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All IBO examination questions are published under the following Creative Commons license:
CC BY-NC-SA (Attribution-NonCommercial-ShareAlike) -https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc-sa/4.0/ The exam papers can be used freely for educational purposes as long as IBO is credited and new creations are licensed under identical terms. No commercial use is allowed.
8th INTERNATIONAL BIOLOGY OLYMPIAD PRACTICAL TEST-A
BOTANY AND BOTANIC ECOLOGY
1. MATERIAL NUMBER: 1 The function of this organism is……… A) to fix free nitrogen B) to convert proteins to NH3 C) to make alcoholic fermentation D) to make lactic acid fermentation E) to produce amino acid from NH3
2. MATERIAL NUMBER: 1 This organism is a (n)………………. A) Eucaryot B) Cyanobacteria C) Yellow - green algae D) Diatom E) Green algae
3. MATERIAL NUMBER: 2 This organism is a(n)………………… A) Procaryot B) Metazoan C) Diatom D) Cyanobacteria E) Green algae
4. MATERIAL NUMBER: 2 This organism ……………………….. A) produces NO2 from NH3 B) produces NO3 from NO2
C) produces free nitrogen D) forms the silica layers of the earth E) is a zooplankton
5. MATERIAL NUMBER: 2 The species of this organism is ……… A) Anabaena sp. B) Escherichia sp. C) Navicula sp. D) Chlorella sp. E) Sargassum sp.
6. MATERIAL NUMBER: 3 It makes…………………………….. A) Chemosynthesis B) Photosynthesis C) Nitrification D) Denitrification E) Fermentation
7. MATERIAL NUMBER: 4 Type of reproduction is…………….. A) Autogamy
B) Isogamous C) Anisogamous D) Conjugation E) Vegetative
8. MATERIAL NUMBER: 4 The shape of chloroplast is…………… A) Star B) Oval C) Spiral D) Rod E) Circle
9. MATERIAL NUMBER: 5 The shape of bacteria is…………… A) Spirillum B) Bacillus C) Coccus D) Vibrio E) Staphylococcus
10. MATERIAL NUMBER: 5 The group of bacteria is…………… A) Gram (+) B) Gram (-) C) Gram (+) and Gram (-) D) One flagellated E) Poly flagellated
11. MATERIAL NUMBER: 6 The shape of bacteria is…………… A) Spirillum B) Bacillus C) Coccus D) Vibrio E) Staphylococcus
12. MATERIAL NUMBER: 6 The group of bacteria is…………… A) Gram (+) B) Gram (-) C) Gram (+) and Gram (-) D) One flagellated E) Many flagellated
13. MATERIAL NUMBER: 7 The number of flagella on the bacteria is……………………………… A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) Many
14. MATERIAL NUMBER: 8 The shape of bacteria is……………
A) Staphylococcus B) Diplococcus C) Streptococcus D) Micrococcus E) Spirillum
15. MATERIAL NUMBER: 9 The shape of bacteria is…………… A) Staphylococcus B) Diplococcus C) Streptococcus D) Micrococcus E) Spirillum
16. MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 Which of the followings includes this organism? A) Zygomycota B) Ascomycete C) Basidiomycete D) Phaeophceae E) Rhodophyta
17. MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 The structure includes…………… A) Only sporangium B) Only zygote C) Sporangium and zygote D) Only egg. E) Egg and sperms
18. MATERIAL NUMBER: 11 Which of the followings includes this organism? A) Zygomycota B) Ascomycete C) Basidiomycete D) Phaeophceae E) Rhodaphyta
19. MATERIAL NUMBER: 11 The organism includes..................in its structure. A) Zygote B) Lamellate structure C) Basidium D) Gametophyte E) Ascus
20. MATERIAL NUMBER: 12 The dark structures on the section of this fungus are…………………….. A) Spores B) Spore vesicles C) Ascus D) Zygote E) Hypha
21. MATERIAL NUMBER: 12 Which of the followings does include this fungus? A) Zygomycota B) Ascomycete C) Basidiomycete D) Rhodophyta E) Phaeophyceae
22. MATERIAL NUMBER: 13 This structure of the fern is……….. A) Only antheridium B) Only archegonium C) Antheridium and archegonium D) Young sporophyte E) Strobilus
23. MATERIAL NUMBER: 14 This structure which belongs to lycopsida is........... A)Only antheridia B)Only archegonia C)Antheridia and Archegonia D)Rhizome E)Strobila
24. MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 This section of leaf belongs to……… A) Fungi B) A lycopside C) Horsetail D) Pine E) Grass
25. MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 This plant is …………… A) Hydrophyte B) Hygrophyte C) Xerophyte D) Tropophyte E) Helophyte
26. MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 The big spaces at the edges are …….. A) Latex B) Resin channels C) Secreting pockets D) Xylem tubes E) Phloem tubes
27. MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 Stomata occur at………relative to the leaf surface. A) The same level B) The upper level C) The lower level D) Extremely upper E)There are no stomata
28. MATERIAL NUMBER: 15
The shape of parenchyma cell is …… A) Circle B) Star C) Rectangle D) Isodiametric E) Hexagonal
29. MATERIAL NUMBER: 16 The pollen belongs to…………plant. A) Magnolia B) Ranunculus C) Zea D) Pinus E) Solanum
30. MATERIAL NUMBER: 16 The distribution of pollen is done by……… A) Water B) Insects C) Wind D) Birds E) Mammalia
31. MATERIAL NUMBER: 17 This section of root belongs to………. A) Cocos B) Monstrea C) Orchis D) Ranunculus E) Sphagnum
32. MATERIAL NUMBER: 18 This section of root belongs to……….. A) Astaraceae B) Fabaceae C) Araceae D) Lamiaceae E) Cactaceae
33. MATERIAL NUMBER: 19 This section of stem belongs to……….. A) Poaceae B) Solanaceae C) Oleaceae D) Phaeophyceae E) Phagaceae
34. MATERIAL NUMBER: 20 This section of stem belongs to……….. A) Fabaceae B) Pinophyta C) Lycopodiophyta
D) Liliaceae E) Muscopsida
35. MATERIAL NUMBER: 21 This section consists of……….. A) Only cork cambium B) Only lenticel C) Only cork tissue D) Only cork cambium and lenticel E) Cork cambium, lenticel, cork
36. MATERIAL NUMBER: 22 This section of leaf belongs to a ……… plant. A) Polyticum B) Pinus C) Marchantia D) Triticum E) Quercus
37. MATERIAL NUMBER: 23 This leaf belongs to a……….. plant. A) Hydrophytic B) Succulent C) Mesophytic D) Xerophytic E) Carnivore
38. MATERIAL NUMBER: 24 This leaf belongs to a……….. plant. A) Hydrophytic B) Succulent C) Mesophytic D) Xerophytic E) Carnivore
39. MATERIAL NUMBER: 25 This leaf belongs to a……….. plant. A) Hydrophytic B) Succulent C) Mesophytic D) Xerophytic E) Carnivore
40. MATERIAL NUMBER: 26 This flower belongs to a ……….. plant. A) Triticum B) Lamium C) Syringa D) Opuntia E) Ginkgo
41. MATERIAL NUMBER: 27 This structure which belongs to a lilium is………... A) Ovulary B) Tetrad
C) Anther D) Embryo E) Seed
42. MATERIAL NUMBER: 28 This tissue which is seen at the outermost part of the stem is. ……….. A) Epidermis B) Cork C) Lenticel D) Stoma E) Trichome
43. MATERIAL NUMBER: 29 The supportive tissue in this structure is………… A) Sclereid B) Schlerenchyma C) Collenchyma D) Tracheid E) Trachea
44. MATERIAL NUMBER: 30 The crystal shape in this tissue is a……. A) Raphides B) Druse C) Prism D) Cubic E) Sand
45. MATERIAL NUMBER: 31 The pink lines between the lumens are………. A) Middle lamella B) Secondary cell wall C) Primary cell wall D) Plasmodesmata E) Edged passage
46. MATERIAL NUMBER: 32 Which of the followings isn’t found in this root structure? A) Epidermis B) Cortex C) Starch D) Vascular bundle E) Cork cambium
8th INTERNATIONAL BIOLOGY OLYMPIAD
PRACTICAL TEST-B
ZOOLOGY AND ZOOLOGIC ECOLOGY 1. MATERIAL NUMBER: 1
This organism belongs to……… A) Amoebae B) Radiolarian C) Foraminifers D) Paramecium E) Euspongia
2. MATERIAL NUMBER: 1 This organism moves using…………… A) Cilia B) Flagellum C) Pseudopod D) Myosin filaments E) Flow of water
3. MATERIAL NUMBER: 2 This organism belongs to………… A) Rhodophyta B) Phaeophyta C) Euglenophyta D) Chlorophyta E) Poriferan
4. MATERIAL NUMBER: 2 This organism has …………..flagella/ flagellum. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) No E) Many
5. MATERIAL NUMBER: 3 This organism is ……… A) Euglena B) Trypanosome C) Chlamydomonas D) Chlorella E) Vorticella
6. MATERIAL NUMBER: 3 The habitat of this organism is……… A) Fresh Water B) Salty Water C) Intestine D) Mouth of Mammals E) Human’s blood
7. MATERIAL NUMBER: 3 This organism moves using……………
A) Cilia B) Flagellum C) Pseudopod D) Myosin filament E) Flow of water
8. MATERIAL NUMBER: 4 This organism is…………… A) Euglena B) Paramecium C) Chlorella D) Plasmodium E) Vorticella
9. MATERIAL NUMBER: 4 This organism moves using…………… A) Cilia B) Flagellum C) Pseudopod D) Myosin filament E) Flow of water
10. MATERIAL NUMBER: 5 The reproductive pattern of this single celled organism is…………… A) Conjugation B) Fission C) Isogamy D) Anisogamy E) Autogamy
11. MATERIAL NUMBER: 6 This organism is…………… A) Euglena B) Trypanosome C) Chlamydomonas D) Chlorella E) Vorticella
12. MATERIAL NUMBER: 7 This organism belongs to…………… A) Hydrozoan B) Scyphozoan C) Anthozoan D) Euspongia E) Oligochaete
13. MATERIAL NUMBER: 7 This reproduction pattern is………….. A) Conjugation B) Isogamy C) Budding D) Oogamy E) Fission
14. MATERIAL NUMBER: 7 The habitat of this organism is……… A) Salty Water B) Human Intestine C) Human Blood D) Fresh Water E) On the mosses
15. MATERIAL NUMBER: 8 This organism belongs to………….. A) Hydrozoan B) Scyphozoan C) Anthozoan D) Euspongia E) Oligochaete
16. MATERIAL NUMBER: 9 This organisms belongs to………….. A) Polychaete B) Oligochaete C) Hirudinea D) Crustacean E) Chelicerata
17. MATERIAL NUMBER: 9 This organism has ……….. antennae. A) No B) 2 C) 2 pairs D) Brush like E) 4 pairs
18. MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 This organism belongs to………….. A) Chelicerata B) Thysanuran C) Isopteran D) Crustacean E) Hymenoptera
19. MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 This organism has …………. antennae. A) No B) 2 C) 2 pairs D) Brush like E) 4 pairs
20. MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 This organism has ………….. legs. A) 4 B) 4 pairs C) 3 D) 3 pairs E) No
21. MATERIAL NUMBER: 10
The mouth structure is ……………… A) Chewer B) Grazer C) Cheliser D) Holder E) Piercer and absorbent
22. MATERIAL NUMBER: 11 ……….. has this kind of eye structure. A) Leptinotarsa B) Hirudo C) Fasciola D) Sepia E) Asteria
23. MATERIAL NUMBER: 12 This metamorphosis occurs…………. A) Under Soil B) On the branches C) On the mammals’ skin D) In fresh water E) On the death animal body
24. MATERIAL NUMBER: 12 The type of this metamorphosis is……. A) Ametabol B) Hemimetabol C) Holometabol D) Hypermetabol E) Neoteny
25. MATERIAL NUMBER: 12 The adult of this organism uses……….. as food A) Larva B) Vegetable C) Fruit D) Mammal’s blood E) Soil
26. MATERIAL NUMBER: 12 This organism has …………. antennae. A) Many B) No C) 2 D) 2 pairs E) 6
27. MATERIAL NUMBER: 13 The type of egg that show this kind of segmentation is……………………. A) Isolecithal B) Mesolecithal C) Telolecithal
D) Centrolecithal E) Polylecithal
28. MATERIAL NUMBER: 13 The type of segmentation is…………… A) Superficial B) Mesoblastic C) Meroblastic D) Holoblastic E) Discoidal
29. MATERIAL NUMBER: 13 …………. show this kind of division. A) Frogs B) Birds C) Turtles D) Starfish E) Salamander
30. MATERIAL NUMBER: 14 This blastula stage is formed by…..............type egg. A) Isolecithal B) Mesolecithal C) Telolecithal D) Centrolecithal E) Polylecithal
31. MATERIAL NUMBER: 14 The type of segmentation……………. A) Superficial B) Mesoblastic C) Meroblastic D) Holoblastic E) Discoidal
32. MATERIAL NUMBER: 14 This blastula stage is formed by………………. A) Frogs B) Birds C) Turtles D) Starfish E) Salamander
33. MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 This structure is the……………. tissue of a mammal. A) Cartilage B) Bone C) Pancreas D) Thyroid E) Secretory
34. MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 The big gap in the middle is………….. A) Secretory Channels B) Langerhans Islands
C) Secretory Lumen D) Haversian Channels E) Chondrocytes sets
35. MATERIAL NUMBER: 16 This blood tissue belongs to………….. A) Locusta B) Myotis C) Cebus D) Lumbricus E) Anuran
36. MATERIAL NUMBER: 17 Circular structure observed in the cross section of skin is……………….. A) Adipose tissue B) Vater paccini C) Crause D) Ruffini E) Meissner
37. MATERIAL NUMBER: 17 The duty of this structure is………….. A) Storing lipid B) Sense the pressure C) Sensing the high temperature D) Sensing the low temperature E) Secreting sweat
38. MATERIAL NUMBER: 18 This vessel that cats have is…………… A) Artery B) Vena C) Arteriole D) Lymphatic E) Arteriosclerosis Vena
39. MATERIAL NUMBER: 19 The type of epithelium is………….. A) Transitional B) Pseudo Stratified C) Stratified D) Cubic E) Goblet
40. MATERIAL NUMBER: 20 This person, whose bar bodies has been stained, has……………….. A) XX B) XY C) XXX D) XXY E) XXXY
41. MATERIAL NUMBER: 21 These jaw bones belongs to…………… A) Mammalia
B) Piciformes C) Testudinate D) Caudata E) Teleostei
42. MATERIAL NUMBER: 22 This skull belongs to………………. A) Anura B) Myotis C) Lacerta D) Clupea E) Petromyzon
43. MATERIAL NUMBER: 23 This tooth belongs to………………… A) Strix B) Ciconia C) Sycliorhinus D) Ascidia E) Dryocopus
44. MATERIAL NUMBER: 24 This human bone is…………………. A) Atlas B) Lumbar C) Thoracic D) Cervical E) Axis
45. MATERIAL NUMBER: 25 This human bone is…………………. A) Atlas B) Lumbar C) Thoracic D) Cervical E) Axis
8th INTERNATIONAL BIOLOGY OLYMPIAD PRATICAL TEST-C
TAXONOMY 1- MATERIAL NUMBER: 1 This organism belongs to ...............................
A. Porifera B. Cnidaria C. Turbellaria D. Trematoda E. Cestoda
2- MATERIAL NUMBER: 1 Stained part is ............ system of that organism.
A. Respiratory B. Excretory C. Digestive D. Nervous E. Reprodutive
3- MATERIAL NUMBER: 2 This organism belongs to .................................
A. Porifera B. Cnidaria C. Turbellaria D. Trematoda E. Cestoda
4- MATERIAL NUMBER: 2 ....................... is not observed in this slide
A. Intestine B. Uterus C. Testis D. Ovary E. Protonephridium
5- MATERIAL NUMBER: 3 This organism belongs to ............................
A. Platyhelminthes B. Nemathelminthes C. Annelida D. Oligochaeta E. Polychaeta
6- MATERIAL NUMBER: 3 The sex of the individuals in the slide is ..........................
A. Only male B. Only female C. Male and female D. Hermaphrodite
7- MATERIAL NUMBER: 4 This organism belongs to ............................
A. Stellaroidea B. Echinoidea C. Gastropoda D. Scyphozoa
E. Ascidia 8- MATERIAL NUMBER: 5 This organism belongs to ............................
A. Turbellaria B. Trematoda C. Cestoda D. Hirudinea E. Polychaeta
9- MATERIAL NUMBER: 6 This organism belongs to .................................
A. Turbellaria B. Trematoda C. Cestoda D. Hirudinea E. Polychaeta
10- MATERIAL NUMBER: 6 The name of the species in this slide is ............
A. Nereis B. Hirudo C. Asterias D. Polycellis E. Scolopendra
11- MATERIAL NUMBER: 7 This organism belongs to .................................
A. Crustacea B. Chelicerata C. Tracheata D. Chilopoda E. Homoptera
12- MATERIAL NUMBER: 7 This organism has ............................. antennae
A. No B. One pair C. Two pairs D. Four pairs E. Six
13- MATERIAL NUMBER: 7 The name of the species in this slide is .................................
A. Astacus B. Daphnia C. Cyclops D. Areneus E. Aphis
14- MATERIAL NUMBER: 8 This organism belongs to ............................
A. Crustacea B. Chelicerata C. Tracheata
D. Chilopoda E. Hymenoptera
15- MATERIAL NUMBER: 8 This organism has ....................... antennae
A. No B. One pair C. Two pairs D. Four pairs E. Six
16- MATERIAL NUMBER: 8 The name of the species in this slide is .................................
A. Ixodes B. Scolopendra C. Pedinculus D. Leptinotarsa E. Gerris
17- MATERIAL NUMBER: 8 The the number of legs in this organism is ...........................
A. Two pairs B. Three pairs C. Four pairs D. Six pairs E. Eight pairs
18- MATERIAL NUMBER: 9 This organism belongs to ................................
A. Diptera B. Hymenoptera C. Anoplura D. Isoptera E. Odonata
19- MATERIAL NUMBER: 9 Mouth parts are ........................
A. Sucker B. Chewer C. Piercing D. Chelicer E. Lapping for pollen grains
20- MATERIAL NUMBER: 9 The name of the species in this slide is ...........
A. Ichneumon B. Leptinotarsa C. Aphis D. Anopheles E. Pedinculus
21- MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 This organism belongs to ...........................
A. Diptera B. Hymenoptera
C. Anoplura D. Isoptera E. Odonata
22- MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 Mouth parts are
A. Piercing B. Chewer C. Licking D. Chelicer E. Lapping for pollen grains
23- MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 This the number of legs in this organism is .....................
A. Two pairs B. Three pairs C. Four pairs D. Six pairs E. Eight pairs
24- MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 The name of the species in this slide is ................
A. Drosophila B. Araneus C. Formica D. Gerris E. Ixodes
25- MATERIAL NUMBER: 10 This is organism has ...................... antennae
A. No B. One pair C. Two pair D. Four pair E. Six
26- MATERIAL NUMBER: 11 This organism belongs to ..........................
A. Diptera B. Hymenoptera C. Anoplura D. Isoptera E. Odonata
27- MATERIAL NUMBER: 11 This number of legs in this organism is ............
A. Two pairs B. Three pairs C. Four pairs D. Six pairs E. Eight pairs
28- MATERIAL NUMBER: 11 The name of the species in this slide is .............
A. Drosophila
B. Araneus C. Pediculus D. Gerris E. Ixodes
29- MATERIAL NUMBER: 11 This organism has ..................... antennae
A. No B. One pair C. Two pair D. Four pair E. Six
30- MATERIAL NUMBER: 12 This fruit belongs to ................................
A. Asteraceae B. Solanaceae C. Lamiaceae D. Fabaceae E. Oleaceae
31- MATERIAL NUMBER: 13 This plant belongs to .............................
A. Solananceae B. Magloniaceae C. Rosaceae D. Ranunculaceae E. Brassicaceae
32- MATERIAL NUMBER: 13 Ovary position is ....................................
A. Epigin B. Hypogin C. Perigin D. Perigineus E. Hypogenius
33- MATERIAL NUMBER: 14 This plant belongs to ......................................
A. Araceae B. Arecaceae C. Poaceae D. Orchidaceae E. Liliaceae
34- MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 Ovary position is ........................................
A. Epigin B. Hypogin C. Perigin D. Perigineus E. Hypogineus
35- MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 This plant belongs to ......................... (familia)
A. Solanaceae B. Magnoliaceae C. Rosaceae D. Rununculaceae E. Brassicaceae
36- MATERIAL NUMBER: 15 This plant belongs to ...............................
A. Prunus B. Rosa C. Pulsatilia D. Syringa E. Malus
37- MATERIAL NUMBER: 16 This structure belongs to .............................
A. Rosaceae B. Fagaceae C. Brasicaceae D. Solanaceae E. Asteraceae
38- MATERIAL NUMBER: 16 This body part of a plant is .........................
A. Stem B. Bulb root C. Storage root D. Leave E. Bud
39- MATERIAL NUMBER: 17 Leaves of the plant are .................................
A. Tripinnat B. Paripinnat C. Trifoliat D. Imparipinnat E. Bipinnat
40- MATERIAL NUMBER: 18 This structure belongs to ............................
A. Araceae B. Arecaceae C. Poaceae D. Orchiclaceae E. Liliaceae
41- MATERIAL NUMBER: 19 This plant belongs to ...................................
A. Asteraceae B. Arecaceae C. Aracaea D. Rosaceae E. Fabaceae
8th INTERNATIONAL BIOLOGY OLYMPIAD PRACTICAL PART-D
ECOLOGIC PROBLEMS 1. The amount of food that juneperus bird needs everyday is 10% of its weight. According to this information how much food does a Juneperus bird with 90 gram body weight needs everyday. A) 90 gr. B) 45 gr. C) 9 gr. D) 10 gr. E) 18 gr. Answer the question 2,3,4,5,6 according to the given information below. In the sitophilus oryzae population density dependent egg laying number is given below. Number of mite=128 Number of wheat seeds=200 The number of eggs that a female lay in each day=1,6 The number of eggs found in each seed=2,56 Percentage of adults getting out from eggs=~70 Percentage of seeds that doesn’t have any egg=5,0 Female, male ratio=1 2. Number of wheat mite for each seed? A) 32.8 B) 1.56 C) 3.2 D) 0.64 E) 6.4 3. The total number of eggs that females lay everyday? A) 204.8 B) 512 C) 327.6 D) 140 E) 102.4 4. The total number of eggs in the seeds is…………………… A) 512 B) 327.6 C) 486.4 D) 163.8 E) 304 5. The number of seeds with egg is…………………… A) 10 B) 6.4 C) 64 D) 100 E) 190 6. The total number of eggs that give rise to adults……………….. A) 358 B) 229 C) 340 D) 114 E) 212 Answer the question 7,8,9,10,11,12 according to the information given below. The numbers of female and male individuals in the Panaeus incidus population (for each season) is given below
..........................Number of.................Number of
............................MALES....................FEMALES Winter......................130..............................142 Spring.......................60................................67 Summer....................482.............................458 Fall...........................243.............................246 7. What’s the maximum population size in year A) 915 B) 913 C) 1828 D) 940 E) 518 8. The number of maximum female individuals in a year. A) 915 B) 913 C) 458 D) 482 E) 1828 9. The season, in which the percentage of males is the highest, is ………………… A) Winter B) Spring C) Summer D) Fall E) All seasons are same 10. What’s the maximum percentage of male individuals in a year? A) 54 B) 47.7 C) 51 D) 49 E) 50.05 11. The season in which the mortality number is the highest……………. A) Winter B) Fall C) Spring D) Summer 12. The season in which the mortality percent is the highest……………………….. A) Winter B) Fall C) Spring D) Summer Answer the questions 13,14,15,16,17 according to information given below. Following figure compares the terrestrial and aquatic areas. ...........................................TERRESTRIAL AREA...................AQUEOUS AREA Total Area....................................149x106 km2.................................361x106 km2
Total Net Primary Production......120x109 ton/year ............................60x109 ton/year Total Secondary Production..........0.8x109 ton/year............................3.0x109 ton/year Total Food (Both animal and plant made)........1.3x109 ton/year...........................17.0x109 ton/year
13. Total net primary product per km2 on terrestrial area for a year is…………………… A) 85 B) 8.50 x 102 C) 805.369 D) 8.5 x 103 E) 8505 x 102
14. Total secondary product per km2 on terrestrial area for a year is………………….. A) 53x102 B) 5.369 C) 5.3x103 D) 0.053 E) 0.53
15. Total food per km2 on terrestrial area for a month is………………………………….. A) 7.27 B) 0.72x103 C) 2.7x102 D) 0.727 E) 0.00727
16. Total net primary product per km2 on aqueous area for a month is……………………. A) 1.3x103 B) 13.850 C) 138 D) 1.3x102 E) 0.0138
17. Total secondary product per km2 on aqueous area for a month is……………………… A) 6.92 B) 0.0069 C) 609.2 D) 60.29 E) 0.692
18. Total food per km2 on aqueous area for a year is………………………….. A) 47.091 B) 4.7 C) 47.7x103
D) 47.7x102 E) 4.7
All IBO examination questions are published under the following Creative Commons license:
CC BY-NC-SA (Attribution-NonCommercial-ShareAlike) -https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc-sa/4.0/ The exam papers can be used freely for educational purposes as long as IBO is credited and new creations are licensed under identical terms. No commercial use is allowed.
IBO 1997, Turkmenistan THEORETICAL TEST
PART A 1. In plants with flowers (angiosperms), the female gametophyte is very small and consists of A) 20 to 25 nuclei. B) 18 to 20 nuclei. C) 7 to 9 nuclei. D) 1 to 2 nuclei. 2. In which of the following the gametophyte plant is dominant ? A) Rhynophyta B) Bryophyta C) Lycopodiophyta D) Pinophyta E) Equisetophyta 3. A dark -grown oat seedling illuminated from one side with a halogen bulb curves towards the bulb. A colored filter was inserted between the bulb and the seedling and the effect of illumination remained unaffected. What was the color of the filter? A) Red B) Green C) Yellow D) Blue E) Such an effect is not possible. Only full spectrum white light may have the effect described above 4. Dichlorophenol indophenol (DCPIP) is a blue dye that is decolorized when reduced. After being mixed with DCPIP which of the followings would show the greatest change in color? A) isolated chloroplasts in the dark. B) isolated chloroplasts in the light. C) chlorophyll extract in the dark. D) boiled chloroplasts in the dark. E) boiled chloroplasts in the light. 5. Phytochrome far red (PFR) inhibits flowering in: A) Day-neutral plants B) Vernalized plants C) Long-day plants D) Short-day plants E) Senescing plants 6. In a monocot stem, such as corn, there are no distinct areas of cortex and pith. The tissue that performs the functions as the cortex and pith is referred to as; A) Endodermis B) Ground tissue C) Meristem D) Vascular cambium E) Periderm 7. Which of the following techniques would be most suitable for the study of DNA synthesis in a cell? A) Phase contrast microscopy B) Electron microscopy C) Autoradiography D) Serial- sections microscopy E) Nuclear transplantation
8. In poikilotherm animals, oxidation and phosphorilation is physiologic response to the decreasing surrounding temperature. In this condition which of the following structures change its function manner? A) Nucleus inner membrane B) Mitochondria inner membrane C) Mitochondria outer membrane D) Hyaloplasma E) Peroxisom 9. Which of the followings occurs in the same direction as evolution? A) Genetic Drift B) Gene Flow C) Natural Selection D) Mutation E) Both Genetic Drift and Gene flow 10. In some localities in Africa there are three different distasteful species of butterfly. Different females of the edible swallow tail butterfly, Papilio dardanus , mimic each of the distasteful models. So the initial single population has been separated into three different populations that differ in their color pattern as each has mimicked a different distasteful model. Which of the following explains this event? A) Stabilizing selection B) Directional selection C) Disruptive selection D) Bottleneck effect E) Founders effect 11. Which of the followings is not accepted as prezygotic isolating mechanism in speciation? A) Gametic Isolation B) Mechanical Isolation C) Hybrid Breakdown Isolation D) Ecological Isolation E) Temporal Isolation 12. Why are mycoplasmas resistant to penicillin although they are sensitive to tetracycline? (Tetracycline is a kind of antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis) A) Since they lack a cell wall B) Since they lack nuclear envelope C) Since they are smaller than viruses D) Since they are anaerobic E) Since their cell walls are made of compounds like protein 13. Which of the following livings causes the black bread mold? A) Ascomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Deuteromycota D) Zygomycota 14. Which of the followings are the fungal partners of nonwoody plants in mycorrhiza symbiotic relationships? A) Zygomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Deuteromycota D) Ascomycota E) Both C and D. 15. Which of the followings controls the amount and kinds of minerals that enter the xylem in the apoplast route of transportation of water? A) Semipermeable cell membrane B) Plasmodesmata
C) Endodermis D) Cortex parenchyma cells. E) Pericycle 16. Which of the followings is the origin of multicellular branch roots? A) Epidermis B) Cortex C) Endodermis D) Tracheid E) Pericycle 17. In order for a bacterium to produce an eucaryotic protein, which of the followings must first be isolated from an eucaryotic cell prior to cloning? A) The protein from the rough endoplasmic reticulum B) The protein primary DNA transcript from the nucleus C) The protein of mRNA from the cytoplasm D) The segments of DNA that control transcription for this protein E) The introns from the segment of DNA that codes for the protein 18. In humans the majority of ingested calcium is excreted in the: A) Urine B) Sweat C) Plasma D) Feces 19. The old blind man have not noticed the wasp in his cup of juice. It has string in his throat. What is the best help for him? A) To warm his neck B) To give him some alcohol C) To give him some cold water D) To give him some sedative E) To give him vomitory 20. Which of the following cells recognizes an antigen presented in combination with MHC II? (Major Histocompatibility Complex II) A) Suppresser cell B) Cytotoxic cell C) Neutrophil cell D) Helper cell E) Basophil cell 21. When humans movement become incorrect disorderly trembling and lose equilibrium and there are pronunciation disorders and speech difficulties the lesion is found in: A) Spinal cord B) Thalamus C) Hypothalamus D) Medulla oblongata E) Cerebellum 22. Which of the following structures is formed due to the transformation of the lateral organ? A) Pressure receptors B) Semicircular canals C) Middle ear D) Cohlea E) Statocyst 23. Which of the followings depicts the pattern flow of energy and materials through an ecosystem? A) Food chain B) Biomass pyramid C) Numbers pyramid
D) Food web E) A and D 24. Into a large, tightly stoppered flask filled with nitrogen 100m1 of live yeast made suspension in minimal medium containing 0.1 mole/l glucose as carbon source was introduced. After 24 hours somewhat more than 100 ml of carbon dioxide (as measured under standard conditions) accumulated in the flask (assume no carbon dioxide dissolves in the medium). What was the approximate concentration of glucose in the medium at that moment? A) Almost zero B) 0.01 mole/l C) 0.05 mole/l D) 0.075mole/l E) 0.09 mole/l 25. The principal constitute of myelin is A) Carbohydrate B) Lipid C) Mucopolysaccharide D) Nucleic acid E) Protein 26. Various substances can affect the excitability of neuron. Calcium ions make a neuron less excitable by: A) Increasing the amount of sodium ions that enter the voltage gated sodium channels B) Binding to the neurolemma, making it less permeable to potassium ions thus limiting repolarization and reducing the action potential. C) Binding to the proteins that make up the sodium channels thus reducing the amount of sodium ions that can enter. D) Binding to the active site of the sodium potassium pump which causes repolarization at a voltage lower than -70 mV E) Reacting with the negatively charged chlorine ion to form calcium chloride which neutralizes the membrane potential. 27. In certain terrestrial animals the body surface has evolved as a respiratory structure. This is characterized by A)The presence of deep indentations in the body surface to facilitate the diffusion of gas deep into the body. B) The exchange of gas directly between all the body cells and the atmosphere C) Special enzymes that allow for active transport of oxygen into the body and carbon dioxide out of the body. D) The counter current exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen between the air and mucus covering the animals' body surface. E) The presence of blood vessels close to the surface to receive and transport oxygen to other body regions. 28. The function of RUGAE in the stomach is to ______________ . A) Crush the food B) Increase the capacity of the stomach. C) Secrete amylase D) By muscular contractions, mix the food with gastric juices E) Increase the surface area for secretion 29. Which statement is false in comparing Metanephridia with protonephridia? A) Metanephridia have a tuft of cilia to move fluids along while protonephiridia only have a single flagellum. B) The metanephridium is open at both ends C) Metanephridia are surrounded by capillaries which permits useful materials to be reabsorbed and returned to the circulation D) Useful materials are reabsorbed in the metanephridia. E) Water is conserved and urine is concentrated
30. In a colony of honey bees, the dominance of the queen is maintained by the A) Provision of eggs by the queen B) Secretion of pheromones by the queen C) Suppression of sexual development of the workers D) None of the above 31. Substitution of a nitrogen base in a gene can resulted in: A) Nonsense mutation B) Frame shift mutation C) Missense mutation D) Silent mutation E) All kinds of the above mentioned mutations except B 32. The frequency of crossovers between linked genes A and B is 30% between B and C is 40%, between C and D is 45%, between A and C is 10%, between B and D is 5%. The sequence of genes on chromosome is : A) ABCD or DCBA B) BDCA or ACDB C) CABD or DBAC D) DBCA or ACBD E) DCAB or BACD 33. Some mammals have no collar bone in their shoulder girdle. A typical feature of these mammals is; A) Being arboreal B) Being aquatic C) Being capable of soaring or active flight D) Having mobility of forelimbs limited to one plane only E) Neither of the features given above 34. How old are the earliest known fossils of the genus Homo ? A) Several hundred thousand years B) 1-9 million years C) 10-19 million years D) 20-100 million years E) More than 100 million years 35. Which of the followings makes up the inner bark of a woody plant? A) Primary phloem B) Secondary phloem C) Primary xylem D) Secondary xylem E) Pith 36. Which of the following statements about the upper and lower epidermis is correct? A) Lower epidermis cells are living parenchyma cells while upper epidermis cells are not. B) Upper epidermis cells' wall on the outside of the leaf is thicker than on the inside while it is not valid for lower epidermis. C) Upper epidermis cells are relatively transparent while lower epidermis cells contain chloroplasts. D) The upper epidermis has a thicker cuticle than the lower epidermis. E) The lower epidermis mostly contains lots of trichomes while there is no trichome in the upper epidermis. 37. The resemblance between one orchid species and female wasps is so strong that male wasps mount the flowers and attempt to copulate with them. This is an example of: A) Parasitism B) Coevolution C) Artificial selection D) Adaptive radiation E) Selective breeding
38. Fruits that form from a single flower that contains many separate carpels, are referred to as: A) Accessory fruits B) Aggregate fruits C) Dry fruits D) Multiple fruits E) Simple fruits 39. How do shade-avoiding plants respond when they absorb more far-red light? A) They produce more leaves B) They grow additional parts C) They branch extremely D) They grow taller E) They stop growing 40. Plants respond to wounding by herbivorous insects by producing a plant polypeptide known as ___________ that may trigger the plant to produce proteinase inhibitors that disrupt insect digestion. A) Florigen B) Polyamine C) Phytoalexin D) Salicylic acid E) Systemin 4l. Which of the following models maintains that populations diverge from one another by the slow accumulation of adaptive characteristics within each population? A) Punctuated equilibrium B) Paedomorphosis C) Hybridization D) Gradualism E) Allopoliploidy 42. Proteins synthesized in E-coli have which of the followings at their terminal end? A) N- formyl- methionine B) N- acetyl- adenine C) Adenine triphosphate D) The AUG codon E) The UUU codon. 43. Which of the followings are the ancestors of mitochondria and chloroplasts according to endosymbiosis theory respectively? A) Purple sulfur bacteria, cyanobacteria B) Purple non-sulfur bacteria, cyanobacteria C) Purple sulfur bacteria, green algae D) Purple non- sulfur bacteria, green algae E) None of the above 44. Catabolite activator protein __________________ . A) Increases the affinity of the promoter region for RNA polymerase B) Decreases RNA polymerase activity C) Becomes nonfunctional when it binds to cAMP D) Both A and B are true E) Both A and C are true 45. The lactose operon regulates the synthesis of ________________ . A) b - galactosidase B) Galactoside transacetylase C) Galactose transferase D) Both A and B E) A, B, C are correct
46. TATA box is seen in ________ cells and is the site where ___________ . A) Procaryotic; RNA polymerase binds B) Eucaryotic cells; DNA ligase cleaves introns C) Multicellular eucaryotes, RNA polymerase binds D) All of the above are true E) None of the above is true 47. How may recombinant genes be introduced into monocotyledons? A) By the use of Ti vectors B) By the use of plasmids as vectors C) By the use of genetic shotguns D) By the use of radioactive probes E) None of the above 48. Which of the followings can be used as DNA vectors? A) Bacteriophages B) Plasmids C) E- coli cells D) Both A and B E) Both A and C 49. Immunoglobulins, designated ________ increase antimicrobial activity in mucus. A) Ig A B) Ig E C) Ig G D) Ig M E) Ig Z 50. Antibody- mediated responses work best against _______________ . A) Intracellular pathogens. B) Extracellular pathogens C) Toxins D) B and C E) All of the above. 51. Which of the followings is wrong? A) The peroxysomes in plant cells are also called glyoxysomes B) Peroxysomes and glyoxysomes contain enzymes that degrade fatty acids C) Peroxysomes are present in the photosynthetic cell of green plants D) Microbodies are cytochemically defined by their catalase activity 52. Which of the followings is true? A) Dynein is a Ca
++ ATPase and generates the energy for the bending of the ciliurn and flagellum.
B) The initial polymerization of tubulin often occurs at certain regions of the cell termed microtubule organizing centers (MTOCs). C) If cells are microinjected with Ca
++ microtubule disassembly is blocked and assembly is
promoted. D) Desmin is a kind of microfilament. E) Desmin is not found in cardiac or smooth muscle. 53. Which of the following statements is wrong? A) The nuclear lamina is composed of four different polypeptides termed lamins. B) The lamins are intermediate filaments. C) Nuclear envelope contains structural proteins but does not contain any enzymes. D) Small molecules enter the nucleus more readily than do large ones. E) All of them is true 54. In eucaryotes there are commonly three different RNA polymerases, which act at different promoters to transcribe the various kinds of RNA in the cell. Which of the followings about the RNA polymerase I is true in eucaryotes?
A) It occurs in the nucleoplasm and synthesizes mRNA B) It occurs in the nucleolus and synthesizes mRNA C) It occurs in the nucleolus and synthesizes tRNA D) It occurs in the nucleoplasm and synthesizes mRNA E) It occurs in the nucleolus and synthesizes rRNA 55. All chordates have _________ in some stage of their life. A) A spinal chord B) Gills C) A notochord D) Vertebrae E) Hair 56. A cladogram is based on: A) Homologous characteristics B) Analogous characteristics C) Polyphyletic taxa D) Fossil evidence only E) Derived characters only 57. The phenetic system is based primarily on: A) Known evolutionary relationships B) Fossil evidence C) Shared characteristics D) Ancestral characteristics E) Both ancestral and shared characteristics 58. A typical R- selected organism might be a_________ : K- selected organism might be a ____________ . A) Mouse, elephant B) Elephant, mouse C) Mouse, rabbit D) Rabbit, fly E) Rabbit, mouse 59. ______________ is the least frequent of the dispersal patterns seen in nature and may be seen in situations in which the environment is particularly homogeneous. A) Aggregated distribution B) Clumped distribution C) Uniform distribution D) Density - dependent distribution E) Random dispersion 60. When some animals mature they then migrate long distances to their breeding grounds or to escape harsh weather. A signal for this type of behavior would be: A) A conditioned stimulus B) The length of day C) Negative reinforcement D) A sign stimulus 61. For an animal to respond to a pheromone it must: A) Have a specific receptor B) Be able to see it coming C) Be able to smell it D) Have a thin epidermis or hair so it can penetrate E) Be of the opposite sex of the individual from which it was produced 62. In polymerase chain reaction technology the two strands of DNA are separated by: A) Increasing temperature B) Treating them with restriction enzymes
C) Centrifugation D) Increasing pH E) Both A and C are true 63. Which of the following areas of the world produce the most O2 per year? A) Temperate forests B) Grasslands C) Lakes and streams D) Oceans 64. The concentration of phytoplancton is significantly lower in open seas than in coastal waters. It is commonly believed that this is caused directly by: A) Insufficient abundance of mineral nutrients B) Too low concentration of dissolved carbon dioxide C) Insufficient mixing of water D) Massive presence of phytoplanctophagous fish E) Too high salinity 65. Lianas and epiphytes are especially common in: A) Tropical rain forests B) Savannah C) Temperate grassland D) Taiga 66. Lichens are most typically formed by the symbiotic association of an alga or cyanobacterium and a(n) : A) Ascomycota B) Deuteromycota C) Basidiomycota D) Zygomycota E) Spirochete 67. The logistic equation: A) Models an S-shaped growth curve B) Takes into account the carrying capacity C) Shows continued exponential growth D) Both A and B E) Both B and C 68. At which of the given times should the C02 concentration in the forest be at the highest level each day during the summer? A) Just before sunrise B) Noon C) Just before sunset D) Midnight 69. Clumped dispersion is typically influenced by : A) Social behavior such as family groups B) Asexual reproduction in plants or invertebrates C) Limited seed dispersal in plants D) A patchy distribution of resources E) All of these 70. The area of greatest seasonal ozone depletion is in the: A) Stratosphere above the Arctic B) Stratosphere above the Antarctic C) Troposphere above the Arctic D) Troposphere above the Antarctic E) Lithosphere above the Arctic
71. Which of the followings about the golgi complex is false? A) The golgi complex under the electron microscope is composed of flattened sacs termed cisternae B) Sulfation of proteins doesn't occur in the golgi C) Glycosylation of proteins occur in the golgi D) The trans region of golgi faces the plasma membrane and has larger vesicles than cis region of golgi 72. Studying cells using a phase contrast microscope gives the advantage because: A) The resolving power is greater B) The magnification is greater C) It uses a beam of electrons which can penetrate the tissue of living organisms, thus allowing one to see the organelles enclosed by the plasma membrane D) Organelles of cells can be seen without staining which usually results in the death of cells 73. The scanning electron microscope differs from the transmission electron microscope because the scanning electron microscope: A) Can view a living specimen B) Relies on the emission of secondary electrons emitted from a gold-coated object C) Can view the internal structure of a cell D) Utilizes a beam of light that can pass through the specimen E) Gives a two dimensional image of the object being studied 74. Typically, which grows the most slowly? A) Bread moulds B) Lichens C) Yeast D) Mushrooms E) Sac fungi (Ascomycota) 75. Which of the followings is characterized by cold temperatures little rain and few or no trees? A) Taiga B) Savannah C) Tundra D) Desert 76. Which of the following biomes has the greatest species diversity? A) Tropical Forest B) Savannah C) Grassland D) Temperate deciduous forest 77. The tropical rain forest is characterized by: A) High density of plants, but nutrient poor soil B) High density of plants, and nutrient rich soil C) Low density of plants due to nutrient poor soil D) Low density of plants, but nutrient rich soil E) None of the above responses are correct 78. Which the following pairs is mismatched? A) Behavior; response to environment signals B) Capacity for behaviour; is learned C) Behaviour; can be modified D) Persistent changes in behaviour; learning E) Behaviour; adaptation for survival 79. In a place where number of individuals establish adjacent territories if one individual gets further from the center of its territory and approaches the edge of the next, it: A) Encounters a big fight on entering the next territory B) Loses control of its mates
C) Passes a neutral line between territories where neither is dominant D) Becomes more aggressive as it gets closer to the adjacent territory 80. Which of the followings about the plasma membranes is not true? A) In most plasma membranes the two membrane leaflets (cytoplasmic and exoplasmic leafted) have same lipid compositions B) Membrane proteins bind asymmetrically to the two layers of lipid C) Most membrane proteins and lipids are laterally mobile in the membrane D) Cell coat(glycocalyx) is found at the exoplasmic face 81. Which of the followings about the cell junctions is false? A) Many plant cells are interconnected by plasmodesmata which allow metabolites with low molecular weight and signaling molecules to move between cells B) Ca
++ ion concentration affects the closure of gap junctions
C) Tight junctions consist of connexin molecules; six formed in a hexagon cylinder in one plasma membrane joined to six arranged in the same array in the adjacent cell membrane D) Spot desmosomes are found in all epithelial cells 82. Which one of the followings is false for mitochondria? A) The size and coding capacity of mitochondria DNA varies in different organisms B) Mitochondria contain their own genetic material C) Mitochondria ribosomes are different from the cytoplasmic ribosomes D) Most mitochondrial proteins are synthesized in the mitochondria E) Plant mitochondria DNA’s are larger than the other organisms’ mitochondria DNA 83. Which of the following plant hormones delay senescence or aging? A) Auxin B) Cytokinin C) Ethylene D) Gibberellin E) Abscisic acid 84. Which of the following phylum's members cause sleeping sickness? A) Rhizopoda B) Zoomastigina C) Ciliophora D) Foraminifera E) Actinipoda 85. The beginning of cephalization is first seen in the: A) Scyphozoans B) Poriferans C) Platyhelminthes D) Nematodes E) Nemerteans 86. In the body, although nerve impulses can travel in both directions along an axon impulses are usually unidirectional. This is because: A) Dendrites have a higher threshold than axons B) The axon terminals have a higher threshold than axons C) The myelin sheath directs the flow of ions toward the axon terminals D) The axon terminals contain neurotransmitter receptors and the dendrites do not E) Dendrites contain no neurotransmitter substance 87. Which of the followings about the archaebacteria is false? A) They all lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls B) Their lipids contain an ether linkage between the glycerol and the fatty acid residues C) Translation is initiated by N-formyl methionine t RNA D) They live in swamps
88. In chemiosmosis hydrogen ions (protons) release their energy to produce ATP as they pass through _______________________ . A) The outer mitochondrial membrane B) ATP synthase C) ATP dehydrogenase D) ATP decarboxylase E) A group of electron carriers 89. Tetanus toxin inhibits the breakdown of acetyhcholine at the myoneural junction. This effects muscle contraction by _____________ . A) Not allowing the muscle to contract B) Preventing the muscle from relaxing C) Preventing calcium from entering the muscle D) Inhibiting potassium from leaving the muscle E) Stopping the formation of actomyosin 90. Protein leaves the interstitial fluid and enters the circulatory system: A) Through pores on the arterial side of a capillary bed B) Through pores on the venous side of a capillary bed C) By being phagocytized and transported to the blood through eosinophils D) Via the lymphatics which deposits them into the subclavian vein E) By active transport mediated by permeases in the capillary epithelium 91. In the citric acid cycle, two acetyl CoA molecules are metabolized to: A) 2 CO2 + 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 FADH B) 4 C02 + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP C) Fructose 1,6 biphosphate D) Glucose + 2 C02 + 2 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP E) 2 PGAL 92. Which of the followings is true? A) Lactose operon in E. coli is only controlled by negative control by the lactose repressor B) When E.coli is grown in the presence of both glucose and lactose, both glucose and lactose is utilized C) Catabalite gene activator protein (CAP) has no influence on transcription until ATP has bound to it D) Different proteins that are coded by a same mRNA molecule are always produced in similar numbers E) DNA repair genes at many different sites on the chromosome are regulated by only a single repressor in prokaryots 93. A mRNA "cap'' : A) Marks the mRNA for degradation B) Serves as the attachment point for a poly-A tail C) Prevents translation D) Decreases the half - life of the mRNA E) None of the answers is correct 94. Which of the followings can be found on a completed bacterial mRNA? A) Intron region B) A leader sequence C) A primer sequence D) Poly A tail E) None of them 95. In an E-coli bacterium, there are three types of DNA polymerase which are called DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III and DNA polymerase II. Which of the followings about the functions of these enzymes is wrong? A) All of them have 5' ® 3' polymerization activity B) Only DNA polymerase II has not the 5' ® 3' exonuclease activity
C) Only DNA polymerase I and III have the 3' ® 5' exonuclease activity D) DNA polymerase I has the capacity to remove the RNA primers E) DNA polymerase III makes up the Okazaki fragments 96. Which of the followings is not correct for CAM plants? A) Crassulacean Acid Metabolism is found in fewer than 5 percent of plants B) Although the cell could not metabolize normally if the acid accumulated in the cytoplasm, throughout the night more and more malic acid is produced and stored in the cell's vacuole, building a reservoir of fixed CO2
C) Malic acid is broken down into C02 and pyruvate during day-time. It is then that CO2 becomes fixed to RBP D) CAM synthesis helps to conserve precious water by separating the time of CO2 fixation; the light reactions, and the Calvin cycle 97. Which of the following amino acids enter the Crebs cycle via being converted to ketoglutaric acids? A) 2- carbon amino acids B) 3- carbon amino acids C) 4- carbon amino acids D) 5- carbon amino acids 98. Intolerance to cold and myxodema are typically seen in ____________ . A) Hyperthyroidism B) Hypothyroidism C) Acromegaly D) Cretinism 99. What's the effect of insulin in adipose tissue? A) It stimulates glucose uptake B) It stimulates lipolysis C) It stimulates hormone-sensitive lipase and lipoprotein lipase D) It stimulates urea synthesis 100. The largest white blood cell in humans which is a part of the body's macrophage defense system is: A) Neutrophil B) Lymphocyte C) Monocyte D) Eusinophil E) Basophil