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Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
2GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) Caesium is the most electropositive element while F is
the most electrongeative element
(2) Cl has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy out
of all the elements
(3) Electron gain enthalpy of N as well as that of noble
gases is positive
(4) In any period, the atomic radius of the noble gas is
lowest
2. The screening constant () for 4s electron of Mn (Z = 25)
will be :
(1) 18.00 (2) 4.25 (3) 18.35 (4) 21.40
3. Number of crystal water in Gypsum, Plaster of Paris and
Eposm salt respectively are :
(1) 2, 0.5, 7 (2) 7, 2, 1 (3) 7, 0.5, 2 (4) 3, 4, 2
4. A metal chloride, when placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen
flame, does not produce any charasteristic colour. The
cation of chloride is :
(1) Li+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Na+ (4) Ca2+
5. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(1) All alkali-metal salts impart a characteristic colour to
the Bunsen flame.
(2) The correct order of increasing thermal stability of the
carbonates of alkali metls is
Li2CO
3 < Na
2CO
3 < K
2CO
3 < Rb
2CO
3 < Cs
2CO
3
(3) Among the alkali metals caesium is the most reactive
(4) The reducing character of the alkali metal hydrides
following the order :
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH.
6. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding
the diagonal relationship between Al and Be ?
(1) BeO and Al2O
3 are amphoteric in nature.
(2) Al4C
3 and Be
2C give same gas on hydrolysis.
(3) Both can from complexes with same maximum co-
ordination number.
(4) Both form electron deficient and covalent hydride.
1.
(1) Cs F
(2) Cl
(3)
(4)
2. Mn (Z = 25) 4s ()
(1) 18.00 (2) 4.25 (3) 18.35 (4) 21.40
3.
(1) 2, 0.5, 7 (2) 7, 2, 1 (3) 7, 0.5, 2 (4) 3, 4, 2
4.
(1) Li+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Na+ (4) Ca2+
5.
(1)
(2)
Li2CO
3 < Na
2CO
3 < K
2CO
3 < Rb
2CO
3 < Cs
2CO
3
(3)
(4)
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH.
6. Be Al
(1) BeO Al2O
3
(2) Al4C
3 Be
2C
(3)
(4)
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
3GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
7. A + H2O NaOH
B + H2O NaOH + O
2; A and B are respectively :
(1) Na2O
2 and NaO
2
(2) Na2O and Na
2O
2
(3) NaO2 and Na
2O
2
(4) Na2O and NaO
2
8. Which of the following pair of metal form nitride on reaction
with Nitrogen ?
(1) Li, Mg
(2) Mg, Na
(3) Al, K
(4) Al, Na
9. Which gas responsible for leaving holes in cakes or pastries
and making them light and fluffy ?
(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) H2
(4) CH4
10. When sodium is placed in moist air, finally change into :
(1) NaOH
(2) Na2O
2
(3) Na2O
(4) Na2CO
3
11. What is the best description of the change that occurs when
Na2O(s) is dissolved in water ?
(1) Oxide ion accepts a pair of electrons
(2) Oxide ion donates a pair of electrons
(3) Oxidation number of oxygen increases
(4) oxidation number of sodium decreases
12. Which of the following have an incorrect order of ionization
energy :
(1) Pb (IE) > Sn (IE)
(2) Na+ (IE) > Mg+ (IE)
(3) Li+ (IE) < O+ (IE)
(4) Be+ (IE) < C+ (IE)
7. A + H2O NaOH
B + H2O NaOH + O
2; A B
(1) Na2O
2 NaO
2
(2) Na2O Na
2O
2
(3) NaO2 Na
2O
2
(4) Na2O NaO
2
8.
(1) Li, Mg
(2) Mg, Na
(3) Al, K
(4) Al, Na
9.
(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) H2
(4) CH4
10.
(1) NaOH
(2) Na2O
2
(3) Na2O
(4) Na2CO
3
11. Na2O(s)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
12.
(1) Pb (IE) > Sn (IE)
(2) Na+ (IE) > Mg+ (IE)
(3) Li+ (IE) < O+ (IE)
(4) Be+ (IE) < C+ (IE)
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
4GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
13. Which of the following has the largest ionic radius ?
(1) Be2+
(2) Mg2+
(3) Ca2+
(4) Sr2+
14. Similarity in chemical properties of the atoms of elements
in a group of the periodic table is most closely related to :
(1) Atomic numbers
(2) Atomic masses
(3) Number of principal energy levels
(4) Number of valence electrons
15. What is the nature of Al2O
3 and B
2O
3 ?
(1) Acidic, Acidic
(2) Acidic, Amphoteric
(3) Amphoteric, Amphoteric
(4) Amphoteric, Acidic
16. correct trend of first ionization energy in group-13 is :
(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In
(3) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
(4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl
17. Select correct statement :
(1) La and Ac belong to f-block
(2) An element having atomic number 31 belongs to 3rd
period
(3) General outermost shell electron configuration of d-
block element is ns1–2 (n - 1)d1–10
(4) All actinoids are man made elements
18. Which of the following conclusions are correct regarding
the element having atomic number equal to 113 ?
i. It is present in the 8th period of the modern periodic tabel
ii. It is present in the group 13 in the periodic table
iii. it is a p-block element
iv. Oxidation states of this element may be +1 or +3.
(1) i, iii, iv
(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) i, iv
13.
(1) Be2+
(2) Mg2+
(3) Ca2+
(4) Sr2+
14.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
15. Al2O
3 B
2O
3
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
16. 13
(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In
(3) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
(4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl
17.
(1) La Ac f-
(2) 31
(3) d- ns1–2 (n - 1)d1–10
(4)
18. 113
i. 8
ii. 13
iii. p-
iv. +1 +3
(1) i, iii, iv
(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) i, iv
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
5GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
19. Which of the following relations is correct, if considered
for the same element ?
(1) RVander Waal
> RCovalent
> RMetallic
(2) RCovalent
> RMetallic
> RVander Waal
(3) RVander Waal
> RMetallic
> RCovalent
(4) RMetallic
> RCovalent
> RVander Waal
20. The reduction in atomic size with increases in atomic number
is a characteristic of elements of :
(1) d-block
(2) f-block
(3) Heavier elements of p-block in group
(4) None of these
21. The correct order of acidic strength of the following is :
(1) SO2 > P
2O
3 > SiO
2 > Al
2O
3
(2) P2O
3 > SO
2 > SiO
2 > Al
2O
3
(3) P2O
3 > Al
2O
3 > SO
2 > SiO
2
(4) Al2O
3 > SiO
2 > P
2O
3 > SO
2
22. Which of the following is incorrect match ?
(1) Z = 48, group = IIB, period = 5th
(2) (Xe) 4f7 5d1 6s2, group = IIIB, period = 6th
(3) (Rn) 6d2 7s2,group = IVB, period = 7th
(4) Z = 56, group = IIA, period = 6th
23. The value of IE1, IE
2, IE
3 and IE
4 of an atom are 7.5 eV,
25.6 eV, 48.6 eV and 170.6 eV respectively. The electronic
configuration of the atom will be :
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
24. The correct order of increasing radii is :
(1) Be2+, Mg2+, Na+ (2) K+, Ca2+, S2–
(3) O2–, F–, N3– (4) S2–, O2–, As3–
25. Arrange Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ in increasing order of
their size –
(1) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(2) Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+
(3) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
(4) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
19.
(1) R > R > R
(2) R > R > R
(3) R > R > R
(4) R > R > R
20.
(1) d-
(2) f-
(3) p-
(4)
21.
(1) SO2 > P
2O
3 > SiO
2 > Al
2O
3
(2) P2O
3 > SO
2 > SiO
2 > Al
2O
3
(3) P2O
3 > Al
2O
3 > SO
2 > SiO
2
(4) Al2O
3 > SiO
2 > P
2O
3 > SO
2
22.
(1) Z = 48, = IIB, = 5th
(2) (Xe) 4f7 5d1 6s2, = IIIB, = 6th
(3) (Rn) 6d2 7s2, = IVB, = 7th
(4) Z = 56, = IIA, = 6th
23. IE1, IE
2, IE
3 IE
4 7.5 eV,
25.6 eV, 48.6 eV 170.6 eV
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
24.
(1) Be2+, Mg2+, Na+ (2) K+, Ca2+, S2–
(3) O2–, F–, N3– (4) S2–, O2–, As3–
25. Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ Yb3+
(1) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(2) Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+
(3) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
(4) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
6GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
26. The element with atomic number 56 is likely to have the
same outer shell configuration as the element with atomic
number :
(1) 12
(2) 18
(3) 14
(4) 24
27. The elements which are characterised by the outer shell
configuration ns1, ns2 and ns2np1 to ns2np5 are collectively
called as -
(1) Transition elements
(2) Representative elements
(3) Lanthanoides
(4) Metalloids
28. The first element of a group in many ways differs from the
other heavier members of the group. This is due to -
(1) The small size
(2) The high electronegativity and high ionisation potential
(3) The unavailability of d-orbitals
(4) All of the above
29. Ionisation energy tend to decrease going in down any
column of main group elements because ............ going
down the column -
(1) Nuclear charge increases
(2) Number of sheilding electrons increases
(3) Atomic size increases
(4) Effective nuclear charge increases
30. In halogens, which of the following decreases from iodine
to fluorine -
(1) Bond length
(2) Electronegativity
(3) Ionisation energy
(4) Oxidising power
26. 56
(1) 12
(2) 18
(3) 14
(4) 24
27. ns1, ns2 ns2np1
ns2np5
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
28.
(1)
(2)
(3) d-
(4)
29.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
7GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
31. Select correct statement about radius of an atom -
(1) Values of vanderwaal's radii are larger than those of
covalent radii because the vanderwaal's forces are much
weaker than the forces oprating b/w atoms in a covalently
bonded molecule
(2) The metallic radii are smaller than the vanderwaal's
radii, since the bonding forces in the metallic crystal lattice
are much stronger than vanderwaal's forces
(3) Zr and Hg have similar atomic size
(4) Both (1) and (2)
32. Correct order of radius is -
(1) O2– > F– > Li+ > B3+
(2) F– > Li+ > B3+ > O2–
(3) O2– > F– > B3+ > Li+
(4) Li+ > B3+ > O2– > F–
33. Mg2C
3 reacts with water forming propyne gas, C3
4 ions
has -
(1) Two sigma bonds and two pi bonds
(2) Three sigma bonds and one pi bonds
(3) Two sigma bonds and one pi bonds
(4) Three sigma bonds and three pi bonds
34. Which is the correct in the following -
(1) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Cl+ ion is 1.54 Å
(2) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Na atom is 1.54 Å
(3) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Cl– ion is 0.81 Å
(4) Radius of Na atom is 0.95 Å while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å
35. If an atom has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
3d3 4s2, it will be place in -
(1) Second group
(2) Third group
(3) Fifth group
(4) Sixth group
31.
(1)
(2)
(3) Zr Hg
(4) (1) (2)
32.
(1) O2– > F– > Li+ > B3+
(2) F– > Li+ > B3+ > O2–
(3) O2– > F– > B3+ > Li+
(4) Li+ > B3+ > O2– > F–
33. Mg2C
3 C3
4
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
34.
(1) Cl 0.99 Å Cl+
1.54 Å
(2) Cl 0.99 Å Na
1.54 Å
(3) Cl 0.99 Å Cl–
0.81 Å
(4) Na 0.95 Å Na+
1.54 Å
35. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
3d3 4s2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
8GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
36. Which of the following statement is incorrect -
(1) Vander wall's radius of iodine is more than its covalent
radius
(2) All isoelectronic ions belong to the same period of the
periodic table
(3) IE1 of N is higher than that of O while IE
2 of O is higher
than that of N
(4) 1st Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is negative while second
is positve
37. Select the incorrect statement -
(1) Lithium is least reactive but the strongest reducing agent
among all the matels
(2) Lithium hydrogen carbonate is not obtained in the solid
form while all other alkali metals form solid hydrogen
carbonate
(3) Lithium nitrate when heated gives lithium oxide whereas
other alkali metal nitrates decompose to give the
corresponding nitrite
(4) Solubility of alkali metal hydroxide decreases down the
group. It is due to decrement in hydration energy from Li+
to Cs+
38. Which of the following properties of IA group metals
increases as the atomic number rises -
I. Metallic character
II. Ionic radius
III. Melting point
IV. Density
V. IE
(1) I, II, III
(2) I, II
(3) III, IV, V
(4) I, II, III, IV, V
39. Which of the following statements is not ture about the
dilute solutions of alkali metals in liquid ammonia
(1) They are deep blue coloured solutions
(2) They are highly conducing in nature
(3) They are diamagnetic in nature
(4) Ammoniated cation and ammoniated electron are
formed in the solution
36.
(1)
(2)
(3) N IE1 O IE
2
(4) Cl
37.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Li+ Cs+
38.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
(1) I, II, III
(2) I, II
(3) III, IV, V
(4) I, II, III, IV, V
39.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
9GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
40. An element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2 2p6,
3s1 will form -
(1) Acidic oxide
(2) Basic oxide
(3) Amphoteric oxide
(4) Neutral oxide
41. In the solvay process of manufacture of sodium carbonate,
the raw materials used are -
(1) Aqueous NaOH, NH3 and CO
2
(2) Molten NaOH, NH3 and CO
(3) Brine NaCl, NH3 and CO
(4) Brine NaCl, NH3 and CO
2
42. Atomic number of an element is 43. Then electronic con-
figuration of the element present upward on it in periodic
table -
(1) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d5,4s2
(2) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d10,4s24p5
(3) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d6,4s1
(4) none
43. The electron gain enthalpies of halogens are as given
below -
F = – 332, Cl = –349, Br = –324, I = – 295 kJ/mol
The less negative value for F as compare to that of Cl is
due to -
(1) Strong electron-electron repulsion in the compact 2p
sub-shell of F
(2) Strong electron-electron repulsion in the bigger 3p sub-
shell of Cl
(3) Higher electron negativity value of Cl
(4) Higher effective nuclear charge of F
44. Usually which of the following is correct when an electron
is added to gaseous atom -
(a) It change to anion
(b) Energy is released
(c) Zeff
decrease
(d) It is always become stable
(1) all are correct (2) 3 statements are correct
(3) 2 statements are correct (4) 1 statement is correct
40. 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
41.
(1) NaOH, NH3 CO
2
(2) NaOH, NH3 CO
(3) NaCl, NH3 CO
(4) NaCl, NH3 CO
2
42. 43
(1)1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d5,4s2
(2)1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d10,4s24p5
(3)1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d6,4s1
(4)
43.
F = – 332, Cl = –349, Br = –324, I = – 295 kJ/mol
Cl F
(1) F 2p
(2) Cl 3p
(3) Cl
(4) F
44.
(a)
(b)
(c) Zeff
(d)
(1) (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements
10GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
45. False statement for periodic classification of elements is -
(1) The properties of the elements are periodic function of
their atomic numbers.
(2) No. of non-metallic elements is less than the no. of
metallic elements.
(3) First ionization energy of elements does not change con-
tinuously with increasing of atomic no. in a period.
(4) d-subshell is filled by final electron with increasing
atomic no. of inner transition elements.
45.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
d-
11GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
46. In cockroach, the formation of ootheca is by the secretions
of -
(1) Prothoracic glands of male
(2) Prothoracis glands of female
(3) Colleterial glands of male
(4) Colleterial glands of female
47. What is incorrect regarding periplaneta americana -
(1) Exceretion by malpighian tubules
(2) Hemolymph delivering oxygen to tissues
(3) Paurometabolous development
(4) Mosaic vision
48. Which of the following does not help in exceretion in
excretion in Periplaneta americana -
(1) Fat body (2) Urecose glands
(3) Nephrocytes (4) None of these
49. The mouth part of cockroach shown in th egiven diagram
acts as a/an -
(1) Upper lip (2) Tongue
(3) Lower lip (4) Uvula
50. The epithelium shown in the given digaram is found in -
Cilia
Nucleus
BasementMembrane
(1) Proximal convoluted Tubule
(2) Small intestine
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Thyroid follicle cells
51. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous
waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of -
(1) ammonia (2) potassium urate
(3) urea (4) calcium carbonate
46.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
47.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
48.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
49.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
50.
Cilia
Nucleus
BasementMembrane
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
51.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
12GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
52. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in whcih part of
the reproductive system -
(1) Seminal vesicles
(2) Mushroom glands
(3) Testes
(4) Vas deferenns
53. Choose the corectly matched pair.
(1) Tendon-Specialised connective tissue
(2) Adipose tissue-Dense connective tissue
(3) Areolar tissue-Loose connective tissue
(4) Cartilage-Loose connective tissue
54. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a
cockroach nymph -
(1) Mandible become harder
(2) Anal cerci develop
(3) Both fore wings and hind wings develop
(4) Labium develops
55. Which of the following correctly states as it happens in the
common cockroach -
(1) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(2) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
(3) The food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard
(4) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out
from the colon
56. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of
bronchioles and fallopian tubes is -
(1) Cuboidal
(2) Glandular
(3) Ciliated
(4) Squamous
57. Simple Cuboidal epithelium lines all the following structures
except -
(1) Ovary (2) Pancreatic ducts
(3) Thyroid follicles (4) Falopian tube
52.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
53.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
54.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
55.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
56.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
57.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
13GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
58. All of the following statements regarding epithelial tissues
are correct except -
(1) The cells are completely packed with little intercellular
matrix
(2) They do not have a vascular supply of their own
(3) Cell junctions are very well developed in epithelial cells
(4) They rest on a celular basement membrane
59. An important function of the epithelium is secretion. Which
cell organelle would be most important in such secretory
epithelial cells -
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Lysosomes
60. A part from the hematopoietic cells, bone marrow is largely
composed of -
(1) areolar tissue
(2) adipose tissue
(3) white fibrous tissue
(4) epithelium
61. Which of the following is false about columnar epithelium -
(i) It is made of tall and slender cells
(ii) Free surface may have microvilli
(iii) They are found in stomach and intestine and help in
secretion and absorption
(iv) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structure
like bronchioles and fallopian tubes/oviducts
(v) They have apical nuclei -
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (v)
(3) Only (ii) and (iv) (4) Only (ii) and (iii)
62. Collagen fibres are secreted by -
(1) Fibroblast
(2) Mast cells
(3) Histocyte
(4) Macrophages
58.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
59.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
60.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
61.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(1) (i) (2) (v)
(3) (ii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iii)
62.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
14GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
63. The Major constituent of connective tissue is -
(1) Lipid (2) Carbohydrates
(3) Cholesterol (4) Collagen
64. Which of the following contains the largest quantity of
extracellular materials -
(1) Striated muscles
(2) Areolar connective tissue
(3) Striated epithelium
(4) Myelinated nerve fibres
65. Which of the following statement is false about the
compound epithelium -
(i) It consists of three layers
(ii) It covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface
of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary
glands and pancreatic ducts
(iii) It provides protection against chemical and mechanical
stresses
(iv) Being multilayered it has a great role in secretion and
absorption
(1) Only (ii)
(2) Only (iv)
(3) Only (i) and (iv)
(4) Only (ii)
66. Read the following four statements (A-D) -
A. Heart of cockroach is funnel shaped with ostia on either
side.
B. The respiratory system of cockroach consists of a network
of Capillary that open through 10 pairs of small holes called
spiracles.
C. Male cockroach have paired Spermatheca in 6 th
abdominal segments.
D. In Mosaic vision, with the help of several ommatidia a
cockroach can receive more than one image of an object.
How many of the above statements are right -
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One
63.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
64.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
65.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1) (ii)
(2) (iv)
(3) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii)
66. (A-D)
A.
B.
10
C. 6th
D.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
15GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
67. Select the incorrect match pair with regarding cockroach -
(1) Malphigian tubules – 100-150 Yellow coloured
(2) Alary muscles – Attach with dorsal tergum and
dorsal diaphragm
(3) Ootheca – Formed around the unfertilised
egg
(4) Metamorphosis – Paurometabolous
68. Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III–
Column–I Column–II Column–III
1. Hepatic a. Present on 10th i. Repel the
caeca turgum in both O & O+ enemies
2. Malpighian b. Present at junction of ii. Secret the
tubules midgut & hindgut digestive enzymes
3. Anal cerci c. Present at initial part iii. Excretion and
of midgut osmoregulation
4. Stink gland d. Present between 5th (iv) Phonoreceptor
and 6th turgum
(1) 1–b–ii, 3–c–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i
(2) 1–b–ii, 3–a–iv, 3–d–i, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–c–ii, 3–a–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i
(4) 2–c–iii, 3–a–i, 4–d–iii, 1–b–iv
69. In female cockroach, genital pouch is formed by -
(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum
(2) 7th sternum , 8th and 9th terga
(3) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum
70. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
cockroach (Periplaneta americana) -
(1) Cockroaches belong to the phylum–Arthropoda
(2) Cockroaches are nocturnal animals
(3) Cockroaches are carnivorous animals
(4) Cockroaches have long antenna and legs
67.
(1) – 100-150
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
68. I, II III
–I –II –III
1. a. 10th i.
2. b. ii.
3. c. iii.
4. d. 5th - 6th (iv)
(1) 1–b–ii, 3–c–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i
(2) 1–b–ii, 3–a–iv, 3–d–i, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–c–ii, 3–a–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i
(4) 2–c–iii, 3–a–i, 4–d–iii, 1–b–iv
69.
(1) 7th, 8th 9th sternum
(2) 7th sternum , 8th 9th terga
(3) 9th, 10th terga 9th sternum
(4) 9th 10th sterna, 9th tergum
70. ( )
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
16GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
71. Alary muscles in cockroach occur in-
(1) Heart wall and help in circulation
(2) Located in pericardial sinus and helps in circulation
(3) wall of gizzard and help in its contraction
(4) intestinal wall and help in digestion
72. Which type of image is found in eye of Cockroach -
(1) Mosaic, Less resolution (2) Superposition
(3) Mosaic, High resolution (4) None of these
73. Select the correct statements regarding to cockroach -
(a) There is developmental through nymphal stage. The
nymph look very much like larva.
(b) They can transmit a variety of bacterial diseases by
contaminating food material.
(c) In cockroach vision is known as mosaic vision.
(d) The sperms are glued together in the form of bundles
called spermatophores Sperm are stored in spermatheca
(1) b, c and d (2) a and c
(3) b and c (4) a and d
74. Cockroach blood does not contain respiratory pigment. It means-
(1) Oxygen reaches to all the tissues through diffusion
(2) It does not respire
(3) Cockroach respires anaerobically
(4) Oxygen reaches tissue through tracheoles
75. Which among the following are not sense organs in cockroach-
(1) Labial palps
(2) Mandible
(3) Maxillary palps
(4) Anal cerci
76. Consider the following statements about the hind wings
of cockroach.
I. These are broad and thick
II. They are not used in flying.
III. They are also known as mesothoracic wings.
IV. They are transparent and delicate.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect -
(1) I and III
(2) I, II and III
(3) I and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV
71.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
72.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
73.
(a) nymphal stage
(b)
(c)
(d) spermatophores
(1) b, c d (2) a c
(3) b c (4) a d
74.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
75.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
76.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) I III
(2) I, II III
(3) I IV
(4) I, II, III IV
17GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
77. Which of the following feature are not releted with
Periplaneta–
(A) The next to last nymphal stage of Periplaneta has wing
pads, but only adult female cockroaches have wings
(B) Female cockroach produce 9-10 oothecae
(C) At the junction of foregut and hindgut 6-8 blind tubules
called gastric caecae is present
(D) Periplaneta americana are about 34-53 cm long with
wings
(E) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened plates called
sclerites
(F) Antennae have sensory receptors that help in monitoring
the environment
(1) Only A, C and D (2) Only C and D
(3) Only A, B and D (4) Only A, B, E and F
78. Identify the following epithelial tissues and select the correct
option -
A B C D
(1) Wall of blood Duct of glands Intestine Fallopian tube
vessels
(2) Alveoli Stomach Nephron Bronchi
(3) Pharynx Duct of Alveoli Nephron
Salivary gland
(4) Peritoneum Bronchi Pharynx Intestine
77.
(A)
(B) 9-10
(C) 6-8
(D) 34-53 cm
(E)
(F)
(1) A, C D (2) C D
(3) A, B D (4) A, B, E F
78.
A B C D
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
18GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
79. Which of the following statement is correct about squa-
mous epithelium ?
(1) It consists of a single thin layer of flattened cells with
irregular boundaries
(2) It is found in the wall of blood vessel, air sac of lungs, etc
(3) It is involved in many functions like forming a diffusion,
boundary
(4) All
80. In origin of connective tissues is -
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm
(3) Mesoderm (4) All of the above
81. Basement membrane is composed of –
(1) Hyaluronic Acid+ glycoproteins
(2) Only mucopolysaccharides
(3) Endodermal cells
(4) Epidermal cells
82. The intercellular matrix is very little or absent in which of
the following tissue
(1) Connective tissue (2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Cardiac tissue
83. Consider the diagram and read the following statements
and choose correct option –
A B
(i) Both A and B represent dense connective tissue.
(ii) Both A and B represent loose connective tissue.
(iii) A–Irregular connective tissue , B–Regular connective
tissue
(iv) B–Found in skin
(v) A–Found in tendon
Options :
(1) Only i, iv and v (2) Only i
(3) Only i and iii (4) Only i, iii, iv and v
79.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
80.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
81.
(1) Hyaluronic Acid+ glycoproteins
(2) Only mucopolysaccharides
(3) Endodermal cells
(4) Epidermal cells
82.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
83.
A B
(i) A B
(ii) A B
(iii) A– B–
(iv) B–
(v) A–
:
(1) i, iv v (2) i
(3) i iii (4) i, iii, iv v
19GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
84. Which of the following statemens is/are incorrect regarding
connective tissues ?
(i) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely
distributed in the body of complex animals.
(ii) They connect and support other tissues.
(iii) They include such diverse tissues as bone, cartilage,
tendons, adipose, loose tissues and stratified epithelium.
(iv) Different fibre provide elasticity, flexibility and stability
to tissue, Helps in diffusion
(v) In all connective tissues the cells secrete fibres of
structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
(1) i, ii and iii
(2) iii, iv, v only
(3) i, ii and v
(4) i and iv
85. Read the following four statements (A – D)-
(A) Tight junction prevents the leaking of substances across
a tissue.
(B) Gap junction facilitates the cells to communicate each
other by connecting cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid
transfer of ions, small molecules and some times big
molecules
(C) Intercellular junctions are rarely found in tissues except
epithelium tissue.
(D) Tight junction allows the rapid transfer of ions, small
molecules and some time big molecules.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Two
86. Which of the following lack blood supply ?
(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Connective tissue
(4) none of these
84.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(1) i, ii iii
(2) iii, iv, v
(3) i, ii v
(4) i iv
85. (A – D) :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
86.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
20GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
87. Large amoeboid cells, that are a part of our innate immune
system found in the areolar tissue are called as -
(1) Macrophages (2) Mast cells
(3) Fibroblasts (4) Adipocytes
88. Identify correct Match–
Column–I Column–II Column–III
(1) Just below the Dense connective
Skin tissue
(2) Tendon Dense regular
connective tissue
more elastin fiber
(3) Ligament Dense regular
connective tissue
with more collagen
fiber
(4) Areolar tissue present benath the
Skin
89. In which of the following tissues fibres and fibroblast are
arranged in a irregular pattern -
(1) Dermis of skin
(2) Epidermis of skin
(3) Tendon
(4) Ligament
90. Stomach and intestine are lined by -
(1) Stratified squamous epithelium
(2) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium having goblet cells
(4) Columnar epithelium having cilia
87.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
88.
–I –II –III
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
89.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
90.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
21GCI
Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals
DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021
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