Kinesiology Review Booklet

This booklet contains pretty much all the questions that I will choose from when making your final exam. In addition to this booklet, you will need to be able to label a diagram of a skeleton, as well as some of the more major muscles, and the heart (a word bank will be included with each diagram on the exam). I provided the answers to some of the questions to help you along, but not all of them as I did not want to make it too easy for you. Fill in the blank questions will also have a word bank.

Chapter 1

1. The American Academy of Physical Education resolved to identify a common name for the field of human movement because:A) approximately 30 different names were being used for academic programs and administrative units related to the study of human movementB) the basic conceptual framework of this body of knowledge was the same from university campus to campusC) the multitude of degree titles, program names, and administrative rubrics had produced confusion regarding the nature of the study of movementD) all of the aboveE) B and C only

2. The field of kinesiology addresses such important topics as:A) personal healthB) public healthC) environmental healthD) all of the aboveE) A and B only

3. Skill-related performance includes athletic movements that:A) may involve varying degrees of vigour and invoke fine motor skillsB) may involve varying degrees of vigour and invoke gross motor skillsC) fluctuate along a continuum of organizationD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

4. Which of the following is not a reason why the name kinesiology better describes the study of human movement than does physical education:A) The term physical education brings to mind a number of stereotypes, as it tends to be associated with non-academic activity programs and “easy majors.”B) The title kinesiology clearly defines the focus of study, as it literally means the “study of human action.”C) The word physical in physical education implies that there are no intellectual, mental, or spiritual aspects of human movement.

D) The term kinesiology has been the most widely used name for the field throughout history.E) None of the above.

5. Unlike other university subjects that have little real-world application, kinesiology can be considered very relevant to everyday life because: A) We all experience human movement daily, and health- and skill-related knowledge can have great impact on everyday lifestyle choices.B) The main focus of kinesiology is on athletics and sports-related movements.C) Kinesiology focuses more on theoretical than practical research.D) Kinesiology programs tend to prepare students for a few specialized professions.E) Kinesiology focuses on movement and does not concern itself with history or philosophy.

6. Which of the following statements regarding the field of kinesiology is false:A) Kinesiology approaches human movement from a number of diverse perspectives.B) Kinesiology is not a relatively new field of study, and its scope and focus have remained virtually unchanged throughout the years.C) The number of kinesiology programs preparing students for professions other than education has been growing.D) Kinesiology treats all approaches to movement education equally.E) None of the above.

7. Kinesiology is a very inclusive field, accommodating a number of different subjects and approaches. Which of the following is least likely to be included in a kinesiology core curriculum:A) motor learning and developmentB) human anatomy and physiologyC) psychological and sociocultural factors involved in movementD) behavioural and neuromuscular controlE) All of the above are likely to be included in a kinesiology core curriculum.

8. Which of the following statements about human movement is true:A) Human movement should not be considered a dynamic phenomenon, since it can only be understood through intellectual abstraction.B) Skill-related human movement does not have immediate relevance to everyday life, since it exclusively deals with the fine and gross motor skills associated with athletic performance.C) The academic study of human movement has changed very little in the last century.D) The study of human movement usually focuses only on general scholarly knowledge.E) None of the above.

9. The thing that sets kinesiology apart from other subject fields in higher education is its:

A) interdisciplinary curriculumB) cultural impactC) limited scopeD) personal impactE) B and D

10. Which of the following is not a personal application of kinesiology:A) natural talent enhancementB) ability to help others develop healthy habitsC) ability to make sound lifestyle choicesD) development of skills for work and playE) none of the aboveChapter 2

1. Which of the following areas was not included in the expansion of the scope of physical education:A) exercise physiology and biochemistryB) applied ergonomicsC) nutritionD) recreation administrationE) none of the above

2. The knowledge, skills, and capabilities of exercise science graduates are increasingly in demand because of:A) the concerns about obesityB) the establishment of Health Canada’s new food guideC) the aging of the “baby boom” generationD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

3. Which of the following is not a reason for the increase in career opportunities for exercise science students:A) growth in the sport industryB) increase in amateur sportsC) concerns about health, fitness, and weight managementD) increase in club sportsE) none of the above

4. Which of the following is not one of the principal program areas of the health and fitness industry:A) worksiteB) commercialC) nutritionD) clinical

E) community

5. Which of the following statements about health and fitness programs is false:A) Worksite programs include health education classes and health risk appraisals.B) Commercial facilities that follow a retention business model tend to advertise and promote more than sales-based facilities.C) The services offered in clinical programs are often more specific than in commercial programs.D) Some clinical programs lean toward the commercial model.E) None of the above.

6. The major focus of commercial fitness facilities is:A) retail clothing salesB) membership salesC) fees for consulting and trainingD) special events (e.g., tournaments)E) fees for weight-loss programs

7. Which of the following is a clinical fitness program:A) a worksite fitness facilityB) an independent gymC) a GoodLife Fitness centreD) a multi-sport complexE) none of the above

8. Which of the following is a community fitness program:A) a weight loss workshopB) a multi-sport complexC) a campgroundD) a parenting education programE) an independent gym

9. Facility directors:A) require training in health and fitness disciplines as well as management trainingB) require a multidisciplinary educational background and a strong foundation in exercise scienceC) often conduct market research and identify emerging trendsD) all of the aboveE) A and B only

10. Which of the following statements about exercise therapy is true:

A) Permanent disabilities or impairments need to be considered when establishing therapeutic goals.B) Exercise therapy is usually ineffective for cardiopulmonary conditions.C) Exercise therapy helps people return close to their previous level of functioning after periods of immobilization.D) Rehabilitative therapy aims to help an individual acquire skills and functions.E) A and C only.

11. Which of the following does not fall into the category of a habilitative program:A) teaching children with disabilities how to use specialized equipmentB) providing speech therapy for people recovering from a strokeC) teaching amputees how to use a prosthetic deviceD) offering a nutrition class to women who are pregnantE) none of the above 12. Which of the following are rehabilitative:A) a weight-loss boot campB) a summer basketball campC) using a stress ball to strengthen arm muscles after a strokeD) teaching an amputee how to use a prosthesisE) both C and D

13. Which of the following statements about sport management is false:A) Sport management roles can be found at all levels of the sport industry.B) Sport management is part of the entertainment industry.C) Kinesiology graduates often make ideal managers.D) Mainstream sport management careers are abundant.E) None of the above.

14. Which of the following is required to become a specialist but not to become a family physician:A) certificationB) a specialized residencyC) three or four years of theoryD) exit examsE) none of the above

15. When asked what skill sets or capabilities they want in employees, most CEOs respond that they want people who can:A) act professionallyB) communicate effectivelyC) think laterallyD) plan efficiently

E) work independently

Chapter 3

1. We study human anatomy because:A) It is a subject that binds all humans together.B) It is important to understand how our bodies are structured to perform.C) It helps us attain our full potential in sport and physical activity.D) The human body has fascinated humankind for centuries.E) All of the above.

2. Which of the following is a correct directional term to describe the relative position of the rib cage to the heart:A) inferiorB) medialC) deepD) superficialE) distal3. Which of the following is a correct directional term to describe the relative position of the hands to the arms:A) proximalB) anteriorC) distalD) superficialE) ventral

4. Your brain is _________ to your feet and _________ to your skull.A) distal; proximalB) anterior; deepC) inferior; superficialD) superior; deepE) superficial; medial

5. The plane that divides the body into right and left sections is:A) the sagittal planeB) the coronal planeC) the median planeD) the transverse planeE) both A and C

6. The _________ plane divides the body into upper and lower sections.A) transverseB) coronal

C) frontalD) medianE) none of the above

7. A jumping jack takes place in the _________ plane.A) sagittal B) horizontalC) transverseD) medianE) coronal

8. Which of the following statements about flexion is false:A) It usually occurs in the sagittal plane.B) The opposite movement is extension.C) It increases the angle between two bones at a joint.D) It can be modified at the ankle joint (e.g., plantar flexion).E) None of the above.

9. Which motion involves movement away from the midline of the body:A) abductionB) adductionC) supinationD) lateral rotationE) both A and D

10. Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton:A) atlasB) scapulaC) hyoid boneD) rib cageE) lacrimal bone

11. The C2 vertebra (the axis) is:A) an irregular boneB) a short boneC) a long boneD) a flat boneE) a sesamoid bone

12. The patella is:A) a sesamoid boneB) a knee boneC) a flat boneD) both A and B

E) both B and C

13. Which bones protect underlying organs and provide areas for muscle attachment?A) sesamoidB) longC) flatD) irregularE) short

14. Cortical bone:A) is highly porousB) has a honeycomb structureC) is very flexibleD) is largely found in long bonesE) both B and D

15. Cancellous bone:A) is also known as spongy boneB) is highly porousC) is a good shock absorberD) is more flexible than cortical boneE) all of the above

16. Which of the following is not a major component of bone:A) calcium carbonateB) calcium phosphateC) collagenD) waterE) none of the above

17. Which of the following statements about bones is false:A. The periosteum covers most of a long bone’s surface.B) The epiphyseal line allows long bones to lengthen.C) The shaft of a long bone is called the diaphysis.D) Bone gets its flexibility from collagen.E) The end of a long bone is called the epiphysis.

18. Which of the following statements about muscle types is false:A) Cardiac muscle is very fatigue resistant.B) Smooth muscle forms the walls of blood vessels and body organs.C) The contraction of skeletal muscle is initiated by motor neurons and is usually under voluntary control.D) Like smooth muscle, the contractile activity of cardiac muscle can be graduated.E) Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are both under involuntary control.

19. The attachment closer to the centre of the body is the muscle’s _________ (also known as its _________ attachment).A) origin; distalB) insertion; proximalC) insertion; medialD) origin; proximalE) insertion; distal

20. Which of the following statements about joint types is true:A) Fibrous and cartilaginous joints are the most mobile.B) Synovial joints are supported by extrinsic ligaments.C) Fibrous joints are the most common in the body.D) Synovial joints absorb shock and are slightly movable.E) The pubic symphysis is an example of a fibrous joint.

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a synovial joint:A) a joint capsuleB) a synovial membraneC) extrinsic ligamentsD) synovial fluidE) none of the above

22. A joint with one convex articulating surface and one concave articulating surface is a _________ joint.A) hingeB) planeC) knuckleD) condyloidE) A, C, and D

23. The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb is a _________ joint.A) pivotB) saddleC) knuckleD) ginglymusE) condyloid

24. Another name for the knuckle joint is the _________ joint.A) pivotB) saddleC) hingeD) ginglymus

E) condyloid

25. Which joint allows the most movement?A) ginglymusB) saddleC) ball and socketD) condyloidE) pivot

Chapter 4

1. Which of the following bones is not part of the calvaria:A) frontalB) temporalC) occipitalD) lacrimalE) parietal

2. An epidural hemorrhage (i.e., bleeding between the skull and the protective brain covering) can occur if the following skull bone is fractured:A) mandibleB) temporalC) lacrimalD) any of the aboveE) none of the above

3. Which of the following statements about concussions is false:A) A concussion is an injury to the brain after a violent shaking or jarring of the head.B) Symptoms of a minor concussion include confusion.C) Symptoms of a major concussion include impaired speech, muscle coordination, and balance.D) Concussions are common in contact sport such as hockey and football.E) None of the above.

4. The vertebral column:A) supports the head and trunkB) is composed of up to 37 bonesC) progresses from the cervical vertebrae to the lumbar vertebrae to the thoracic vertebraeD) has six distinct regionsE) all of the above

5. The ribs are:

A) made up of 12 pairsB) composed of bone and cartilageC) grouped into true, false, and floatingD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

6. The most important anterior pair of neck muscles are the:A) flexor spinaeB) sternocleidomastoidsC) anterior spinaeD) erector spinaeE) lateral spinae

7. Which of the following is not a function of the internal and external obliques:A) flexion of the abdominal wallB) rotation of the trunkC) lateral bendingD) extension of the abdomen during forced inspirationE) expulsion of fecal contents from the rectum

8. Which of the following abdominal muscles is used in sit-ups:A) external obliqueB) internal obliqueC) transversus abdominisD) rectus abdominisE) both A and B

9. Together, the clavicle and the scapula form the:A) acetabulumB) os coxaeC) collarboneD) shoulder bladeE) pectoral girdle

10. The upper fibres of the trapezius muscle:A) rotate the scapulaB) elevate the scapulaC) retract the scapulaD) depress the scapulaE) have no effect on the scapula

11. Shoulder separations occur at the:A) glenohumeral joint

B) scapulohumeral jointC) acromioclavicular jointD) sternoclavicular jointE) both C and D

12. The rotator cuff muscles are the subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and:A) teres majorB) trapeziusC) transversus majorD) teres minorE) trapezium

13. Which of the following muscles is used extensively in paddling sports:A) deltoidB) biceps femorisC) sternocleidomastoid D) sartoriusE) brachialis

14. Which bone is most commonly fractured from a fall on an outstretched hand:A) pisiformB) lunateC) scaphoidD) capitateE) triquetral

15. Which of the following is not an arm muscle:A) brachialisB) brachioradialisC) biceps femorisD) coracobrachialisE) none of the above

16. Which of the following statements about joints of the pectoral girdle and upper limb is false:A) The sternoclavicular joint absorbs all forces transmitted along the clavicle.B) The knuckles are also known as the metatarsophalangeal joints.C) The sternoclavicular joint is the only joint connecting the pectoral girdle to the axial skeleton.D) The integrity of the glenohumeral joint depends on the rotator cuff muscles.E) There are three joints at the elbow.

17. Which of the following is not a bone of the pelvic girdle:

A) sacrumB) hipC) iliumD) ischiumE) none of the above

18. The heel bone is also known as the:A) talusB) cuneiformC) tarsus D) calcaneusE) malleolus

19. Which of the following is not one of the quadriceps muscles:A) rectus femorisB) vastus intermediusC) rectus medialisD) vastus lateralisE) vastus medialis

20. Which of the following is an adductor muscle of the thigh:A) adductor longusB) gracilisC) pectineusD) all of the aboveE) A and B only

21. Pain affecting the infrapatellar ligament or patellar tendon is known as:A) patellar epicondylitisB) jumper’s kneeC) patellar condylitisD) skier’s kneeE) both A and B

22. Which of the following is not a posterior compartment muscle of the lower leg:A) plantarisB) flexor hallucis longusC) fibularis (peroneus) longusD) popliteusE) soleus

23. Which of the following is not a component of the sacroiliac joint:A) sacrumB) lumbosacral ligament

C) sacrotuberous ligamentD) sacrospinous ligamentE) none of the above

24. Which of the following ligaments is found in the centre of the knee joint:A) lateral collateral ligamentB) medial collateral ligamentC) posterior cruciate ligamentD) anterior cruciate ligamentE) both C and D

25. A sprain occurs when:A) a muscle is stretched or tornB) a meniscus is stretched or tornC) a ligament is stretched or tornD) a tendon is stretched or tornE) both A and D

Chapter 5

1. Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle is true:A) Skeletal muscles are usually linked to each other by tendons.B) Short muscle fibres run at an angle to the longitudinal axis of the muscle.C) Skeletal muscles are not capable of rapid contraction and relaxation.D) During muscle contraction, skeletal muscle lengthens.E) None of the above.

2. Which of the following statements about tendons is false:A) Tendons are bundles of collagen fibres.B) One end of the tendon is usually linked to bone and the other to a skeletal muscle.C) Tendons function to move various parts of the skeleton in response to skeletal muscle contraction.D) Like muscle, tendons also have the ability to shorten or contract.E) None of the above.

3. A muscle or group of muscles opposing an action is called the:A) agonistB) synergistC) prime moverD) antagonistE) fixator

4. Skeletal muscle is made up of numerous cylinder-shaped cells called:A) muscle fibresB) myofilaments

C) myofibrilsD) motor unitsE) myosins

5. Which of the following statements about sarcomeres is false:A) Sarcomeres are organized in series within the muscle fibre.B) Each sarcomere is made up of two types of protein myofilaments: actin, the thick filament, and myosin, the thin filament.C) Projecting from each myosin filament are myosin bridges, the tiny contractile elements.D) Examining the sarcomere longitudinally we see the striations characteristic of skeletal muscle.E) None of the above.

6. The space between the ends of the two sets of thin filaments in each sarcomere is called the:A) A bandB) M lineC) H zoneD) Z lineE) I band

7. The light region within each sarcomere is known as the:A) A bandB) M lineC) H zoneD) Z lineE) I band

8. The thin filaments contain the contractile protein _________ as well as:A) myosin; actinB) actin; myosinC) myosin; troponin and tropomyosinD) actin; troponin and tropomyosinE) myosin; tropomyosin

9. The _________ heads are responsible for generating cross bridge formations.A) troponinB) myosinC) tropomyosinD) actinE) myofibril

10. Which of the following statements about the sliding filament theory is false:A) The myosin filaments temporarily attach themselves to the actin filaments.

B) Since the sarcomeres are attached to one another in series, the shortening of each sarcomere is additive.C) The I band and the A band shrink but the H zone remains unchanged.D) It is the sliding of the thin actin filaments over the thick myosin filaments that causes muscle shortening.E) None of the above.

11. Which of the following choices most accurately describes the muscle contraction sequence:i. “Rowing” type of movement of myosin cross bridges.ii. Movement of filaments shortens the sarcomere.iii. Cross bridge formation.iv. Motor nerve signal activates the muscle fibre.A) iv iii ii iB) iii iv i iiC) i iii iv iiD) iv i iii iiE) none of the above

12. Which of the following statements regarding maximal force production is false:A) The distance between sarcomeres depends on the state of muscle stretch.B) Maximal force is developed when an optimal number of cross bridges is formed.C) Muscle stretch is a product of the position of the joint.D) For optimal cross bridge formation, sarcomeres need to be an optimal distance apart.E) Optimal cross bridge formation occurs when muscle is maximally shortened (i.e., at the smallest joint angle).

13. Muscle fibres can be divided into two main types or categories (i.e., Type I and Type II) based on what distinction:A) abundance of striationB) angle of cross bridgesC) time to reach maximum tensionD) thickness of myofilamentsE) none of the above

14. Which muscle fiber type is more aerobic?A) type IB) fast twitchC) type IID) whiteE) type IIb

15. Compared with slow twitch fibres, fast twitch fibres:A) fatigue faster, have a faster contraction speed, and are red in appearanceB) are smaller, slower contracting, and fatigue resistantC) are larger, have a slower contraction speed, and are white in appearance

D) are larger, fatigue faster, and are white in appearanceE) fatigue faster, are more aerobic, and have a faster contraction speed

16. Which of the following statements regarding muscle fibre types is false:A) Type IIa fibres show greater resistance to fatigue.B) FT fibres are ideal for actions requiring quick bursts of power and energy.C) ST fibres are smaller and slower contracting.D) Type II fibres are further divided into Type IIa (glycolytic) and Type IIb (oxidative) fibres.E) None of the above.

17. Which of the following statements regarding muscle biopsy is false:A) It is a simple procedure requiring no anaesthetic.B) It involves tissue analysis under a microscope.C) It can determine metabolic characteristics.D) It can determine muscle fibre type.E) None of the above.

18. Skeletal muscle activation is initiated through:A) sensory activation and therefore is under unconscious controlB) neural activation and therefore is under conscious controlC) sensory activation and therefore is under conscious controlD) neural activation and therefore is under subconscious controlE) sensory activation and therefore is under unconscious control

19. Which of the following statements regarding the motor unit is false:A) Each muscle fibre is activated through impulses delivered via the motor end plate.B) A group of fibres activated via the same nerve is termed a motor unit.C) A large muscle fibre can have more than one motor end plate.D) All muscle fibres of one particular motor unit are always of the same fibre type.E) Muscles that need to perform precise movements generally consist of a large number of motor units.

20. What is the motor end plate?A) the contractile unit of a skeletal muscleB) a group of fibres activated via the same nerveC) the basic functional entity of muscular activityD) the ending of a motor nerve at a muscle fibreE) both A and D

21. Sensory neurons transfer messages to the:A) musclesB) central nervous systemC) eyes and earsD) neuromuscular junctionE) motor end plate

22. Which of the following statements regarding activation threshold is false:A) A weak nerve impulse activates only those motor units that have a low threshold of activation, thereby generating a low contractile strength.B) Every motor unit has the same threshold that must be reached for activation to occur.C) Every motor unit has a specific threshold that must be reached for activation to occur.D) A weak nerve impulse activates all motor units to a lesser degree, thereby generating a low contractile strength.E) Both B and D.

23. Which of the following statements regarding the differences between trained and untrained individuals is false:A) Trained individuals have a larger muscle mass and therefore can produce greater force.B) Highly trained individuals further develop strength only by improving intramuscle coordination.C) Trained individuals can activate a larger number of muscle fibres to produce greater force.D) Trained individuals have a much smaller muscle force deficit.E) None of the above.

24. Which of the following statements regarding strength training is true:A) It is not necessary to develop all the relevant muscles in a balanced manner in order to optimize high-level intermuscle coordination.B) Biological adaptation is a process specific to strength training and skeletal muscle adaptation.C) Following strength training, muscle mass increases before enzymatic adaptation.D) In strength training, the adaptation process proceeds at the same rates for different functional systems and physiological processes.E) None of the above.

25. The performance capacity of muscle is determined by which of the following non-trainable factors:A) fibre diameterB) nerve impulse frequencyC) number of fibresD) capillary density of muscleE) both C and D

Chapter 6

1. A static muscle action is:A) concentricB) eccentricC) isotonicD) isometric

E) isokinetic

2. Which of the following statements regarding dynamic muscle action is true:A) It occurs when an athlete is able to exert enough force to lift a weight through a range of motion.B) It occurs when external force (e.g., gravity of a weight) is smaller than the internal force generated by the muscle contraction.C) It results in a movement of the load.D) It involves lengthening or shortening of the muscle tissue.E) All of the above.

3. Which of the following statements regarding dynamic muscle action is false:A) An isokinetic action depends on the amount of muscular force generated by the muscles.B) A concentric action is usually termed flexion.C) An eccentric contraction occurs when a muscle cannot develop sufficient tension.D) In an eccentric contraction, the muscle progressively lengthens during the movement.E) Dynamic work occurs when internal and external forces are unbalanced.

4. An isokinetic muscle action:A) involves constant speed of motionB) allows the working muscles to release high tension over each section of movement rangeC) is a form of dynamic contractionD) in its pure form occurs rarely in sports eventsE) all of the above

5. Which of the following statements regarding isokinetic training is false:A) It is particularly important in swimming and rowing.B) It is accomplished with the use of dynamometers.C) It is effective for strengthening the musculature uniformly at all angles of motion.D) It involves constant tension during the full range of motion.E) It involves dynamic contractions.

6. Plyometric training would be most useful for which of the following sports:A) sprintingB) basketballC) wrestlingD) swimmingE) tennis

7. Which of the following statements regarding plyometric training is false:A) It has eccentric and concentric elements.B) It is more useful for performance enhancement in wrestling than in volleyball.C) It results in a greater increase in jump height than developed by strength training

alone.D) It includes leaping and bounding.E) It is important for training of jumping ability.

8. Plyometric training involves:A) a sudden eccentric loading and stretching of muscles followed by a strong concentric contractionB) the “prestretching” of a muscle (concentric loading)C) a sudden concentric loading and stretching of muscles followed by a strong eccentric contractionD) jumping off an object (box) from a height of 25 to 40 inchesE) both B and C

9. Joint angle affects a muscle’s ability to produce force because:A) It changes the speed of movement.B) It sets off the Golgi tendon reflex.C) It changes the length of the moment arms involved in performing the movement. D) It alters the muscle’s cross-sectional area.E) It affects the limb’s ability to move through its full range of motion.

10. For most joints, the most efficient joint angle is:A) 90 degreesB) between 90 and 95 degreesC) between 90 and 100 degreesD) between 95 and 100 degreesE) 100 degrees

11. Which of the following plays an important part in the performance capacity of a muscle:A) intra- and intermuscle coordinationB) muscle cross-sectionC) elasticity of muscleD) anatomical structure E) all of the above 12. Which of the following statements regarding muscle cross-sectional area and force production is true:A) This relationship is emphasized by the performance of weightlifters across various weight categories.B) The greater one’s volume of active body matter, the greater one’s strength.C) Strength is determined by the amount of the entire body mass minus body fat.D) All of the above.E) A and B only.

13. Absolute strength:A) is the maximum amount of force a person can produce in a single effort

B) is the maximum amount of force a person can sustain for an extended timeC) is critical to athletes who are classified by weightD) is the proportion of maximal strength to body massE) both A and C

14. Which of the following statements regarding relative strength is false:A) It is important in events such as high jumping.B) It is most effectively increased by stabilizing strength and reducing body mass.C) It is defined as the proportion of maximal strength to body mass.D) It is important in events such as weightlifting.E) None of the above.

15. Which of the following statements regarding speed of movement and force production is false:A) At fast velocities, the cross bridges couple and uncouple faster, leading to greater cross bridge formation.B) Speed of movement is closely linked to the main components of strength: relative strength, power, and muscular endurance.C) As the speed of movement is increased, the force the muscle can develop is increased.D) All of the above.E) A and C only.

16. Which of the following statements regarding maximal strength is false:A) It is the ability to perform maximal voluntary muscular contractions in order to overcome powerful external resistance.B) One measure of maximal strength is one repetition maximum (1RM) – the highest load the athlete can lift in one attempt.C) Its importance for an athletic performance diminishes as the resistance that must be overcome and the period of competition are reduced.D) It is one of the three components of strength.E) None of the above.

17. The ability to overcome external resistance by developing a high rate of muscular contraction is:A) powerB) absolute strengthC) relative strengthD) speed–strengthE) both A and D

18. Which of the following statements about muscular endurance is false:A) It determines performance in rowing, swimming, and cross-country skiing.B) It is also important in predominantly repetitive activities where high demands are placed on strength and endurance.C) It is known as strength endurance.

D) It is the ability of an athlete to resist fatigue in strength performance of longer duration.E) It can be used to predict maximal strength.

19. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between maximal strength and power is false:A) The higher the external resistance to be overcome, the more important maximal strength is for power performance.B) The more internal force an athlete can generate to overcome external resistance, the more movement acceleration increases. C) The greater the maximal strength, the higher the movement acceleration.D) Sports requiring a high power output depend on maximal strength.E) None of the above.

20. Which of the following statements regarding high-resistance training is false:A) It results in an increased number of fast motor units that can be mobilized.B) It results in an increase in myofibril diameter.C) ST fibres respond very effectively to this type of training.D) It is beneficial for power performances.E) It improves intramuscle coordination.

21. What is the formula for calculating 1RM?A) load / [achieved resistance level / 100]B) body mass / [maximal strength / 100]C) maximal strength / [body mass X 100]D) load / [achieved resistance level X 100]E) load X [achieved resistance level / 100]

22. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between maximal strength and muscular endurance is false:A) Unless a specific sports event requires the possession of a maximal level of endurance or strength, training should achieve a balance between strength and endurance.B) Repetitive maximal strength training increases both strength and endurance.C) Relatively high levels of both strength and endurance can be achieved by training for strength and endurance in separate training sessions.D) Relatively high levels of both strength and endurance can be achieved by training both in combination.E) Vigorous training for running long distances leads to decreased muscle strength.

23. During maximal response, the greater the FT fibre content of a muscle:A) the lower the force outputB) the slower the speed of contractionC) the greater the fatigabilityD) all of the aboveE) A and B only

24. With aging:A) There is an increased risk of fractures associated with muscle mass changes.B) Sedentary individuals lose 50 percent or more of their muscle mass by age 70.C) There is no overall muscle loss, just a decrease in the force-generating potential.D) There is a selective loss of ST fibres.E) Both A and D.

25. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between gender and strength is false:A) A difference in testosterone levels is a significant reason for the strength difference between men and women.B) The difference in strength between males and females is mainly due to the difference in muscle volume.C) The cross-sectional area of a muscle fibre is smaller in women than in men.D) Women have proportionally more type II fibres, while men have proportionally more type I fibres.E) None of the above.

Chapter 7

1. All energy in the human body is derived from the breakdown of:A) carbohydrates and fatsB) carbohydrates, fats, and vitaminsC) carbohydrates, fats, and proteinsD) fats and proteinsE) vitamins and minerals

2. Energy is liberated for muscular work when the chemical bond between ATP and its phosphate subgroup is broken through:A) glycolysisB) the Krebs cycleC) the Cori cycleD) hydrolysisE) phosphorylation

3. ATP is broken down into:A) ADP and pyruvateB) ADP and a free phosphateC) ADP and phosphocreatineD) ADP and creatine phosphateE) ADP and pyruvic acid

4. Which of the following statements regarding ATP is true:A) The ATP for muscular contraction is needed for the formation of cross bridges.B) The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and P requires energy.C) ATP cannot be regenerated in the human body.

D) ATP muscle stores are high enough to maintain muscular activity for long durations.E) The process of ATP regeneration is extremely slow.

5. The energy systems in the human body are:A) immediate, phosphagen, and oxidativeB) phosphagen, long-term, and oxidativeC) immediate, glycolytic, and long-termD) short-term, glycolytic, and oxidativeE) phosphagen, short-term, and glycolytic

6. The phosphagen system:A) uses high energy phosphate groups including creatine and ADPB) is limited by the small muscle stores of high energy phosphate groupsC) is required for low-intensity muscle activity that is done over a short time interval D) produces energy at a very slow rateE) none of the above

7. The advantages of the phosphagen system include:A) It produces energy at a slow rate but for a long duration.B) Its rate of recovery is relatively rapid.C) It can produce large amounts of energy in a short amount of time.D) Both A and B.E) Both B and C.

8. The limiting factors of the phosphagen system include:A) high lactic acid concentrations in the muscleB) intramuscular ADP storesC) initial concentrations of high energy phosphatesD) supply of creatine in the bloodE) low intramuscular oxygen availability

9. A fuel source for activities that require an immediate high rate of energy production is:A) fatsB) creatine phosphateC) glucoseD) lactateE) glycogen

10. Which of the following statements regarding the short-term energy system is false:A) It provides ATP for muscular work at a rapid rate.B) It involves a stepwise breakdown of glycogen and/or blood glucose into pyruvic acid and ATP.C) A specific enzyme is involved in the breakdown of glycogen or glucose in the presence of oxygen.D) Lactic acid is produced when the rate of work is high. E) Energy production is limited by lactic acid accumulation.

11. Which of the following statements regarding the main fuel of the glycolytic system is false:A) Glycogen is the circulating form of carbohydrate in the body.B) The main fuel source is carbohydrate.C) Carbohydrate is the primary energy fuel for the brain.D) Carbohydrates are the primary dietary sources of glucose.E) Glycogen consists of hundreds of glucose molecules linked together.

12. “Handling” lactic acid refers to the body’s ability to:A) slow down muscle glycolysisB) remove lactic acid from the musclesC) use more oxygenD) produce lactic acid in the musclesE) decrease lactic acid production

13. Major factors that can affect the rate of lactate removal from the muscle include:A) metabolism of lactic acidB) rate of lactic acid diffusion from the musclesC) muscle blood flowD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

14. Which of the following statements about lactic acid is false:A) A high production of lactic acid limits continued performance of intense activities.B) Excess pyruvate is converted into lactic acid.C) Endurance trained individuals are able to remove lactic acid faster from exercising muscle.D) Sprint athletes benefit from a high rate of lactic acid production.E) Both B and D.

15. The major characteristics of the oxygen system include:A) high ATP productionB) fast ATP utilizationC) ability to remove lactic acidD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

16. The oxidative system is the primary energy system used during exercise provided thatA) the working muscles have sufficient mitochondriaB) enzymes do not significantly limit the rate of energy productionC) intermediate by-products do not significantly limit the rate of energy productionD) all of the aboveE) A and B only

17. The final step in the oxidative system is:A) the electron transport chain

B) the Krebs cycleC) the Cori cycleD) oxidative phosphorylationE) hydrolysis

18. Which of the following is not a metabolic pathway of oxidative phosphorylation:A) the Krebs cycleB) the Cori cycleC) the electron transport chainD) the citric acid cycleE) both B and D

19. Which of the following statements regarding the aerobic system is true:A) Fats are the most efficient energy fuel used by this system.B) Water and carbon monoxide are given off as the metabolic by-products.C) It is well suited for low- to moderate-intensity activities.D) All of the above.E) A and C only.

20. VO2max:A) is most often expressed in L/minB) is determined by measuring the maximal volume of oxygen that can be consumed in a given amount of time during submaximal effortC) is lower in trained individuals than in non-trained individualsD) is used to evaluate the power of the anaerobic systemE) none of the above

21. Which of the following factors does not contribute to a high aerobic power:A) an increased cardiac outputB) a high arterial oxygen contentC) an increased aerobic thresholdD) a larger tissue oxygen extractionE) none of the above

22. Which of the following is not a way that lactic acid can be removed from the muscles:A) metabolized to pyruvate and then glucose in the Cori cycleB) transported to the liver for processingC) converted back to pyruvate and then metabolized in the Krebs cycleD) transported in the blood from Type I muscle fibres to Type II muscle fibresE) none of the above

23. Endurance training:A) increases vascularization within the muscles to enhance delivery of nutrients and oxygenB) increases the number and size of mitochondria within the muscle fibres

C) increases the activity of the enzymes involved in the aerobic metabolic pathwaysD) results in the preferential use of fats over glycogen during exerciseE) all of the above

24. Which of the following statements regarding the effects of training on the oxygen system is false:A) Genetics does not play a significant role in determining the rate of adaptation.B) Older individuals adapt their aerobic system more slowly than younger people.C) Training should include repeated, sustained efforts of long duration several times per week.D) Endurance exercise is the most effective method of training.E) None of the above.

25. Which of the following statements about the energy systems is false:A) The phosphagen and glycolytic systems are more important for short-term, high-intensity activities.B) The oxidative system becomes the primary source of energy once an activity reaches about 30 minutes in duration.C) The oxidative system is predominant for longer-lasting, less-intensive endurance activities.D) As the duration of an activity increases, the relative contribution of the oxidative system also increases.E) The three energy systems coexist and overlap in various combinations depending on the intensity and duration of the activity.

Chapter 8

1. The primary role of the cardiovascular system is:A) pumping the heartB) ventilating the lungsC) supplying tissues with oxygen and nutrientsD) removing metabolic by-productsE) both C and D

2. Which of the following choices describes the correct order of events that occur during the cardiac cycle:i. The mitral and tricuspid valves open and the atria force blood into the ventricles.ii. The ventricles contract and push the blood out.iii. The heart relaxes in diastole and the atria fill with blood.iv. The ventricles fill with blood.A) iii iv i iiB) iii ii iv iC) i iii iv iiD) iii i iv iiE) none of the above

3. Which valve allows blood to flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle?A) semilunarB) aorticC) bicuspidD) pulmonaryE) tricuspid

4. Which of the following statements about systole is true:A) It is an indicator of ventricular blood pressure.B) Its normal measure is about 80 mmHg.C) It describes the pressure in the heart when the ventricles are relaxed and filled with blood.D) It indicates the blood pressure in the body outside the heart.E) Both A and D.

5. Which of the following statements about diastole is true:A) It is an indicator of peripheral blood pressure.B) Its normal measure is about 120 mmHg.C) It describes the pressure in the heart when the ventricles are relaxed and filled with blood.D) It provides an estimate of the heart’s work.E) Both A and C.

6. Which of the following statements about stroke volume is false:A) The typical stroke volume of a normal heart is about 70 ml.B) It is the amount of blood pumped out of the right ventricle with each heartbeat.C) It is one component of cardiac output.D) Exercise can increase stroke volume.E) None of the above.

7. Which of the following statements about heart rate is false:A) Maximum heart rate can be estimated using a person’s age.B) The heart rate is the number of times the heart beats per minute.C) There is a direct relationship between heart rate and intensity of work.D) During intense exercise, the heart rate may increase to up to 220 bpm and occasionally even higher.E) None of the above.

8. Which of the following statements regarding the blood vessels is false:A) They are the passageways of the circulatory system.B) They are composed of smooth muscle.C) They cannot change their diameter.D) They can regulate the amount and pattern of blood flow to the tissues.E) None of the above.

9. Which of the following statements regarding capillaries is true:

A) They are the smallest division of the peripheral circulatory system.B) One of their main functions is picking up waste products.C) They are composed of smooth muscle and endothelial cells.D) All of the above.E) A and B only.

10. What is the correct order of the peripheral circulatory system divisions, starting from the arteries:i. venulesii. capillariesiii. veinsiv. arteriolesA) iv ii iii iB) iii i ii ivC) iv ii i iiiD) ii i iii ivE) i ii iii iv

11. Hematocrit is the percentage of the blood that is made up of:A) plasmaB) red blood cellsC) white blood cellsD) red blood cells and plasmaE) white blood cells and plasma

12. Which of the following statements regarding hemoglobin is false:A) It is made up of fat and iron.B) It can bind up to four oxygen molecules at a time.C) It can bind to oxygen and carbon dioxide.D) New red blood cells contain more hemoglobin than older red blood cells.E) None of the above.

13. The cells in the blood that carry oxygen are the:A) white blood cellsB) leukocytes C) thrombocytesD) erythrocytesE) platelets

14. Which of the following statements about the a–v O2 difference is true:A) It represents the amount of oxygen used by the body.B) It is not a real measure and therefore cannot be represented by numerical values.C) The higher the a–v O2 difference, the higher the oxygen utilization by the body.D) All of the above.E) A and C only.

15. Which of the following statements regarding red blood cell production is false:A) Exercise cannot increase the percentage of new red blood cells in the body.B) New red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.C) The hormone that regulates red blood cell production is called erythropoietin (EPO).D) EPO is secreted in response to low oxygen levels.E) All of the above.

16. Which of the following statements about oxygen uptake is false:A) It is directly affected by a–v O2 difference.B) It can be altered by changes in red blood cell or mitochondria concentration.C) It decreases as the amount of energy used by the body increases.D) It is expressed in L/min.E) Both B and C.

17. VO2max:A) represents maximal aerobic powerB) has a central component: a–v O2 differenceC) has a peripheral component: cardiac outputD) all of the aboveE) B and C only

18. Which of the following is not a component of the respiratory system:A) lungsB) tracheaC) respiratory passageways (e.g., bronchioles)D) intercostal musclesE) none of the above]

19. Air is filtered, humidified, and adjusted to body temperature in the:A) noseB) bronchiC) tracheaD) bronchiolesE) alveoli

20. Which of the following statements regarding ventilation is false:A) The air we inspire is composed mainly of oxygen and carbon dioxide.B) Changes in the size of the thoracic cavity allow us to inhale and exhale.C) The muscles involved in altering the size of the thoracic cavity include the diaphragm and intercostal muscles.D) The thoracic cavity expands during inspiration and shrinks during expiration.E) The physical characteristics of the lungs allow them to expand within the thoracic cavity.

21. Which of the following statements regarding training and the heart is false:A) Training increases the volume of blood pumped each time the heart beats.B) Training leads to a decreased contractility rate (rate of contraction).C) The increase in heart size may arise from an increase in heart wall thickness.D) The increase in heart size may arise from an increase in the size of the heart cavities.E) None of the above.

22. Increased capillarization:A) increases the diffusion capacity of gasesB) decreases the possibility of heart attacksC) increases the surface area for gas exchangeD) eases the transport of nutrients to the cellsE) all of the above

23. During dynamic exercise:A) breathing becomes deeper and more rapidB) ventilation increases to meet the demands of gas exchangeC) ventilation can increase from 6 L/min at rest to up to 15 L/min during maximal exerciseD) all of the aboveE) A and B only

24. Exercising at altitude:A) causes hypoventilation, which changes the acid–base balance of the bodyB) improves the oxygen-carrying capacity of the bloodC) can sometimes cause deathD) all of the aboveE) B and C only

25. Which of the following statements about exercise and temperature is false:A) During exercise in the heat, the circulatory system performs the dual function of delivering oxygen to the tissues as well as transporting blood to the skin.B) Common symptoms of hypothermia include weakness, fatigue, incoherency, and a loss of communication skills.C) Over time, the body can adapt to exercise in the heat by maintaining core temperature and minimizing increased heart rate.D) The body’s peripheral response to cold exposure involves the vasodilation of cutaneous (skin) and skeletal muscle circulation.E) None of the above.

Chapter 9

1. Which of the following is not a high-tech method of assessment used by biomechanists to collect numeric measurements of performance:A) computerized force-measuring platformsB) high-speed video recording

C) electromyographyD) computerized motion analysisE) none of the above

2. Internal forces refer to:A) forces generated by muscles pulling on bonesB) forces acting from without, such as gravityC) forces from any body contact with the environmentD) forces exerted across joint surfacesE) both A and D

3. To represent the total body configuration for gross motor skills that occur in two dimensions, a _________ is used.

A) stick figure modelB) particle modelC) rigid body segment modelD) composite diagram E) none of the above

4. For sophisticated three-dimensional (3D) analyses, biomechanists employ a:A) stick figure modelB) particle modelC) rigid body segment modelD) composite diagram E) none of the above

5. In general, the centre of mass is located about _________ above the groin area.A) 5 cmB) 10 cmC) 15 cmD) 20 cmE) none of the above

6. Which of the following objects has the most inertia:A) a tennis ballB) a 1-kg medicine ballC) a ping-pong ballD) a basketballE) a beach ball

7. When a body moves on a circular path and in the same direction – but not at the same time – then the body is experiencing _________ motion.A) curvilinearB) angularC) general

D) both A and BE) none of the above

8. A combination of linear and angular motion is referred to as:A) translationB) rotationC) general motionD) curvilinear motionE) rectilinear motion

9. When a force causes angular motion, the effect is known as:A) a torqueB) a pivotC) a moment of forceD) curvilinear motionE) both A and C

10. The resistance arm (RA) is: A) the distance from the axis to where the force is appliedB) the distance from the axis to where the resistance is appliedC) the distance from the fulcrum to where the force is appliedD) the distance from the fulcrum to where the weight is appliedE) both B and D

11. The amount of torque that can be generated is influenced by:A) the length of the force armB) the length of the resistance armC) the magnitude of forceD) both A and CE) both B and C

12. Which of the following statements regarding lever systems are true:i. Angular motion will occur if the applied force is greater than the resistance to rotationat the fulcrum.ii. In some levers, the application of a relatively small amount of force can overcome a relatively large resistive force.iii. The fundamental components for any angular motion are a fulcrum and a pivot point.iv. The amount of torque produced depends on the force generated multiplied by the length of the force arm.v. The shorter the force arm, the greater a lever’s mechanical advantage.

A) i, iiiB) i, iii, vC) i, ii, ivD) i, ii, vE) i, v

13. Which of the following is an example of a second class lever:A) a pair of scissorsB) a nutcrackerC) a pair of tweezersD) a teeter-totterE) a snow shovel

14. Newton’s second law of motion states that:A) the acceleration a body experiences is directly proportional to the force causing it and takes place in the same direction as the forceB) an object at rest will tend to stay at restC) every action has an equal and opposite reactionD) an object in motion will tend to stay in motionE) both B and D

15. Which of the following equations is correct:A) force = mass / accelerationB) acceleration = force / massC) acceleration = mass / forceD) acceleration = force x massE) both A and D

16. What is another name for surface drag?A) shape dragB) pressure dragC) skin frictionD) form dragE) none of the above

17. Both surface drag and profile drag are proportional to:A) the velocity of air flowB) the size of the objectC) the smoothness of the surfaceD) all of the aboveE) B and C only

18. Which of the following is not a technique for reducing drag.A) assuming a tuck position while skiingB) sledding while supineC) draftingD) wearing a streamlined body suitE) none of the above

19. Which of the following statements regarding equilibrium is true:

A) Equilibrium describes the state of a system that is not experiencing any change in its direction or speed.B) Dynamic equilibrium describes the state of a system that is at rest.C) Balance is a measure of the ease or difficulty with which equilibrium can be disturbed.D) Stability is the process whereby the body’s state of equilibrium is controlled for a given purpose.E) None of the above.

20. To control the state of equilibrium, we constantly manipulate which two factors?A) balance and stabilityB) stability and base of supportC) base of support and line of gravityD) line of gravity and balanceE) balance and base of support

21. To increase the stability in a static equilibrium, an athlete must: A) increase body massB) increase the vertical distance between where a vertical line from the centre of mass intersects the base of support and the outside edge of the base of supportC) increase the horizontal distance between where the line of gravity intersects the base of support and the outside edge of the base of supportD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

22. Which of the following statements regarding qualitative analysis is false:A) Qualitative analysis is a subjective and systematic evaluation of a movement or skill.B) Video recording is a tool used for qualitative analysis. C) The qualitative approach to movement analysis is based on the instructor’s thorough understanding of the movement being evaluated.D) An integrated model of qualitative analysis includes preparation and error correction.E) None of the above.

23. The four major aspects of quality instruction are:A) research, preparation, observation, and error correctionB) preparation, observation, evaluation, and error correctionC) preparation, error detection, feedback, and evaluationD) experience, observation, assessment, and error correctionE) preparation, communication, evaluation, and error correction

24. When observing an athlete’s performance, the coach should begin by:A) determining the skill objectiveB) identifying the key body movements involved in each phase of the skillC) determining the correct execution of the skillD) analyzing the whole skillE) breaking the skill into phases

25. The most common technique for error detection is:A) using a chart or checklistB) asking the athlete for feedbackC) observing the skill being performedD) comparing performance against a modelE) performing a biomechanical analysis

Chapter 10

1. Which of the following is not an example of growth:A) losing baby teeth and having adult teeth come inB) an increase in heightC) body changes during pubertyD) an increase in weightE) none of the above

2. Which of the following statements about critical periods in the growth of a child is false:A) They are also known as readiness periods.B) They are times of particular sensitivity to environmental stimuli.C) They occur very early in a child’s life.D) It is possible to master a given skill at a later time after the critical period.E) Mastering a given skill during a critical period ensures optimal development.

3. The most important factor of a child’s readiness for a particular skill is:A) being in the proper stage of developmentB) having the necessary physical abilities to perform the skillC) accumulating sufficient information about the skillD) wanting to perform the skillE) having parents who are positive and nurturing

4. The time of early childhood isA) up until age 4B) up until age 6C) between age 1 and 4D) between age 4 and 6E) between age 1 and 6

5. Which of the following statements about childhood is true:A) During mid-childhood, there is a gradual loss of baby fat.B) Many children put on excess fat just before the adolescent growth spurt.C) The growth spurt begins between the age of 10 and 11 in girls and 11 and 12 in boys.D) Growth tends to be slow and constant during late childhood.E) In the first year after early childhood, boys tend to be fatter than girls of similar age.

6. Adolescence:A) begins at about age 12 and ends around age 18B) begins at about age 14 and ends around age 18C) begins at about age 12 and ends around age 19D) begins at about age 12 and ends around age 20E) begins at about age 14 and ends around age 20

7. An ectomorph is a:A) person with a rounded appearance and heavy bone structure, with little bone and muscle definitionB) person who is well muscled, has little fat, and tends to have broad shoulders with a narrow waistC) person with a linear shape with a delicate bone structure, little fat, and long limbs in relation to the bodyD) somatotypeE) both C and D

8. Which of the following statements about stature is true:A) Males and females differ significantly in average length at birth.B) After a child has reached the age of three, stature increases at a slower rate.C) Usually around the age of 11 or 12 in girls and 12 or 13 in boys, hormonal changes cause the body to grow taller more rapidly.D) The time of onset of the adolescent growth spurt can vary by three or more years.E) During the growth spurt, the height of both boys and girls increases by about 10 cm (4 inches) per year.

9. Age-related height decreases:A) are caused by the degeneration of vertebral discsB) begin at age 30C) are caused by dehydrationD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

10. The heart rate:A) of a child is lower than that of an adultB) of girls is approximately 10 percent lower than that of boysC) of a normal 25-year-old male is around 75 beats per minute D) all of the aboveE) none of the above

11. Stroke volume:A) is much higher in children than in adultsB) is higher in trained than in untrained individualsC) is generally higher in females than in malesD) decreases during physical activity

E) none of the above

12. Which of the following statements about body composition is false: A) The amount of fat present at birth is approximately 10 percent in boys and 13 percent in girls.B) During the first year of life there is a large increase in the amount of fat tissue in the body.C) During puberty, there is a large increase in the number of fat cells in the body.D) After puberty, girls tend to have a greater percentage of body fat than do boys.E) For both men and women, there is a gradual increase in the amount of body fat with age.

13. Which of the following statements about flexibility is false:A) On average, women have better flexibility than do men.B) Individuals vary widely in the degree of flexibility they possess.C) The bulk of the muscles close to a joint can affect the joint’s flexibility.D) Flexibility is especially important as we grow older.E) None of the above.

14. Which of the following factors does not affect a person’s degree of flexibility:A) anatomical structure of a jointB) muscle tissue typeC) ageD) sexE) exercise

15. Which of the following statements about height and strength gains is true:A) In boys, the strength spurt occurs about a year after their height spurt.B) In girls, the strength spurt occurs about a year after their height spurt.C) In boys, the spurts in height and strength tend to occur synchronously.D) In girls, the height spurt occurs about a year after their strength spurt.E) In both boys and girls, the spurts in height and strength tend to occur synchronously.

16. Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for developing strength fitness in early through late childhood:A) body weight exercisesB) aerobic exercisesC) calisthenics D) both A and BE) both A and C

17. Rolling, sitting, standing, and reaching are examples of:A) fundamental movementsB) reflexive movementsC) rudimentary movements

D) specialized movementsE) spontaneous movements

18. Which of the following is not a perceptual motor ability?A) kinesthetic perceptionB) figure-ground perceptionC) spatial awarenessD) coincident timingE) none of the above

19. Which of the following statements about physical proficiency abilities is false:A) Agility is dependent on reaction time and cognitive processing speed.B) Speed is developed through exercises that involve a higher number of repetitions (5 to 7) and bursts of maximum effort.C) Balance is highly dependent on a well-developed perceptual motor system.D) Coordination is developed primarily by repetition of the activity involved.E) None of the above.

20. Which of the following is not a locomotor skill:A) rollingB) hoppingC) runningD) chasingE) galloping

21. Which of the following statements about malnutrition is false:A) Chronic malnutrition can prevent a child from reaching his or her maximum size as an adult, regardless of the genes inherited.B) Malnutrition in childhood may delay growth.C) Most malnourished children can still grow to their genetically predetermined size, provided the lack of nutrients is not prolonged.D) Even in countries with an abundant food supply, there are many children who remain chronically undernourished.E) None of the above.

22. Which of the following statements about cognition is true:A) Up until age 8, children tend to misunderstand the potential causes of game outcomes.B) Children begin forming accurate attributions during early childhood.C) Movement plays an important role in cognitive development, particularly during the first three years of life.D) Cognitive abilities typically improve consistently until about age 18, when they level off.E) All of the above.

23. Which of the following statements about social influences on sport participation is false:A) Family views concerning physical activity are often instilled in a child at an early age.B) Strong parental interest in physical activity likely produces an increased level of participation among children.C) As a child approaches puberty, the family’s influence begins to diminish and the need for peer approval becomes greater.D) An individual who is physically active may find it difficult to pursue his or her athletic interests without peer support.E) A peer group can guide an individual into, or away from, participation in physical activities.

24. Most children drop out of sports:A) because of high stress levelsB) because of interpersonal problems (such as disliking the coach)C) to pursue other leisure activity interestsD) both A and BE) both B and C

25. During the specializing stage of sport participation:A) children pursue a variety of enjoyable recreation activitiesB) children become more engaged and committed to improving skillsC) children choose one or a few elite (competitive) sportsD) the emphasis is on high engagementE) both C and D

Chapter 11

Word bank: motor, continuum, patterns, externally, muscle sense, kinesthetic sense, automatic, spontaneous, parameters, practice, muscle, progression, uncertainty, open, birth, skills, stimulation, perceptual motor, physical proficiency, closed, serial, subroutines, sequence, trade-off, conserved, task, quality of performance, a task.

1. Movement intelligence is a vast repertoire of movement experiences developed since _________.

2. Movement intelligence does not refer to any specific ability but is used to describe proficiency in performing a variety of different _________.

3. Adequate _________ (starting at an early age) influences movement intelligence.

4. The tools we need to perform various skills are known as _________ abilities.

5. Spatial awareness and coincident timing are _________ abilities. Answer: perceptual motor

6. Coordination and flexibility are _________ abilities.

7. Serving in table tennis and catching a baseball are examples of skill as _________.

8. Executing a skill in minimum time is an example of skill as _________.

9. If energy is _________, this allows skilled individuals the opportunity to use their energy at times when it is most needed.

10. In some sports, such as biathlon, there is a speed–accuracy _________. 11. Organization and _________ are essential in developing the ability to perform skilled movements.

12. A skill is directed by an executive program and specific _________ at various levels of command.

13. A skilled act is _________ in nature, meaning the subroutines must follow a particular sequence in order for the executive program to be effectively carried out.

14. Skills for which the environment remains stable and predictable are called _________ skills.

15. Proprioceptive feedback is also known as _________.

16. _________ skills are continually changing and require performers to adjust and respond to the environment around them.

17. The back-and-forth action of team sports creates spatial and temporal _________.

18. Skills in closed environments tend to be self-paced; open skills are largely _________ paced.

19. Players should try to identify _________ in the movement of objects and other players.

20. Many skills fall somewhere in the middle of the open–closed _________.

21. Many skills can be acquired more efficiently if the learner moves along a learning _________.

22. Motor programs act as a set of prestructured _________ commands.

23. Repetitive _________ encourages the formation of specialized nerve circuits in the central nervous system that work together when developing a plan for an activity or skill. ]

24. The overall duration of a movement, the overall force needed to accomplish a movement, and spatial and temporal order of components are all examples of _________.

25. When generalized motor programs become well established, they form the basis for _________ movements in sports.

Chapter 12

1. Distinguish between knowledge of results and knowledge of performance. Answer: Knowledge of results (KR) is information about the degree of success with respect to the intended behaviour or goal. It can be intrinsic (you can see that you’ve gotten a service ace) or extrinsic (swimming lap times). Knowledge of performance (KP) provides information concerning the correctness of a particular movement. It can be intrinsic (sensory information) or extrinsic (supplied by a teacher or coach).

2. What are the three advantages of bandwidth feedback?Answer: First, bandwidth feedback eventually produces faded feedback because as skill increases, more movements fall within the band, thereby reducing the need for feedback later. Second, learners receive positive reinforcement for actions that fall into the band as a result of not receiving feedback on a particular practice trial. Finally, learners are not encouraged to change movements on each trial, which helps develop consistency of execution.

3. Distinguish between descriptive and prescriptive feedback. When is each type most effective?Answer: A descriptive feedback statement indicates something you did, right or wrong, whereas a prescriptive feedback statement provides precise correction statements about how to improve your movements on subsequent trials. During the early stages of learning, it may be more appropriate to provide more general (descriptive) information about performance until skill level or knowledge of the skill’s dynamics improves. More precise feedback should be withheld until students have had enough practice on a task to benefit from detailed information.

4. What is the best timing for giving feedback when a student is learning a skill?Answer: A student’s short-term memory is very susceptible to the loss of information. Generally, then, the greater the delay in giving a learner information about performance, the less effect the given information has. Immediate instruction is more beneficial to the development of skills than the provision of information feedback at the end of a lesson, when the students are ready to leave the gym. The sooner the instructor provides feedback, the more students will remember what the feedback pertains to.

5. Discuss the law of effect.Answer: According to the law of effect, success and failure can significantly influence learning. Praising learners keeps them motivated and gives them a reason to work harder

and to improve. Positive feedback acts as a stimulant and will go a long way towards preventing monotony that leaves learners lacking interest. In other words, we tend to repeat responses that are rewarded and to avoid responses that are not rewarded or are punished.

6. Discuss progressive part practice.Answer: Segmentation or progressive part practice involves either a forward or backward chaining. In forward chaining the first part of a skill is practised first to some criterion level before the second part is introduced, and so on. This method is particularly popular among track and field coaches and dance instructors. In backward chaining the last segment is learned first. For example, an athlete practising the discus throw by first working on just the toss and then combining the toss and one turn is using the progressive part method.

7. What is the benefit of lead-up activities and drills?Answer: Lead-up activities and drills that are popular with teachers and coaches for developing movement patterns, speed, balance, and visual skills are rarely of interest in themselves but are only a means of transferring these skills to their target sporting activity. Experience from coaching basketball has determined that starting and stopping, turning, evading and faking, and skipping and jumping drills are an effective means of practice for the game of basketball. Passing, shooting, dribbling, and faking drills in soccer training are designed for the same purpose, and drills in football involve stepping through tires and speed ladders to increase football-specific movements.

8. Define learning. How do you know when learning has occurred?Answer: Learning has traditionally been defined as a relatively permanent change in behaviour due to practice or experience. It can also be thought of as any permanent change in movement intelligence. Although learning cannot be observed directly, it is reflected in one’s performance, which is always measurable. The achieved time, height jumped, points scored, or score awarded are all examples of performance measures. A change in performance is an indirect indication that learning has occurred.

Chapter 13

1. What does the Profile of Mood States reveal about athletes?Answer: Sufficient evidence exists to suggest that elite athletes can be distinguished from lesser skilled athletes when certain psychological states are considered. The Profile of Mood States (POMS) has identified an “iceberg” profile in elite athletes. Careful examination of the figure shows that successful athletes are well below unsuccessful athletes in tension, depression, anger, fatigue, and confusion. They are markedly higher, however, in the mood state of vigour. This elevated vigour score causes the elite profile to resemble an iceberg. In the case of lesser skilled individuals, the profile can be described as rather flat.

2. Define trait anxiety and state anxiety. What are the two components of state anxiety?

Answer: Trait anxiety is a personality characteristic that is relatively stable over time, predisposing the individual to be anxious across a wide variety of situations. State anxiety refers to a “right now” kind of anxiety that is situation specific. Research has revealed that state anxiety is made up of two distinct components. Cognitive state anxiety is the psychological component of state anxiety and is caused by fear of failure or fear of negative social evaluation. Worrying is often the result of cognitive state anxiety. Somatic state anxiety represents the physical component of anxiety and reflects the perception of such physiological responses as muscular tension, increased heart rate, and bodily activation.

3. Label cognitive anxiety and somatic anxiety on the following graph. Explain the changes in anxiety that occur before a competition.

Answer: Pre-competitive cognitive anxiety starts relatively high and remains high and stable as competition approaches. Conversely, somatic anxiety remains relatively low until about one day before the event, then increases rapidly until the contest starts. Once the performance begins, somatic anxiety decreases rapidly, while cognitive state anxiety fluctuates as the probability of winning or losing changes.

4. Label cognitive anxiety and somatic anxiety on the following graph. What does this graph tell you about somatic anxiety and performance?

Answer: The graph shows that the relationship between somatic anxiety and performance takes the form of an inverted U. Increases in somatic anxiety are associated with improved athletic performance up to a certain optimal level. After this optimal point has been reached, performance begins to drop off with further increases in somatic anxiety. This suggests that athletes should attempt to increase their somatic anxiety up to an optimal level, by “psyching up.”

5. How can cognitive state anxiety negatively affect sports performance? What are the symptoms of cognitive state anxiety?Answer: The worry associated with increased cognitive state anxiety creates a major hindrance to sports performance. It is probably these increases in cognitive state anxiety that cause athletes to “choke,” or perform worse than expected. The symptoms of cognitive state anxiety are cold and clammy hands, increased heart rate, cotton mouth, faster breathing, inability to concentrate, trembling hands, desire to urinate often, tense muscles, diarrhea, nausea, feeling of fatigue, and voice distortion.

6. Explain the importance of successful performance to improving self-efficacy, and give three ways of developing self-efficacy through successful performance.Answer: Successful performance raises expectations for future successes; failure lowers these expectations. By developing strong feelings of self-efficacy through repeated success, the occasional failure will not negatively affect the athlete. Ways of developing self-efficacy through successful performance include (1) breaking skill learning into small steps to ensure early success; (2) practising before entering a competition; (3) and highlighting successes and downplaying setbacks.

7. List three guidelines for teachers and coaches when providing verbal persuasion.

Answer: When providing verbal persuasion through feedback, the best results occur if coaches do the following:* Provide specific rather than general feedback.* Have an athlete repeat back the instructions before proceeding.* Focus on the positive aspects of the athlete’s performance.

8. What are seven goal-setting strategies for maximum motivation?Answer:* Set specific goals that are observable, measurable, and achievable. * Set realistic but challenging goals.* Set positive goals, not negative goals (such as “play defensively” rather than “don’t allow a touchdown”).* Coaches and teachers should negotiate goals for their athletes or students, not mandate them.* Set short-term as well as long-term goals.* Set goals for your practices as well as your actual competitions.* Set goals related to an athlete’s performance or technical execution, not contest outcome (win versus lose).

9. Knowing that the attributions athletes endorse influence their expectancy for future performance, what approach should instructors take?Answer: Coaches and teachers are encouraged to utilize attributional training strategies designed to help athletes adopt an attribution pattern that will lead to increased self-confidence and higher expectancy for future performance. Recommended guidelines include the following:* Record and classify attributions that athletes and students make after successful and unsuccessful performances.* After each outcome, help the athlete ascribe attributions that will lead to greater expectancy of success and increased effort.* Provide an attributional training program for athletes who consistently utilize attributions that lead to lowered expectancy.* For best results, combine planned goal setting with attributional training.

10. List four recommendations for coaches in regard to social facilitation.Answer: Based on a review of current social facilitation research, the following recommendations can be made: * Devote an initial prolonged period to overlearning. This ensures that the skill is well learned and less susceptible to performance drop-off in the presence of an audience.* In the early stages of learning, incorporate the arousal adjustment strategies to lower arousal. This will lead to quicker skill learning.* Allow audiences access to your practices only after the skills have been learned. At this point, skill learning won’t be hindered. In fact, once the skills are well learned, an audience should improve the quality of your practices.* Once the skills have been well learned, use the arousal adjustment strategies to increase arousal in your athletes. This will lead to performance improvements.

Chapter 14

1. Match the following challenges that occur in adolescence with their corresponding characteristics. The challenges can be matched with more than one answer.

Challenge Answer

Characteristic

Increase in autonomy and individual identity

B & F A) I can participate in more challenging tasks at school

Increase in responsibilities

E B) I am doing more on my own

Increase in industry A & G C) I am engaged in relationships with peers and intimate others that are emotionally, mentally, and physically more intense

Intensification of relationships

C D) I will grow physiologically in ways that enable me to reach new levels of achievement

Changes in body structure

D & H E) I am more reliant on myself to accomplish what needs to be doneF) I make more decisions about what I want to doG) I can participate in more sophisticated tasks at workH) I will grow physiologically in ways that enable me to reachnew levels of participation in a wide variety of experiences

2. What are the six dimensions of health? Give a characteristic of each.Answer (other characteristics are possible): Physical health: having lots of energy to get through the day without being overly tiredSocial health: enjoying meeting and interacting with peopleEmotional health: finding it easy to laugh about things in lifeEnvironmental health: trying to conserve natural resourcesMental health: willing to learn from life’s challengesSpiritual health: having hopes and dreams

3. What affects our outlook on health and how we achieve it?Answer: Although we ultimately make the decisions about our own health and how we choose to live our lives, these choices are not made in isolation from the environments in which we live. Numerous factors that have a strong impact on our outlook on health include family influences, the media, culture, and society. It is this perspective on health that will largely guide our lifestyle habits and behaviours throughout our lives. But the achievement of health is not a single event; attaining and maintaining health and wellness is an ongoing process, and indeed, a resource for everyday life.

4. How do family attitudes affect a child’s participation in physical activities?Answer: Traditional family attitudes and actions send strong messages about health, well-being, and a general sense of life satisfaction. Families that value physical activity, for example, introduce their children to sports, games, and recreational pursuits that they enjoy at an early age. Most young people today get their start in dance, hockey, tennis, volleyball, skiing, and swimming because of their parents’ interests/attitudes and enthusiasm for these same activities.

5. Discuss the achievement of health in Eastern and aboriginal cultures.Answer: In Eastern and many aboriginal cultures, health has a strong spiritual quality. Disease is often understood in terms of spiritual harmony with oneself and/or with one’s environment. Different systems are at work. In the oriental culture, they speak of chi, which refers to the flow of energy within the body. Different stimulations on various parts of the body can overcome specific blockages to a person’s chi. The individual is also expected to play an active role in his or her healing process. Tai chi, yoga exercises, meditation, and acupuncture are common and often effective ways to energize the body, refresh the mind, and overcome certain illnesses. Other cultures chant, take herbal tonics and remedies, and participate in special prayers to prevent and alleviate the symptoms of illness. Aboriginal cultures also have formalized methods of healing. The sweat lodge has for centuries been a place of spiritual awakening and vision. The medicine wheel symbolizes the need for a strong spiritual connection to the earth and to heaven

Chapter 15

1. Every training program has five important design elements. Answer: false (Correct: four)

2. Training frequency is how hard you need to work to achieve a fitness benefit. Answer: false (Correct: intensity)

3. Generally, the lower the intensity of exercise, the shorter the rest periods required. Answer: true

4. Training volume is an element of training time. Answer: true

5. Weight training is generally considered an informal fitness activity. Answer: false (Correct: a formal)

6. To ensure that the muscles or systems continue to improve, the stimulus must be periodically increased. This is called the overload principle. Answer: false (Correct: progression)

7. Endurance athletes can lose up to 10 percent of their performance VO2max following a one-week layoff from cardiorespiratory training. Answer: true

8. Relative strength is the total force a person can apply in a single effort against a resistance. Answer: false (Correct: Absolute)

9. In the exercise prescription 3 x 10 x 50, the athlete is performing three reps. Answer: false (Correct: sets)

10. Generally, a lower number of repetitions promotes development of maximal strength and power. Answer: true

11. If you can perform more than 12 repetitions, you are working on muscular endurance. Answer: true

12. Weightlifters use the greatest number of exercises by far in their training regimens. Answer: false (Correct: Bodybuilders)

13. Fatigue may take longer to develop during static exercises. Answer: false (Correct: dynamic)

14. Most of the time we operate in the aerobic zone. Answer: true

15. An example of your resting heart rate is 50 to 85 percent of your maximum heart rate. Answer: false (Correct: target heart-rate zone)

16. Passive flexibility exercises help achieve a wider range of movement than do active flexibility exercises. Answer: true; true

17. Holding a fully stretched position is known as passive stretching. Answer: false (Correct: static)

18. The splits are an example of ballistic stretching. Answer: false (Correct: static)

19. Plyometric training is an effective way to improve power. Answer: true

20. Tests of coordination are similar to agility tests and practice drills. Answer: true

21. Surfing is an example of static balance. Answer: false (Correct: dynamic)

22. In circuit training, the recovery between exercises and laps depends on the training time. Answer: false: (Correct: objectives)

23. Tempo training involves the systematic alternation of exertion and rest. Answer: false: (Correct: Interval training)

24. Cross-training combines slow long-distance training, pace/tempo training, and interval training. Answer: false (Correct: Fartlek training)

25. Plyometric training is also known as speed play training. Answer: false (Correct: Fartlek training)

No word bank this time, but you will get one on the exam.

no word bank this time, but you will have one on the exam.

Classify the synovial joint (6 marks)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

F)

In essay form, a minimum of 5 paragraphs, answer ONE of the following questions? Make sure you provide examples to support your answer and explore the counter arguments to you opinion. Should performance-enhancing drugs be allowed in professional sports?

Should a coach be allowed to have his coaching staff go through an athletes

personal effects that are brought into or stored in the locker room?

Are female professional athletes entitled to the same pay structure as male

professional athletes?

Are athletes role models?