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ENGLISH TEST

45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the pas-sage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.

You will also find questions about a section of the pas-sage or about the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.

For each question, choose the alternative you consider best, and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer document. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you must read several sen-tences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.

5. A. NO CHANGE B. decided that C. had decided D. had to of decided

4. F. NO CHANGE G. me, H. me, as J. me. As

3. A. NO CHANGE B. hang C. hanging D. were hanging

2. Given that all the choices are true, which one best sets up the image of the Museum as a strange place?

F. NO CHANGE G. a tiny H. an outdoor J. an eerie

1. A. NO CHANGE B. family and I decided C. family and I decided, D. family, and I, decided

PASSAGE I

A Museum With No “Charms”

It was a balmy August day when my family, and I decided

to visit the Voodoo Museum, an old-timey storefront with a

hand-painted sign in front of it. The potions lining the shelves

and the ominous portraits hung on the walls made me feel

that it was a hundred years earlier at least. Marie Leveau’s

eyes looked out from her portrait, trying to cast a spell on

me as if controlled by a voodoo doll, I began to feel that I

was moving involuntarily. I couldn’t have been more excited.

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New Orleans is one of the most misunderstood vacation

spots in the world. For too long, tourists have known it only

as a place to “let the good times roll.” But we have decided5


6. F. NO CHANGE G. I wanted to see New Orleans’s richness and diversity

and compare it to other cities. H. something made me want to see the other things that

New Orleans had to offer, rich and diverse as they were. J. my family and I were set on seeing all of the historical

riches of that diverse city of New Orleans.

7. Which of the following, if added here, would best reinforce the preceding sentence and set up the contrast with the museum’s description in the next paragraph?

A. The Big Easy, you guys! B. Splash. C. Bathing suit and all. D. Back in time.

8. F. NO CHANGE G. us to an unremarkable hallway, H. us to an unremarkable hallway; J. us, to an unremarkable hallway,

9. A. NO CHANGE B. artifacts along the hallway. C. artifacts. D. artifacts to which he pointed us.

10. Given that all the choices are true, which one begins the paragraph with the clearest sense of the narrator’s reaction to the rest of the museum?

F. NO CHANGE G. The museum curator kept the keys in his fanny pack. H. Things did not improve within the museum. J. There were three or four rooms at the end of the hallway.

before our first visit that we would experience New Orleans

in a different way. A booming metropolis in the eighteenth

and nineteenth centuries, New Orleans was full of richness

and diversity that few other cities could claim. I wanted to

dive in. 7

This fantasy, however, was soon dispelled. A chubby man

in a fanny pack took our money. He was wearing a button-

down shirt and slacks. I didn’t think that would be a voodoo

doctor’s outfit. I was expecting long flowing robes with

mysterious stains on them. He pointed us to an unremarkable

hallway display of academic degrees and

artifacts that were in the hallway. In his office, I saw the glow

of his computer screen and smelled the stale coffee from his

coffeemaker. This was not the creepy historical adventure I

was hoping for. What kind of secret potion was this coffee?

What kind of voodoo doll lurked inside that Dunkin’ Donuts

bag?

The museum’s website offers discounted tickets. The air

conditioners in every room were eyesores, and they were

louder than the creepy music playing overheard.

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11. A. NO CHANGE B. seems silly and makes C. seemed silly and made D. had seemed silly and made

12. F. NO CHANGE G. with H. for which we saw J. to which

13. Which choice best sets up a contrast within the sentence and is consistent with the narrator’s developing view of the museum as presented in the essay?

A. NO CHANGE B. We did a full circuit around the museum, and then C. In the place where a steaming cauldron should’ve been, D. There was nothing all that surprising therefore when

14. Which choice best maintains the style and tone of the paragraph?

F. NO CHANGE G. smelly bags of jimson weed. H. creepy charms and amulets. J. scary voodoo dolls.

15. A. NO CHANGE B. afternoon, C. afternoon but later in it, D. afternoon before the evening,

It all will seem silly and make us wonder whether we had

stepped into a museum of the supernatural or a university

professor’s office. We wanted creepy. We got geeky.

There were no spells concocted before our eyes, no pin-

filled dolls. Rather, a series of little plaques treated the items

with a museum curator’s seriousness. The Zombie Whip hung

on the wall for which only this as context: “This whip was

used to whip zombies.” After we finished in the museum, we

found ourselves back in the gift shop, with nothing creepier

than postcards, encyclopedias, and T-shirts.

That afternoon after the museum, as we walked back to

the hotel, we wondered why we expected so much “real”

voodoo in a place like that: it was a museum, not a haunted

house. Someone, we smiled, must have cast a spell on us.

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16. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following accurate information (adjusting the punctuation as needed):

near the small city of Sebastian on the state’s eastern coast

Should the writer make this addition here?

F. Yes, because it helps to show the reader where this remote island is located.

G. Yes, because it contrasts with the essay’s other islands, which are mostly on the western coast.

H. No, because the essay does not describe other islands in any other state.

J. No, because it suggests that the essay will be about a city rather than an island.

17. A. NO CHANGE B. were C. could of been D. might of been

18. F. NO CHANGE G. three-acre lushly vegetated, habitat H. three-acre, lushly vegetated habitat J. three-acre, lushly vegetated, habitat

19. A. NO CHANGE B. contains a lagoon C. with a lagoon D. containing a lagoon

20. F. NO CHANGE G. their H. there J. its

PASSAGE II

Florida’s Pelican Island and Its Birds

Florida is full of natural wonders, but one of the most

spectacular is Pelican Island 16 . Home to a vibrant

ecosystem, the island contains hundreds of species of

animals, some of them endangered. Although it is now

renowned for its natural beauty, the beauty of this island was

almost destroyed.

[1] The three-acre, lushly, vegetated habitat of the island

showing a lagoon that is home to rare species, including West

Indian manatees and sea turtles. [2] The lagoon provides

ample food for the native wood storks, which

have they’re pick of many species of fish and do not have

to compete with the other rare birds that call Pelican Island

home. [3] Currently, the island is home to as many as fifteen

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21. A. NO CHANGE B. thrive and prosper C. thrive D. in terms of success thrive

endangered species, some of which can succeed in thriving

only in Pelican Island’s particular ecosystem. [4] In the early

twentieth century, however, it seemed as if these plants, fish,

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28. F. NO CHANGE G. major action be taken H. major action be taken, J. major, action be taken

22. F. NO CHANGE G. birds; they H. birds J. birds, other influences

23. A. NO CHANGE B. industries C. industry’s D. industries of that era

24. F. NO CHANGE G. of H. that J. in which

25. A. NO CHANGE B. them from C. itself of D. the species in

26. The writer wants to divide this paragraph into two in order to separate the description of the island’s ecosystem from details showing how the island was threatened by outside forces. The best place to begin the new paragraph would be at the beginning of Sentence:

F. 4. G. 5. H. 6. J. 7.

27. A. NO CHANGE B. threatened with complete destruction, C. fearful of complete destruction, D. fearing that Pelican Island might be completely

destroyed,

and rare birds, or the fauna and flora so to speak, would fall

prey to that era’s blindness to environmental consequences.

[5] Many industries’ found uses for the colorful birds in

particular. [6] For example, women’s fashion designers

plucked and molded the feathers in creating stylish ladies

hats. [7] Untouched for so many years before, the island did

not have the natural defenses to be able to sustain this kind of

onslaught from the modern age. [8] Industry, however, was

unaware of its negative impact on the island’s endangered

species, and it took a conservation-oriented group to protect

themselves of

complete extinction. 26

In 1903, under the threat of complete destruction, a few

conservationists took their case directly to the President of

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the United States, demanding that major action, be taken to

protect Pelican Island. 28


29. A. NO CHANGE B. an impulsive reaction, C. an unprecedented move, D. a reflexive reaction,

30. Given that all the choices are true, which one best indicates that Roosevelt’s executive order referred to in the previous sentence was a success?

F. NO CHANGE G. begun to flourish again. H. attracted new predators. J. been filmed and photographed.

In an expected move, President Theodore Roosevelt declared

Pelican Island a National Wildlife Refuge, marking the first

time the federal government protected lands for wildlife

conservation.

Under the federal government’s protection, Pelican Island

has become a major ecotourism destination, and many of

its native species have been seen by thousands. Although

some fear that shoreline development in the increasingly

popular Vero Beach area may threaten the island once again,

conservationists are hopeful that the twentieth-century efforts

to preserve the island will not have been in vain. Pelican

Island is a national treasure, and no matter how lucrative the

island might be for those who want to carve it up, there will

always be many more defenders who want to preserve this

natural wonder.

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PASSAGE III

Key and Peele

[1]

Keegan-Michael Key and Jordan Peele form a sketch-

comedy duo that uses wit and absurdity to paint a picture of

contemporary race relations in the whole wide world. 31

31. A. NO CHANGE B. on God’s green earth. C. today and today only! D. in today’s society.

32. F. NO CHANGE G. aired, on Comedy Central in early 2012 H. aired on Comedy Central, in early 2012 J. aired, on Comedy Central, in early 2012,

Key and Peele, the duo’s television show, first aired on Comedy

Central in early 2012, a year that was to provide plenty of

comedic fodder as Barack Obama’s presidential re-election

campaign heated up. Of the best-known sketch-comedy

groups in the 1990s and 2000s,

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33. Given that all the choices are true, which one would be most relevant to the main focus of the essay?

A. NO CHANGE B. most were produced in the United States, but some were

from Canada. C. some were too bound to the particular moment to have

much interest now. D. nearly all were filled with white men and occasionally

women.

34. F. NO CHANGE G. big stars they were not to be considered H. stardom was mainly not thought of them J. neither was a major star

35. Given that all the choices are true, which one most logi-cally follows the preceding sentence and leads into the next paragraph?

A. NO CHANGE B. thought long and hard about racial issues in the United

States. C. were presented with a unique opportunity. D. continued to play small parts on other shows while their

own was filmed.

36. F. NO CHANGE G. “mixed-race.” Since H. “mixed-race”; since J. “mixed-race” since

the main one that’s still going on to this day is Saturday

Night Live. Even if some black comedic actors, such as Tracy

Morgan, have become household names, it is difficult to deny

that sketch comedy has been a tough racket for a black actor

or actress. [A] Both Key and Peele were featured on MADtv,

but it was not a place of major stardom for either of them

there. So when Comedy Central hired Key and Peele to star

in their own show, they continued to be overshadowed by

Saturday Night Live.

[2]

To complicate the idea of a “black” sketch comedy show,

both Key and Peele identify as “mixed-race”: since they each

have one black and one white parent. This mixed-race status

allows them to tackle the issue of race in more creative

ways, particularly after rigid ways of defining of race have

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37. A. NO CHANGE B. definitions C. ways of identifying and the naming D. definitive statements on the status


38. The writer is considering deleting the phrase “even since the pioneer of the genre, Chappelle’s Show, first aired a decade earlier” from the preceding sentence (adjusting the punctuation as needed). If the writer were to make this deletion, the sentence would primarily lose:

F. an emphasis on the change in race relations in recent years.

G. a subtle hint that earlier sketch-comedy shows were funnier and more poignant.

H. a further indication that Key and Peele are not as famous as their white counterparts.

J. an example of the kind of show to which Key and Peele is a response.

39. A. NO CHANGE B. expected, of mixed-race people C. expected of mixed-race people D. expected, of mixed-race people,

40. Given that all the choices are true, which one effectively helps the sentence establish a sense of how long shows have tried for Key and Peele’s particular type of success?

F. NO CHANGE G. While sketch comedy has been successful, H. Ever since In Living Color first aired in 1990, J. Because sketch comedy is descended from early revue

comedies,

41. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable?

A. keep on collaborating B. continue to collaborate C. are still collaborating D. collaborate and keep

42. F. NO CHANGE G. Drawing on H. As if J. Seeing as they use

loosened, even since the pioneer of the genre, Chappelle’s

Show, first aired a decade earlier. 38 As an increasing

number of Americans, including President Obama, identify

as “mixed-race,” the categories of black and white aren’t as

applicable as they were once thought to be. [B]

[3]

Key and Peele is at its best when it deals with questions of

what is expected of mixed-race people, in a society reluctant

to let go of racial stereotypes. [C] It’s a little strange that it

has taken this long for a show to be able to address these

issues. Because racial issues have never really disappeared

from our society, there have been only a few sketch-comedy

groups of color that have enjoyed success with both black

and white audiences.

[4]

[D] Keegan-Michael Key and Jordan Peele keep

collaborating on the show, taking up such topics as regional

accents, action movie clichés, and Internet commenters.

By sketching their open-mindedness and taste for the absurd,

Key and Peele continue to push boundaries and force people

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1 11 0 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Questions 44 and 45 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.

to reflect on the history of sketch comedy in the last century. 43

45. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to develop an essay that shows the context and intention of a television show. Would this essay accomplish that goal?

A. Yes, because it describes some of the shows that came before Key and Peele and some of the show’s motiva-tions.

B. Yes, because it explains that both of the stars of Key and Peele appeared on other television shows before this one.

C. No, because it fails to describe any of the show’s sketches in detail.

D. No, because it doesn’t adequately list earlier sketch-comedy shows from the previous fifty years.

44. Upon reviewing the essay and finding that some information has been left out, the writer composes the following sentence incorporating that information:

In addition to easing racial tensions, this new designation has made people begin to wonder if “race” is a useful category at all.

This sentence would most logically be placed at Point:

F. A in Paragraph 1. G. B in Paragraph 2. H. C in Paragraph 3. J. D in Paragraph 4.

43. Which of the following choices most effectively concludes the sentence and the essay by returning to the main purpose of the Key and Peele show?

A. NO CHANGE B. treat social problems in a way that isn’t so serious. C. laugh when they would rather cry about sad things. D. think about the people around them in new ways.

PASSAGE IV

Edith Maude Eaton or Sui Sin Far?

American writer Edith Maude Eaton (1865-1914) was

endlessly fascinated by the Chinese experience in America

because she lived it herself, and she drew upon her personal

experiences in an era when fiction from minority voices

was uncommon. In her teens, she began to write under the

pseudonymous pen name Sui Sin Far, asserting her Chinese

identity. The name comes from the Cantonese for narcissus

flower and is a partial homage to her mother, Grace “Lotus

Blossom” Trefusis. Far’s parents met when her English father

was in Shanghai doing business. By the time the couple

moved to the U.S. in 1870, they had fourteen children.

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46. F. NO CHANGE G. America, H. America. Because J. America; because

47. A. NO CHANGE B. pseudonym C. pseudonymously D. pseudonymously pen name


48. F. NO CHANGE G. her H. its J. their

49. A. NO CHANGE B. is taking C. will take D. would take

50. F. NO CHANGE G. sister’s including Chinese and Japanese folklore H. sister’s, including Chinese, and Japanese folklore, J. sister’s; including, Chinese, and Japanese folklore;

51. A. NO CHANGE B. Surprisingly, C. Over the years, D. On the other hand,

52. F. NO CHANGE G. publish H. publishing J. DELETE the underlined portion.

53. A. NO CHANGE B. Most C. Similarly, most D. However, most

54. Which placement for the underlined portion is both logi-cal and also indicates that Sui Sin Far’s short stories were published in book form?

F. Where it is now G. After the word stories H. After the word collected J. After the word published

Although the family was poor, the Eatons were able to

create an intellectually vibrant home, and the nineteenth

century got another of it’s important writers, Winnifred

Eaton, from among the Eatons’ fourteen children. Winnifred

has taken the pen name Onoto Watanna, and her work

would address many of the same issues as her sister’s,

including Chinese and Japanese folklore, the difficulties of

communication between cultures, and the social integration

of Asians in America. These problems were common to a

number of immigrant and ethnic groups, and the 1880s and

1890s saw the introduction of minority voices to the literary

pantheon. Nonetheless, the two Eaton sisters would attract a

sizable following and become among the best-known authors

in North America.

At the height of her career, Sui Sin Far was fortunate

enough to reach a large audience and publishes in such

prestigious magazines as The Atlantic Monthly. Still, most of

her short stories were in the book later collected Mrs. Spring

Fragrance, which was published in 1912. In this collection,

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55. A. NO CHANGE B. they C. one D. there were

56. Given that all of the following statements are true, which one, if added here, would best serve as a transition between the preceding sentence and the following one?

F. Mrs. Spring Fragrance was published by the prestigious Chicago publisher A.C. McClurg and Company.

G. It soon becomes apparent, however, that Mark Carson is exploiting Pan as a way to learn about how the Chinese live.

H. Mark Carson really makes it seem that he has feelings for Pan, and this ambiguity is one of the reasons the story is so powerful.

J. There is a second section of Mrs. Spring Fragrance entitled “Tales of Chinese Children.”

57. A. NO CHANGE B. at heart a deep C. at heart: a deep D. at heart—a deep,

58. F. NO CHANGE G. betrayed H. betray J. have betray

59. Which of the following best explains the main purpose of the preceding sentence?

A. It concludes the essay with a statement on Sui Sin Far’s late works.

B. It describes in detail how the plot of “Its Wavering Im-age” concludes.

C. It summarizes a conversation held between Sui Sin Far and her publisher.

D. It gives a summary of Pan’s main conflict in “Its Waver-ing Image.”

she revised and reprinted one of her best-loved stories, “Its

Wavering Image.” This story is Far’s most direct treatment of

the mingling of cultures that she herself embodied. Its main

character, Pan, is a Chinese-American who has interacted

with very few white Americans. Then along comes a white

journalist named Mark Carson, with whom Pan falls in

love. 56 Therefore, Pan feels

at heart, a deep sense of betrayal. On the one hand, she feels

that she has been betrayed by Mark Carson’s affections, but

on the other, she feels that she may have betrayed her own

culture by exposing it to an outsider. “Pan, don’t you see that

you have got to decide what you will be—Chinese or white?

You cannot be both.” 59

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1 31 2

Question 60 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

60. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief essay about the historical challenges of Chinese integration in the United States. Would this essay accomplish that goal?

F. Yes, because it examines the challenges of immigrating to the United States with a large, mixed-race family.

G. Yes, because it details the pressures that American journalists have placed on Chinese-American women.

H. No, because it focuses on the struggles of present-day Chinese-Americans.

J. No, because it fails to discuss Chinese integration be-yond the work of a single writer.

PASSAGE V

Jeepers! GPS

[1]

Originally, there was a device only for the military and for

major technophiles, global positioning system—abbreviated

GPS—has become a major feature of American commerce,

another of the ways that smartphones are revolutionizing our

lives. 63 Anyone with a smartphone carries this technology

in his or her pocket, and GPS does so much more than give

directions to the nearest Starbucks. [A]

[2]

It’s tough to remember the days when a driver—stuck

with a paper map that could have only so much detail—

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61. A. NO CHANGE B. Originally C. There was originally D. In the beginning, there was

63. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement:

The military still employs a highly sophisticated GPS device.

Should the writer make this addition here?

A. Yes, because it previews and summarizes the essay’s main idea.

B. Yes, because it gives a detail that supports a claim made in the previous sentence.

C. No, because it breaks the paragraph’s flow by introduc-ing unnecessary information.

D. No, because it disproves a fact given in the preceding sentence.


F. system, GPS, G. system (GPS) H. system—shortened to GPS J. system, abbreviated GPS,

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.


67. A. NO CHANGE B. fewer—that is to say, fewer than four satellites. C. fewer. D. fewer, which means that more is totally fine.


F. uncommonly G. not often H. rarely J. not typically

65. A. NO CHANGE B. propel C. direct D. engineer


F. was forced to ask G. has to ask H. needed to ask J. would ask

68. F. NO CHANGE G. images: the H. images. The J. images, the

69. A. NO CHANGE B. Listen up, C. On the other hand, D. Yeah,

70. F. NO CHANGE G. and the time it takes to come back. H. and back. J. back.

actually had to ask someone for directions. Now, with GPS, a

driver can simply ask a device for the best route, and

the device is able to call upon detailed maps and face the

driver wherever he or she needs to go. [B]

[3]

GPS is capable of locating people and things with

incredible precision, even though the satellites that make

that identification possible are all in space. [C] A typical GPS

operation requires four or more satellites, and it is seldom

possible to obtain truly accurate measurements with any

fewer, like two or three for example. While GPS information

is typically delivered in images; the bulk of

this information is acquired by time measurements. In short,

GPS is constantly calculating the time it takes a signal to be

sent from the GPS device to a satellite and then its return.

[4]

GPS powers many industries now, even though it is

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1 51 4

Question 75 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

71. Which choice best conveys the idea that the military still maintains strict control over how GPS can be used?

A. NO CHANGE B. and was created C. as well as ever D. and heavily restricted

72. F. NO CHANGE G. know H. known J. knew

73. A. NO CHANGE B. complement in C. compliment for D. compliment to

74. Which one most effectively sets up the rest of the sentence?

F. NO CHANGE G. has come a long way— H. is an acronym— J. can be unreliable—

75. Upon reviewing the essay and finding that some information has been left out, the writer composes the following sentence incorporating that information:

Although this may remove some of the human element, the directions from GPS are more comprehensive than any driver could hope to get from another person.

If the writer were to add this sentence to the essay, it would most logically be placed at Point:

A. A in Paragraph 1. B. B in Paragraph 2. C. C in Paragraph 3. D. D in Paragraph 4.

END OF TEST 1

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

complement to more traditional methods of calculation. [D]

And GPS doesn’t just power the maps on a smart phone: it

also helps the phone to keep perfect time and to communicate

as efficiently as possible with the many cell phone towers in

the world.

[5]

GPS is part of some smartphone apps—the technology

has been around for nearly fifty years—but its technical

innovations are by no means concluded. GPS may never stop

taking us to new and uncharted territories.

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still run on systems occasionally checked in on by the U.S.

Military. Cartographers have obviously benefited

immeasurably from GPS, mapping all parts of the knowed

world with incredible precision. Astronomers use the

technology to calculate the locations of planets, both in our

own solar system and beyond, and GPS offers the perfect

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DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 1. The table below gives the idle speed, in revolutions per minute (rpm), for 6 cars at a repair shop after each car had been driven for 25 minutes. What is the mean idle speed of the 6 cars, to the nearest 0.1 rpm ?

Car Idle speed (rpm)

Blue HondaBlack VolvoSilver NissanWhite HondaRed Toyota

Black Nissan

649837703786899728

Sum 4602

A. 757.0B. 767.0C. 774.0D. 794.5E. 803.2

2. A rectangular rug has an area of 96 square feet and a length of 24 feet. What is the width, in feet, of the rug?

F. 4G. 8H. 20J. 72K. 2304

MATHEMATICS TEST


DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your answer document.

Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in the time you have left for this test.

You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You may use your calculator for any problems you choose,

but some of the problems may best be done without using a calculator.

Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should be assumed:

1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.

2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.3. The word line indicates a straight line.4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 3. The price of a bookcase increased from $80 to $100. The price increased by what percent?

A. 16%B. 20%C. 25%D. 30%E. 40%

4. Rose, a bakery employee, asked each of 100 customers which 1 of 5 cupcake flavors the customer preferred. The number of customers who preferred each flavor is given in the table below.

Flavor Number of customers

ChocolateRed Velvet

LemonVanilla

Pumpkin

342713206

Total 100

Rose will bake 1,000 cupcakes in the proportions, by flavor, given in the table. How many red velvet cupcakes will be baked?

F. 27G. 54H. 135J. 200K. 270

5. Carol plans to hang a wallpaper border around the top of her 12-foot-by-14-foot rectangular bedroom. To determine the number of rolls of wallpaper she needs, she must calculate the perimeter of the bedroom. What is the perimeter, in feet, of the bedroom?

A. 26B. 52C. 56D. 84E. 168


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 6. At Wendy’s Wedding Catering, the total operational cost for catering a wedding consists of a staff and equipment fee of $400 per event, plus a food cost of $15 per guest. For a wedding at which g guests are fed, which of the following expressions gives that event’s total operational cost, in dol-lars, for catering?

F. 15g + 400G. 400g + 15H. 15g – 400J. 400g – 15K. –15g + 400

7. The first course on a 2-course prix fixe menu offers 3 dishes, and exactly 1 dish must be chosen. The second course offers 4 dishes, and exactly 1 dish must be chosen. The menu has how many possible combinations of meals?

A. 4B. 7C. 9D. 12E. 24

8. For what value of y is the equation 3(y – 5) + 2y = 60 true?

F. 9G. 13H. 15J. 20K. 25

9. What value of n will make the equation n

n

+

+=

7

4

4

3 true?

A. -16B. 3C. 5D. 16E. 37

10. The 1st term in the geometric sequence below is 2. If it can be determined, what is the 5th term?

2, -6, 18, -54,…

F. -162G. -108H. 108J. 162K. Cannot be determined from the information given


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 11. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, L has coordinates (-3, 7). Point L is translated 3 units to the left and 7 units down and labeled L9. What are the coordinates of L9 ?

A. (-6,14)B. (-6, 0)C. ( 0, 7)D. ( 0, 0)E. ( 4, 4)

12. A formula used to compute the volume, V, of a cylindrical solid is V = pr2h, where r is the radius of the base, and h is the height of the solid. What is the radius, in inches, of a cylindrical solid that has a volume of 144p cubic inches and a height that measures 9 inches?

F. 16G. 12H. 8J. 4K. 3

13. Greenhouses that produce 750 pounds of tomatoes annu-ally are needed for a proposed farm. If the greenhouses are designed to produce 2.5 pounds of tomatoes per square foot of ground space, or surface area, the surface area of each greenhouse needs to be how many square feet?

A. 250B. 300C. 750D. 1875E. 3000

14. If socks sell at $3.99 per pair or 5 pairs for $15.50, how much is saved, to the nearest $0.01, on each pair by buying them 5 at a time?

F. $0.55G. $0.79H. $0.89J. $3.10K. $4.45


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 15. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to (2x3y2)(5x4y) ?

A. 10x7y3

B. 10x12y2

C. 10x7y2

D. 7x12y2

E. 7x7y3

16. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the coordinates of

the endpoints of FK are (6,12) and (14,16). What is the

x-coordinate of the midpoint of FK ?

F. 7G. 9H. 10J. 14K. 20

17. The distance-versus-time graph below represents a portion of a passenger train’s route on Monday.

dist

ance

trav

eled

(mile

s)

time (hours)P

QR

ST

U

Which of the following statements could describe what the train did during the time interval covered by the horizontal line segments QR and ST ?

A. The train stopped to let passengers board.B. The train traveled on flat ground.C. The train traveled at a slower speed.D. The train traveled backwards.E. The train traveled due east.


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 18. In the diagram below, lines k and l are cut by transversal line p. Lines k and l are parallel. Which of the following statements could be false?

b a

c d

h eg f

k

l

F. a @ cG. a @ eH. g @ bJ. g @ cK. f @ b

19. The expression 6 – 2(5x – 4) is equivalent to:

A. –2 – 10xB. 2 – 20xC. 12 – 10xD. 14 – 7xE. 14 – 10x

20. Which of the following angle measures CANNOT be the measure of any angle in an acute triangle?

(Note: An acute triangle is a triangle that has 3 angles with measures less than 90°.)

F. 27°G. 45°H. 63°J. 89°K. 112°


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 21. What is the value of f(–3) when f a

a a

a( )

( )=− + −

+

4 8 6

12 12

2

?

A. −9

2

B. −7

2

C. −9

4

D. 9

4

E. 7

2

22. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, what is the slope of the line with equation 5x + 4y = 20 ?

F. 5

G. 5

4

H. 4

5

J. −4

5

K. −5

4

23. Which of the following is a simplified form of

48 27- ?

A. 21

B. 3

C. 3

D. -3

E. - 3


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 24. Mr. Lukas uses a formula for grading, G = Eap, where G is the grade on a scale of 1–100, E is the number of points earned on the final exam, a is the number days a student attended class, and p is a percentage of the attendance score awarded for participation expressed as a decimal. Which of the following expressions gives E when the participation rate is 8% ?

F. 0.08aG

G. .08G

a

H. .8G

a

J. G

a.08

K. G

a.8

25. When x = 475, the value of the function f(x) is 80 less than three times the value of f(x) when x = 467. Which of the following equations expresses this relationship?

A. f(x) = f(3x – 80)B. f(x) = 3f(x) – 80C. f(467) = 3f(475) – 80D. f(475) – 80 = 3f(467)E. f(475) = 3f(467) – 80


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.Use the following information to answer questions 26–28.

Shown below is rectangle WXYZ with the given dimensions in feet.

W

Z

8

5

Y

X

26. What is the length, in feet, of WZ ?

F. 89

G. 39

H. 13J. 13K. 6

27. Which of the following statements about the measures of the interior angles in rectangle WXYZ is true?

(Note: mXYZ represents the degree measure of XYZ.)

A. mWZX = mYXZB. mWXZ = mWZXC. mWXZ = mYXZD. mXWZ + mXZY = 180°E. mXZY + mYXZ = 180°

28. Which of the following expressions represents sin YXZ ?

F. XY

XZ

G. XY

YZ

H. XZ

YZ

J. YZ

XY

K. YZ

XZ


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 29. Given the functions f and g defined by f(x) = x2 + 4 and g(x) = x + 7, what is the value of g( f(2)) ?

A. 8B. 9C. 15D. 16E. 89

30. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to (4y4)2 ?

F. 4y6

G. 4y8

H. 8y6

J. 16y8

K. 16y16

31. Abbi is making a small triangular flag for a sandcastle. In the figure below, the flag is represented by DJKL. KN is 24 centimeters long, and legs JK and KL are each 26 centime-ters long. The flagpole, represented by JM, is perpendicular to KN and extends 30 centimeters below the bottom of the flag. How many centimeters long is the flagpole?

A. 1352 30+B. 10C. 20D. 40E. 50

M

L26

26

24N

J

K

30


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 32. Which of the following inequalities orders the numbers below from greatest to least?

2.5, − −( )25

9, 2

2

5

F. − −( )25

9> 2

2

5> 2.5

G. − −( )25

9> 2.5 > 2

2

5

H. 22

5> 2.5 > − −( )2

5

9

J. 22

5> − −( )2

5

9> 2.5

K. 2.5 > 22

5> − −( )2

5

9

Use the following information to answer questions 33–35.

The table below gives the prices for soup at Sydney’s Saloon.

Size Tomato Chicken Noodle

CupBowl

$2.50$4.00

$3.50$5.00

33. Jaden bought tomato soup for 8 people and paid $27.50 for all 8 servings. How many bowls of soup did Jaden buy?

A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 5E. 6


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 34. Ella had a cup of chicken noodle soup at Sydney’s Saloon 5 times. Ella paid full price for the first 4 cups of soup, and had a coupon for the 5th cup of soup, giving her a 20% discount on the 5th cup of soup. How much did Ella pay for the 5 cups of soup?

F. $14.00G. $16.80H. $17.50J. $20.00K. $24.00

35. When the owner of Sydney’s Saloon decreases the price of a bowl of tomato soup, the number of bowls of tomato soup sold per day increases. The expression cx + d represents the number of bowls of tomato soup sold in 1 day whenever the price is x dollars per bowl of soup. The number of bowls of tomato soup sold per day was 150 when the price in the table was in effect. The number of bowls of tomato soup sold per day increases by 12 for every $0.50 decrease in price. What are the values of c and d ?

c d

A. –24 246B. – 6 39C. 6 36D. 12 54E. 24 12

36. 2

22

22

3

++

= ?

F. 3

8

G. 8

11

H. 11

8

J. 3

2

K. 8

3


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 37. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, what is the x-intercept of the line represented by y = 3x – 12 ?

A. 12B. 4C. 3D. -3E. -4

38. A marble is fired from a slingshot at ground level. Its height, h feet above the ground, t seconds after it is fired, is given by h = –16t2 + 96t. During the marble’s descent, at what value of t is the marble 80 feet above the ground?

F. 5

G. 2

H. 1

J. 1

2

K. 1

5

39. Which of the following graphs illustrates the solution set for the system of inequalities 4y – 3 < 7 or –5y < –20 ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

40. Aleks begins a bike ride at a point that is designated on the map as (-5, 8) and is 5 kilometers west and 8 kilometers north of his house. From (-5, 8), Aleks rides 6 kilometers due east, 3 kilometers due north, and then 5 kilometers due south, where he ends his ride. Which of the following is the closest to the straight-line distance, in kilometers, Aleks is from his house?

F. 27G. 14H. 11J. 8K. 6

y40

empty set

y

y40

0

y40 104

y40 104


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 41. During a tournament, a golfer will be hitting a ball across the width of a sand trap, from A to B in the figure below. The golfer wants to know how wide the sand trap is. The right triangle shows the measurements the golfer determined by walking 12 meters from A to C, sighting B from both points. From this sighting, it is determined that the measure of C is 50°. How wide, in meters, is the sand trap?

A

?

C

B

1250º

A. 12 tan 50°

B. 12 sin 50°

C. 12 cos 50°

D. 12

50ºtan

E. 1250ºsin

42. The figure below shows a ladder attached to a treehouse. The ladder, which rests on level ground, is 6 meters long and has an angle of elevation of 70°. Which of the following expressions gives the height, in meters, from the base of the treehouse to the level ground?

?

70º

6 meters

F. 670ºsin

G. 670ºcos

H. 6 tan 70°

J. 6 sin 70°

K. 6 cos 70°


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 43. A circle with radius 4 centimeters is inside a rectangle 12 inches wide and is tangent to 3 sides of the rectangle. What is the area, in square centimeters, of the rectangle?

A. 144B. 96C. 64D. 48E. 32

44. Which of the following equations represents the circle with center (-5,7) shown in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below?

xO

y

P (–5,7) (2,7)

F. (x – 5)2 + (y + 7)2 = 7G. (x – 5)2 + (y + 7)2 = 49H. (x + 5)2 + (y – 7)2 = 49J. (x + 5)2 + (y – 7)2 = 7K. (x + 5)2 + (y + 7)2 = 49


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 45. One of the following inequalities, where constant c is a positive real number and constant d is a negative real num-ber, is graphed in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below. Which inequality is it?

O

y

c

d

x

A. y xc

d≥

B. y x dd

c≥ +

C. y x dc

d≥ +−

D. y x dd

c≥ +−

E. y x dd

c≤ +−

46. Circles J, K, and L have radii of r feet, 3r feet, and 6r feet, respectively. What is the ratio of the diameter of Circle L to the radius of Circle K ?

F. 1:2G. 1:4H. 2:1J. 4:1K. 6:1

47. In trapezoid ABCD shown below, D measures 60° and B and C are both right angles. The provided side lengths are in inches. Which of the following values is closest to the area, in square inches, of ABCD ?

A. 97B. 83C. 68D. 14E. 7 D

8

A 12 B

C60º

120º


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 48. For the 5th day of the month in Springfield, the town hall bell (shown below) rings 5 times. For the 6th day of the month, the bell rings 6 times. For every day, 4 seconds elapse between consecutive rings of the bell. For the 12th day, how many seconds elapse between the 1st ring of the bell and the 12th ring of the bell?

F. 48G. 44H. 22J. 11K. 12

49. For negative real numbers x, y, and z such that 3y = 5z and 1

3

1

2y x= , which of the following inequalities is true?

A. x > y > zB. x > z > yC. y > x > zD. y > z > xE. z > x > y

50. This week, Boya has 20 rocks collected, and her goal is to have a total of 160 rocks collected 8 weeks from now. After adding to her rock collection next week, each week she will add 1 more rock than what she added the previous week. For the next 8 weeks, Boya will not remove any rocks from what she has already collected. What is the minimum number of rocks Boya must add to her collection next week so that she reaches her goal?

F. 23G. 20H. 18J. 14K. 10

51. For all pairs of nonzero real numbers a and b, the square of which of the following complex numbers is a real number?

A. ai + biB. a + biC. a – biD. b + aiE. b – ai


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 52. Three congruent circles with centers U, W, and Y are tangent to each other at points V and X, as shown in the figure below. If the path from T to Z along the radii of the circles is 24 inches long, how many inches long is the path from Z back to T along the major arcs of these circles?

Y

Z

W

U

TV

X

F. 6pG. 9pH. 18pJ. 24pK. 32p

53. For all 0 < r < 1, which of the following statements describes the function f defined by f(x) = rx

?

A. f is constant for all xB. f is increasing for all 0 £ x < 1 and decreasing for all x > 1C. f is decreasing for all 0 £ x < 1 and increasing for all x > 1D. f is decreasing for x < 0 and decreasing for x > 0E. f is decreasing for x < 0 and increasing for x > 0

54. The intensity of a sound in decibels varies inversely with the square of the distance from the source of the sound. A person stands 4 meters from a speaker. How many meters from the speaker would the person need to be for the sound intensity to be half what it currently is?

F. 4 2

G. 4

H. 2 2

J. 2

K. 1


DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 55. What is the area, in square inches, of an obtuse triangle (a triangle with one angle greater than 90°) with 2 sides that each measure 10 inches and 2 angles that each measure 30° ?

A. 100B. 50

C. 25

D. 50 3

E. 25 3

56. The square shown below with diagonal 5 cm long is rotated 360° around one side to form a right circular cylinder. What is the volume of this cylinder, in cubic centimeters?

(Note: V = pr2h, where V is the volume, r is the radius, and h is the height.)

F. 5 2

2p

G. 25

2p

H. 25 2

4p

J. 25p

K. 125 2

4p

57. Which of the following fractions is equal to 1

29

1

2911 12+ ?

A. 2

2912

B. 2

2923

C. 30

2912

D. 30

2922

E. 30

2923

5

3534

DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 58. Which of the following is equal to sin q cos q when

tanθ=−4

5 and

3

22

πθ< < π ?

F. 1

G. 5 41

41

H. 20

41

J. −20

41

K. −4 41

41

59. An isosceles trapezoid is partitioned into 3 congruent equi-lateral triangles. What is the ratio of the perimeter of the trapezoid to the perimeter of one of the triangles?

A. 5:3B. 2:1C. 5:2D. 3:1E. 5:1

60. If |–y| = –y, which of the following statements must be false?

F. y is a real numberG. |y| = –yH. y = 0J. y > 0K. y < 0

END OF TEST 2


DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.


READING TEST


DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer document. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

Passage I

PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from the short story “Stretched Ears, Stretched Minds” by Bobby Hood (©2013 by Thailand University Press).

During college, I spent a summer with my grandparents. At a coffee shop, my grandfather pointed to the barista, who had stretched his earlobes with large rings, and told me that our ancestors used to do the same.

“When I was young, my father took me to visit the Lahu village in Thailand, to find out about our roots. The Lahu wore handwoven, colorful clothing decorated with beads, and the beautiful woman who greeted us had stretched earlobes, with heavy jewels in them. I thought maybe she was some kind of priestess. I couldn’t wait to go meet the children of the vil-lage and ask about her. She looked down at me and, smiling, told me to go and meet the other children. But I hadn’t said anything out loud! I thought then she must be able to hear the thoughts inside my head.

“There were other men and women in the village with stretched ears too. You know, granddaughter, the Lahu look like us, but they speak their own language, which came from Tibet, and they also speak Thai, as we do. But in this vil-lage, the people with stretched ears seemed to be especially respected. I saw the people with stretched ears giving instruc-tions to the others, who were busy building a structure in the central area. Those with the stretched ears spoke softly, with a quiet authority.

“I wanted to be like them... to be a leader, to have the authority these people must have, to speak softly but have my words carry such weight...

“I thought these people must be different because their stretched ears gave them a special power. Maybe they were in charge because they could hear the other people’s thoughts or just because they listened more closely to the people around them. I thought if I tried to listen more carefully, I might learn to be like them and have the authority they had.

“But when I tried, I didn’t hear anything special. I heard the water in the river and the wind in the trees, and I heard the children playing, and the sounds were surprisingly peaceful. But I couldn’t hear the thoughts in other people’s heads. I thought that my ears must be too small to hear them—that I needed to stretch my ears in order to be able to hear what they heard.

“That night was a holy celebration, and the Lahu gathered around a fire, wearing handwoven costumes. The women and men with stretched ears played the drum and the reed pipe, the cymbal and the gong, and everyone danced together. I thought their stretched ears must also help them play together so well!

“When I returned home, I told my mother about the things I had seen. I told her that I wanted to know the secret of becoming a leader and that I wanted to stretch my ears so that I could hear the thoughts in other people’s heads.

“My mother looked at me for a long moment, and then she laughed. Wiping a tear from her eye, she said, ‘Dear child, the Lahu stretch their ears as a symbol of maturity and respect. You thought they had special powers because of their stretched ears, but really, they have stretched ears because they earned respect.’ She spoke softly, with a quiet authority.

“She took my hand and said, ‘Son, the Lahu have many ancient traditions, and one of them is that those who are mature and wise are respected, men and women alike. Being respected comes from your actions and from your wisdom, which you gain through education and from experience. You do not need to stretch your ears to learn to be a leader; you must learn to be mature and wise to become a leader and an equal. You do not need to learn any secret; the secret is inside here already.’ And she pointed to my head.

“So, granddaughter,” my grandfather continued, “today some people stretch their ears, but not the way the Lahu did. They stretch their ears, but they do not truly hear; they stretch their ears, but they do not stretch their minds. Few people remember why it was originally done.

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“The ancient practice of ear stretching has now become popular in many countries. In America you see many young people with stretched ears. Perhaps they are a new sort of tribe. Perhaps they do it to be fashionable, but the significance has been lost.... They do not do it because they want to be respected, or because they are wise.

“And, child, I never did learn to hear the thoughts inside other people’s heads.”

I looked at my grandfather and his unstretched ears, and I felt then that I could find that secret I sought, deep inside myself.

1. In the passage, the narrator’s grandfather states that one reason he wanted to visit the village was to:

A. perform music with the reed pipe and the drum.B. speak a language from Tibet.C. appreciate his family’s heritage.D. see the villagers dance.

2. The main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 15–23) is to:

F. exemplify the traditional religious celebrations of the Lahu villagers.

G. show the reason the narrator’s grandfather wanted to learn the Lahu language.

H. express how the narrator’s grandfather viewed the Lahu people.

J. discuss why the Lahu people speak more than one language.

3. The passage’s repetition in line 54 of the description used in lines 22–23 creates a direct connection between the Lahu villagers’ voices and the:

A. narrator’s great-grandmother’s manner of speaking.B. narrator’s grandfather’s musical skill.C. narrator’s desire to learn a secret.D. beautiful woman’s ability to know the narrator’s

thoughts.

4. In the passage, the narrator’s grandfather suggests that stretching his ears would have given him the ability to do all of the following EXCEPT:

F. play music well.G. be admired for his unconventional fashion sense.H. know other people’s thoughts.J. become a leader whose words carry weight.

5. The eleventh and twelfth paragraphs (lines 64–74) differ from the rest of the passage in that these paragraphs are composed of the:

A. narrator’s grandfather stating why he thinks modern people should stretch their ears as the Lahu did.

B. narrator’s grandfather sharing his observations of how the contemporary practice of ear stretching differs from the its historical and cultural roots.

C. narrator discussing why her grandfather decided not to stretch his ears.

D. narrator suggesting that her grandfather should become more of a leader.

6. As it is used in line 55, the word she directly refers to the:

F. beautiful woman.G. narrator’s great-grandmother.H. narrator’s grandfather.J. narrator.

7. In the passage, the narrator’s grandfather assumes that the beautiful woman who greeted them at the village:

A. was not born in Thailand.B. loved to be seen wearing jewels.C. made her own clothing.D. was a priestess.

8. The passage indicates that when the narrator’s grandfather tried to be like the Lahu, the narrator’s grandfather found the sounds he heard to be:

F. peaceful.G. awe-inspiring.H. unique.J. sacred.

9. The practice of ear stretching by American young people is characterized in the passage by the narrator’s grandfather as being:

A. wise.B. traditional.C. defiant.D. without meaning.

10. In the passage, the phrase “find that secret I sought, deep inside myself” (lines 78–79) is best described as the:

F. narrator’s assessment of the grandfather’s story.G. narrator’s personal feelings upon hearing the

grandfather’s story.H. narrator’s grandfather’s realization that he did not need

to stretch his ears to gain respect.J. narrator’s grandfather’s translation of an ancient Lahu

proverb.

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Passage II

SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article “Steamboats in the Transportation Revolution” by Jed Weatherall (©2013 by American Heritage Press).

During the late 1700s and early 1800s, the newly-formed United States was growing by leaps and bounds. Unfortunately, the poor agricultural production of the soil in New England limited the number of people who could live in the region, and families began to move west to farm the rich land in the inner parts of the continent. These settlers faced great chal-lenges, pulling carts full of supplies hundreds of miles or (if they were lucky) traveling in Conestoga “covered wagons” drawn by oxen or horses.

It was easy to buy farmland in the new territories, but it took years of work to cultivate the land. Over time, farmers discovered that corn was particularly useful; it could be fed to livestock or distilled into liquor. The farmers began to ship their surplus corn and liquor to other markets for sale. In New England, where crop production was low but population was high, agricultural products could be easily sold in local mar-kets. But farmers west of the Appalachian mountain range had to ship their products long distances, with only a small choice of destinations. In fact, there was only one economical option for most farmers—send the products by boat down the Mississippi River to sell in the South—since shipping up-river was slow and costly.

Although steam-powered boats had existed in the United States since at least 1787, in 1800 they were still considered a novelty by most people. Robert Fulton, a young inventor from Pennsylvania, became fascinated with James Watt’s new steam engine and was sure it could be used to create a stable, successful steamboat. While living in France, he met Robert Livingston, the United States minister to France (who, at the time, was negotiating the Louisiana Purchase). A wealthy investor, Livingston had previously obtained from the New York legislature the exclusive right to steam navigation on the Hudson River, and he seized the opportunity to further invest in steam transportation. After Livingston and Fulton successfully tested a small steamboat on the Seine River in Paris, Fulton returned to America to build a larger model.

Skeptics ridiculed Fulton’s idea of a commercial steam-boat, even calling it “Fulton’s Folly.” Their mocking was understandable, since many steamboats were considered unreliable and unsafe. Their motors were prone to failure and even known to cause explosions and fires, making potential investors wary of the idea of a commercial steamboat. Despite the ridicule, however, Livingston chose to fund Fulton’s proj-ect himself in hopes of realizing the promise of his Hudson River monopoly.

Fulton’s steamboat, the North River Steamboat (some-times erroneously called the Clermont), was a success from its first voyage in 1807. The North River Steamboat left New York City and traveled to Albany at an average speed of five miles per hour, completing in 60 hours a trip that would take a week by sail. Villagers from Poughkeepsie stood on the hillside in wonder as the strange-looking craft, emitting dark clouds of smoke, chugged down the river. Some claimed it was a monster from the depths of the sea, while others believed that it was a sign that the day of judgment had come.

Within two weeks, the North River Steamboat began pas-senger service. Within a year, Fulton and Livingston turned a profit, establishing that commercial steamboat travel was economically viable, a feat that none of its predecessors had accomplished. Over the next seven years, Fulton reinvested his profits in the construction of sixteen more steamboats; within twenty years, over 200 steamers traveled the Mis-sissippi River from New Orleans all the way north to Ohio.

Steamboats began to play a key role in the settlement of the West and South. Farmers and merchants were able to access markets at a lower cost, and farmers began to buy land near rivers for easy access to shipping. Villages in the best locations became trading centers and grew into towns, with the port of New Orleans becoming the leading exporter of them all.

The steamboat, however, was not the only advance in transportation that spurred dramatic growth in the American economy. Turnpikes and railroads began to open up east-west transportation. The Pony Express, and later the telegraph, allowed for faster communication. In turn, faster communica-tion led to a boom in the financial markets, as business deals could be completed much more quickly. And the completion of the Erie Canal in 1825 allowed steamboats to connect New England with the South and West, further facilitating commercial growth.

Yet perhaps the greatest significance of the steamboat to the American story is its enduring legacy as the symbol of our romanticized version of the early nineteenth century. From the stories of Mark Twain to television, movies, and even modern casinos, the steamboat has charted a leisurely, even luxuriant, path into the American imagination as a symbol of a genteel era that was in truth the dawn of the country’s industrial age.

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11. In the second paragraph (lines 10–22), the primary contrast is between:

A. the popularity of corn products in New England and in the new territories.

B. farm products cultivated before and after settlement of the new territories.

C. the ease of transporting goods for sale in New England and in the new territories.

D. the cultivation of land in New England and in the new territories.

12. The reference to “Fulton’s Folly” most directly supports which of the following points made in the passage?

F. Fulton should have appealed to the skeptics to increase support for his plan.

G. It took the ridicule of skeptics to convince Livingston to finance the construction of Watt’s steamboat.

H. The construction of Watt’s steamboat should have been supported by a broad group of investors.

J. Before Fulton succeeded, the idea of a safe and reliable commercial steamboat seemed unlikely.

13. Based on the passage, what effect, if any, did the develop-ment of the commercial steamboat have on the economy of New Orleans?

A. The steamboat brought balance to the city’s economy, allowing trade with other, more successful ports along the Mississippi.

B. The steamboat caused a decrease in the city’s com-merce, as people no longer needed to stay in one place.

C. The steamboat caused a boom in exports that eventually allowed the city to become the leading exporter on the Mississippi.

D. The steamboat had almost no effect on the city’s econ-omy, which eventually expanded when other towns’ economies began to grow at the same rate.

14. The author speculates that perhaps the greatest significance of the commercial steamboat was the way it:

F. enabled farmers in the new territories to ship their goods to markets in an economical and timely way.

G. symbolized a romanticized view of the American age of travel.

H. led other countries to grow their economies by building commercial steamboats.

J. opened a path for settlement of the new territories and the cultivation of farmland.

15. According to the passage, the steam-powered boats in existence before Fulton launched the North River Steamboat typically:

A. were unreliable and unsafe.B. traveled up-river from New Orleans to Ohio.C. transported goods from west of the Appalachian moun-

tain range to markets in New England.D. were stable and successful.

16. The passage portrays Livingston as:

F. a politician with a number of financial investments who was involved in significant international negotiations.

G. a wealthy politician who became successful only after making many risky, ill-advised investments.

H. a self-made man from a poor family who became wealthy and influential through his hard work and bril-liant investments.

J. an investor who was ridiculed for becoming involved in New York politics and gaining a monopoly on Hudson River transportation.

17. The passage states that the attitude of potential investors toward Fulton’s plans for a commercial steamboat was one of:

A. unbridled support.B. thoughtful encouragement.C. wariness.D. apathy.

18. It is reasonable to infer from the passage that travel on New York rivers prior to 1800 was:

F. increasing due to government subsidies.G. not commercially available.H. generally faster than five miles per hour.J. generally slower than five miles per hour.

19. According to the passage, one source of funds for the con-struction of Fulton’s steamboats was:

A. revenues from other advances in transportation, such as turnpikes and railroads.

B. profits from passenger service on the North River Steamboat.

C. investments by various benefactors.D. grants provided by the New York legislature in support

of steam travel.

20. In the context of the passage, lines 55–58 primarily serve to:

F. provide evidence that steamboat travel became com-mercially successful.

G. prove that steamboats were used only for passenger travel.

H. compare the success of steamboat travel on the Hudson River and on the Mississippi River.

J. refute Livingston’s claim that steamboat travel would be most successful on the Hudson River.


Passage III

HUMANITIES: Passage A discusses the initial reception of Charles Dickens’s works and how that reception has changed over time. Passage B discusses author Tom Wolfe’s support for a particular literary genre.

Passage A

In an 1858 letter to his friend and fellow novelist Wilkie Collins, Charles Dickens wrote, “Everything that happens … shows beyond mistake that you can’t shut out the world; that you are in it, to be of it … that you must mingle with it, and make the best of it.” To people familiar with Dickens’s work, this letter should come as no surprise. Millions of casual readers and theatergoers have enjoyed watching Scrooge’s heart thaw on Christmas Eve, but readers can also see, just below the surface, the soul of a social crusader. Dickens intended his work not to cater to those who sought mindless entertainment but to those who wanted to better understand and even improve society.

In his fifteen novels, Dickens spared no details of the bad sanitation, poverty, and social inequality that the residents of Victorian London suffered. The Pickwick Papers describes in excruciating detail the dense black smoke billowing out of the factories, the clang of hammer on iron. Oliver Twist takes up the cause of working-class political reform and denounces the Victorian workhouse, and the late novel Hard Times exposes the cruelty of the ruling classes who run the slums for their own gain. In fact, Dickens’s stories are so filled with injustice that it can be difficult to imagine them as anything other than tracts in favor of moral and social reform.

Critics of the time, who often came from middle-class backgrounds, attacked Dickens’s works of what we now call social realism as “low” forms of art. At the time, open dis-cussions about social standing and class strife were frowned upon; many critics preferred to believe that such topics were too ordinary for the high calling of literature. Their scorn was intensified by Dickens’s public readings, which were so spectacularly dramatic that women often fainted from shock. It took eighty years after the author’s death for Dickens’s reputation to be resurrected by later generations of critics more sympathetic to his purpose.

The irony, however, is that novels of social realism have endured far better than novels of other genres. The reasons for this are varied, but one popular explanation is that social-realist novels tell us things about historical eras in ways that history books cannot. It’s no accident that this genre is popular in school curricula. For example, Great Expectations contains enough analysis of London’s grimy working-class life to replace a week’s worth of lectures on the Industrial Revolution. Dickens’s work is entertaining, true, but his novels

were intended to also illuminate the human condition. While today’s equivalent stories of social realism may be found on television screens more often than the pages of a book, it’s clear that the influence of both Dickens and his Victorian genre is still being strongly felt.

Passage B

In the world of traditional book publishing, the author Tom Wolfe stands out. Though he is often recognizable be-cause of his fanciful white suits and dapper cane, he is better known among critics as a staunch defender of the genre of social realism.

Wolfe himself was trained as a journalist and prides him-self on the accuracy of his reporting. He made his reputation in Sunday news supplements, where he shocked middle-class American readers by chronicling the day-to-day lives of hippies and other outlandish representatives of the counterculture. “I braced and waited for the big realistic novels that were sure to be written about the Sixties,” Wolfe wrote. “But these novels never appeared.”

Echoing Wolfe, critics point out that, in publishing, the genre of social realism has been in serious decline for decades. Even Wolfe admits that television and movies do a better job of conveying outward elements of storytelling such as setting and plot. He maintains, however, that interior elements of sto-ries, such as character psychology and pointed observations, are better relayed through the medium of the written word.

Wolfe’s first and most popular novel, The Bonfire of the Vanities, was a sharp response to those who believed that the social realistic novel was dead. Originally conceived as a non-fiction book about New York City in the 1980s, the novel portrays the outrageous excesses and the ego-driven status games of the financial sector elite. Wolfe based his novel upon Thackeray’s classic nineteenth-century social realist masterpiece Vanity Fair. Though The Bonfire of the Vanities won no awards, it was an immediate commercial success, spawned a big-budget Hollywood film, and is now considered by many to be one of the most accomplished novels of the decade.

Wolfe himself claims that he owes all of this success to his journalistic training. “It is not merely that reporting is useful in gathering the petits fais vrais [small details from real life] that create verisimilitude… My contention is that, especially in an age like this, they are essential for the very greatest effects literature can achieve.”

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Questions 21–23 ask about Passage A.

21. Based on the passage, the most likely reason that novels of social realism were underappreciated by critics of the nineteenth century was that the novels:

A. discussed topics that were considered unfit for works of high art.

B. failed to find a receptive readership.C. suffered such vague definitions that it was difficult to

define what they were.D. reminded working-class people of their low positions

in society.

22. According to the author, Dickens’s primary purpose for writing novels was to

F. express his joy at being alive in a rapidly changing era.G. take sadistic delight in describing the daily lives of city

dwellers.H. expose injustice and improve society through popular

literary forms.J. build a reputation for excellence that would extend

beyond his own life.

23. The author refers to Dickens as “a social crusader” to suggest that Dickens was

A. inspired by medieval stories.B. motivated to change culture. C. warlike by nature.D. aspiring to rise in the class system.

Questions 24–27 ask about Passage B.

24. As it is used in line 52, staunch most nearly means

F. odiferous.G. impeding.H. defensive. J. devoted.

25. According to the author, the most likely reason for Wolfe’s observation that “the big realistic novels of the Sixties were never written” (lines 59–61) was that

A. the rise of television had reduced the audience for novels.

B. journalists had already written the stories more quickly and more accurately.

C. the revolutionary flavor of that era transmitted poorly to the written word.

D. the category of social realism had grown less popular.

26. The author elaborates on the success of The Bonfire of the Vanities by mentioning

F. the number of awards it was given. G. examples of the other novels to which it is similar.H. the financial cost of the cinematic version of the book.J. its influence upon a subsequent generation of writers.

27. The author refers to “other outlandish representatives” (line 58) in order to suggest that hippies were

A. truly disturbed and possibly damaged individuals.B. unworthy of having realistic novels written about them.C. not the only people in the Sixties who challenged cul-

tural practices.D. precursors of a larger changes in mainstream American

attitudes.

Questions 28–30 ask about both passages.

28. According to the authors of both passages, both the works of Dickens and the works of Wolfe were

F. concerned with depicting only the middle and upper classes.

G. written in a genre that was not popular at the time of composition.

H. unsuccessful in resuscitating the genre of the social-realist novel.

J. unable to achieve critical or popular success during the author’s life.

29. Which of the following methods of support do both authors use to convey their ideas?

A. Primary source material from the authors themselvesB. Quotations from contemporary literary criticsC. Sarcasm and exaggerated comparisonsD. Personal anecdotes and opinions

30. According to information in both passages, which of the following would best characterize Dickens’s and Wolfe’s positions relative to the genre of social realism?

F. Dickens used social realism to crusade for justice whereas Wolfe used social realism as an academic exercise.

G. Dickens used social realism to chronicle historical events whereas Wolfe used social realism to convey his visionary message.

H. Dickens used social realism before the genre had be-come popular whereas Wolfe used social realism after its population had peaked.

J. Dickens used social realism because it was the most profitable form whereas Wolfe used social realism for art alone.


Passage IV

NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article “Hatteras: A Hidden Treasure,” by V. Mars Echolls (© 2013 by Hearst Weekly)

Jimmy Strickland stealthily checks the traps on his route, sneaking from one to the next. He may find nutria, foxes, and even coyotes. When he finds them, he’ll remove those that survive their capture in the traps and dispose of them elsewhere.

All of these animals live on land protected by the Na-tional Park Service, traditionally a place where species are allowed to thrive without human predation. But Strickland is just doing his job.

The beaches of Cape Hatteras, located along the eastern edge of North Carolina, are one of the last locations where sea turtles survive, part of an incredibly diverse ecosystem that evolutionary biologists and others study for clues to our natural history. The turtles breed rarely and lay their eggs on the beach. When they hatch, the tiny turtles must travel without help from their mother down the beach and into the water to survive. Lately, that task has gotten harder.

These pristine beaches have long been protected from direct human interference, but protecting all the species native to Cape Hatteras has had some unforeseen negative consequences. A ban on trapping has led to high populations of some species once prized for their fur, such as minks and nutria. These small animals cause problems that belie their size. They feast on the eggs of sea turtles and on the newly hatched animals making their way to the ocean. The sought-after skins of the nutria and minks meant that these populations had historically been kept in check in the area by hunters. Now, with hunting no longer allowed, they constitute a threat that is increasingly difficult to ignore.

The Cape Hatteras area is without a doubt one of the United States’ natural treasures. The serene beauty of the crystal clear water is complemented by a unique natural phenomenon: sparkling sand. Walk along the beach at night, and the ground lights up beneath your feet. Microscopic dinoflagellates, called Sea Sparkle, wait unseen beneath the sand. Disturb them, and they emit a bluish light that makes the beach seem to glow.

Continue to walk and you may come upon a tidal pool: a tiny explosion of diversity at the water’s edge. Scuttling crabs, several types of clams, and sea anemones, their

tentacles bending in the tide, await discovery. They share the beach and water with hundreds of species of birds, intricate growths of vibrantly colored coral, and animals from sting rays to dolphins. Even the insects have a role to play in this complex ecosystem. The giant water fleas ubiquitous on the beach have transparent bodies and wings and can grow up to an inch long. These bugs are an important food source for the hundreds of species of birds that stop at Cape Hatteras each year in the midst of seasonal migration.

Saving this veritable paradise so that scientists can un-derstand its significance is a hefty task that comes with many challenges. Bridges built from the mainland to help tourists visit the area’s islands have allowed higher than usual num-bers of urban predators, such as opossums, to make their way to the previously isolated region. Like the minks and nutria common to the area, they feed on the helpless baby sea turtles, ensuring that as few as one in nine of the hatchlings makes it from the beach where it is born to the embrace of the sea.

Well-meaning scientists have worked to ensure that this natural treasure trove is undisturbed, and the animals that live there are protected regardless of species. Increasingly in recent years, ecologists have realized that their attempts to preserve the ecosystem without influencing it were ineffective. Without intervention, species like the sea turtle will die out entirely. The results for the fragile ecosystem of Cape Hatteras and the research being done there could be cata-strophic. Any imbalance in the natural order could lead to the decline first of one species, then another, and one of nature’s great treasure troves of information might never recover.

Strickland is part of a program to keep predatory species in check by trapping and removing them. Some opponents say that the Park Service is overstepping its bounds by interfer-ing in a natural predator and prey relationship. Others dislike the idea of controlling animal populations, believing that all animals have an equal right to live undisturbed. Advocates of the program reply that without human intervention sea turtles will soon become extinct.

To save the sea turtles, Strickland and his team trap and remove selected animals to prevent overpopulation. Each year, fewer than a thousand individual animals are removed, but even this small intervention is making a difference. In a few weeks, baby sea turtles will hatch and stumble toward the ocean. Each one that makes it will likely live for more than half a century, restoring balance to the islands and ensuring that scientists can study the secrets of this ecosystem for centuries to come.

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31. The main idea of the passage is that:

A. Cape Hatteras needs protection from humans to ensure that it can be enjoyed by future generations.

B. park rangers remove a few predatory animals from Cape Hatteras every year to ensure that threatened and endangered species survive.

C. Cape Hatteras is one of the last places where sea turtles survive.

D. Cape Hatteras is a unique ecosystem, some components of which are being protected by human action from a variety of threats.

32. The passage does NOT identify which of the following as a feature of the Cape Hatteras ecosystem:

F. Urban predators such as opossums.G. Dinoflagellates that light the sand.H. Dozens of types of fish.J. Animals prized for their fur.

33. In the context of the passage, the phrase “predatory species in check” (lines 70–71) most strongly suggests that the Park Service intends to trap and remove approximately:

A. one in nine urban predators within half a century.B. all of the urban predators within half a century.C. fewer than one thousand animals per year.D. over one thousand animals per year.

34. The passage most strongly implies that the opossums on Cape Hatteras differ from the minks and nutria there in that the opossums:

F. eat the eggs of sea turtles.G. are not a species native to Cape Hatteras.H. add to the explosion of diversity in Cape Hatteras’s tidal

pools.J. can contribute to the ecosystem of Cape Hatteras under

the right conditions.

35. The details describing the tidal pool in lines 39–41 are most likely included to:

A. clarify why people love the beaches of Cape Hatteras.B. reveal that predators are destroying the ecosystem of

Cape Hatteras.C. prove that small ocean species are just as important as

birds and reptiles.D. imply that the many species of the tidal pool are impor-

tant parts of the ecosystem.

36. The statement in lines 8–9 can best be described as a:

F. statement that the passage’s author initially supports with evidence, but later disagrees with.

G. statement that seems counterintuitive until the passage explains that trapping and removing species is important to the ecosystem’s future.

H. ironic aside that demonstrates that the author does not agree with the Park Service’s plans.

J. metaphor that compares Strickland’s job to that of the minks and nutria in order to show his influence on the ecosystem.

37. As it is used in line 58, the word embrace most nearly means:

A. safety.B. hug.C. enthusiasm.D. love.

38. The main idea of the fifth paragraph (lines 30–37) is that:

F. the unique natural beauty of Cape Hatteras is part of what makes it important to preserve.

G. dinoflagellates called Sea Sparkle that live in the sand are part of the reason the ecosystem is in danger.

H. Cape Hatteras, like most sea turtle habitats, was irreparably damaged by tourism and natural predators.

J. Cape Hatteras’s beautiful sand is part of the reason sea turtles are having trouble surviving.

39. The passage implies that sea turtles are having a harder time making it to the water after birth because of which factors?

A. HumansB. ScientistsC. AnemonesD. Predators

40. According to the passage, compared to the time before the animal removal program Strickland works for was in place, the number of predators is:

F. much greater.G. the same. H. somewhat less.J. somewhat greater.

END OF TEST 3


DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.


SCIENCE TEST


DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your an-swer document. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.

Passage I

A group of scientists discovered that a strain of bacteria, Bacteria P, grows under previously unconsidered conditions. The cells of Bacteria P grow colonies when incubated for 48 hours on a growth medium with a pH of 7 in a controlled environment of 15°C and an O2 concentration of 15%. To determine whether these conditions are optimal, a researcher performed an experiment, varying the pH levels of the growth medium and the incubation temperatures and O2 concentration of the controlled environment. In every trial, Bacteria P cells were incubated for 48 hours, and colony growth was measured by comparing the surface-area coverage (SAC) on the growth material (see the table).

Trial

Controlled environmentGrowth material

SACIncubationtemperature

(°C)

O2concentration

pH

123

101010

10%10%10%

7911

11%19%13%

456

101010

15%15%15%

7911

9%15%11%

789

151515

10%10%10%

7911

8%15%11%

101112

151515

15%15%15%

7911

6%9%7%

1. To determine whether decreasing the O2 concentration in the controlled environment decreases the SAC of Bacteria P, the scientists should compare the results of which of the following 2 trials?

A. Trial 4 and Trial 1B. Trial 4 and Trial 3C. Trial 2 and Trial 3D. Trial 11 and Trial 9

2. How did increasing the incubation temperature of the controlled environment from 10°C to 15°C affect the SAC when Bacteria P cells were exposed to an O2 concentration of 15% and a pH of 9 ? When the incubation temperature was increased from 10°C to 15°C, the SAC:

F. increased; the SAC for Trial 10 was 7% and the SAC for Trial 4 was 9%.

G. increased; the SAC for Trial 5 was 9% and the SAC for Trial 11 was 15%.

H. decreased; the SAC for Trial 10 was 9% and the SAC for Trial 4 was 7%.

J. decreased; the SAC for Trial 5 was 15% and the SAC for Trial 11 was 9%.

3. Which of the growth conditions varied among Trials 7-9 ?

A. Incubation temperature only B. Oxygen concentration onlyC. pH onlyD. Oxygen concentration and pH only

4. One scientist predicted that the SAC for Bacteria P would be the lowest when the bacteria were incubated at 15°C and exposed to an O2 concentration of 10% with a pH of 7. Is her prediction consistent with the results in the table?

F. No; the SAC for Bacteria P was the lowest in Trial 2.G. No; the SAC for Bacteria P was the lowest in Trial 10.H. Yes; the SAC for Bacteria P was the lowest in Trial 2.J. Yes; the SAC for Bacteria P was the lowest in Trial 10.

5. The controlled environments used in Trial 2 and Trial 5 differed in which of the following ways?

A. The pH of Trial 2 was more acidic than the pH of Trial 5.

B. The pH of Trial 5 was more acidic than the pH of Trial 2.

C. The O2 concentration of Trial 2 was greater than the O2 concentration of Trial 5.

D. The O2 concentration of Trial 5 was greater than the O2 concentration of Trial 2.

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Passage II

A sphere falling through a fluid experiences a decreasing acceleration until reaching a final, constant velocity. This terminal velocity, Vt, of the sphere depends on the sphere’s radius, R; the sphere’s density, rs; the fluid’s density, rf; and the fluid’s viscosity, m.

The table below gives Vt, in meters/second (m/s), for a sphere of uniform density falling through a fluid for various combinations of R, in meters (m); rs in kilograms/meter3 (kg/m3); and rf in kilograms/meter3 (kg/m3). In each experiment, the viscosity of the fluid, m, is held constant.

CombinationR

(m)rf

(kg/m3)rs

(kg/m3)Vt

(m/s)1 0.100 0.200 1.200 2.1772 0.200 0.200 1.200 8.7113 0.300 0.200 1.200 19.604 0.400 0.200 1.200 34.84

5 0.400 0.050 1.200 40.076 0.400 0.100 1.200 38.837 0.400 0.150 1.200 36.588 0.400 0.200 1.200 34.849 0.400 0.200 0.600 13.9410 0.400 0.200 1.250 34.8411 0.400 0.200 2.000 36.5912 0.400 0.200 2.700 87.11

6. According to Combinations 5–8, as rf increases, Vt:

F. remains the same.G. increases only.H. decreases only.J. varies, but with no general trend.

7. Based on Combinations 1-4, the relationship between R and Vt is best represented by which of the following graphs?

A. 40

20

00 0.20 0.40

R(m)

Vt (

m/s

)

B. 40

20

00 0.20 0.40

R(m)

Vt (

m/s

)

8. Based on the table, Vt will be greatest for which of the

following R, rf and rs ?

R (m) rf (kg/m3) rs (kg/m3)

F. 0.800 0.300 5.00G. 0.800 0.600 10.0H. 1.600 0.300 10.0J. 1.600 0.600 5.00

9. If experimental trials were conducted in which Com-binations 1–4 were tested, what would be the independent variable and what would be the dependent variable?

independent dependent

A. R VtB. Vt RC. rf rsD. rs rf

10. A sphere moving through fluid as described in the passage experiences a downward force due to gravity, Fg, an upward-directed buoyant force, Fb, and drag force, Fd, resisting its movement. For the sphere to continue to move downward, which of the following statements must be true?

F. Fb and Fd must increase more quickly than Fg. G. Fb and Fd must equal Fg.H. The sum of Fb and Fd must be greater than Fg.J. The sum of Fb and Fd must be less than Fg.

C. 40

20

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R(m)

Vt (

m/s

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D. 40

20

00 0.20 0.40

R(m)

Vt (

m/s

)


Passage III

When t-butyl bromide [(CH3)3CBr] is dissolved in an isopropanol-H2O solution, it reacts completely with H2O to form t-butyl alcohol [(CH3)3COH]:

(CH ) CBr H O (CH ) COH H Br3 3 2 isopropanol-H2O 3 3++ + + −

Isopropanol is less polar than H2O. Thus, increasing the concentration of isopropanol in H2O decreases the polarity of the reaction solution.

Figures 1 and 2 show how the reaction rate of each of five H2O-only or isopropanol-H2O solutions varied over time after 5 mL of a (CH3)3CBr preparation is dissolved in 95 mL of each solution. The reaction was allowed to run to completion (indicated by the point labeled “RC”) and its progress measured via titration of the reaction product.

0.12

00 50 100 150 200 250 300

time (minutes)

10% isopropanol

H2O

RCt-bu

tyl b

rom

ide

con

cent

ratio

n (m

ol/L

)

0.08

0.06

0.04

0.02

0.10

RC

Figure 1

0.12

00 50 100 150 200 250 300

time (minutes)

t-bu

tyl b

rom

ide

conc

entr

atio

n (m

ol/L

)

0.08

0.06

0.04

0.02

0.10

80% isopropanol

75% isopropanol30%

isopropanol RCRC

RC

Figure 2

Note: In Figures 1 and 2, solution concentration is given as the

percent by mass of isopropanol in solution, and (CH3)3CBr

concentration in solution is given in moles per liter, mol/L.

11. Which of the following graphs best shows how the final concentration of t-butyl bromide varied with isopropanol concentration?

A.

% isopropanol concentration

t-bu

tyl b

rom

ide

con

cent

ratio

n (m

ol/L

) 0.06

0.04

0.02

00 10 30 75 80

B.

% isopropanol concentrationt-

buty

l bro

mid

e c

once

ntra

tion

(mol

/L)

0.06

0.04

0.02

00 10 30 75 80

C.


t-bu

tyl b

rom

ide

con

cent

ratio

n (m

ol/L

) 0.06

0.04

0.02

00 10 30 75 80

D.


t-bu

tyl b

rom

ide

con

cent

ratio

n (m

ol/L

) 0.06

0.04

0.02

00 10 30 75 80

12. Based on Figure 2, if a 77% isopropanol solution had been tested, the reaction would most likely have reached completion at a time:

F. greater than 200 min.G. between 150 min and 200 min.H. between 100 min and 150 min.J. less than 100 min.


13. Based on Figures 1 and 2, the reaction was completed soon-est when the isopropanol concentration was:

A. 0%.B. 10%.C. 30%.D. 75%.

14. Consider the isopropanol-H2O solution that resulted in the smallest final t-butyl bromide concentration shown in Figures 1 and 2. What masses of isopropanol and H2O can be mixed together to make 100 g of this solution?

isopropanol H2O

F. 10 g 90 gG. 30 g 70 gH. 30 g 100 gJ. 75 g 25 g

15. As the concentration t-butyl bromide decreases, its ability to conduct electricity increases. Based on Figures 1 and 2, which of the solutions has the highest conductivity at RC ?

A. 10% isopropanolB. 30% isopropanolC. 75% isopropanolD. 80% isopropanol


Passage IV

A scientist conducted an experiment to examine whether sleep deprivation harms the performance of procedural memory (memory of learned movements).

Study participants learned to type the word “cats” on at least one of two keyboard layouts: Keyboard 1 only, or Keyboard 1 followed by Keyboard 2 (see Figure 1). To learn the pattern, the participants tried to type “cats” for 90 sec and then paused for 45 sec, repeating this cycle 10 times in a row. For the last 2 of these 10 sets, the scientist assessed the participants’ accuracy.

Group 1 learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 1 and was immediately reassessed.

Group 2 learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 1, stayed awake for 24 hours, and was then reassessed.

Group 3 learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 1, immediately learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 2, stayed awake for 24 hours, and was then reassessed.

Group 4 learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 1, immediately learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 2, and was immediately reassessed.

Group 5 learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 1, waited for 4 hr, learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 2, stayed awake for 12 hr, and was then reassessed.

Group 6 learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 1, waited for 4 hr, learned to type “cats” on Keyboard 2, stayed awake for 8 hr, and was then reassessed.

The table below records, for each group, the percent change in the average accuracy of the participants between their assessment (when they learned to type “cats”) and their reassessment.

Table 1

GroupKeyboards

learned

Time between learning sessions

(hr)

Time awake before

reassessment (hr)

Percent change

in average

accuracy for

Keyboard:1 2

1 1 only NA 0 5 NA2 1 only NA 24 –15 NA3 1 and 2 0 24 –36 –484 1 and 2 0 0 –4 –75 1 and 2 4 12 3 16 1 and 2 4 8 2 1Note: NA denotes that the conditions are not applicable.

16. When subjects did not learn how to type “cats” on Keyboard 2, did reassessment after 24 hours of sleep deprivation result in a decrease in percent change in average accuracy for Keyboard 1 ?

F. No; the percent change in average accuracy for Group 4 was –4%, compared to –15% for Group 2.

G. No; the percent change in average accuracy for Group 1 was 5%, compared to –15% for Group 2.

H. Yes; the percent change in average accuracy for Group 4 was –4%, compared to –15% for Group 2.

J. Yes; the percent change in average accuracy for Group 1 was 5%, compared to –15% for Group 2.

Keyboard 2:“cats”

Keyboard 1:“cats”

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The participants’ accuracy was reassessed—either immediately after the first 10 sets or after the subjects had stayed awake for 24 hours—as they tried to type “cats” for 2 sets.

Six groups, each consisting of 12 participants, underwent different learning protocols.

Figure 1


17. To determine whether “cats” was typed with greater accuracy on Keyboard 2 after 24 hours of sleep deprivation than it was with no sleep deprivation, one should compare results for:

A. Groups 1 and 2B. Groups 2 and 3C. Groups 3 and 4D. Groups 4 and 5

18. The results of the study are most consistent with which of the following conclusions about the effect of sleep depriva-tion on procedural memory?

F. Sleep deprivation before learning does not impair pro-cedural memory.

G. Sleep deprivation before learning can impair procedural memory.

H. Sleep deprivation after learning does not impair proce-dural memory.

J. Sleep deprivation after learning can impair procedural memory.

19. How did subjects learning to type “cats” on Keyboard 1 differ from subjects learning to type “cats” on Keyboard 2 ? Subjects learning to type on Keyboard 1:

A. paused for 30 sec between 60 sec of typing. B. paused for 45 sec between 60 sec of typing. C. typed only on the top two rows of the keyboard, whereas

the subjects learning on Keyboard 2 used all rows.D. typed using only their non-dominant hands.

20. Based on the results in the table, when subjects in Group 4 were reassessed, was their average accuracy for typing “cats” on Keyboard 1 less than or greater than that during training?

F. Greater, because the percent change in average accu-racy from baseline to reassessment is less than 0.

G. Greater, because the percent change in average accu-racy from baseline to reassessment is greater than 0.

H. Less, because the percent change in average accuracy from baseline to reassessment is less than 0.

J. Less, because the percent change in average accuracy from baseline to reassessment is greater than 0.

21. Another scientist hypothesized that decreasing the amount of sleep deprivation from 12 hr to 8 hr would increase the percent change in average accuracy from baseline to reas-sessment for Keyboard 2. Are the results consistent with this hypothesis?

A. No; the percent change in average accuracy for Keyboard 2 was the same in Groups 5 and Group 6.

B. No; the percent change in average accuracy for Keyboard 2 was the same in Groups 4 and 5.

C. Yes; the percent change in average accuracy for Keyboard 2 was lower in Group 5 than in Group 6.

D. Yes; the percent change in average accuracy for Keyboard 2 was lower in Group 4 than in Group 5.


Passage V

Super-massive black holes (SMBHs) comprise the largest category of black holes and are at least 105 times the mass of our Sun (105 M ). When a large star exhausts all the fuel in its core, the balance of forces within that star becomes unsustainable. The star collapses suddenly and triggers a supernova explosion. If the matter remaining after the explosion is at least 4 M , then it collapses and forms a black hole. Two scientists discuss the formation of an SMBH, similar to the one at the center of the Milky Way Galaxy (near Sagittarius A*).

Scientist 1

A black hole continuously attracts matter and energy that pass near its edge. While black holes smaller than 4 M evaporate, larger black holes stabilize and slowly grow in mass as more particles fall in. Once a black hole becomes an SMBH, it is then capable of attracting nearby stars, planets, and smaller black holes. This growth process is slow, and it takes at least 5 billion years for a 4 M black hole to attract enough mass to become a SMBH and longer to reach the mass of the Sagittarius A* SMBH (4.4 ´ 107 M ). Because SMBHs take so long to form, they are currently very rare.

Scientist 2

An SMBH forms only when 2 or more stars within a compact star cluster collide, cause an explosive chain reaction, and create an intermediate-mass black hole (IMBH), a black hole with a mass of at least 103 M . After the collision, the IMBH forms within a day and its immense gravity causes the other stars in the star cluster to fall into the IMBH. Afterward, the IMBH sinks to the center of its galaxy, where it merges with other IMBHs and becomes an SMBH. This process from initial collision to SMBH formation takes about 1 million years.

An SMBH like the one at Sagittarius A* could not form as described by Scientist 1. Observations indicate that a black hole must be within several trillion kilometers of an object in order to draw it in. Any black hole of at least 4 M quickly absorbs all the nearby matter and then reaches relative stability within 5 million years. Its mass changes substantially only if a large body collides with it. Such collisions are statistically rare. Since there is an SMBH at the center of each of the 125 million known galaxies, such collisions cannot account for the existence of SMBHs.

22. What are the 2 scientists’ estimates of the mass of a black hole that later becomes a SMBH ?

Scientist 1 Scientist 2

F. at least 4 M at least 103 MG. at least 103 M at least 4 MH. exactly 4 M exactly 103 MJ. exactly 103 M exactly 4 M

23. Based on Scientist 2’s discussion, which of the following statements gives the most likely reason that an observed, stable black hole is not an SMBH? The black hole:

A. is less than 5 billion years old.B. is more than 5 billion years old.C. was created by a single star exploding and collapsing.D. was created when two stars collided and exploded.

24. The discovery that all small black holes eventually collide with large planets and stars would contradict a statement made by:

F. neither Scientist 1 nor Scientist 2.G. both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2.H. Scientist 2 only.J. Scientist 1 only.

25. Suppose a dying star goes supernova and the remaining stellar material contracts to a dense core with a mass of 3 M . Would Scientist 1 be likely to claim that this stellar core with a mass of 3 M will eventually become a SMBH ?

A. No, because Scientist 1 claims that a black hole must be at least 3 M in order to stabilize and slowly grow to be an SMBH.

B. No, because Scientist 1 claims that a black hole must be more than 3 M in order to stabilize and slowly grow to be an SMBH.

C. Yes, because Scientist 1 claims that a black hole must be at least 3 M in order to stabilize and slowly grow to be an SMBH.

D. Yes, because Scientist 1 claims that a black hole must be more than 3 M in order to stabilize and slowly grow to be an SMBH.

26. The discovery of which of the following would provide the strongest support for Scientist 2’s viewpoint?

F. Several 1-million-year-old SMBHs, none near the cen-ter of a galaxy

G. Several 1-million-year-old SMBHs, each near the cen-ter of a galaxy

H. Several 5-billion-year-old SMBHs, none near the center of a galaxy

J. Several 5-billion-year-old SMBHs, each near the center of a galaxy


27. Assume that when the Sun dies, it will become a neu-tron star, a stellar body with the same gravitational and physical properties of a black hole, but with a mass of 1.4 to 3.2 M and a density only 1014 times greater than that of the Sun. If the Sun becomes a neutron star with the same mass as the Earth, that neutron star would most likely:

A. exert a greater gravitational force on an object at a fixed distance from its core than Earth would.

B. exert a lesser gravitational force on an object at a fixed distance from its core than Earth would.

C. have a greater total volume than Earth.D. have a lesser total volume than Earth.

28. Based on Scientist 2’s discussion, an IMBH nearby but NOT at the direct center of a galaxy would most likely:

F. remain where it is and form an SMBH in no more than 1 million years.

G. fall to the center of the galaxy and form an SMBH in no more than 1 million years.

H. move away from the center of the galaxy and form an SMBH in no more than 1 million years.

J. remain where it is and reach a stable mass.


Passage VI

Nuclear fusion occurs in the core of the sun (the solar core). This process begins with the hot, dense ionized gases that make up the solar core. In nuclear fusion, hydrogen is consumed in order to produce heavier elements and other subatomic particles.

density (kg/m3)

temperature (millions of K)

neutrinos

photons

core

10

03 04 06 08

64

2

radius

convection zone

100

1000

10,000

Figure 1

The nuclear fusion of a hydrogen atom is represented in the following equation:

4 1H + 2 e- ® 4He + 2 neutrinos + 6 photons

This primary reaction forms three direct products: helium-4 (4He), neutrinos, and photons. The released photons heat the sun’s gases while neutrinos pass into space. Under appropriate conditions, helium may further react, producing heavier elements such as carbon and oxygen.

A spectrograph was used to collect data on the electromagnetic emission spectrum of the sun in order to study its composition at 10 locations. Each location was at a different distance from the center of the sun’s core.

Study 1

The data from the spectrograph were compared to known absorption lines, isolated bright or dark lines in a spectrum produced by absorption of light of a single wavelength, for various elements. The amounts of hydrogen-1 (1H) and helium-4 (4He) were determined at the 10 locations. The hydrogen and helium relative abundances were calculated for each location by dividing the number of 1H ions or 4He ions by the total number of both1H and 4He ions present at the location. The relative abundances of 1H and 4He are shown at distances from 0 to 700,000 km in Figure 2.

0.0

0.2

0.4

0.6

0.8

1.0

0 70 140 210 280 350 420 490 560 630 700

rela

tive

abun

danc

e

distance (thousands of km)

4He 1H

Key

Figure 2

Study 2

The data from the 10 locations were analyzed to determine the masses of carbon-12 (12C) and oxygen-16 (16O). The percent by mass of carbon-12 (12C) and oxygen-16 (16O) at each location was calculated by dividing their respective masses at that location by the total mass of all ions present at that location. The percent by mass of 12C and 16O are shown at distances from 0 to 700,000 km in Figure 3.

0.00.10.20.30.40.50.60.70.80.91.0

0 70 140 210 280 350 420 490 560 630 700

perc

ent b

y m

ass

distance (thousands of km)

12C16O

Key

Figure 3

29. According to the results of Study 2, there was NO 12C at which of the following distances from the sun’s core?

A. 0 kmB. 175,000 kmC. 300,000 kmD. 525,000 km


30. Suppose that in Study 1 the relative abundance of 4He and 1H were measured at a distance of 750,000 km from the Sun’s core. The relative abundance of 4He and 1H, respectively, would be closest to which of the following?

4He 1H

F. 0 0G. 0 1.0H. 0.5 0J. 0.5 1.0

31. Is the statement “Some 12C was present at each of the ana-lyzed distances from the center of the sun’s core” supported by Figure 3 ?

A. Yes, because Figure 3 indicates that the 12C percent by mass was zero at distances of 420,000 km or greater.

B. Yes, because Figure 3 indicates that the 12C percent by mass was greater than zero at all distances.

C. No, because Figure 3 indicates that the 12C percent by mass was greater than zero at all distances.

D. No, because Figure 3 indicates that the 12C percent by mass was zero at distances of 420,000 km or greater.

32. According to the results of Study 2, from a distance of 0 km to 700,000 km from the sun’s core, how did the percent by mass of 12C compare to the percent by mass of 16O? The average percent by mass of 12C was:

F. greater at each distance.G. less at each distance.H. greater at some distances but less at all other distances.J. greater at some distances but the same at all other

distances.

33. Consider the percent by mass of 16O at a distance of 700,000 km shown in Figure 3. On average, the mass of 16O in a sample of gas weighing 1000 g would be closest to which of the following?

A. 1 gB. 5 gC. 50 gD. 100 g

34. The procedures of Studies 1 and 2 differed in which of the following ways? In Study 1, samples were:

F. analyzed for one reactant and one product from the primary reaction, whereas in Study 2, samples were analyzed for all products and reactants of the primary reaction.

G. analyzed for the reactants of the primary nuclear fusion reaction, whereas in Study 2, samples were analyzed for the products of the primary reaction.

H. analyzed for one reactant and one product from the primary reaction, whereas in Study 2, samples were not analyzed for the reactants or the products of the primary reaction.

J. analyzed for the products of the primary nuclear fusion reaction, whereas in Study 2, samples were analyzed for the reactants of the nuclear fusion reaction.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 55

Passage VII

A physicist studied the responsiveness of different materials to light in a photovoltaic cell (Figure 1). Each cell used one of three different materials to absorb incoming photons of light: Substance 1, Substance 2, or Substance 3. The light to which the cell was exposed was of either fixed or variable wavelengths, l, and once absorbed, produced a measurable amount of power, defined as electrical energy produced per second in a circuit, within the cell.

A

incoming light

thin metalelectrode semiconducting

film

back electrode

Figure 1

Experiment 1

Using Substance 1 as the material, the physicist exposed

the cell to light of a specific wavelength and intensity. Next,

she measured the power, P, in the cell for various voltages, V,

across the cell, and plotted a graph of P in Watts (W), versus

V in Volts (V), for the light used. Using this information, she

determined the maximum power, Pmax, produced by the cell for

Substance 1. She repeated the procedure using Substance 2 and

Substance 3 in the cell and plotted graphs of P versus V for

Substance 2 and Substance 3 (see Figure 2) before determining

the values of Pmax for Substance 2 and Substance 3. Based upon

her results, she determined that Pmax may be approximated as

one half of the voltage through the circuit at Pmax, VPm

2, where

VPm is the voltage through the circuit at Pmax. (For example,

based on Figure 2, for light of the wavelength tested flowing

through Substance 1, Pmax was approximately 1.5 W.)

V(V)

3.5

P(W

) 2.5

1.5

0.5

3.0

2.0

1.0

0.00 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Substance 1

Substance 2

Substance 3

Figure 2

Experiment 2

The physicist conducted a new experiment, exposing the cell to light of the same intensity but different wavelengths in a room where the temperature was constant at 25°C. She determined Pmax in the cell for various wavelengths using each of the three materials. She plotted a graph of Pmax , in Watts (W), versus wavelength for each material (see Figure 3).

Substance 1

Substance 2 Substance 3

850 900 950 1000 1050 11501100 1200

P max

(W)

3.5

2.5

1.5

0.5

3.0

2.0

1.0

0.0

wavelength (nm)

Figure 3

35. Based on the results of Experiment 2, for a given material, as wavelength wincreased, Pmax:

A. decreased only.B. increased only.C. varied, but with no general trend.D. remained the same.

5554

5555

36. Based on the results of Experiment 1, V at Pmax for Substance 1 was closest to which of the following values?

F. 1.5 VG. 3.0 VH. 5.0 VJ. 7.0 V

37. Based on the results of Experiment 2, to supply maximum electrical power from the solar cell across the wavelengths tested, which material should be used: Substance 3 or Sub-stance 1 ?

A. Substance 3, because at every wavelength plotted in Figure 3, Pmax for Substance 3 is greater than Pmax for Substance 1.

B. Substance 3, because at every wavelength plotted in Figure 3, Pmax for Substance 3 is less than Pmax for Substance 1.

C. Substance 1, because at every wavelength plotted in Figure 3, Pmax for Substance 1 is greater than Pmax for Substance 3.

D. Substance 1, because at every wavelength plotted in Figure 3, Pmax for Substance 1 is less than Pmax for Substance 3.

38. Based on the description of the experiments and Figure 2, if VPm decreased for a given material, did the maximum amount of electrical energy that the cell was capable of delivering decrease or increase, and why?

F. Decrease, because Pmax increased for the cell.G. Decrease, because Pmax decreased for the cell.H. Increase, because Pmax increased for the cell.J. Increase, because Pmax decreased for the cell.

39. The physicist must prepare a cell in which the voltage across the cell does not exceed 6 V at maximum power when exposed to light of the kind used in Experiment 1. The maximum power when exposed to the same light may not exceed 2 W. Based on the results of that experiment, the physicist can satisfy these requirements by using which of the materials tested as the semiconducting film?

A. Substance 3 onlyB. Substance 1 onlyC. Substance 2 and 3D. Substance 1, 2 and 3

40. In Experiment 1, what is the largest value of Pmax produced by any of the materials tested?

F. 1.6 WG. 2.6 WH. 3.1 WJ. 7.2 W

END OF TEST 4STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.

54

5 6 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 5 7

Writing Test Prompt

Government-Controlled Diet

On March 12, 2013, the Sugary Drinks Portion Cap Rule, also known as the Soda Ban, took effect in New York City. This rule limited the volume of soft drinks sold in that city to no more than 16 ounces. Both residents and businesses of New York City were seriously impacted by such a rule, and it was immediately challenged. On June 26, 2014, the rule was overturned by the New York Court of Appeals, which found that the New York City Board of Health had “exceeded the scope of its regulatory authority” by implementing such a rule. This series of events triggered debate across America regarding the role of government in personal life choices such as diet.

Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about the increasing presence of public written communication.

Perspective One Perspective Two Perspective Three

The government should have no say over our personal decisions or our bodies, nor should it restrict behavior that only harms ourselves. Life, Liberty, and the Pursuit of Happiness are the foun-dational rights of American society. Restricting personal food choices violates all of those rights.

If a product or behavior is considered a public health risk, then the government is obligated to place restrictions on it. Due to increases in diet-related diseases and the strain those diseases place on our society, it is the duty of the government to place restric-tions on diet.

The U.S. Department of Health and Department of Agriculture already restrict what we can eat, through controlling food processing, sanitation, and product label-ling. Adding one more level of control will not greatly reduce our freedom, as our freedom in food choices is already limited.

Essay Task

Write a unified, coherent essay in which you evaluate multiple perspectives on government-controlled diets. In your essay, be sure to:

• analyze and evaluate the perspectives given • state and develop your own perspective on the issue • explain the relationship between your perspective and those given

Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of the others, in partial agreement, or wholly different. Whatever the case, support your ideas with logical reasoning and detailed, persuasive examples.

5 6 5 7

Planning Your Essay

Your work on these prewriting pages will not be scored.

Use the space below and on the back cover to generate ideas and plan your essay. You may wish to consider the following as you think critically about the task:

Strengths and weaknesses of the three given perspectives

• What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?

• Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?

Your own knowledge, experience, and values

• What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?

• How will you support your perspective in your essay?

Date

MiddleFirstLastYour Name (print)

Directions

Version 2.0 PRP 08-0113 © TPR Education IP Holdings, LLC

007810

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This booklet contains tests in English, Math-ematics, Reading, and Science. These tests mea-sure skills and abilities highly related to high school course work and success in college. CALCULA-TORS MAY BE USED ON THE MATHEMATICS TEST ONLY.

The questions in each test are numbered, and the suggested answers for each question are let-tered. On the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.

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