16939


Analysis Of General Studies-1

UPSC CSE(P)

Held On 18.06.2017

With a rough analysis of the UPSC Question Paper of prelims GS 1, we are proud to say that

almost around 20-23 questions in the UPSC Prelims 2017 GS Paper-I were from our classroom

notes, discussions & tests. We have brought a rough analysis about the number of questions

asked from each topic in the UPSC 2017 civil services prelims exam.

Sections: Questions Type: Number Of Questions

Economy Static 3

Economy Current Affairs 13

Polity Static 22

Geography Static 9

General Science Static 3

Science & Tech Current Affairs 8

History(Modern) Static 7

History(Medieval) Static 2

History( Ancient) Static 1

History(Art & Cul) Static 4

Environmental Static 8

Environmental Current Affairs 3

World Organisation Current Affairs 4

Miscellaneous Current Affairs 13

Total= 100


Highlights

1)41 Questions were asked from Current Affairs Out of 100.

2)Polity Bags Maximum number of questions section wise with 22,Where Economy questions asked 2nd

Highest.

3)Most of the static questions were from NCERT’s.Most of the Current affairs questions were from

PIB,The Hindu,Economic Times, www.gktoday.in .Even current affairs question were asked from past

years.

4)Most of the questions require basic/thorough concept to answer(Very similar options)

5)Difficulty level of Question Paper can be considered as Moderate To High where 65+ Attempts with

good accuracy may place you in safe zone.

Expected Cutoff For Gen Cat:95-105(As per information collected from reappearing selected aspirants of

past years and other aspirants*.)

www.aptiplus.in

http://www.gktoday.in/

answer keys of upsc cse-2017 held on 18.06.2017 set-d …‘’apti plus academy for civil...

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