1. Which part of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation govern the issuance of an Certificate of

Airworthiness

a. Part 21

b. Part 23

c. Part 25

d. Part 39

2. What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who compliance with an

Airworthiness Directive?

a. Advise the aircraft owner/operator of the work performed

b. Make an entry in the maintenance record of the equipment

c. Advise the DGCA office the work performed, by submitting a DGCA form 43-337

d. Record of entry is not required of the person performing the work. The aircraft

owner/operator is responsible for recording maintenance

3. The AME holders of rating in category airframe and engine may exercise the following

privileges:

a. Certify for satisfactory completion of major repairs

b. Sign certification of approved maintenance organization

c. Certify fitness for flight on maintenance release

d. All answers are correct

4. The 100 hours inspection required by CASRs for certain aircraft being operated for fire may be

performed by

a. A person working under the supervision of an appropriately an engineer, but the aircraft

must be approved by the mechanic for return to service

b. An appropriately rated an engineer only if he/she has an inspection authorization

c. An appropriately rated AME and approved by him/her for return to service

d. An appropriately rate AME, but the aircraft must be approved for return to service by a

AME with an inspection authorization

5. An AME license is effective for what period time?

a. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 60 days within the

preceding 12 months

b. 24 calendar months

c. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 90 days within the

preceding 12 months

d. Until surrendered, suspended, or reworked

6. Under CASR part 65, Category engines is classified into:

a. 3 groups

b. 4 groups

c. 5 groups

d. 6 groups (airframe category)

7. Each person performing a major repair or a major alteration shall forward copy of DGCA form

43-337 to the DGCA within …. after the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance

is approve for return to service.

a. 48 hours

b. 72 hours

c. 30 days

d. Quickly any time

8. Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration organization :

a. Must have an adequate organization to perform the work and meet the requirements of

part 145. accordance to 121.365

b. Must have an adequate organization to perform any inspection required by its manual in

accordance with 121.369 manual requirement

c. Must be separate the required inspection functions from the other maintenance,

preventive maintenance, and alteration function

d. All of above are correct

9. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following works, provided it does not involve

assembly operations : (CASR part 43)

a. Replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear preventive

b. Removal, installation, and repair landing gear tires preventive

c. Replacing bulbs, reflector, and lances of position and landing light preventive

d. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams major repairs

10. Type certificate is the design approval for a new (model) aircraft; engine or propeller;

a. To certify that the product’s design complies with “authority’ standard

b. Which will be issued for individual aircraft, engine, or propeller

c. Issued for transport category

d. A and B answer are correct

11. What is the Newton’s second law in more specific sense, the relationship between mass,

velocity, acceleration and distance?

a. Force equal calculation from momentum and velocity

b. Force equal action and reaction from self-force

c. Force equal calculation from mass and acceleration

d. Force equal calculation from rate of change moment

12. An aircraft weighs 6,400 pounds. How much force is needed to give it an acceleration of 6

ft/sec2 (if set of gravity 32 ft/sec2)

a. 1,000 lb

b. 1,200 lb

c. 3,800 lb

d. 2,600 lb

13. What is the differential X2 + 2X + 5 ;

a. 2X + 5

b. 2X + 2

c. 1/3X3 + X2 + 5X

d. X3 + X2 + 5X

14. What is length of a if b (vertical line) = 5 ft, c (horizontal line) = 12 ft

a. 15 ft

b. 19 ft

c. 13 ft

d. 14 ft

15. What is differential f(x) = 4X3 + 1/2X2 + 2X + 6

a. 4X2 + 2X + 1

b. 12X2 + 2X + 2

c. 12X2 + X + 2

d. 4X2 + 1/2X + 2

16. The major characteristic of air which makes flight possible is :

a. The high ratio of nitrogen to oxygen

b. Humidity

c. Viscosity

d. Density

17. To restore the original strength on repair work of structural part, a number of rivets are

required. The number of rivets varies according to …

a. The thickness of material being repaired and the size of damage

b. The thickness of material being repaired and size of rivet used accordance to AC 43.13-1

c. The size of damage and type of rivet

d. The thickness of material being repaired

18. The perfect way to make permanent repairs on composites is by …

a. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches lighter and has the original strength

b. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches

c. Riveting on new repair plies

d. Laminating on new repair plies

ab

c

19. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred to as

the?

a. Bend allowance

b. Neutral line

c. Bend radius

d. Metal size

20. When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration?

a. The penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal

b. The penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal

c. The penetration should covered of the base metal

d. Look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead

21. The diameter of pilot drill for pre-drilling of rivet hole should be;

a. 0.001” higher than diameter of rivet approximately 0.003” greater than diameter of

rivet shanks

b. 0.001” lower than diameter of rivet

c. Max 0.006” higher than diameter of rivet

d. The same as diameter of rivet

22. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies?

a. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper

b. Aluminum alloy containing zinc

c. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum

d. 100 percent of pure aluminum

23. The second digit of aluminum designation identifies …

a. The specific alloy modification

b. The percent of alloy group

c. The alloy type first digit

d. The different alloys in a group

24. Based on typed, corrosion is categorized into:

a. Direct chemical and indirect chemical

b. Acid and sulfide corrosion

c. Direct chemical and electro chemical

d. Surface and intergranular

25. Which of these materials is the most anodic

a. Cadmium

b. 7075-T6 aluminum alloy

c. Magnesium easily corroded

d. Zinc

26. Which of the following statements is true of titanium?

a. It is highly magnetic

b. It is as heavy as stainless steel

c. It is in very limited use

d. It is about 60% heavier than aluminum

27. For cutting and stripping electrical wire

a. Diagonal cutters plier

b. Vice grip plier

c. Duckbill plier

d. Combination plier

28. The accessories of socket wrench which can be rotated for 180° is :

a. T-Handle

b. Torque wrench

c. Hinge handle

d. Drive handle

29. When twisting safety wire you should use :

a. Duckbill pliers

b. Flat nose pliers

c. Round nose pliers

d. Needle nose pliers

30. To make internal thread used :

a. Reamers

b. Thread cutting dies

c. Countersink

d. Taps

31. What types of drill is used for drilling stainless steel?

a. Low speed drill

b. High speed drill

c. Medium speed drill

d. Carbon steel drill

32. For cutting and stripping electrical wire using:

a. Diagonal cutter plier

b. Vice grip plier

c. Duckbill plier

d. Combination plier

33. The identification of heavy-duty screwdriver is showed from:

a. The length of shank

b. The handle

c. The shank and length

d. The tip and the face

34. Which of the following bolts can be called as the special purpose bolt?

a. Hex head bolt with drilled shank

b. Airframe bolt and engine bolts

c. Clevis bolt and jo bolt

d. Close tolerance bolt and drilled head bolt

35. The sign at the head of dzus fastener identified:

a. Fastener manufacture and material

b. Fastener manufacture and distributor

c. Body diameter, head type, and fastener length

d. Body type, head diameter, and fastener length

36. The sign at the head of dzus fastener identified:

a. Fastener manufacture and material

b. Fastener manufacture and distributor

c. Body diameter, head type, and fastener length

d. Body type, head diameter, and fastener length

37. Threaded fastener are identified by NAS. NAS is …

a. National American standard

b. National Air force standard

c. Navy air force standard

d. National aircraft standard

38. What is the function of plain washer

a. To protect the surface of the materials being fastened

b. To provide a larger contact area between bolt head or nut with the materials fastened

c. As a spacer or shim to adjust the thickness to be appropriate with bolt grip length or cotter

pin hole position

d. All of the answer are correct

39. All the tabs function to assist movement main control surface, except

a. Trim

b. Servo

c. Balance

d. Spring

40. Fowler flap operation will increase lift of wing by;

a. Changing the angle of attack and reducing of drag

b. Increasing angle of attack, chamber of wing, area of wing, and coefficient of lift

c. Decreasing angle of attack, chamber of wing, area of wing, and coefficient of lift

d. Increasing angle of attack, area of wing, and decreasing coefficient of drag

41. They are 3 forms of flight control surface aerodynamic balance. What kind the form that has

only on tip assist of movement main flight control surface.

a. Handley page

b. Friese

c. Overhang

d. Winglet aerodynamically reduce drag

42. Static balance on flight control surface (after repair) to prevent …

a. Dynamic balance

b. Flutter

c. Over travel

d. Difficult to control

43. Landing gear safety device which related with ground flight switch is …

a. Safety switch/anti retraction

b. Ground lock

c. Gear indicator

d. Nose wheel centering

44. To withstand the lateral load on main landing gear, the structure uses :

a. Shock strut vertical

b. Drag strut longitudinal

c. Side strut

d. Torque link align landing gear

45. Steering can be done by …

a. Steering wheel

b. Rudder pedal

c. Brake pedal

d. A, b, c are true

46. An aircraft flight in “high lift condition”. It is mean that …

a. Aircraft landing with flap full down

b. Aircraft in minimum speed

c. Aircraft in high induced drag

d. All above answer are correct

47. Boundary layer control device for hi lift application feature various devices to maintain hi

velocity in boundary layer and delay separation of the airflow. The kind of method for

controlling boundary layer air are :

a. Fix slot

b. Automatic slot

c. Control by flap augmentation

d. All are true

48. How is the installation of speed brakes on the aircraft?

a. On tail cone rear structure

b. On the left and right sides of rear fuselage

c. On the wing upper surface

d. As mentioned on a, b, and c

49. When spoiler is used to assist the ailerons, the movement is as follows :

a. The right spoiler surfaces moves up to make the aircraft bank left

b. The left spoiler surfaces moves up to make the aircraft bank right

c. When right spoilers move up the aircraft bank right, and when left spoilers move up the

aircraft bank left

d. A and b are correct

50. The function of the flight control surface is :

a. To provide the movement control of the aircraft while it is on the ground

b. To provide the directional control of the aircraft while it is in flight

c. To provide lift on the aircraft while it is moving quickly in the air

d. A and c are correct

51. if the rudder is moved to the left, it induces a

a. clockwise rotation

b. nose-up movement

c. nose-down movement

d. counter clockwise rotation you know what lah

52. when banking an aircraft, the spoiler:

a. spoil banking effect

b. speed up the aircraft

c. function with aileron cause it reduces lift on the other side

d. function with flaps

53. which location of components are determines by using buttock lines

a. components on the upper and lower of fuselage longitudinal axis

b. components on the left and right side of fuselage vertical axis

c. components in the front or rear of the datum

d. components on the upper and lower of fuselage lateral axis

54. the differential deflection of aileron (frieze aileron) is as follow:

a. the aileron moves upwards in wider angle

b. the aileron move downwards in lesser angle

c. the upward movement is in lesser angle, while the upward movement is wider angle

d. as mentioned in A and B differential aileron

55. when the aircraft is nose up or nose down, it can be trimmed to a level flight by using:

a. the control tabs on aileron

b. the control tabs on rudder

c. the control tabs on elevators or the moveable horizontal stabilizer

d. A and B are the correct answers.

(afm airframe vol 1 pg 1-32)

56.

57.

58.

59. When the lift of airfoil increases, the drag will:

a. Decrease

b. Also increase

c. ..

d. …

(afm airframe vol 1 pg 2-8)

60. Wing tip vortices could decrease by:

a. Grow up taper ratio

b. Construct slat/slot hi-lift devices

c. Construct dihedral wing stability

d. Grow up aspect ratio low induced drag, cause wing tip vortices is affected by increasing

in lift

61. The wing loading of an aircraft is:

a. The total gross weight of the aircraft divided by wing area W/S (W: gross weight; S: wing

surface)

b. The payload of the aircraft divided by wing area

c. The all-up weight of the aircraft in o wing area

d. The tare weight of the aircraft over wing area

62. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increase:

a. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag

b. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased

c. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag

d. Both parasite and induced drag are equally decrease,

(afm airframe vol 1 pg G-20)

(afm airframe vol 1 pg G-25)

63. What changes to aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being

decreased:

a. Increase angle of attack to produce more lift than weight

b. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the decrease in drag

c. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing dynamic pressure

d. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase the

angle of attack. most probable

64. The configuration of inverse dihedral wing is

a. Wings have positive angle towards the longitudinal axis

b. Wings have negative angle towards lateral axis rigging dihedral angle

c. Wings have positive angle towards lateral axis

d. Wings have negative angle towards longitudinal axis

65. Balance tab is

a. An adjustable tab mounted on the leading edge of a control surface to produce a force

automatically that aids the pilot in moving the surface

b. An adjustable tab mounted on the trailing edge of a control surface to produce a force that

aids the pilots in moving the surface

c. A non-adjustable tab mounted on the trailing edge of a control surface to omit a force that

aids the pilot in moving the surface

d. A control surface to produce a force automatically that aids the pilot in moving the surface.

66.

67. The internal resistance of fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called

a. Viscosity

b. ….

c. Velocity

d. Capacity

68. Centering cam

a. A cam in the main gear shock strut that cause the piston to center when the strut fully

extend

b. A cam in the left hand main-gear shock strut that cause the piston to center when the strut

fully extends

c. A cam in the nose gear shock strut that cause the piston to center when the strut fully

compress

d. A cam in the nose gear shock strut that cause the piston to center when the strut fully

extends.

69. Some aircraft uses pneumatic power to operate some systems. Which of the following system

normally uses high-pressure pneumatic system? high pressure pneumatic system generally

for emergency use

a. Ice & rain protection system use low and medium pressure

b. Landing gear system (retraction) extension as emergency

c. Pressure System

d. A and B are true

70. What device in hydraulic system with a constant delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid

when no demands are on the system?

a. Pressure relief valve as safety

b. Shuttle valve selector, safety

c. Pressure regulator

d. Debooster valve

71. Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of the outlet port in

order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the standpipe in it furnishes

fluid to the:

a. Normal system power pump

b. Emergency pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been depleted.

c. Emergency pump at any time is required.

d. Normal pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been depleted

72. What produces the temperature drop drastically in air cycle cooling system?

a. Compressor

b. Turbine

c. Heat exchanger

d. Water separator

73. On the sea level that has standard value, there are…

a. 14,7 psi, 1031 mb, 27,92 inHg

b. 14,7 psi, 1301 mb, 29,92 inHg

c. 1,47 psi, 1013 mb, 2992 inHg

d. 14,7 psi, 1013 mb, 29,92 inHg

74. If condition below was occurs, generally on pneumatic system the SOV / PRSOV will automatic

close, except…..

a. Over temperature

b. Over pressure

c. Leak

d. Over Speed

75. On the windshield construction, that damage on conductive coating is…

a. Delamination

b. Scratch

c. Arching most probable

d. Discoloration

76. anti-icing using exhaust heater will increase the temperature if

a. heat source valve tendency to close

b. heat source valve tendency to close

c. augmentor source valve tendency to close

d. augmentor source valve tendency to open

77. the instrument used in a cabin pressurization system are

a. Cabin altitude, cabin differential pressure.

b. cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb, cabin differential pressure, cabin temperature

c. cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb,

d. cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb, cabin differential pressure

78. what component of a pressurization system prevent the cabin altitude from becoming higher

than airplane altitude

a. cabin rate of descend control

b. supercharger over speed valve

c. negative pressure relief valve

d. compression ratio limit switch

79. to prevent icing on windshield we can use

a. heat air circulating between double panel

b. heating element attach to the windshield

c. rain repellent

d. answers A and B are correct

80. personal breathing equipment (PBE/smoke hood) and oxygen devices are :

a. For screw use (for combating fire and/or entering areas of smoke or fume accumulation)

b. Used (for combating fire and /or entering areas of smoke or fume accumulation) and use

for first aid also for walk around probably

c. Used for first aid also for walk around

d. For screw use (for combating fire and/or entering areas of smoke or fume accumulation)

and use for first aid also for walk around

81. the most common agents causing chemical attack on aircraft are :

a. spilled battery acid or fumes from batteries and entrapped caustic cleaning solution

b. residual flux deposit resulting from inadequately cleaned, welded, brazed or soldering joint

c. spilled battery acid or fumes from batteries , residual flux deposit resulting from

inadequately cleaned, welded, brazed or soldering joint and entrapped caustic cleaning

solution

d. all of the above

82. at the toilet drain outlet, leak proof flapper valve is installed as:

a. a safety valve and the valve is an integral part of the drain outlet is not removed

b. a safety valve and the valve is an integral part of the drain outlet is removed

c. a safety valve and the valve is a difference part of the drain outlet is not removed

d. a safety valve and the valve is a separate part of the drain outlet is not removed

83. CO2 fire extinguishers should not be use on an electrical fire unless the discharge hord is made

of a:

a. nonmetallic material

b. metallic material

c. nonmetallic material and metallic material

d. nonmetallic material or metallic material

84. fuel is prevented from flowing away from the boost pump by :

a. bladder type check valve is the fuel tank baffers

b. flapper type control valve in the fuel tank baffers

c. flapper type shut off valve in the fuel tank baffers

d. flapper type check valve is the fuel tank baffers

85. how many thing that are done when the fire warning switch handle in the cockpit is pulled are :

a. Engine fuel shut off valve is closed, thrust reverser control power goes off, and spar fuel

valve closes.

b. power to engine driven pump low-pressure-warning system goes off, bleed air valve closes

c. engine fuel shut off valve is closed, thrust reverser control power goes off, power to engine

driven pump low-pressure-warning system goes off, spar fuel valve closes, , bleed air valve

closes and hydraulic shut off valve is closes

d. Hydraulic shut off valve is closes, engine fuel shut off valve is closed, thrust reverser control

power goes off, and spar fuel valve closes.

86. the cargo compartments are pressurized class D (smother type) compartments for fire

protection , planned on :

a. any fire starting in the compartments will allow the oxygen and distinguishers

b. any fire starting in the compartments will left the oxygen and distinguishers itself

c. any fire starting in the compartments will consume the oxygen and extinguishers itself

d. any fire starting in the compartments will consume the oxygen and distinguishers itself

87. three instrument are normally connected to the aircraft to the static air source, there are :

a. airspeed indicator, outside air temperature indicator, altimeter

b. altimeter, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator

c. altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator

d. absolute altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator

On simple aircraft, this may consist of a pitot-static system head or pitot tube with impact

and static air pressure ports and leak-free tubing connecting these air pressure pickup points

to the instruments that require the air for their indications. The altimeter, airspeed

indicator, and vertical speed indicator are the three most common pitot-static instruments.

88. during climb, the air pressure inside the diaphragm of vertical speed indicator :

a. smaller than air pressure in the instrument case

b. higher than air pressure in the instrument case

c. the same as air pressure in the instrument case

d. smaller than static pressure outside of aircraft

During a climb, the metering unit will establish the required factors

and differential pressure, but as the static pressure under this condition is a decreasing one,

and because the metering unit restricts the

flow out of the case, the case pressure leads the capsule pressure.

89. the component in automatic flight control system that actually applies force to move the

control surface is the :

a. servo

b. hydraulic probably most correct

c. mechanically

d. pressure

90. a rate gyro operates on the gyroscopic characteristic of

a. precession

b. rigidity

c. acceleration

d. deviation

91. an aircraft magnetic compass is swung to update the compass correction card when

a. an annual inspection

b. the compass service

c. deviation error

d. variation

92. the commutator is used to

a. supply the AC output of the generator to the external circuit

b. produce DC in the armature conductors

c. convert the generated AC inside the armature to DC for the external circuit

d. to split the AC output from DC generator

The Commutator: The voltage induced in the armature is AC.

The commutator changes the AC voltage into DC voltage.

93. the material that normally used as conductor on aircraft system is (are)

a. aluminum and cooper

b. gold

c. cooper only

d. aluminum only

94. what is the purpose of electric bonding

a. to provide low conductivity path for grounding parts of the aircraft

b. minimize radio interference caused by electrostatic charge

c. prevent the accumulation of static electrical charge

d. all of above answer are correct

95. What is the name of semiconductor devices that has three or more elements?

a. resistor

b. transistor

c. capacitor

d. inductor

96. VOR receivers are also found couple with

a. ILS

b. glideslope

c. ILS and glideslope

d. GPS

97. Is the process of removing the original information signal from the carrier wave?

a. regulasi

b. modulasi

c. osilasi

d. demodulasi

98. The radio transmission it is used to provide horizontal guidance to the center line of the

runway?

a. ILS include localizer, glideslope, and marker beacon

b. Glideslope glidepath

c. VOR

d. Localizer

99. A radio altimeter or radar altimeter, is used to measure the distance from the aircraft to the

terrain directly beneath it. It is used primarily during instrument approach and low level or night

flight below?

a. 111o feet

b. 2500 feet

c. 3500 feet

d. 5000 feet

A radio altimeter, or radar altimeter, is used to measure the

distance from the aircraft to the terrain directly beneath it. It

is used primarily during instrument approach and low level

or night flight below 2500 feet.

100. What the output expressions for the following logic gate combinations?