8 & 9_mpc_shp_e1 & e2& e4 & e5
TRANSCRIPT
CLASS-VIII_SUBGROUP_E4 & E5 SIMPLE HOLIDAY PACKAGE
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(OLYMPIAD AND E-TECHNO)
SIMPLE HOLIDAY
PACKAGE PONGAL
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
CLASS – VIII E4 & E5
VIII_MPC_E4 to E5_SHP
INDEX
SUBJECT PAGE NO.
1. MATHEMATHICS 2 - 16
2. PHYSICS 17 - 30
3. CHEMISTRY 31 - 40
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MATHEMATHICS ( Q.NO.1 TO 80)
1. In the figure, l||m||n and AB||CD. Then x° + w° is equal to
1) 360° – (y° + z°) 2) 2y° + z° 3) y° – z° 4) y° + z°
2. In the figure, l||m and p||q, then x° is
1) 90° 2) 100° 3) 110° 4) 120°
3. In the figure given below, ABCD EF. Then the value of x is
1) 280 2) 720 3) 560 4) 800
4. In the figure given below, ABCD and F = 300. Then ECD is
1) 1300 2) 1200 3) 1500 4) 600
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5. In the figure given below, two straight lines PQ and RS intersect each
other at O. If POT = 750, then the value of c is
1) 84 2) 21 3) 48 4) 105
6. In the given figure, lines XY and MN intersects at O. If POY = 900 and a
: b = 2 : 3. Then c =
1) 1260 2) 540
3) 360
4) 1400
7. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC and C = 40º. BD is the
bisector of ABC intersects AC at D and AE is perpendicular to BD, then
EAD is
1) 20º 2) 25º 3) 30º 4) 35º
8. If the number of sides of a polygon is equal to the number of diagonals of
the same polygon, then the sum of angles of the polygon is
1) 540° 2) 720° 3) 900° 4) 1080°
9. A mathematics teacher cut a polygon into a triangle, a quadrilateral and
a pentagon along the two diagonals drawn in that polygon from the same
vertex. How many sides does the original polygon have ?
1) 14 2) 12 3) 10 4) 8
10. The side of the largest possible regular octagon that can be cut out of a
square of side 1cm is
1) 2 1 cm 2)
1cm
2 2 3)
1
cm2 1
4) None
11. In the triangle ABC, BC = CD and ABC BAD = 30° . The measure of
ABD is
1) 30° 2) 45° 3) 15° 4) can’t be determined
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12. In ADE, ADE = 140° and the points B, C lie on sides AD, AE
respectively and points A, B, C, D, E are distinct. If lengths AB, BC, CD
and DE are all equal, then the measure of EAD is
1) 5° 2) 6° 3) 7.5° 4) 10°
13. If one of the interior angles of a regular polygon is equal to 5/6 times of
one of the interior angles of a regular pentagon, then the number of sides
of the polygon is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
14. In a triangle, one of the angles is equal to half of the sum of the other
two angles. If the difference of the other two angles is 40°, then the smallest angle in the triangle is
1) 40° 2) 45° 3) 50° 4) 55°
15. In the given figure, the value of x is
1) 55o 2) 75o 3) 80o 4) 25o
16. In the given figure, AB || CD, AE || FC, FD || BE, then
1) x + y = 00 2) x – 2y = 00 3) x – y = 00 4) x – y = 180°
17. Triangles ABC and ABD are isosceles with AB = AC = BD, and BD inter
sects AC at E. If BD AC , then C D is
1) 115° 2) 120° 3) 130° 4) 135°
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18. In the below figure, ABDC, BAC = 400 andBCD = 200 , then ACB =
1) 200 2) 300 3) 400 4) 600
19. In the below figure, ABCD EF, BCDE, BAC = 690 and DBC = 500,
then EGF =
1) 600 2) 500 3) 400 4) Can’t say
20. In the below figure AB QS CD, PAB = 600 and DCR = 600, then
QXY + QYX =
1) 900 2) 600 3) 800 4) 1000
21. Let X be any point on the side BC of a ABC if XM, XN are drawn parallel
to BA and CA meeting CA, BA is M, N respectively MN meets BC produced
in T. Then
A
B C
MN
Tx
1) 2TX = AN.AB 2) 2TX = TB.TC
3) 2TX = AM.MC 4) 2TX = NM.BC
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22. In figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and X and Y are points on the diagonal
BD such that DX=BY. Then
1) logAXCY is paralle ram 2) AYB CXD
3) AXD CYB 4) All of these
23. In figure, ABCD is a trapezium in which AB CD and AD BC .Then
1) A B 2) ABC BAD
3) diagonal AC diagonal BD 4) All of these
24. In ,ABC AD is the median through A and E is the mid-point of AD. BE
produced meets AC in F. AF
1) 1
3AC 2)
1
2AC 3)
1
4AC 4) none
25. Let ABCD be a rectangle with AB = a and BC = b. Suppose r1 is the
radius of the circle passing through A and B and touching CD, and similarly r2 is the radius of the circle passing through B and C and
touching AD. Then r1 + r2 is
1) 5a+b
8 2)
5(a b)
8 3)
5(a b)
8 4) none
26. A circular park of radius 20 m is situated in a colony. Three boys. Ankur, Syed and David are sitting at equal distance on its boundary each having a toy telephone in his hands to talk to each other. Then the length of the string of each phone is
1) 20 3 m 2) 10 3 m 3) 10m 4) 20m
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27. In the given figure, two circles with centres A and B and of radii
5cm and 3 cm touch each other internally. If the perpendicular
bisector of segment AB meets the bigger circle in P and Q. Then
the length of PQ is
1) 2cm 2) 4 6 cm 3) 2 2 cm 4) 4 2 cm
28.
In the given figure AB is a diameter of the circle with centre ‘O’. CD is a
chord equal to the radius of the circle. AC and BDWhen extended
intersect at a point E. Then ____AEB
1) 015 2)
030 3) 045 4)
060
29. For one root of ax2 + bx + c = 0 to be double the other, the coefficients a, b, c must be related as follows :
1) 4b2 = 9c 2) 2b2 = 9ac 3) 2b2 = 9a 4) b2 – 8ac = 0
30. The difference of the roots of x2 – 7x – 9 = 0 is
1) 7 2) 7
2 3) 9 4) 85
31. If α, β are the zeroes of the expression ax2 + bx + c, then the value
of
2α ββ α
is
1) 2
2 2
b 4ac
a c 2)
2 2
2 2
b 4a b
a c 3)
2 2b 4a b
ac 4)
2 2
2 2
b 4ac b
a c
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32. If a and b are rational and , are the zeroes of x2 + 2ax + b, then
the expression with rational coefficients one of whose zero is 2 2 is
1) 2 4 2x ax b 2) 2 4 2x ax b 3) 2 4 2x ax b 4) 2 4 2x ax b
33. By using formula, the value of x in x(x2 – 1) (x + 2) + 1 = 0 is
1) 1 5
2 2)
2 5
2 3)
1 5
2 4) 1 5
34. The roots of Ax2 + Bx + C = 0 are r and s. For the roots of x2 + px
+ q = 0 to be r2 and s2, p must equal
1) 2
2
B 4AC
A 2)
2
2
B 2AC
A 3)
2
2
2AC B
A 4) B2 – 2C
35. Let the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 be r and s. The equation with roots ar + b and as + b is
1) x2 – bx – ac = 0 2) x2 – bx + ac = 0
3) x2 + 3bx + ca + 2b2 = 0 4) x2 + 3bx – ca + 2b2 = 0
36. If one root of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is 'n' times
the other, then b2n is equal to
1) ac(n + 1) 2) ac(n + 1)2 3) c(n + 1) 4) c(n + 1)2
37. If α and β are the zeroes of x2 + px + q, then the expression
whose zeroes are 2α β and 2α +β is
1) x2 + 2x(p2 – 2q) + p2(p2 – 4q) 2) x2 – 2x(p – 2q) + p2
3) x2 – 2x(p2 – 2q) + p2(p2 – 4q) 4) x2 + 2x(p – 2q) – p2
38. Consider x2 + px + q = 0, where p and q are positive numbers. If the roots of this equation differ by 1, then p equals
1) 4q 1 2) q – 1 3) 4q 1 4) q + 1
39. The sum of the squares of the roots of the equation x2 + 2hx = 3 is 10. The absolute value of h is equal to
1) – 1 2) 1
2 3)
3
2 4) None
40. If
2 2x 2x+1 x 2x 1 22+ 3 + 2 3 =
2 3, then x is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) Both (1) and (3)
41. Two equal circles of radius r intersect such that each passes through the centre of the other. The length of the common chord of the circles is
1) r 2) 2rAB 3) 3r 4) 3
2r
42. If AB is a chord of a circle, P and Q are the two points on the circle different form A and B, then
1) APB AQB
2) 0180APB AQB or APB AQB
3) 090APB AQB
4) 0180APB AQB
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43. The larger root minus the smaller root of the equation
27 +4 3 x + 2+ 3 x 2 = 0 is
1) 2 3 3 2) 2 3 3) 6 3 3 4) 6 3 3
44. If a, b, cQ and a + b + c = 0, then the roots of
2 b+c a x + c+a b x + a + b c = 0 are
1) Imaginary 2) irrational 3) Rational 4) Nothing can be said about the
roots 45. The nature of the roots of(2y + 5)(3y – 4) = (y – 3)(y + 2) is 1) real and equal 2) real and distinct 3) not real 4) none
46. If a, b, c and a + b + c = 0, then the quadratic equation 4ax2 + 3bx + 2c = 0 has
1) Real roots 2) imaginary roots 3) Can't be determined 4) None of these 47. In the given figure the value of x is
1) 040 2) 050 3) 060 4) 070 48. In the given figure, AB is a diameter of the circle C (O,r) and the
radius OD is perpendicular to AB. If C is any point on arc DB, then BAD =
1) 045 2) 050 3) 060 4) 070
D
C x
O
BA40
0
D
C
BAO
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49. A circle touches a quadrilateral ABCD internally, then the true statement in the following is
1) AB + BC = CD + AD 2) AB + CD = BC + AD 3) BD = AC 4) None of these
50. In the below figure, O is the centre of the circle and AB and CD are two equal chords intersecting at P and M, N are the mid points of AB, CD respectively, then
1) PB = PD and PA = PC 2) PB = PD and PA = CD 3) PA = PB and PC = PD 4) None of these 51. If ABCD is a square with M is a mid-point of DC. And AE = BF. Then
which of the following is not false
1) ME = MF 2) ME = MD 3) MF = MC 4) MF = AF 52. ABCD is a parallelogram. E is the midpoint of AB, then
1) CF = 2AB 2) CF = 2 CD 3) CF = 2AD 4) CF = 2 BE
I
D
A
C
P
N
O
M
B
MD C
F
BA
E
D
CFB
A
E
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53. In the given figure BAD = EAC, then
1) x = 11, y = 21 2) x = 11, y = 23
3) x = 11, y = 20 4) x = 11, y = 22
54. ABCD is a square of side 2 units. Midpoints of sides are joined to form another square. Again midpoints of that square are joined to form another smaller square. Midpoints are again joined to form
another square. This process is continued to get the 2016th square
inside. The area of that 2016th square is A
1
2, then A =
1) 2016 2) 2014 3) 2018 4) None
55. Triangle formed by joining the midpoints of equal sides of an isosclas triangle is
1) Isosceles 2) Equilateral 3) Scalene 4) Right
56. Two regular polygons are such that the ratio between their number of sides is 1 : 2 and the ratio of measures of their interior angles is 3 : 4. The number of sides of each polygon is:
1) 5,10 2) 6,12 3) 4,8 4) 2,3 57. In the following figure ABCD is a trapezium, EF || AD and EF ||BC, then
x, y, z are respectively equal to
1) 50°, 60°, 50° 2) 50°, 50°, 80°
3) 60°, 50°, 60° 4) none
58. In the given figure, PSR = 60º and PRQ = 120º and given that RPS
= 2RPQ. Then PQR is
1) 60º 2) 50º
3) 40º 4) 30º
A
432y +
3
BD10
E x - 1C
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59. In the below figure, the line BE bisects ABD and BED = 4ABE. If
ABCD is rectangle then BDC is
1) 18º 2) 24º
3) 60º 4) 36º
60. In figure, ABCD is a rhombus in which the diagonal
DB is produced To E. If ABE = 160º , then x, y and z are respectively
1) 700, 400, 400 2) 400, 700, 200
3) 700, 200, 900 4) 600, 700, 200
61. ABCD is a rectangle whose area is 108m2 and length is 12m. Then the
area of the square AEFC is
62. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists
Codes:
1) A B C D
4 3 1 2
2) A B C D
2 4 3 1
3) A B C D
3 4 2 1
4) A B C D
3 4 1 2
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63. In ABC, AB = AC and A, D, B are on the same line, then which of the
following statement is not false
1) DC > DB 2) DC < DB
3) DC = DB 4) None
64. In a triangle ABC, E is the mid - point of median AD, then ar (
BED ) =
1) 1
3 ar( ABC)
2) 1
4 ar( ABC)
3) 2
5 ar( ABC)
4) None
65. AB and CD intersect each other at O in a plane , M is a
point such that M O and M . Then (AM + BM + CM
+ DM)
1) = (AO + BO + CO + DO) 2) = 2(AO + BO + CO + DO)
3) < (AO + BO + CO + DO) 4) >(AO + BO + CO + DO)
66. H is the orthocentre of ΔABC and X, Y, and Z are respectively the
midpoints of AH, BH and CH. Then the point H is
1) Circumcentre of XYZ 2) Centroid of XYZ
3) Orthocentre of XYZ 4) Incentre of XYZ
67. If two medians of a triangle are equal, then the triangle is
1) Scalene 2) Isosceles
3) Equilateral 4) Right angled
68. ABCD is a square. X and Y are points on sides AD and BC respectively
such that AY = BX. Then BAY =
1) ABX 2) AXB
3) ABX + AXB 4) ABX – AXB
69. ABCD is a parallelogram. P is a point on AD such that AP =
1
3 AD. Q is a
point on BC such that CQ = 1
3BC. Then AQCP is a
1) Rhombus 2) Rectangle
3) parallelogram 4) square
70. In quadrilateral ABCD with diagonals AC and BD intersecting at O, BO =
4, OD = 6, AO = 8, OC = 3 and AB = 6. The length of AD is
1) 166 2) 10
3) 6 3 4) None
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71. In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram. If T is the midpoint of RQ
and the line ST when extended meets PQ at U, then the ratio of lengths
of PQ and QU is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2
3) 1 : 3 4) 1 : 4
72. If PQRS is a square where PX = QY = RZ, XYZ = 90°, then XZY is
1) 60° 2) 45°
3) 30° 4) 75°
73. Two vertical poles 20m and 80m high stand apart on a horizontal plane.
The height of the point of intersection of the lines joining the top of
each pole to the foot of the other is 'a' metres. Then 'a' is
1) 30 metres 2) 20 metres
3) 25 metres 4) 16 metres
74. In right triangle ABC, , ,BC = 5, AC = 12 AM = x MN AC, NP BC , N is
on AB. If y = MN+ NP , one half the perimeter of rectangle MCPN, then
1) 1y 5 12
2
2) 5x 12y
12 5
3) 144 7xy
12
4) None
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75. If angles A, B, C, D of a quadrilateral ABCD taken in order are in the ratio 3 : 7 : 6 : 4, then ABCD is a
1) Rhombus 2) Parallelogram
3) Trapezium 4) kite
76. ABCD is a rectangle. The diagonals AC and BD are intersect at O. angle DOC = 1620 – 3x and angle CAB = 2x. Then x =
1) 540 2) 360
3) 2400 4) 180
77. PQRS is a parallelogram. Then y equals.
1) 270 2) 610
3) 410 4) 280
78. ABCD is a rhombus. 02 15 ,DAB x 03 30 ,DCB x BDC equals
1) 450 2) 350
3) 37.50 4) 42.50
79. PQRS is a kite. 070 ,P 090.5 ,S R equals
1) 099 2) 091
3) 0111 4) 1090
80. ABCD is a rectangle with 048 .BAC Then DBC equals
1) 380 2) 480
3) 1320 4) 420
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VIII_MATHEMATICS_SHP_E4 & E5_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 4 3 1 2 3 1 3 1 4 1
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 3 4 2 1 4 3 4 2 4 2
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 2 4 4 1 1 1 2 4 2 4
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 1 4 4
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 1 2 1
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 1 3 3 2 1 1 1 4 3 3
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 2 1 1 2 4 3 2 1 3 1
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 1 2 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 4
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PHYSICS ( Q.NO. 1 TO 80)
1. A solid body is found floating in water with 3
4
th
of it s volume submerge
the same solid is found floating in a liquid with 3
4
th
of its volume above
the liquid surface . the specific gravity of the liquid is
1) 1/3 2) 3/2 3) 3 4) 2/3
2. A sphere of solid material of relative density 16 has a concentric spherical cavity and sinks in water. if the radius of the sphere be R, then the radius of cavity __________
1) 3 316r R 2)
3 316 / 5r R 3)
3 315
16r R 4)
3 316
15r R
3. A hemispherical portion of radius R is removed from the bottom of a
cylinder of radius R. the volume of the remaining cylinder is V and mass
m. it is suspended by a string in a liquid of density , where it stays
vertical. The upper surface of cylinder is at a depth h below the liquid
surface. The force on the bottom of the cylinder by the liquid is
1)
2g V R h 2) mg 3) mg V g 4) Mg+2R h
g
4. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 on air. It is suspended from spring
balance. It’s weight 12N in air .it is suspended in water such that half of the block is below the surface of water. The reading of the balance is___________________
1) 10N 2) 9N 3) 8N 4) 7 N
5. The force does water exert on the base of a house tank of base area 2.5m2 when it is filled with water up to a height of 2m if ( g=10 m/s2)
1) 500 kg wt 2) 1500 kg wt 3) 4500 kg wt 4) 5000 kg wt
6. A piece of gold-aluminium alloy weighs 100 grams in air and 80 g when
immersed in water. What is the weight of gold in the alloy ? (Sp . gravity of gold = 19.3 and of aluminum =2.5).
1) 57.44 g 2) 2.5 g 3) 20 g 4) 38.6 g
7. A body of density ‘d1’ is counter poised by Mg of weights of density ‘d2’ in
air of density ‘d’ then the true mass of the body is
1) M 2)
1
2
1d
Md
3)
1
1d
Md
4)
2
1
1
1
d
dM
d
d
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8. Two bodies with volumes 2V and 4V are equalized on a balanc . the larger
body is then immersed in oil of density 1.6 g/cm3 . what must be the density of liquid in which the smaller body is simultaneously immersed
so as not to disturb the equilibrium of the balance ?
1) 0.9 g/m3 2) 3.2 g/cm3 3) 0.27 g/cm3 4) 1.764 g/cm3
9. A silver ornament is suspected to be hollow. Its weight is 288.75 and it
can displace 30 cc of water. If the specific gravity of silver is 1.5 ,find
the volume of the cavity.
1) 27.5 cc 2) 10.5 cc 3) 19.5 cc 4) 2.5 cc
10. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a
liquid of relative density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10, then
tension in the string will be
1) 37.12 N 2) 42 N 3) 73 N 4) 21 N
11. How much lead ( S.G. = 11) should be added to a place of cork ( S.G.
=0.2) weighing 10 grams so that it may just float on water?
1) 22 g 2) 44 g 3) 66 g 4) 88 g
12. In air a metallic Sphere with an internal cavity weigh’s 40 g and in water
it weigh’s 20 g . The volume of cavity if the density of material with
cavity be 8 g/cm is
1) Zero 2) 15 cm3 3) 5 cm3 4) 20 cm3
13. Density of ice is 900 kg/m3. A piece of ice is floating in water of density
1000 kg/m3. Find the fraction of volume of ice outside the water
1) 0.1 2) 0.9 3) 0.2 4) 0.8
14. Two bodies of equal volume A and B float on water in Equilibrium 2/3 rd of the volume of A and half the volume of B in inside water. The ratio of
densities of A and B is
1) 1:3 2) 3:2 3) 3:4 4) 4:3
15. A cube of wood supporting a 200 g mass just floats in the water. When
the mass is removed the cube raises by 2 cm, then length of side of the
cube is
1) 8 cm 2) 12 cm 3) 6 cm 4) 10 cm
16. The minimum horizontal acceleration of the container so that the
pressure at point A of the container becomes atmospheric is
1) (3/2) g 2) (4/3) g 3) (4/2) g 4) (3/4) g
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17. A sphere of solid material of specific gravity 8 has a concentric
spherical cavity and just sinks in water . The ratio of radius of
cavity to that to outer radius of the sphere must be
1)
1/37
2 2)
1/35
2 3)
1/39
2 4)
1/33
2
18. A breaker of mass 1 kg contains 2kg of water and rests on a scale. A 2 kg
block of aluminum (specific gravity 2.70) suspended from a spring scale
is submerged in water , as shown in figure. Find the reading of both
scales.
1) 36-66N & 12.34N 2) 16-66N& 10-34N
3) 18-33N & 6.17N 4) 9N& 6N
19. The area of cross section of the pump plunger and press plunger of a hydraulic press are 0.02 m2 and 8 m2 respectively. If the hydraulic press
overcomes a load 800 kgf. Calculate the force acting on pump plunger
1) 2 kgf 2) 5 kgf 3) 0.25 kgf 4) 5 gf
20. A hollow cylinder of copper of length 25 cm and area of cross section 15 cm2 floats in water with 3/5 of its length inside water then find weight
of cylinder?
1) 200 gf 2) 300 gf 3) 225 gf 4) 325 gf
21. An iceberg is floating partially immersed in sea water. The density of sea water is 1.03 g cm-3 and that of ice is 0.92 g cm-3. The approximate
percentage of total volume of iceberg above the level of sea water is
1) 8 2) 11 3) 34 4) 89
22. A tank accelerates upwards with acceleration a= 2m/s2 contains water .A
block of mass 2kg and density 0.9 gm/cm2 is held stationary inside the
tank with the help of the string as shown. The tension in the string is
1) 5.5N 2) 2.7N 3) 4N 4) 3.33N
23. You plung a basket ball be near the surface of a swimming pool until half the volume of the basket ball is submerged if the basket ball has a radius
12 cm . what is the buoyancy force on the ball due to the water ?
1) 25N 2) 35N 3) 15N 4) 45N
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24. An ferry boat has internal volume 1m3 and weight 50kg neglecting the
thickness of wood , find the fraction of the volume of boat immersed in
water.
1) 0.4m3 2) 0.7m3 3) 0.5m3 4) 0.9m3
25. A convex mirror has its radius of curvature 20cm. find the position of the image of an object placed at a distance of 12 cm from the mirror
1) 50
11cm
2) 70
11cm
3) 60
11cm
4) 80
11cm
26. A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of refractive index = 3 at an
angle of incidence 600
as show in fig find the angle r, r 1 ,e and the total deviation after two refractions
1) 0 0 0 030 ,30 ,60 ,60 2) 0 0 0 060 ,60 ,30 ,30
3) 0 0 0 030 ,60 ,30 ,60 4) 0 0 0 060 ,90 ,30 ,60
27. A fish under water at a depth of 20 cm can see the outer atmosphere
through an aperture of radius of (critical angle of water c= 045 )
1) 5 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 15 cm
28. A beam of light passes from medium ‘1’ to medium ‘2’ to medium ‘3’ as show in fig . what may be concluded about the three indices of refraction
1, 2n n and 3n
1) 3 1 2n n n 2)
1 3 2n n n
3) 2 3 1n n n 4)
2 1 3n n n
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29. A cube of ice floats partly in water and partly in k. oil. Find the ratio of
the volume of ice immersed in water to that in k.oil .specific gravity of
k.oil is 0.8 and that of ice is 0.9
1. 1:2 2. 2:3
3. 1:1 4. 4:3
30. A metal piece of mass 240 g lies in equilibrium inside a glass of water.
The piece touches the bottom of the glass at a small number of points. If
the density of the metal is 8000 kg / 3m , find the normal force exerted by
the bottom of the glass on the metal piece.
1 1.4 N 2 1.6 N
3 2.1 N 4 1.2 N
31. An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal
length 10 cm at a distance of 8cm from the pole. Find the position and
nature o the image
1. 40cm, real 2. 40cm, virtual
3. 20cm, virtual 4. 20cm, real
32. A ball of mass ‘m’ and density ‘ ’ is immersed in a liquid of density ‘3 ’
at a depth ‘h’ and released. To what height will the ball jump up above
the surface of liquid? (Neglect the resistance of water and air)
1. 2h 2. 3h
3. 4h 4. H
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33. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of
apex angle 300 and refractive index 2 . The angle of deviation of
the ray is
1) 300 2) 150 3) 600 4) 900
34. If the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the first
refracting surface are 450 and 300 respectively, then refractive
index of the material of the prism is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
2
35. The angle of a prism is 80 and its refractive index is 1.5 . The angle
of deviation produced by the prism is
1) 30 2) 90 3) 40 4) 150
36. A ray of light is incident on one of the faces of the prism with an
angle 450 with the surface. The angle of the prism is 600. The
emergent ray is deviated through an angle 420. The angle of
emergence is
1) 480 2) 380 3) 00 4) 570
37. For total internal reflection to take place, the angle of incidence i
and refractive index of the medium must satisfy, the inequality
1) 1
Sini 2)
1
Sini 3) Sini 4) Sini
38. Figure represents three cases of a ray passing through a prism of
refractive edge A. The case corresponding to minimum deviation is
1 2 3
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) None of these
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39. Light is incident normally on face AB of a prism as shown. A liquid
of refractive index is place on face AC of the prism. The prism
is made of glass of refractive index 3
2
The limit of for which total internal reflection takes place on
face AC is
1) 3
4 2)
3 3
4 3) 3 4)
3
2
40. Find the angle of deviation suffered by the light ray shown in
figure. The refractive index = 1.5 for the prism material
1) 40 2) 30 3) 3.50 4) 00
41. The angle of minimum deviation from a prism is 370. If the angle
of prism is 530, find the refractive index of the material of the
prism. (sin 26.50 =0.446)
1) 1.9 2) 1.6 3) 2.3 4) 4.2
42. When the angle of incidence i1 = 00, the ray is incident on the
prism along the normal (i.e. normal incidence). If r2 = (critical
angle), then angle of emergence is
2i
1) 00 2) 450 3) 900 4) 1800
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43. An equilateral prism of refractive index 3
5 is immersed in water of
refractive index 4
3. If a ray of light passing through the prism
undergoes minimum deviation the angle of incidence on the first
refracting face of the prism is
1) 1 5
8Sin
2) 300 3) 450 4) 1 0.225Sin
44. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is placed in water of refractive
index 1.33. The minimum value of the angle of the prism so that it
will not be possible to have any emergent ray is 1 0( 0.89 62.5) Sin
1) 1500 2) 1650 3) 1800 4) 1250
45. A prism is made up of material of refractive index 3 . The angle of
the prism is A. If the angle of minimum deviation is equal to angle
of prism, then the value of A is
1) 600 2) 300 3) 450 4) 750
46. The maximum value of index refraction of a material of a prism
which allows the passage of light through it when the refracting
angle of prism is A is
1) 21 cot2
A 2) 21 cos
2
A 3) 21 tan
2
A 4) 0
47. The thin prism P1 of angle 40 and refractive index 1.54 is combined
with another thin prism P2 of refractive index 1.72 to produce
dispersion without deviation. The angle of P2 is
1) 40 2) 30 3) 2.6 4) 5.33
48. The angle of minimum deviation when light is incident at an angle
of 450 on one of the refracting faces of an equilateral prism of
refractive index 1.414 is
1) 300 2) 400 3) 450 4) 500
49. For a prism, A = 600, 7
3 . Then the minimum possible angle of
incidence, so that the light ray is refracted from the second
surface
1) 300 2) 600 3) 900 4) 400
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50. A thin prism of 200 angle gives deviation of 5.20. The value of
refractive index of the material of the prism is
1) 7.6 2) 2.9 3) 4.5 4) 1.26
51. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism, such that
angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence. If the angle of
emergence is 3
4 times angle of prism . The refractive index of the
glass prism
1) 1.414 2) 1.5 3) 1.616 4) 1.7
52. The angle of minimum deviation produced by a prism is 300. If the
angle of prism is also 300, the refractive index of the material of
the prism is 0( 15 0.2588)Sin
1) 8 2) 7 3) Sin(150) 4) 1.93
53. Two mirrors labelled 1L for left mirror and 2L for right mirror in
the figure are parallel to each other and m apart. A person
standing 1.0 m from the right mirror 2L looks into this mirror
and sees a series of images. The second nearest image in the right
mirror is situated at a distance
1) 2.0 m from the person 2) 4.0 m from the person
3) 6.0 m from the person 4) 8.0 m from the person
54. Two bodies A and B are moving towards a plane mirror with
speeds AV and BV respectively as shown in the figure. The speed
of image of A with respect to the body B is
1) A BV V 2)
A BV V 3)
2 2
A BV V 4)
2 2
A BV V
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55. Two plane mirrors are at an angle of 030 . Find the deviation
produced in the ray after 3 successive reflections as shown in
figure.
1) 800 2) 1600 3) 2000 4) 1000
56. The weight of a body in water is one third of its weight in air
density of body is? 2 0
1H
gm
cc
1) 0.6gm
cc 2)
0.8gm
cc 3)
1.5gm
cc 4) none of the above
57. A point object is moving with a speed 2cms-1 in front of a combination of two plane mirrors as shown in the figure. The magnitude of velocity of image in mirror M1 with respect to image
formed by mirror M2.
1) 2 cms-1 2) 2 3 cms-1 3) 4 cms-1 4) 8 cms-1
58. A cubic body floats on mercury with 0.25 of its volume below the surface. What fraction of the volume of the body will be immersed in the mercury if a layer of water poured on the top of mercury
that covers the body completely 2
16 / , 1Hg H o
gmgm cc
cc
1) 0.4 2) 0.3 3) 0.2 4) None 59. A light ray is incident on a plane mirror M. The mirror is rotated in
the direction shown with angular velocity 18 rads-1. Find the
speed of spot on the wall, when the angle of incidence is 370. (sin
370=3/5)
1) 1000 m/s 2) 1500 m/s 3) 500 m/s 4) 2000 m/s
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60. Which of the following graphs represents the variation of deviation ( ) with angle of incidence i incase of reflection from a plane
mirror.
1) 2)
3) 4) 61. An object is placed on the principal axis of concave mirror of focal length
10 cm, at a distance of 8.0 cm from the pole. The position of the image is
1) 20 cm 2) 40cm
3) 60 cm 4) 80 cm
62. The focal length of a concave mirror is 12 cm. Where should an object of
length 4 cm be placed so that 1cm long image is formed.
1) 48 cm 2) 30 cm
3) 60 cm 4) 15 cm
63. A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex mirror of
focal length 20 cm. The image will be formed at
1) Infinity 2) Focus
3) 15 cm behind mirror 4) 10 cm behind mirror
64. When an object lies at focus of a concave mirror, then the position of the
image formed and its magnification are
1) Pole and unity 2) Infinity and unity
3) Infinity and infinity 4) Centre of curvature & unity
65. Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected by a mirror and going as A'
and B'. The mirror
1) is plane 2) is convex
3) is concave 4) may be any spherical mirror
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66. An object is 30 cm from a spherical mirror, along the central axis. The
absolute value of lateral magnification is 1
2. The image produced is
inverted. What is the focal length of the mirror ?
1) 20 cm 2) -10 cm
3) 15 cm 4) -5 cm
67. In image formation from spherical mirror, only paraxial rays are considered
because they
1) Are easy to handle geometrically 2) Contain most of the intensity of
the incident light
3) Form nearly a point image of a
point source
4) Show minimum dispersion effect.
68. How far should an object be from a concave spherical mirror of radius
36cm to form a real image one – ninth of its size ?
1) 180 cm 2) 90 cm
3) 180 m 4) 90 m
69. A concave mirror having a radius of curvature 40 cm is placed infront of a
illuminated point source at a distance of 30 cm from it. The image
distance is
1) 40 cm 2) 50 cm
3) 60 cm 4) 70 cm
70. An object is placed at 10cm infront of a concave mirror of radius of
curvature 15 cm the position of image (v) and its magnification (m) are
1) v= 30cm, m=3 (real , inverted) 2) v=20cm, m=3 ( virtual, erect)
3) v= 10 cm, same size (real, inverted) 4) v=10 cm, same size ( virtual, erect)
71. A spherical mirror forms an image of magnification 3. The object distance,
if focal length of mirror is 24 cm
1) 32 cm & 24 cm 2) 32 cm & 16 cm
3) 32 cm only 4) 16 cm only
72. An object is 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm. The image
formed by the mirror is
1) Real and 20 cm from the mirror 2) Virtual and 20 cm from the mirror
3) Virtual and
20
3 cm from the mirror
4) Real and at
20
3 cm from the
mirror
73. A U - shaped wire is placed before a concave mirror having radius of
curvature 20 cm as shown in figure. Find the total length of the image.
1) 20 cm 2) 10 cm
3) 30 cm 4) 40 cm
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74. A person looks into spherical mirror . The size of image of his face is twice
the actual size of his face. If the face is at a distance of 20 cm. Then find
radius of curvature of the mirror ?
1) 40cm 2) 60cm
3) 80 cm 4) 100 cm
75. An image of a candle on a screen is found to be doubled its size. When the
candle is shifted by a distance of 5 cm, then the image becomes triple its
size the radius of curvature of the mirror is
1) 30 cm 2) 40 cm
3) 50 cm 4) 60 cm
76. An object of length 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 1.5f from a concave
mirror where f is the magnitude of focal length of the mirror. The length
of the object is perpendicular to the principal axis. The length of the image
is
1) -2.5 cm 2) – 5 cm
3) - 10 cm 4) – 15 cm
77. Figure shows a spherical concave mirror with its pole at ( 0, 0) and
principal axis along x- axis there is a point object at ( -40 cm , 1cm ) the
position of image in co-ordination from is
1) 7 7
,40 1cm cm
2) 40 1
,7 7cm cm
3) 80 10,
7 7cm cm
4) 80 10
,7 7cm cm
78. A point object is placed 60 cm from the pole of a concave mirror of focal
length 10 cm on the principal axis. The image is located at
1) -6 cm 2) -12 cm
3) -24 cm 4) -48 cm
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79. A concave mirror is of focal length 20 cm. A real object is placed at a
distance of 20 cm infront of the mirror from the pole. The mirror produces
an image at
1) Infinity 2) 20 cm
3) 40 cm 4) 10 cm
80. The distance between a real object and image in a convex mirror of focal
length 12 cm is 32 cm the size of the image if the object size is 1 cm
1) 1/2 cm 2) 1/3 cm
3) 2/3 cm 4) 1 cm
VIII_PHYSICS_SHP_TERM_I_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 3 3 1 4 4 1 4 2 4 1
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 2 2 1 4 4 2 1 1 1 3
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 3
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 2 1 2 3 3 4 2 2 3 3
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 2 3 4 4 1 1 2 1 1 4
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 1 4 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 1
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 2 3 4 3 1 2 3 1 3 1
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 2 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 2
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CHEMISTRY (Q.No.1 TO 80)
1. What is the formula charge of carbon atom in carbonate ( 2
3CO ).
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
2. What is the formula charge of sulphur atom in per-oxosulphate (2
5SO ).
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3 3. Lewis structure of the elements M and Z are shown below.
M Z
Compound formed is
1) 5 3M Z 2) 2 3M Z 3) MZ 4) 3MZ
4. Out of the following, maximum covalent nature is in 1) NaF 2) MgO 3) AIN 4) SiC
5. Covalent nature of NaF, 2Na Oand 3Na N in the increasing order is
1) 3 2Na N Na O NaF 2) 2 3NaF Na O Na N
3) 2 3Na O NaF Na N 4) 2 3Na O Na N NaF
6. Solubility of CuS (I), ZnS (II) and 2Na S (III) in water is in the order
1) I<II<III 2) III<I<II 3) II<I<III 4) III<II<I 7. Which pair is not in the correct order of lattice energy? 1) KCI MgO 2) AIN MgO
3) 3 3BeCO MgCO 4) 3 3BeCO MgCO
8. Out of the following ions, which pair will make the compound
most covalent? 2 3 4 2 3 4Na ,Mg ,Al ,Si ,F ,O ,N ,C
1) Na ,F 2) 2 2Mg ,O 3) 3 3Al ,N 4) 4 4Si ,C
9. Which of the following can be calculated based on Born-Haber
cycle of formation of a lattice A B (S) from A(S) and B(g)?
1) Lattice energy of A B (S) 2) Electron affinity of B (g)
3) Ionization energy of A (s) 4) All of these 10. Maximum convalency is equal to the number 1) Paired p-electrons 2) Unpaired s-electrons 3) Unpaired s and p-electrons 4) s-and p-electrons in the valence shells 11. Which of the following has incomplete octet?
1) 3NH 2) 3BCl 3) 4CCl 4) 3PCl
12. Covalency of carbon in CO is three because 1) An unexcited carbon atom has two unpaired electrons 2) The C-atom can be an acceptor of an electron pair 3) The C-atom has four valence electrons 4) The maximum covalency of carbon is three 13. Expansion of octet cannot take place in 1) N 2) S 3) Si 4) P 14. Octer rule is not followed in
1) 4 2 4 2 5CCl ,N O ,N O 2) 3 2 2BF ,BeCl ,NO
3) 2NaCl,MgCl ,MgO 4) 3 3 2PCl ,NH ,H O
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15. Which property could describe a covalent compound? 1) It is conducting in molten (fused) state 2) It is a gas at room temperature 3) It is composed of metal and non-metal 4) It is a solid with high melting point
16. Electron dot structure of 2SO is given below
O S O
Formal charges on each atom are
1) O left S O right
1 0 1 2)
O left S O right
1 0 0
3) O left S O right
1 0 1 4)
O left S O right
0 0 0
17. Out of the following two structures of 2N O , which is more
accurate?
N N O N N O
i ii 1) I 2) II 3) Both equally 4) None of the above 18. Which one of the following has the largest lattice energy? 1) LiF 2) NaF 3) CaF2 4) AlF3 19. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing lattice
energy: NaF, CaO, CsI 1) CsI < NaF < CaO 2) CaO < CsI < NaF 3) CsI < CaO <NaF 4) CaO < NaF < CsI 20. What is the lattice energy of AgCl using the following data:
Ag(s)Ag(g);ΔH=+284kJ/mol Ag(g)Ag+(g)+e-;ΔH=+731kJ/mol Cl2(g)2Cl(g);ΔH=+244kJ/mol Cl(g)+e-Cl-(g);ΔH=-349kJ/mol
Ag(s) + 1/2 Cl2(g) AgCl(s); ΔH = -127 kJ/mol 1) 91.5 kJ/mol 2) 915 kJ/mol 3) -91.5 kJ/mol 4) -915 kJ/mol
21. Potassium permanganate, KMnO4, at one time was used for an
anti-fungal agent. You could always tell someone who had just
been treated because their feet were purple. The pharmacy gives
you 250 grams of the stuff in a bottle. How many moles of it do
you have?
(At.wt of K=39.10, At.wt of Mn = 54.94 , At.wt of O = 16.00 )
1)158.04mol 2)15.8mol 3)0.158mol 4)1.58mol
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22. Two flasks A and B of equal capacity contain 10g of oxygen and
10g of ozone (O3) respectively. Which will have more number of
molecules?
1)Flask A will be more than those in flask B
2)Flask B will be more than those in flask A
3)Both Flask A and flask B are same
4)None
23. If grams atomic weight of Ag is 108 grams then what is weight of
one Ag atom?
1)6.023x10-23 grams 2)17.93x10-23grams
3)17.93x1023 grams 4)6.023x1023 grams
24. Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridization
2 2 Sp Sp Sp Sp from left to right?
1) 2CH C CH CH 2) 3HC C CH CH
3) 2 2CH C C CH 4) 2 2H C CH
25. Which of the following is incorrect regarding covalent character
1) 2 4GeCl <GeCl 2)NaCl>NaI 3) 2 4PbCl <PbCl 4)NaCl<CuCl
26. A molecule 2XY contains two sigma bonds, Two Pi bonds and one
lone pair of electrons in the valence shell of X, the shape of molecule is ?
1)Linear 2)Angular 3)Tetrahedral 4)Pyramidal
27. The ratio of hybrid and un hybridized orbitals involved with
bonding of a
H
HH
HH
H (benzene )molecule is
1)3:2 2)1:1 3)3:1 4)1:3
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28. The oxidation number of manganese in sodium manganate is
1) +7 2) +6
3) +4 4) +2
29. The oxidation states of s-atoms in Caro’s acid 2 5( )H SO and Marshell’s
acid 2 2 8( )H S O are
1) +6, +6 2) +6, +4
3) +6, -6 4) +4, +6
30. Which of the following is Gaseous reducing Agent?
1) 3HNO 2)
2H
3) Carbon 4) 2SnCl
31. Chlorine has two different Oxidation numbers in
1) 2 6Cl O 2)
2Cl O
3) 2CaOCl 4)
2 7Cl O
32. Phosphorous has the Oxidation state of +1 in
1) Ortho phosphoric acid 2) phosphorous acid
3) Hypo phosphorous acid 4) Meta phosphoric acid
33. The Oxidation state of the most electron affinity atom in each of the
product of the following reaction is 33 2HOCl HCl HClO
1) 1, 3 2) 5, 1
3) 1, 5 4) 1, 1
34. In the reaction of chlorine with dry slaked lime, the oxidation number
of chlorine changes,
1) from zero to -1 2) from zero to +1
3) from zero to zero 4) Both 1and 2
35. The oxidation states of the most electronegative element in the
products of reaction between 2BaO & dilute 2 4H SO are
1) 0 and -1 2) –1 and -2
3) -2 and -2 4) -2 and 0
36. 2 3 23 6 5 3Cl NaOH NaCl NaClO H O , In this reaction chlorine gets
1) Oxidized 2) Reduced
3) Both 1&2 4) reaction doesn’t takes place
37. The oxidation number of metals in sodium Amalgam are
1) +1, -1 2) +1, +1
3) -1, 0 4) 0, 0
38. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions 2 2 2
3 2 4 2 6, SO S O and S O follow
the order
1) 2 2 2
2 4 3 2 6
S O SO S O 2) 2 2 2
3 2 4 2 6
SO S O S O
3) 2 2 2
2 4 2 6 3
S O S O SO 4) 2 2 2
2 6 2 4 3
S O S O SO
39. In the following reactions, which one does not involve either oxidation
or reduction.
1) 2 2 3
VO V O 2) 2
2 2 3VO V O
3) 2 2
4 2 7CrO Cr O
4) 2Zn Zn
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40. Possible oxidation states of sulphur in its compounds are
1) +6 2) +4
3) 0 4) All of these
41. Peroxy linkage can be observed in
i) 5CrO ii) 2 2 8H S O
iii) 2BaO iv) 3CrO
1) Only i, ii and iv 2) Only i, iv
3) Only i, iii and iv 4) Only i, ii and iii
42. What is the oxidation number of middle Bromine atom in 3 8BrO
1) +6 2) +4
3) +7 4) -1
43. One mole of Hydrazine loses 10 moles of electrons, If all the nitrogen
content is present in the product. What is the oxidation number of
Nitrogen in the product (there is no change in the oxidation number of
the hydrogen.)
1) -3 2) -5
3) +3 4) +5
44. Which of the following are reducing agents
1) 2SnCl 2)
2H S
3) 3NH 4) All of these
45. Which of the following are oxidizing agents
i) 4PbO ii) 2MnO
iii)
2HNO
iv) 3KClO
1) Only i, ii and iii 2) Only ii and iii
3) Only i, ii and iv 4) Only i, iii and iv
46. A sample of municipal water contains one part of urea [m.wt-60] per
million parts of water by weight. the number of urea molecules in a
drop of water of volume 0.05 ml is
1) 142.5 10 2) 145 10
3) 135 10 4) 155 10
47. Analysis of chlorophyll shows that it contains 2.68%Mg.number of
magnesium atoms present in 2.4 grams of chlorophyll is
1) 212.68 6 10 2) 232.68 6 10
3) 202.68 6 10 4) 222.68 6 10
48. Following types of overlapping can take place in the formation of bonds.
Strength of bonds formed by these types of overlapping is 1)i<iii<ii<iv 2)i<ii<iii<iv 3)iv<iii<ii<i 4)iv<i=iii<ii 49. Select the correct statement about valence bond approach. 1)Each bond is formed by maximum overlap for its maximum stability 2)It represents localized electron model of bonding 3)Most of the electrons retain the same orbital locations as in separated
atoms 4)All of the above are correct statements
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50. 4 3 2CH ,NH andH Oare isoelectronic but not isostructured. Taking A as
the a central atom, X as other bonding atoms and E the lone pairs, then they are represented as
1) 4 3 2
4 3 2
CH NH H O
AX AX AX 2)
4 3 2
4 3 2 2
CH NH H O
AX AX E AX E
3) 4 3 2
4 3 2
CH NH H O
AX AX E AX 4)
4 3 2
4 3 2
CH NH H O
AX AX E AX E
51. Which of the following sequences shows the correct bond angle order for
isoelectronic species 3 2O ,NO and NOF ?
1)2 3NO NOF O 2)
3 2O NO NOF
3)2 3NOF NO O 4)Cannot be predicted
52. Molecular shape of 4 4 4CF ,SF and XeF are
1)The same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
2) The same with 1,1 and 1 lone pair of electrons
3) Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons
4) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons
53. Two of the following species have same shape 2
3 3 3 3Nl , l ,SO ,NO .These are
1)3 3Nl , l 2) 2
3 3Nl ,SO 3) 2
3 3SO ,NO 4)3 3l ,NO
54. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is
1) 2 3 4ClO ClO ClO 2) 2 4 3ClO ClO ClO
3) 4 3 2ClO ClO ClO 4)Equal since each Cl atom is 3Sp -hybridised
55. Bell metal contain 80% copper. The mass of bell metal which contains 201.5 10 atoms of copper is [Cu=63.5]
1) 2mg 2) 20mg
3) 200mg 4) 2000mg
56. How many molecules of water is evolved when 387 gms of Gypsum
( 4 2CaSO .2H O ) is completely decomposed
1) 2327.09 10 molecules 2) 2367.5 10 molecules
3) 2313.5 10 molecules 4) 2312 10 molecules
57. No.of oxygen atoms present in 44gms of 2CO
1) 241.2 10 atoms 2) 236.023 10 atoms
3) 2318 10 atoms 4) 2318 10 atoms
58. Isostructural species are those which have the same shape and
hybridisation. Among the given species identify the isostructural pairs.
1) [NF3 and BF3] 2) [ 4BF and 4NH
]
3) [BCl3 and BrCl3] 4) [NH3 and 3NO ]
59. The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in 2 3 4NO ,NO and NH respectively
are expected to be
1) 3 2sp,sp andsp 2) 2 3sp,sp andsp
3) 2 3sp ,spandsp
4) 2 3sp ,sp andsp
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60. Out of the following
2
3 3 3 3NO ,CO ,ClO andSO .
Isostructural and isoelectronic species are
1) 2
3 3NO ,CO 2)
3 3SO ,NO
3) 2
3 3C O ,COl 4) 2
3 3CO ,SO
61. which of the following statement regarding valence bond theory (VBT) is
not true?
1) a molecule is considered to be a
collection of atoms, and then
interactions between different
atoms is considered
2) For a molecule to be stable, the
electrostatic attractions must
predominate over the repulsion.
3) The potential energy of a diatomic
molecule is less than the sum of
potential energies of free atoms
4) The net force of alteration acting on
the atoms in a molecule is not zero.
62. In which of the following species, the central atom has the type of
hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three?
1) 5PCl 2)
4SF
3) 3I 4)
6SbCl
63. 3BF is electron deficient (Lewis acid) and 3NH is electron-rich (Lewis acid).
In 1:1 complex of 3 3BF andNH , then coordination geometry and
hybridization of N and B atoms are:
1) N = tetrahedral, sp3
B = tetrahedral, sp3
2) N = pyramidal, sp3
B = pyramidal, sp3
3) N = pyramidal, sp3
B = planar, sp2
4) N = pyramidal, sp3
B = tetrahedral, sp3
64. The ratio of pure orbitals to hybrid orbitals in ethane (C2H6) molecule is
1) 1:2 2) 2:3
3) 4:3 4) 3:4
65. The hybridization of carbon in HCN molecule is
1) Sp 2) Sp3
3) Sp2
4) Sp3d2
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66. The shape of BeCl2 molecule is
1) Trigonal planar 2) Linear
3) Tetrahedral 4) Pyramidal
67. The number of hybrid orbitals present in CH3 – C ≡ CH
1) 8 2) 6
3) 4 4) 2
68. Sp2 hybridization shown by
1) BeCl2 2) BF3
3) NH3 4) XeF3
69. Which of the following statements are true?
I) Hybridization of 4NH is Sp3
II) The concept of hybridization was introduced by Pauling
III) The shape of 2CO molecule is Linear.
IV)The bond angle between Sp3 hybrid orbitals is 1090.28′
1) Only I and II 2) Only I,II and III
3) Only II and III 4) I,II,III and IV
70. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1) CO2 – SP2 2) C2H4 – Sp
3) H3O+ - Sp3 4) NH3- Sp2
71. The mode of hybridisation of central carbon in C3O2 is
1) sp 2) sp3
3) sp2 4) 3sp d
72. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the oxygen atom in Cl2O molecule is
1) sp3 2) sp2
3) sp 4) 3 2sp d
73. 38 grams of Fluorine contains (atomic weight of fluorine is 19)
1) 4 gram atoms of fluorine 2) 1 moles of fluorine
3) 12 x 1023 fluorine molecules 4) all the above
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74. The no. of gram atoms present in 20 gms of Ca CO3 are
1) 5 2) 0.5
3) 1.0 4) 0.02
75. The mass of one oxygen molecule is
1) 2.656 × 10-23 2) 5.312 × 10-23 gm
3) 1.66 × 1024 gm 4) 32 gm
76. The weight of 8gm. atoms of nitrogen is
1) 56 gms. 2) 112 gms.
3) 42 gms. 4) 28 gms.
77. Volume occupied by 44 g of 2CO is
1) 2240 lit at STP 2) 2.24 lit at STP
3) 22.4 lit at STP 4) 224 lit at STP
78. Which of the following is correct?
1) Molecular weight of oxygen is 48. 2) Gram molecular mass of sulphur
(S8) is 256 g.
3) The weight of one molecule of O3 is
48 amu.
4) Both 2 and 3
79. The number of oxygen atoms in 88g CO2 are
1) 2.40 x 1023 2) 24.08 x 1024
3) 24.08 x 1023 4) 24.08 x 1022
80. The number of moles of a gas in 1 m3 of volume at NTP is
1) 0.446 2) 4.46
3) 1.464 4) 44.6
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VIII_CHEMISTRY_SHP_E4 & E5_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 1 1 3 4 2 1 4 4 4 4
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 4 1 4
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 4 1 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 2
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 4
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 2
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 1
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 4 4 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 3
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 1 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 3 4
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(OLYMPIAD AND E-TECHNO)
SIMPLE HOLIDAY PACKAGE PONGAL
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
CLASS – VIII E1– E3
VIII_MPC_E1 to E3_SHP
INDEX
SUBJECT PAGE NO.
1. MATHEMATHICS 2 - 12
2. PHYSICS 13 - 26
3. CHEMISTRY 27 - 34
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MATHEMATHICS ( Q.NO.1 TO 80)
1. If AB || CF and BC || ED, then which of the following is not
correct ?
1) ABC = CDE 2) FDE = FDG
3) ABC = FDG 4) all of these
2. If (6x + 20o), (9y + 30o) and (3z + 40o) form a complete angle, then
which of the following relationship is correct between x, y and z
are
1) 3x + 2y + 3z = 90° 2) 2x + 3y + z = 90°
3) x + 2y + 3z = 90° 4) x + y + 3z = 90°
3. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC and C = 40º. BD is the
bisector of ABC intersects AC at D and AE is perpendicular to BD, then
EAD is
1) 20º 2) 25º 3) 30º 4) 35º
4. The side of the largest possible regular octagon that can be cut out of a
square of side 1cm is
1) 2 1cm 2)
1cm
2 2 3)
1
cm2 1
4) None
5. Triangles ABC and ABD are isosceles with AB = AC = BD, and BD
intersects AC at E. If BD AC , then C D is
1) 115° 2) 120° 3) 130° 4) 135°
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6. In the below figure AB QS CD, PAB = 600 and DCR = 600, then
QXY + QYX =
1) 900 2) 600 3) 800 4) 1000
7. A regular pentagon is a five sided figure which has all of its angles
equal and all of its side lengths equal. In the diagram, TREND is a
regular pentagon, PEA is an equilateral triangle, an OPEN is a
square. Then PER is
1) 1620 2) 460 3) 280 4) 390
8. The value of x0 that will make PQ parallel to RS is
1) 170 2) 500 3) 130 4) 270
9. The interior angles of a pentagon are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 : 5 : 6
respectively. Then sum of the first and third angles is
1) 900 2) 1400 3) 1350 4) 1620
10. Exterior angle of a regular polygon measures 10 degrees where
is a natural number. Then
1) There is no such 2) There are infinitely many such
3) There are precisely nine such 4) There are precisely seven such
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11. Four angles of a nonagon are 50°, 60°, 70°, 40° respectively. And
all the other angles are equal. Then the measure of each one of the
equal angles is
1) 220° 2) 208° 3) 240° 4) 260°
12. Which of the following statement is wrong?
1) The measure of each exterior angle of a regular polygon0360
n
2) The ratio of the sides of a polygon to the diagonals of a polygon is
3: n 3
3) The ratio of the interior angle of a regular polygon to its exterior
angle is n 2 : 2
4) The sum of all the interior angles of any polygon 02n 4 90
13. The measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon of 6 sides.
1) 110º 2) 140 º 3) 120º 4) 108º
14. One of the interior angle of a Regular Polygon is 1200, then the
number sides of regular polygon are
1) 5 2) 4 3) 7 4)6
15. In the above figure, PQS SRQ, QPR SQR U is a point on QR
such that 0QPU = 30 . thenQUP is
1) 400 2) 500 3) 600 4) 700
16. In the given figure, which of the following is false?
1) x = 109° 2) y = 34° 3) x = 71° 4) none
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17. In a 0, 90 ,ABC A AL is drawn perpendicular to BC. Then BAL is
equal to :
1) ALC 2) ACB 3) BAC 4) B BAL
18. OB and OC are respectively the bisectors of ABC and .ACB Then
BOC is equal to :
1) 0 190
2A 2) 090 A 3) 0 1
902
A 4) 0 1180
2A
19. In figure, sides AB and AC of a ABC are produced to P and Q
respectively. The bisectors of PBC and QCB intersect at O . Then
BOC is equal to:
1) 0 190
2BAC 2) 1
2PBC QCB
3) 0 190
2BAC 4)none of these
20. Statement - I :In the triangle ABC, BC = CD and (ABC –BAC) =
30°.The measure of ABD is 15°
Statement - II :If the equal sides of an isosceles triangle are
produced, the exterior angles are equal.
1) Both statements - I and statement - II are true
2) Both statements - I and statement - II are false
3) Statement - I is true and statement - II is false
4) Statement - I is false and statement - II is true
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21. In the given figure AB =BC and AC =CD , IfBAD = yand ADB = x ,
theny =
1) x 2) 2x 3) 3x 4) None
22. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 140°, then the number of
diagonals are
1) 135 2) 27
3) 60 4) 54
23. Exterior angle of a regular polygon measures 6 degrees where is a
natural number. Then
1) There is no such 2) There are infinitely many such
3) There are precisely ten such 4) none
24. Let ABCD be a rectangle with AB = a and BC = b. Suppose r1 is the radius
of the circle passing through A and B and touching CD, and similarly r2
is the radius of the circle passing through B and C and touching AD.
Then r1 + r
2 is
1) 5a+b
8
2) 5(a b)
8
3) 5(a b)
8
4) none
25. In ADE, ADE = 140°and the points B, C lie on sides AD,
AE respectively and points A, B, C, D, E are distinct. If
lengths AB, BC, CD and DE are all equal, then the
measure of EAD is
1) 5° 2) 6°
3) 7.5° 4) 10°
26. In the figure || ||AD EF BC if EB=2AE and DF=2.5cm then the length of
FC is
1) 5cm 2) 2.5cm
3) 0.5cm 4) 10cm.
27. A circular park of radius 20 m is situated in a colony. Three boys.
Ankur, Syed and David are sitting at equal distance on its boundary
each having a toy telephone in his hands to talk to each other. Then
the length of the string of each phone is
1) 20 3 m 2) 10 3 m
3) 10m 4) 20m
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30. The roots of 242 x x 0 are
1) 2,–6 2) –2,6 3) 2,6 4) 6,–7
31. If 1 x 1 x3 3 10 then the values of x are
1) 1,-1 2) 1,0 3) 1,2 4) -1,-2
32. The nature of the roots of the equation 2x 5x 5 0 are
1) Real and rational 2) Real and irrational
3) Real and equal 4) none
33. If 215 28 x x then x
1) 7/5 2) -4/3 3) both(1)&(2) 4) 2/3
34. In a quadratic equation 2 0ax bx c if ‘a’ and ‘c’ are of opposite
signs and ‘b’ is real, then roots of the equation are
1) real and distinct 2) real and equal
3) Imaginary 4) both roots positive
35. Solve the following quadratic equation :
If 2 2 23 8 4 0, 0. a x abx b a Then x=
1) -2b/a 2) 2b/a 3) 2b/3a 4) b/3a
36. Solve for x : 2 2 29 9 2 5 2 0x a b x a ab b
1) 2
3
a b 2)
2
3
a b
3) 2
3
a b 4) both (1)&(2)
28. In the given figure, two circles with centres A and B and of radii 5cm
and 3 cm touch each other internally. If the perpendicular bisector of
segment AB meets the bigger circle in P and Q. Then the length of PQ is
1) 2cm 2) 4 6 cm
3) 2 2 cm 4) 4 2 cm
29. Two chords AB and CD of lengths 5 cm and 11 cm respectively of a
circle are parallel to each other and are opposite side of its centre. If
the distance between AB and CD is 6 cm, then the radius of the circle is
1) 3 3 cm. 2) 5 cm
3) 5 5
2cm
4) 5 5 cm.
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37. If x 5 5 5 ........... , then the value of x is
1) 1 21
2
2) -1 3) 0 4)
1 21
2
38. Statement I: If 27x 6x 13 7 0 , then 13 7
x , 77
Statement II: If 2ax bx c 0; a,b,c R, a 0, then
2b b 4ac
x2a
1) Both Statements are true
2) Both Statements are false
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
39. Sum of roots of the equation 22x 4x 3 0 is
1) 32
2) –2 3) 32
4) 2
40. The quadratic equation whose roots are 2,1 is
1) 2x 2x 1 0 2) 2x 3x 2 0
3) 2x 3x 2 0 4) 2x 3x 2 0
41. Quadratic equation whose roots are 2, 3 2 is
1) 2x 2 3 2 x 6 2 0 2) 2x 2 3 2 x 6 2 0
3) 2x 2 3 2 x 6 2 0 4) 2x 2 3 2 x 6 2 0
42. If , are roots of 2x 3x 5 0 , then 2 2 =
1) 5 2) 9 3) 25 4) 30
43. If , are the roots 2 0ax bx c of then 2 2
1 1
1) 2
2
2b ac
a 2)
bc
3) 2
2
2b ac
c 4)
2 2b ac
ac
44. If , are roots of 2 1 0x k x c then 1 1
1) C 2) 1 3) 1 – c+k 4) 1 - c
45. If 4 , 2 then 3 3
1) 8 2) 2 3) 12 4) none
46. The value of k, if the equation 2 22 1 0x k x k has equal roots is
1) -1/2 2) -3/4 3) 3/4 4) 2/3
47. If (3 + i ) is a root of the equation 2 0x ax b then a is
1) 3 2) -3 3) 6 4) -6
48. If are the roots of 2x x 1 0,then
1)
1 2)
2 2
1 11 3)
1 4) none
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49. If , are the roots of the equation 2ax bx c 0 then
b c;a a
. Then 2 2 is
1)
2b
a 2)
2b 2c
a a 3)
2b c
a a 4)
2
2
b ac
a
50. If 1 x 1 x5 5 26 , then the sum of the roots is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4
51. For what values of k, does the following quadratic equation have
equal roots ?
24 1 1 0k x k x
1) 2 2) -5 3) 3 4) 5
52. In the below triangle ABC, B = 700, C = 500 and AD is the bisector of
A. Then which of the following is false?
1) AB > AD 2) AD > CD 3) AB < AD 4) both (1) and (2)
53. In the given figure, AB = CD, BAC = ACD = 10°, CAD = 85°, then
ABC is
1) 50° 2) 65° 3) 75° 4) 85°
54. In ABC ‘O’ is the orthocentre and BOC=2 A . Then BOC is
1) 2) 600 3) 900 4) 1000
A
B C
D
0120
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55. In the given figure CAB = 1
ACD2 , BAD = 85° and
ADC = 40°, then ACB =
1) 45° 2) 55° 3) 70° 4) 60°
56. In ABC,DEF are midpoint of sides AB, BC and CA respectively.
If Ar 11gm DECF 34 sq. cm then Ar DEB
1) 9 sq cm 2) 17 sq cm 3) 8.5 sq cm 4) 36 sq cm
57. Statement I: If two medians of a triangle are equal, then the triangle is
scalene.
Statement II: If a transversal intersects by two parallel lines then
vertically opposite angles are equal.
1) Both statements I and II are true
2) Both statements I and II are false
3) Statement – I is true but statement – II is false
4) Statement– I is false but statement – II is true
58. D is the midpoint of the side BC of a ABC and E is the mid-point of BD.
If O be the mid point of AE, then area of a BOE is
1) 2)
3) 4)
59. In a ABC , the bisectors of B and C intersect each other at a point
O. Then BOC =.
1) 0 190 A
2 2) 0 1
90 A2
3) 090 A 4) 090 A
60. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which0 0 080 , 110 , 80 A B C and D
1) 900 2) 1700
3) 1350 4) 1300
61. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which A= 2x+200, B = 5x+80,
C = 3x+100, D = x+30, then the value of x is
1) 470 2) 290
3) 430 4) 270
A
B DC
)ABC(ar4
1 )ABC(ar
8
1
)ABC(ar16
1 )ABC(ar
32
1
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62. ABCD is a trapezium. AB//CD, E & F are midpoints on AD and BC. If AB
= 20cm,CD = 6cm, then EF is
1) 12cm 2) 13cm
3) 8cm 4) 24cm
63. In a quadrilateral, three angles are 0 0 0100 ,65 ,55 then the fourth angle is
1) 1400 2) 1350
3) 1200 4) 1500
64. ABCD is a parallelogram, AB = 6cm, BC = 4cm, then the value of
is
1) 92 2) 104
3) 72 4) none
65. In a parallelogram ABCD, A = x + 13, B = 2x + 17, then D is
1) 1170 2) 730
3) 340 4) 630
66. In a rectangle ABCD. If AB = 7cm, BC = 24cm, then AC is
1) 9cm 2) 5cm
3) 3cm 4) 25cm
67. ABCD is a rectangle. O is the interior point of a rectangle. If OA = 9cm,
OC = 40cm, then 2 2OB OD is
1) 1681 2) 1460
3) 1545 4) none
68. ABCD is a rhombus AC and BD are diagonals. If AC = 40cm, BD = 30cm,
then the area of the rhombus is
1) 350sqcm 2) 600sqcm
3) 250sqcm 4) 300sqcm
69. In a parallelogram ABCD 02 40 A x and 0120C x then x in degrees
1) 600 2) 900
3) 800 4) 1500
70. In a Rhombus ABCD the diagonal AC bisects ,A C and the diagonal BD
bisects
1) ,A B 2) ,C D
3) ,B D 4) ,C A
71. In a parallelogram ABCD if 0115A then which of the following is true?
1) 0 0 065 , 115 , 65B C D 2) 0 0 0115 , 65 , 65B C D
3) 0 0115 , 65C B D 4) Both (1)&(3)
72. Statement-I: In a parallelogram the sum of any two adjacent angles is
equal to 1800
Statement-II: In a parallelogram ABCD, if 0180A B then0180A D , 0180C D , 0180B C
1) Both statements I and II are true 2) Both statements I and II are false
3) Statement – I is true but
statement – II is false
4) Statement – I is false but statement – II
is true
2 2AC BD
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73. In the given figure ABCD is a rectangle whose diagonals AC and BD
intersect at ‘O’ if 0OAB 32 . Then the value of ACB =
1) 058 2) 090
3) 060 4) 030
74. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are AC=28 cm and BD=18 cm respectively. Then area of the rhombus is
1) 216 cm2 2) 316 cm2 3) 416 cm2 4)252 cm2
75. ABCD is a rhombus with 056 ,ABC then ACD is equal to
1)
090 2) 060 3)
056 4)062
76. The measure of each angle of a parallelogram, if one of its angles is 030 less than twice the smallest angle is
1) 0 0 0 060 ,100 ,90 ,20 2)
0 0 0 080 ,40 ,120 ,90
3) 0 0 0 0100 ,90 ,90 ,80 4)
0 0 0 070 ,110 ,70 ,110
77. If ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonals bisect at right angles and ACBD, then it is a
1) Isosceles trapezium 2) Rectangle 3) Rhombus 4) Square
78. In the given figure ABCD is a rectangle whose diagonals AC and BD
intersect at ‘O’ if 0OAB 32 .The value of OBC =
1)
090 2) 060 3)
058 4) 045
79. The side of a square ABCD is 10cm and the length of a diagonal is
1) 10 2 cm 2) 2 5 cm 3) 5 2 cm 4) none
80. In the given figure, PSR = 60º and PRQ = 120º and given that RPS
= 2RPQ. Then PQR is
1) 60º 2) 50º 3) 40º 4) 30º
P T
QRS
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VIII_MATHEMATICS_SHP_E1 TO E3_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 4 2 3 1 4 2 1 3 4 4
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 1 1
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 2 4
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 1 2 3 1 1 4 4 4 4 3
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 4 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 1
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 4 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 1
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 2 2 1 2 1 4 1 2 3 3
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 4 1 1 4 4 4 3 3 1 4
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PHYSICS ( Q.NO. 1 TO 80)
1. A piece of gold-aluminium alloy weighs 100 grams in air and 80 g when immersed in water. What is the weight of gold in the alloy ? (Sp . gravity of gold = 19.3 and of aluminum =2.5).
1) 57.44 g 2) 2.5 g 3) 20 g 4) 38.6 g
2. Density of ice is 900 kg/m3. A piece of ice is floating in water (of
density 1000 kg/m3). Find the fraction of volume of the piece of ice inside the water.
1) 0.1 2) 0.9 3) 0.2 4) 0.8
3. The density of ice is 917 kgm–3. What fraction of the volume of a piece of ice will be above water, when floating in fresh water ?
1) 0.06 2) 0.083 3) 0.038 4) 0.068
4. The volume of 50g of a substance is 20cm3. If the density of water
is 31 /g cm . The substance will
1) float 2) Sink
3) Neither float nor sink 4) None of the above
5. A boy is carrying a fish in one hand and a bucket full of water in the other hand. He then places the fish in the bucket thinking that in accordance with Archimedes’s principle he is now carrying less weight as the weight of the fish will reduce due to upthrust. Is he right?
1) yes 2) No
3) cannot say 4) data insufficient
6. A body will partially float in a liquid, if the density of solid is ____________ than the density of liquid.
1) Greater 2) Less
3) Equal or less 4) Equal or greater
7. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is 3350cm . If the packet is
immersed in the water of density 31 /g cm . The mass of the water
displaced by this packet is
1) 350 g 2) 500 g
3) 1 g 4) None of the above
8. The density of ice 0.918 g /cc and that of sea water is 1.03 g/cc. An iceberg floats in water with a portion of volume 224 cc above the surface of water . Find the volume of the whole iceberg.
1) 3060 cc 2) 2060 cc 3) 4060 cc 4) 5060 cc
9. Density of ice is and that of water is . What will be the decrease in volume when mass ‘M’ of ice melts
1)
M
2)
M
3)
1 1M
4)
1 1 1
M
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10. The tension in a string holding a solid block below the surface of a liquid (or density greater than that of solid) as shown in figure is T0 when the system is rest.
What will be the tension in the string if the system has an upward
acceleration a. 1) T0 [1 – a/g] 2) T0 [1 + a/g] 3) T0 [1 – g/a] 4) T0 [1 + g/a]
11. A wooden cylinder of diameter 4r, height H and density / 3 is
kept on a hole of diameter 2r of a tank, filled with liquid of density as shown in the figure.
Now level of the liquid start decreasing slowly. When the level of liquid is at a height h1 above the cylinder the block starts moving
1) 1(A H)/g 2)
1(A g)3
3)
1(A H)g3
4)
1(A H)g2
12. A wooden cylinder of diameter 4r, height H and density / 3 is
kept on a hole of diameter 2r of a tank, filled with liquid of density as shown in the figure.
Now level of the liquid start decreasing slowly. When the level of
liquid is at a height h1 above the cylinder the block starts moving
up. Find the area of cross section (A1) of the cylinder.
1) 24 r 2) 23 r 3) 22 r 4) 2r
13. A wooden cylinder of diameter 4r, height H and density / 3 is
kept on a hole of diameter 2r of a tank, filled with liquid of density as shown in the figure.
Now level of the liquid start decreasing slowly. When the level of
liquid is at a height h1 above the cylinder the block starts moving
up. Find the area of cross section (A1) of the cylinder. Find the
area(A2) of the base of the cylinder that is exposed to air.
1) 24 r 2) 23 r 3) 22 r 4) 2r
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14. A lift is moving upwards with an acceleration of 1.2 m/s2, then the value of geff is:
1) 9.8 m/s2 2) 8.6 m/s2 3) 0 4) 11 m/s2
15. A block of mass 4kg and density 0.8 g/cm3 is held stationary with the help of a string. The tank is accelerating vertically upwards
with 1 m/s2. (g = 10 m/s2) then find up thrust.
1) 13.75 N 2) 27.50 N 3) 55 N 4) 30 N
16. A solid sphere of mass m and specific gravity s is held stationary relative to a tank filled with water as shown in fig. The tank is accelerating vertically upwards with a. Then tension in the thread connected between the sphere and the bottom of the tank is
if the thread snaps then acceleration of sphere with respect to
tank is (here F-net buoyant force , W-weight of the solid sphere)
1) F+W - ma 2) F - W
m 3) F+W +ma 4) F - mg
17. A hollow spherical body of inner and outer radii 6 cm and 8 cm respectively floats half-submerged in water. Find the density of the material of the sphere.
1) 3845 /kg m 2) 3765 /kg m 3) 3865 /kg m 4) 3665 /kg m
18. The fraction of floating object of volume v0 and density 8 g/cc
above the surface of the liquid of density 12 g/cc will be 1) 3 2) 2/3 3) 1/3 4) 3/2
19. A cylinder of area of cross section 4 cm2 and length 40 cm is
totally immersed in water (g = 10 m/s2) (density of solid = 1500
kg/m3, density of water = 1000 kg/m3) upthrust acting on the cylinder is
1) 36 N 2) 1.6 N 3) 16 N 4) 3.6 N
20. A block of mass 1 kg and density 0.6 g/cm3 is held stationary with the help of a string as shown. The tank is accelerating vertically up
with acceleration 1 ms–2. The tension in the string is
1) 7.3 N 2) 13.3 N 3) 16.3 N 4) 8.3 N
21. If refractive indices of glass and water are respectively 3 4 and 2 3
, then
the refractive index of water with respective to glass is
1) 2 2) 89
3) 98
4) 12
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22. The critical angle of a medium w.r.t. to vacuum is 300, velocity of light
in this medium in m/s is
1) 83 10 2) 82 10 3) 81.5 10 4) 80.5 10
23. The velocity of light in air is 8 13 10 ms and in glass is 8 12 10 ms .The
refractive index of air w.r.t glass is
1) 2/3 2) 3/2 3) 4/3 4) 9/4
24. A concave mirror has its radius of curvature 30 cm. The position of the
image of an object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror is
1) 30 cm 2) Infinity 3) 15 cm 4) 60 cm
25. A printed page is kept pressed by a glass cube 1.5 of edge 6 cm. By
what amount will the printed letters appears to be shifted when
viewed from the top.
1) 2 cm 2) 3 cm 3) 4 cm 4) 6 cm
26. A hollow spherical body of inner and outer radii 6 cm and 8 cm
respectively floats half-submerged in water. The density of the material
of the sphere.
1) 865 kg/m3 2) 965 kg/m3 3) 1065 kg/m3 4) 765 kg/m3
27. A man uses a concave mirror for shaving . He keeps his face at a
distance of 25 cm from the mirror and gets an image which is 1.4
times enlarged. The focal length of the image is
1) 75.5 cm 2) 68.5 cm 3) 87.5 cm 4) 94 cm
28. An object moves with 5 m/s towards right while the mirror moves 2 m/s
towards the left as shown. Then the velocity of image.
1) 9 m/s towards left 2) 9m/s towards right
3) 5 m/s towards right 4) 5 m/s towards left
29. An equilateral prism of refractive index
5
3is immersed in water
of refractive index 4
3.If a ray of light passing through the prism
undergoes minimum deviation, the angle of incidence on the
first refracting face of the prism is
1) 1 5sin
8
2) 030
3) 045 4) 1 3sin
5
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30. For a prism PQR the incident and emergent rays are parallel.
The minimum value of refractive index of the prism material is
1) 3 2) 1)5
3) 2 4) 2
31. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is placed in water of
refractive index 1.33. The minimum value of the angle of the
prism so that it will not be possible to have any emergent ray is
1) 1500 2) 1250
3) 1650 4) 1800
32. The minimum deviation produced by a hollow prism filled with
a certain liquid is found to be 030 .The light ray is also found
to be refracted at angle of 030 .The refractive index of the
liquid is
1) 2 2) 3
3) 3
2
4) 3
2
33. Three glass prisms A,B and C of same refractive index are
placed in contact with each other as shown in figure , with no
air gap between the prisms. Monochromatic ray of light OP
passes through the prism assembly and emerges as QR. The
conditions of minimum deviation is satisfied in the prisms
1) A and C 2) B and C
3) A and B 4) In all prisms A,B and C
34. Angle of prism is A and its one surface is silvered . Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at second silvered surface . Refractive index of the material of prism is
1) 2sin A 2) 2cos A
3) 1cos
2A
4) tan A
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35. For a prism of refractive index 1.732, the angle of minimum
deviation is equal to the angle of the prism . The angle of
the prism is
1) 080 2) 070
3) 060 4) 050
36. A prism of refractive index and angle A is placed in the
minimum deviation position. If the angle of minimum
deviation is A, then the value of A in terms of is
1) 1sin2
2)
1 1sin
2
3) 12cos2
4) 1cos
2
37. At the angle of minimum deviation condition of an equilateral prism
1) incident and emergent
angles are equal
2) the angle of refraction 1 2r and r are
not equal
3) refractive ray is not parallel to base of the prism
4) deviated angle is equal to incident angle
38. ABC is right angled prism. A ray (1) is incident on the face AB along the normal Another ray (2) is incident on the face AB such that it emerges normally from the face AC. Then
The minimum value of refractive index of the material of the prism for which the ray (1) under goes total internal reflection on the face AC is
1) 1 2) 2
3) 5 4) 2
39. The angle between two given refracting surfaces is called
1) Refracting edge 2) Angle of prism
3) Principal section 4) Base of the prism
40. In the case of a prism, for normal incidence
1) 1 1 2 2 2i r 0;D i A I r 2) 2 2 1 1i r 0;D i r
3) 2 1i 90 ;A r c 4)
1 2i 90 ,A r c
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41. In the case of a prism, for grazing incidence
1) 1 1 2 2 2i r 0;D i A I r 2) 2 2 1 1i r 0;D i r
3) 2 1i 90 ;A r c 4)
1 2i 90 ,A r c
42. The prism is surrounded by a medium of refractive index 1 . If
the refractive index index of the material of the prism is 2 ,
then
1)
2
1
sin2
sin2
mA
A
2)
1
2
sin2
sin2
mA
A
3)
1
sin2
sin2
mA
A
4)
2
sin2
sin2
mA
A
43. The angle between the incident ray produced and emergent ray is
1) Angle of deviation 2) Angle of incidence 3) Angle of emergence 4) Angle of refraction
44. If the angle of a prism is 800 and angle of minimum deviation is
400, then the angle of refraction in the prism will be
1) 300 2) 40°
3) 50° 4) 20°
45. A thin prism of 30 angle gives a deviation of 2.40.The value of refractive index of the material of the prism is
1) 1.6 2) 1.7 3) 1.8 4) 1.9
46. The side AC of a glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is silvered. A ray of light falls on the face AB such that it retraces its path. What is the angle of incidence, if the angle of the prism is . (sin
35º= 0.574) sin–1(0.86) =59.4º
1) 059.4 2) 064.6
3) 035 4) 072
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47. According to the refractive index of the prism ‘A’ is
1) 1 2A r r 2) 1 2A i i
3) 1 2A r r 4) 1 2A i i
48. Angle of deviation for small angled prism
1) d 1 A 2) d 1 A
3) d 1 4) d A
49. A prism produces a minimum deviation in a light beam. If three such prisms are combined, the minimum deviation produced will be
1) 4d 2) 2d
3) d 4) 0
50. If a small angled prism, made of glass is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1 and a ray of light is made incident on it, then
1) its deviation will be zero 2) it will suffer total reflection
3) the emergent ray is bent towards the edge of the
prism
4) the emergent ray is bent towards the base of prism
51. For total internal reflection to take place, the angle of incidence i and the refractive index of the medium must
satisfy; the inequality
1) 1
sin i
2) 1
sin i
3) sin i < 4) sin i >
52. The path of a refracted ray of light in a prism is parallel to the base of the prism only when the
1) light is of a particular wavelength
2) ray is incident normally at one face
3) ray undergoes minimum
deviation
4) prism is made of a particular type
of glass 53. A small object is placed 10 cm infront of a plane mirror. If you stand
behind the object 50 cm from the mirror and looks at its image, the distance focussed for your eye will be
1) 60 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 40 cm 4) 80 cm
54. A ray reflected successively from two plane mirrors inclined at a
certain angle undergoes a deviation of 0300 . The number of observable images
1) 60 2) 12
3) 11 4) 5 55. A ray of light is incident towards a plane mirror at an angle of 20-
degrees with the mirror surface. What will be the angle of reflection?
1) 600 2) 700 3) 800 4) 900
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56. Two plane mirrors are arranged at right angles to each other as shown in figure. A ray of light is incident on the horizontal mirror at angle ‘ ’ . For what value of the ray emerges parallel to the incoming ray after reflection from the vertical mirror?
1) 060 2) 030
3) 045 4) all of these
57. An object moves with 3 m/s towards right while the mirror moves 2 m/s towards the left as shown. Then the velocity of image.
1) 7 m/s towards left 2) 7m/s towards right
3) 5 m/s towards right 4) 5 m/s towards left 58. Fig. Shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incident. If the
incidenting light ray is turned by 010 and the mirror by as shown,
then the angle turned by 020 the reflected ray is
1) 030 clockwise 2) 030 anticlock wise
3) 050 clockwise 4) 050 anticlock wise
59. Two plane mirrors are at 060 to each other. If an object is placed between them, then the number of images will be
1) 5 2) 9
3) 7 4) 8
60. A man runs towards a mirror at a rate of 13 ms . If the mirror is at
rest, his image will have a velocity (with respect to man)
1) 112 ms 2) 16ms
3) 16 ms 4) 112ms
61. A concave mirror having a focal length 20 cm is placed in front
of an illuminated point source at a distance of 30 cm from it.
The location of the image is
1) 50 cm 2) 30 cm
3) 60 cm 4) 25 cm
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62. An object is placed at a distance 2 f from the pole of a convex
mirror of focal length f . The linear magnification is
1) 1
3
2) 2
3
3) 3
4
4) 1
63. When object is placed between centre of curvature (C) and focus (f) of a concave mirror the nature and size of the image is
1) real, inverted and very
small
2) real, inverted, same size of object
3) real, inverted and
bigger than the object
4) virtual, erect and enlarged
64. A U - shaped wire is placed before a concave mirror having radius of curvature 20 cm as shown in figure. The total length of the image is
1) 20 cm 2) 15 cm
3) 10 cm 4) 5 cm
65. A convex mirror is used to form an image of a real object. The wrong statement is
1) the image lies between
the pole and focus
2) the image is diminished in size
3) the image is erect 4) the image is real
66. A 3cm tall object is placed at a distance of 7. 5 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 6 cm. The size of the image is
1) 1.33 cm 2) 0.75 cm
3) 3.33 cm 4) 0.3 cm
67. The diameter of spherical mirror in which reflection takes place is called
1) radius of curvature 2) centre of curvature
3) linear aperture 4) focal length
68. In which of the following case the image formed by a convex mirror of real object is larger than the object?.
1) When u 2f 2) When u 2f
3) for all values of u 4) for no value of u
69. A spherical mirror whose inner hollow surface is the reflecting surface is called
1) concave mirror 2) convex mirror
3) plane mirror 4) none of these
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70. When a convex mirror of focal length ‘ f’ produces an image equal
to
1th
n of the size of the object, then distance of the object
from the mirror is
1) f
n
2) n 1 f
3) n 1 f 4) fn
71. Which of the following forms a virtual and erect image for all
positions of a real object?
A) plane mirror B) convex mirror
1) Both A and B 2) Only A
3) Only B 4) Neither A nor B
72. For a concave mirror of radius of curvature is 36 cm, if object
distance is u 18 cm then the image formed is
1) Real image, erect
image
2) Real image, inverted image
3) Virtual image, erect
image
4) Virtual image, inverted image
73. Which of the following mirror can form real and virtual image?
1) Concave mirror 2) Convex mirror
3) Both Concave and
convex mirror
4) Neither Concave nor convex mirror
74. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual,
erect and larger than the object. Where should be the position of
the object?
1) Between the principal
focus and the centre of
curvature
2) At the centre of curvature
3) Beyond the centre of
curvature
4) Between the pole of the mirror and its
principal focus
75. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be
seen by using
1) a concave mirror 2) a convex mirror
3) a plane mirror 4) both concave as well as plane mirror
76. A 9 cm long object is placed (perpendicular to principal axis) at
40cm infront of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm.
The size of the image is _______cm.
1) 9 2) 18
3) 3 4) 4.5
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77. Image formed when the object is placed at the focus(F) of the convex mirror.
Then image is formed
1) behind the mirror 2) In front of the mirror
3) At the focus 4) None of these
78. Image formed when the object is placed at the focus(F) of the convex mirror.
Then image size is
1) Diminished 2) Magnified
3) Highly Magnified 4) All of these
79. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of
curvature is 32 cm.
1) -16cm 2) +16cm
3) -64cm 4) +64cm
80. For a convex mirror according to sign convention which of the
following is/are positive.
A) focal length B) object distance C) image distance
D) radius of curvature
1) Only A and C 2) Only A and D
3) Only B, C,D are
positive
4) Only A, C,D are positive
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VIII_PHYSICS_SHP_E1 TO E3_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 3 2
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 3 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 1
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 2 3 1 1 1 1 3 1
1 3
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 2 1 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 1
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 3 4
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 1 3 1 3 2 4 1 1 1 2
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 3 1 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 3
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 1 2 4
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CHEMISTRY (Q.No.1 TO 80)
1. Co-ordination number of cation is maximum in
1)NaCl 2)CsCl 3)ZnO 4) KCl
2. Water acts as a powerful ionizing solvent due to its high
1)Polar nature 2)ionic nature
3)dielectric constant 4)Covalent nature
3. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their donating ability:
Ca, Mg, K, Cs, Al, B?
1)Ca < Mg < K < Cs < Al < B 2)B < Al < Cs < K < Mg < Ca
3)B < Al < Mg < Ca < K < Cs 4)Cs > K > Ca > Mg > Al > B
4. Which of the following is a favorable factor for cation formation
1)Low ionisation potential 2)High electron affinity
3)High electro negativity 4)Small atomic size
5. Number of ion pairs in CsCl unit cell is
1)1 2)2 3)4 4) 8
6. The stability of an ionic compound is mostly due to
1)ionization energy 2)electron affinity
3)lattice energy 4)electro negativity
7. Among the following correct statement is /are
(A) NaCl is FCC with coordination number 6
(B) CsCl is BCC with coordination number 8
(C) CsCl is more ionic than NaCl
(D) NaCl& CsCl are water soluble
1)A,B only 2)C,D only 3) A,B,C,D 4)B only
8. Arrange the following is the decreasing ionic nature : MCl, MCl2 and MCl
1)MCl > MCl2 > MCl3 2)MCl2 < MCl < MCl3
3)MCl3< MCl2 < MCl 4)MCl < MCl3 < MCl2
9. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the ionic bond character follows the
increasing order:
1) 2 3 4LiCl BeCl BCl CCl 2) 2 3 4LiCl BeCl BCl CCl
3) 2 4 3LiCl BeCl CCl BCl 4) 4 3 2CCl BCl BeCl LiCl
10. Maximum covalent nature can be seen in
1)CsF 2)RbF 3)NaF 4)LiF
11. The compound having less ionic nature is
1)BaCl2 2)MgCl2 3)SrCl2 4)BeCl2
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12. Which of the following is correct .
1) KF is more covalent than LiF
2) SnCl4 is is more covalent than SnCl2
3) The order of lattice energy NaF>Mgo>AlN
4) Polarising power charge on anion
13. Which of the following is more ionic?
1)Si3N4 2)AlN 3)BN 4)Ca3N2
14. If the radius ratio of cation to anion is 0.414 to 0.732 . Coordination
number is 4. The shape of the crystal lattice is
1)Linear 2) Planar triangle 3) Tetra hedral 4) Square planar
15. Which of the following is correct regarding covalent character of halide
ions ?
1) F Cl Br I 2) F Cl Br I
3)Cl F Br I 4)Cl F Br I
16. Molecule having an incomplete octet in the central atom is
1)PCl5 2)NH3 3)BCl3 4) H2O
17. Molecule having maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on central
atom is
1)PH3 2)H2S 3)CH4 4) BrF5
18. Bonds present in sodium hydroxide
1)Covalent and dative 2)Covalent and ionic
3)Covalent and hydrogen bond 4)Partial ionic
19. The formal charge on nitrogen atom in 4NH ion is ?
1)-1 2)0 3)+1 4)-2
20. Example of super octet molecule is :
1)F3Cl 2)PCl5 3)IF7 4) All of these.
21. The covalence of central atom is maximum in
1)HCN 2)NH4+ 3)PCl5 4)H2O
22. The number of electron pairs present in the valency shell of central atom
in SF6 molecule are
1)4 2)6 3)8 4) 7
23. Expanded octet can be observed in the valency shell of the central atom
in
1)NH3 2)CH4 3)PCl5 4) BeCl2
24. Molecule having maximum number of covalent bonds is
1)NH4OH 2)NH4Cl 3)CO(NH2)2 4) CH3OH
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25. Number of bonded electrons in ethane molecule are (H3C – CH3)
1)7 2)12 3)10 4) 14
26. The total number of protons in 20 g of calcium carbonate is (N0 =
6.02 × 1023)
1)1.5057 × 1024 2)2.0478 × 1024 3)3.0115 × 1024 4)6.023 × 1024
27. Co-ordination number of cation is maximum in
1)NaCl 2)CsCl 3)ZnO 4)KCl
28. The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in 2 3 4NO ,NO and NH
respectively are expected to be
1) 3 2sp,sp andsp 2) 2 3sp,sp andsp 3) 2 3sp ,spandsp 4) 2 3sp ,sp andsp
29. The weight of 8gm. atoms of nitrogen is
1)56 gms. 2)112 gms. 3)42 gms. 4)28 gms.
30. According to Fajans rule covalent bond is favoured by
1)Small cation and large anion 2)Small cation and small anion
3)Large cation and large anion 4)Large cation and small anion
31. In 3
4PO ion the formal charge on the oxygen atom of P–O bond is
1)+ 1 2)– 1 3)– 0.75 4)+ 0.75
32. How many years it would take to spend Avogadro’s number of rupees at the rate of 10 lac rupees per second?
1)1.9090 × 1015 year 2)1.9099 × 1010 year
3)1.9800 × 105 year 4)1.978 × 1020 year
33. The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro number. Which of the following element contains the greatest number of atoms?
1)4g He 2)46g Na 3)0.40g Ca 4)12g He
34. Calculate the oxidation number of the element which is
underlined from the following :
i) 3HNO ii) HNC
1)(i ) -3 (i i ) +5 2)(i ) -3 (i i ) -5
3)(i ) 5 (i i ) 5 4)(i ) +5 (i i ) -3
35. For which of the following compounds oxidation state of oxygen is
1
2 ?
1)K2CrO4 2)OF2 3)H2O 4)KO2
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36. The oxidation number of IA group elements in all their compounds
is:
1)+2 2)+1 3)+3 4) +1/2
37. The oxidation number of IIA group elements in all their
compounds is:
1)+1 2)+2 3)+3 4) +4
38. The oxidation number of H in most of its compounds is:
1)+1 2)+2 3)0 4) +3
39. From which of the following the oxidation number of underlined
element is 4?
1) 2CO 2) 2 2CH Cl 3)CO 4) 4 10C H
40. A number which indicates the loss or gain or sharing of electrons
by atom during the formation of a chemical compound is called :
1)Oxidation number 2)Co-ordination number
3)Incommensurable number 4)Avogadro’s number
41. Oxidation number of hydrogen in HCl molecule :
1)+1 2)-1 3)+2 4) -2
42. The oxidation number of an atom in its elementary form is always
1)0 2)1 3)Practional 4)2
43. The common oxidation state of alkaline earth metals :
1)+1 2)+2 3)+3 4) +4
44. The oxidation number of oxygen in peroxides :
1)-1 2)-2 3)-3 4) -4
45. The oxidation number of oxygen in superoxides :
1)-1 2)-1/2 3)-3 4) -4
46. The oxidation number of CH4 molecule is :
1)0 2)1 3)2 4) 3
47. The oxidation number of chlorine in HCl molecule
1)-1 2)-2 3)+1 4) +2
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48. The oxidation number of an element in a compound is evaluated
on the basis of certain rules. Which of the following rules is not
correct in this respect?
1)The oxidation number of hydrogen is always +1.
2)The algebraic sum of all the oxidation numbers in a compound is
zero.
3)An element in the free or the uncombined state bears oxidation
number zero.
4)In all its compounds, the oxidation number of fluorine is – 1.
49. In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two
different Oxidation states.
1)NH2OH 2)NH4NO3 3)N2H4 4) N3H
50. The oxidation number of Mn in 4KMnO molecule
1)+2 2)+7 3)+6 4) +3
51. Chlorine is passed into dilute cold KOH solution. What are the
oxidation numbers of chlorine in the products formed?
1)-1, +5 2)-1, +3 3)+1, +7 4) +1, -1
52. The oxidation number of Nitrogen in 3NH molecule
1)+3 2)-5 3)+5 4) -3
53. Which one of the following reaction is an example of de-electro
nation?
1)Fe - 2e- Fe2+ 2)Fe3+ + 1e- Fe2+
3)Sn4+ + 2e- Sn2+ 4)Cl2 + 2e- 2Cl=
54. In 3NO ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on
nitrogen atom are
1)2, 2 2)3, 0 3)1, 3 4)4, 0
55. Number of sigma bonds and pi bonds present in Pentane are (
3 2 2 2 3H C-CH -CH -CH CH )
1)12 , 1 2)13 , 0 3)0 , 13 4)16 , 0
56. Which one of the following is correct statement
i) A pi bond is formed when a sigma already exists
ii) A pi bond may be formed by the overlapping of ‘p’ or ‘d’ orbital’s
iii) A pi bond is formed by the overlapping of s-orbital’s
A pi bond is formed by the lateral overlapping of atomic orbital’s
1)Only i and ii 2)Only i ,ii and iii
3) Only i ,iii and iv 4)Only i ,ii and iv
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57. BCl3 molecule is planar while NCl
3 molecule is pyramidal because
1) BCl3 does not have lone pair on B but NCl3 has on N.
2) B-Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl bond
3) N atom is smaller than B
4) N-Cl bond is more covalent than B-Cl bond.
58. Which of the following species has tetrahedral geometry?
1) 4BH 2) 2NH 3) 2
3CO 4) 3H O
59. The central atom in PCl5 has five pairs of valency electrons. The
shape of the molecule as per VSEPR theory is
1)Trigonal bipyramidal 2)hexagonal pyramid
3)pentagonal bipyramidal 4)Square bipyramidal
60. p-p overlapping is present in
1)Cl2 2)H
2 3)HCl 4)HF
61. The weight of 8gm. atoms of nitrogen is
1) 56 gms. 2) 112 gms.
3) 42 gms. 4) 28 gms.
62. Volume occupied by 44 g of 2CO is
1) 2240 lit at STP 2) 2.24 lit at STP
3) 22.4 lit at STP 4) 224 lit at STP
63. Which of the following is Avogadro number?
1) 6.023 × 1023
atoms 2) 3.0115 × 1023
atoms
3) 1.505 × 1023
atoms 4) 12.0 × 1023
atoms
64. Which of the following is correct?
1) Molecular weight of oxygen is 32.
2) Gram molecular mass of sulphur (S8) is 256 g.
3) The weight of one molecule of O3 is 48 amu.
4) All
65. The weight of 1 mole of atoms of an element = _______.
1) 1.66× 10–24
g 2) Gram molecular weight
3) Gram atomic weight 4) 6.023×1023
g
66. 1 amu is equal to the mass of:
1) 1
12th of C - 12 atom 2)
1
14th of O -16 atom
3) 1g of H2 4) 1.66 × 10
–23 kg
67. The weight of Helium atom in grams is:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6.64 × 10–24
4) 1.66 × 10–24
68. Which of the following is the smallest particle of matter that exist independently?
1) Atom 2) Molecule 3) element 4) compound 69. A: H
2O, CH
4, NH
3; B: H
2, N
2, O
2, F
2
1) ‘A’ contains homogeneous molecules. 2) ‘B’ contains homogeneous molecules. 3) ‘A’ contains heterogeneous molecules. 4) Both 2 & 3
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70. The mass of one atom of an unknown element is 4×1.66×10–24
g. The
element is:
1) Hydrogen 2) Helium
3) Oxygen 4) Sulphur
71. One a. m. u is equal to:
1) 271.66 10 g 2)
241.66 10 g
3) 221.66 10 g 4)
201.66 10 g
72. th
Mass of1atomof thatelement
1/12 mass of C 12atom
1) RAM 2) GAW
3) Mol. Wt 4) Eq. Wt
73. The atomic weight of Chlorine is:
1) 35g 2) 37g
3) 35.5g 4) 36.5g
74. Number of moles =
1) Weight / Molecular weight 2) Weight / Atomic weight
3) Weight /Number of atoms 4) Both 1 & 2
75. One mole electrons means:
1) N electrons 2) 236.023 10 electrons
3) 0.55mg electrons 4) All of these
76. The shape of CH4; SO
4
-2; [PO4]
-3 is
1) Trigonal planar 2) Angular
3) Tetrahedral 4) Trigonal Bipyramidal
77. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in 2 2 4,NO NO and NH
are
1) 2 3 2sp ,sp andsp respectively 2)
2 3sp,sp andsp respectively
3) 2 3sp ,spandsp respectively 4)
2 3sp ,sp andsp respectively
78. Isostructural species are those which have the same shape and
hybridisation. Among the given species identify the isostructural pairs.
1) [NF3 and BF3] 2) [ 4BF and 4NH
]
3) [BCl3 and BrCl3] 4) [NH3 and 3NO ]
79. On catalytic hydrogenation, ethylene gives ethane during this reaction
2 2 3 3H C CH H C CH
1) Hybridization of carbon atoms changes from sp2 to sp
3
2) bond angle decreases from 1200 to 109.5
0
3) C-C bond length increases from1.34 A0 to 1.54A
0
4) all of these.
80. The ratio of pure orbitals to hybridized orbitals in ethylene is
1) 2:3 2) 3:1
3) 1:1 4) 1:3
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VIII_CHEMISTRY_SHP_E1 TO E3_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 2 3 4 1 1 3 3 1 4 4
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 4 2 4 4 2 3 2 2 3 4
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 2 1
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 1 1
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 2 2
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 4 4 1 2 4 4 1 1 1 1
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 2 3 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 2
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 2 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 4 3
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(OLYMPIAD AND E-TECHNO)
SIMPLE HOLIDAY
PACKAGE PONGAL
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
CLASS – IX – E1 to E3
IX_MPC_E1 to E3_SHP
INDEX
SUBJECT PAGE NO.
1. MATHEMATHICS 2 - 14
2. PHYSICS 15 - 29
3. CHEMISTRY 30 - 41
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MATHEMATICS (Q.No.1 to 80)
1. The diagonals of a parallelogram formed by the lines
1 1 1a x+b y+c = 0, 1 1 3a x+b y+c = 0, 2 2 2a x +b y +c =0,
2 2 4a x+b y+c =0 will be right angles if
1) 1 1
2 2
a b
a b
2) 2 2
1 2
2 2
1 2
a a
b b
3) 2 2 2 2
1 1 2 2 a b a b 4) None of these
2. The perpendicular distance from (1,2) to the line 3x + 4y + 14 = 0 is
1) 7 units 2) 3 units 3) 5 units 4) 2 units
3. The angle between the lines 2x + 3y – 5 = 0, 5x + ky – 6 =0 is 450
then the value of k is
1) 1 2) 2
3) - 1 4) -2
4. One vertex of a square ABCD is A(3,4) and the equation of one
diagonal BD is 3x + 4y + 5 = 0, then C =
1) 21 28,
5 5
2) -21 28
,5 5
3) 21 -28,
5 5
4) -21 -28
,5 5
5. If the algebraic sum of the perpendicular distances from the
points (2, 0), (0, 2) and (1, 1) to a variable straight line be zero,
then the line passes through the point
1) (–1, 1) 2) (1, 1)
3) (1, – 1) 4) (–1, –1)
6. Equation of the straight line joining the points 2
1 2am , 2am and
2
2 1am , 2am is
1)
1 2
2 2
1 2
2
2 0
1 22x+ m +m
y am m
a m m
2) 2x – (m1 + m2)y
+ 2am1m2 = 0
3)
1 2
2 2
1 2
2
2 0
1 22x+ m +m
y am m
a m m
4)
None of these
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7.
The normal form of the line 4x + 3y + 12 = 0 is
1)
4 3 12
5 5 5x y
2) 4 3 12
5 5 5
x y
3) 4 3 12
5 5 5 x y
4) None of these
8. The equation of the straight line passing through the point (3,-4)
and making X and Y-intercepts which are in the ratio
2 : 3 is
1) 3x + 2y - 1 = 0 2) 2x + 3y + 12 = 0
3) 3x + 5y + 11 = 0 4) 3x + y + 1 = 0
9. If the line 2x - 3y + 1 = 0 is denoted by L, then the points (3, 4) and (1,2) are
1) lie on L 2) lie on same side of L 3) lie on opposite sides of
L 4) equidistant from L
10. The reflection of the point (4,-13) in the line 5x + y + 6 = 0 is
1) (-1,-14) 2) (3,4) 3) (1,2) 4) (-4,13)
11. The image of the point(–2, –5) w.r.t the origin is
1) (2,5) 2) (-2,5)
3) (2,–5) 4) None of these
12. If 3x ky 2 0, 2x y 2 0 are perpendicular, then the value
of k is
1) 5 2) -6
3) 6 4) -5
13. If is the angle between
x y x y1, 1
a b b a,then cos =
1) 2 2
ab
a b
2) 2 2
ab
a b
3) 2 2
2ab
a b
4)
2 2
2ab
a b
14. If the four straight lines 0, 0,ax by p ax by q 0cx dy r and
0cx dy s form a parallelogram, then the area of the
parallelogram so formed is
1)
p q r s
bd ac
2)
p q r s
bc ad
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3)
p q r s
bd ac
4)
p q r s
bc ad
15. 1,1 , 5,3A B are opposite vertices of a square in the XY – plane.
Find the equation of the other diagonal (not passing through A,B) of the square.
1) 3x + y + 8 = 0 2) x + 3y + 8 = 0 3) 3x + y - 8 = 0 4) x + 3y - 8 = 0
16. A ray of light passing through the point (1,2) reflects on the X-axis at a point A and the reflected ray passes through the point (5,3). Find the coordinates of A.
1) 13,0
5
2) 11
,05
3) (13, 0) 4) (11, 0)
17. The mid points of the sides of a triangle are (5, 0), (5, 12) and (0, 12).The circumcenter of this triangle is
1) (0, 0) 2) (10, 0) 3) (0, 24) 4) (5, 12)
18. If 2 26x +5xy +y = 0 represents a pair of lines then
I: 1 2 5m m
II: 1 2
1m m Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) only I 2) only II 3) both I and II 4) neither I nor II
19. The equation to the two lines represented by the equation
2 2x 2xysec y 0 is
1) x y cosec cot 0, x y
2) x y cosec 0, x y cot 0
3) x y 0, x sin 0 4)
x y s ec tan 0,
x y s ec tan 0
20. A variable straight line drawn through the point of intersection
of the straight lines 1x y
a b and 1
x y
b a meets the coordinate
axes at A and B, then the locus of the mid-point of AB is.
1) 2 a b xy ab x y 2) 2 a b xy ab x y
3) 2 a b xy ab x y 4) 2 a b xy ab x y
21. The incenter of the triangle formed by the straight lines
3 , 3y x y x and 3.y is
1) (0, -2) 2) (0, 2)
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3) (-2, 0) 4) (2,3)
22. Equation of the line passing through the point of intersection of
the lines 2x + 3y – 1 = 0, 3x + 4y – 6 = 0 and Parallel to 5x – 2y – 7 = 0 is
1) 5x – 2y + 88 =0 2) 10x – 4y – 88 =0 3) 5x – 2y – 88 =0 4) 10x – 4y + 88 =0
23. If a b c and if 0 ax by c 0 bx cy a and 0 cx ay b are
concurrent. Then the value of 2 -1 -1 2 -1 -1 2 -1 -1a b c b c a c a b3 3 3 is
1) 1 2) 27 3) 8 4) 16
24. The nature of the triangle formed by the lines 2 23 0x y and
2x is
1) scalene 2) right angled 3) equilateral 4) isosceles
25. 1,3A and 2 / 5, 2 / 5C are the vertices of a triangle ABC and the
equation of the internal angle bisector of ABC is 2.x y
The equation of side BC is
1) 7 3 4 0x y 2) 7 3 4 0x y
3) 7 3 4 0x y 4) 7 3 4 0x y
26. 1,3A and 2 / 5, 2 / 5C are the vertices of a triangle ABC and the
equation of the internal angle bisector of ABC is 2.x y
The coordinates of vertex B are
1) 3 /10,17 /10 2) 17 /10,3 /10
3) 5 / 2,9 / 2 4) 1,1
27. 1,3A and 2 / 5, 2 / 5C are the vertices of a triangle ABC and the
equation of the internal angle bisector of ABC is 2.x y The
equation of side AB is
1) 3 7 24x y 2) 3 7 24 0x y
3) 13 7 8 0x y 4) 13 7 8 0x y
28. If ' ' is the angle between the lines represented by
2 2ax 2hxy by 0 , then
2 2
a bcos
a b 4h The angle between
the pair of lines 2 2x 2xysec +y =0 is
1) 2) y
3) 2 4) x
29. If ' ' is the angle between the lines represented by
2 2ax 2hxy by 0 , then
2 2
a bcos
a b 4h The angle between
the lines represented by 2 2 2 2 2y sec xy sec x tan 1 0 is
1) 4
2)
3
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3) 2
4) None of these
30. If ' ' is the angle between the lines represented by
2 2ax 2hxy by 0 , then
2 2
a bcos
a b 4h If
2
is the angle
between the pair of lines 2 26x 5xy ky 0 , then the value of ‘k’
is
1) 6 2) 8 3) – 6 4) – 8
31. If three consecutive vertices of a parallelogram are
4,3,5 , 0,6,0 . 8,1,4A B C and D is the fourth vertex then the
angle between AC
and BD
is
1) 1 55
149 161
Cos 2)
1 65
149 161
Cos
3) 1 15
149 161
Cos 4)
1 3
149 161
Cos
32. The direction cosines of the line joining the points
A(-6, 5, -4), B(-5, 2, -4) is
1) 1 3, ,0
10 10
2) 2 3
, ,010 10
3) 1 2, ,0
10 10
4) None of these
33. The three lines with d.r’s , (1,1,2) ( 3 1, 3 1, 4) , ( 3 1, 3 1, 4)
forms
1) An equilateral triangle 2) A right angled triangle
3) An isosceles triangle 4) A right angled isosceles triangle
34. If is an angle given by
2 2 2
2 2 2
cos cos coscos
sin sin sin
where , , are the angles made by a
line with the axis , ,OX OY OZ
respectively then the value of is
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1)
3
2)
6
3)
2
4)
4
35. If a line makes angles
5,
12 12
with oy, oz respectively where O =
(0, 0,0) then the angle made by that line with ox is
1) 45o 2) 90o
3) 60o 4) 30o
36. The vertices of a triangle are 2,3,5 , 1,3,2 , 3,5, 2 , then the
angles are
1) 300, 300, 1200 2) 1 0 11 5
,90 ,5 3
Cos Cos
3) 0 0 030 ,60 ,90 4) 1 0 11 2
,90 ,3 3
Cos Cos
37. An acute between the lines whose direction ratios are
(1, -2, 1) and (-1, 1, 0) is
1) 030 2) 0120
3) 060 4) None of these
38. The direction cosines of the line passing through P 2,3,1 and
the origin are
1) 2
14
3 1, ,14 14
2) 2 3
,14 14
1
14
3) 2 3 1, ,
14 14 14
4) 2 3 1, ,
14` 14 14
39. If a line OP where O is the origin makes angles , 45 and 60 with
,OX OY
andOZ
axes respectively then the direction cosines of OP
are
1) 1 1 1, ,2 2 2
2) 1 1 1
, ,2 22
3) 1 1 1, ,2 22
4) 1 1 1
, ,4 2 2
40. If P = (3, 4, 5), Q = (4, 6, 3), R = (-1, 2, 4) and S = (1, 0, 5) are four points then the projection of RS on PQ is
1) 8
3
2) 4
3
3) 4 4) None of these
41. The sum of the d.c's of the line which makes equal angles with
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ox, oy, oz is
1) 1 2) 3
3) 1
3 3
4) 1
3
42. If 21OP and d.c.’s of OP
are
2 6 3, ,7 7 7
then P=
1) 6, 12,4 2) 6,18, 9
3) 3/ 2, 6,2 4) 5, 10,6
43. If 2,3,6P then the d.c.’s of OP
are
1) 3 4 12, ,
13 13 13
2) 6,6, 3
3) 2 3 6, ,7 7 7
4) 2,2, 1
44. If the line joining the points (2,3,4),(0,1,2) is perpendicular to
the line joining the points (x,0,4), (7,-4,3), then x =
1) 2
2) 10
3) 3
10
4) 10
3
45. If the direction ratios of two lines are given by
3lm - 4ln + mn = 0 and l + 2m + 3n = 0, then the angle between
the lines is
1)
2
2)
3
3)
4
4)
6
46. If the angles made by a straight line with the coordinate axis are
, ,2
then
1) 0 2)
6
3)
2
4)
47. If a line in the space makes angles , and with the
coordinate axes, then 2 2 2cos2 cos2 cos 2 sin sin sin
1) -1 2) 0
3) 1 4) 2
48. A line makes the same angle , with each of the x and z axis. If
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the angle , which it makes with y-axis, is such that 2 2sin 3sin , then 2sin
1) 2/ 3 2) 2/ 5
3) 3/ 5
4) 1/ 5
49. A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angles 045 and 0120 with the positive x-axis and the positive y-axis respectively. If AB makes an acute angle with the positive z-axis, then
equals.
1) 030 2) 045
3) 060 4) 075
50. If the d.r.’s of a line are 3, 4,12 then d.c.’s of the line are
1) 4 2 4, ,3 3 3
2) 2 1 2
, ,3 3 3
3) 2 1 2, ,6 6 6
4) 3 4 12
, ,13 13 13
51. The points A(4, 9, 6), B(1, 6, 6) and C(0, 7, 10) form
1) a collinear points 2) a scalene triangle
3) a right angled isosceles
triangle
4) an equilateral triangle
52. If the points (1, 2, 3) is changed to the points (2,3,1) through
translation of axes, then the new origin is
1) (1, 1, –2) 2) (–1, –1, 2)
3) (3, 5, –2) 4) (3, 5, 4)
53. The locus of the point whose distance from y-axis is thrice its
distance from (1, 2, –1) is
1) 2 2 28x +9y +8z 18x 36y +18z+54=0
2) 2 2 28x +9y +8z 18x 36y 18z+54=0
3) 2 2 28x 9y +8z 18x 36y +18z+54=0
4) 2 2 28x +9y +8z 18x 36y+18z+54=0
54. If the straight line (x + y + 1) + K(2x – y – 1) = 0 is parallel to
2x + 3y – 8 = 0, then K =
1) 1
8
2) 1
8
3) 5 4) - 5
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55. The ratio in which the line joining the points A(1, –1) and
B(2, 1) divides the line joining C(3, 4) and D(1, 2) is
1) 7 : 5 2) –7 : 5
3) –1 : 3
4) None of these
56. If the algebraic sum of the perpendicular distances from the
points (2, 0), (0, 2) and (1, 1) to a variable straight line be zero,
then the line passes through the point
1) (–1, 1) 2) (1, 1)
3) (1, – 1) 4) (–1, –1)
57. The centroid of the triangle formed by the lines
4x 7y 10 0, x y 5, 7x 4y 15 0 is
1) ( 1,2) 2) 68 361,
99 99
3) 35 295,
66 66
4) None of these
58. The value of ‘k’ if the equation 8x2–24lxy+18y2–6x +ky–5=0
represents a pair of parallel lines is
1) 9 2) 8
3) 7 4) 6
59. The centroid of the tetrahedron formed by the points 1 1 1, ,A x y z
, 2 2 2, ,B x y z , 3 3 3, ,C x y z and 4 4 4, ,D x y z is
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4, ,4 4 4
x x x x y y y y z z z z
If A(1, 1, 3), B(4, 3, 2) and C(5, 2, 7) are three vertices of a
tetrahedron for which the centroid is5 17
4, ,2 4
, the fourth vertex
is
1) (6, 5, 8) 2) (6, 4, 8)
3) (5, 4, 8) 4) (6, 4, 5)
60. The centroid of the tetrahedron formed by the points 1 1 1, ,A x y z
, 2 2 2, ,B x y z , 3 3 3, ,C x y z and 4 4 4, ,D x y z is
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4, ,4 4 4
x x x x y y y y z z z z
The centroid of the tetrahedron formed by the points
(8, 2, 0), (4, 6, 7), (3, 1, 2), (9, 2, 4) is
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1) 1 15 3
, ,4 4 4
2) 11 13
6, ,4 4
3)
7 10, ,
4 4
4) 19 111, ,
44 4
61. The centroid of the tetrahedron formed by the points 1 1 1, ,A x y z
, 2 2 2, ,B x y z , 3 3 3, ,C x y z and 4 4 4, ,D x y z is
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4, ,4 4 4
x x x x y y y y z z z z
If origin is the centroid of the tetrahedron with vertices
(2, -1, 3), (-1, 3, 1), (3, 4, -2), (a, b, c), then the ascending order of
a, b, c is
1) a, b, c 2) c, b, a
3) b, a, c 4) b, c, a
62. The equations of the lines bisector of the anlges between the
lines 1 1 1 2 2 2a x b y c 0, a x b y c 0 are
2 2 21 1 1
2 2 2 2
1 1 2 2
a x b y ca x b y c0
a b a b
The equations of the bisector of the angles between the lines 3x
– 4y + 7 = 0, 12x + 5y – 2 = 0 is
1) 5x + 5y +3 = 0 2) 10x – 3y + 7 = 0
3) 5x – 2y + 1 = 0 4) 11x – 3y + 9 = 0
63. The equations of the lines bisector of the anlges between the
lines 1 1 1 2 2 2a x b y c 0, a x b y c 0 are
2 2 21 1 1
2 2 2 2
1 1 2 2
a x b y ca x b y c0
a b a b
The equation to the pair of bisector of the angle between the
pair of lines 3x2 – 10xy + 4y2 =0 is
1) 2 25x xy 5y 0 2) 2 25x xy 5y 0
3) 2 25x xy 5y 0 4) 2 25x xy 5y 0
64. The equations of the lines bisector of the anlges between the
lines 1 1 1 2 2 2a x b y c 0, a x b y c 0 are
2 2 21 1 1
2 2 2 2
1 1 2 2
a x b y ca x b y c0
a b a b
The equation of the pair of bisectors of the angle between the
two straight lines 5x2 + 6xy – y2 = 0 is
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1) 2 23x 2xy 3y 0 2) 2 2x 2xy y 0
3) 2 2x 2xy y 0
4) 3x2 – 4xy – 3y2 = 0
65. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines are
3 1 3, ,
4 4 2 and
3 1 3, ,
4 4 2is
1) 2
2)
6
3) 5
4)
3
66. The sum of the squares of the sines of the angles made by the
line AB with ox, oy, oz where ‘O’ is the origin is
1) 1 2) 2
3) -1 4) 3
67. If array make angles
3
and3
withOX and
OY respectively, then
the angle made by the ray withOZ is
1)
1 1cos
2
2)
1 3cos
2
3)
1 3cos
2
4) 0
68. If the dr’s of a line are 1 ,1 ,2 and it makes an angle
060 with the Y- axis then is
1) 1 3 2) 4 5
3) 2 2 5 4) 2 5
69. If the angle between line with d.c’s
2, ,
21 21 21
a b and other
line with d.c’s 3 3 6, ,
54 54 54
is 900 then a pair of possible
values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are
1) -1, 4 2) 4, 2
3) 4,1 4) -4,-2
70. If the angles made by a line with the positive directions of X and Y- axis are complementary angles then the angle made by the line with Z axis is
1) 0 2)
3
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3)
4
4)
2
71. If the direction cosines of two nonparallel lines are related by 2l
+ m + 2n = 0 and 2 2 23 5 11 0 l m n then angle between them is
1) 0 2)
3) 2
4) None of these
72. If the direction ratios of two lines are (x, 3, 5) and (2, -1, 2) and
if the angle between those lines is4
,then ‘x’ is
1) 52 2) 42 3) 62 4) 60
73. Let a line makes an angle ‘ ’ with X and Z - axes and with
Y -axis. If sin 3 sin , then 2cos
1) 3
5
2) 5
3
3) 2
5
4) 1
5
74. If 1 1
, , 022
n n are the d.c's of a line then the angle made by
that line with oz where O= (0, 0, 0) is
1) 90o 2) 150o
3) 60o 4) None of these
75. If 21OP and d.c.’s of OP
are
2 6 3, ,7 7 7
then P=
1) 6, 12,4 2) 6,18, 9
3) 3/ 2, 6,2 4) 5, 10,6
76. If the line joining the points (2,3,4),(0,1,2) is perpendicular to the line joining the points (x,0,4), (7,-4,3), then x =
1) 2
2) 10
3) 3
10
4) 10
3
77. If the angles made by a straight line with the coordinate axis are
, ,2
then
1) 0 2)
6
3)
2
4)
78. A line makes the same angle , with each of the x and z axis. If
the angle , which it makes with y-axis, is such that 2 2sin 3sin , then 2sin
1) 2/ 3 2) 2/ 5
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3) 3/ 5 4) 1/ 5
79. A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angles 045 and 0120 with the positive x-axis and the positive y-axis respectively. If AB makes an acute angle with the positive z-axis, then equals.
1) 030 2) 045
3) 060 4) 075
80. If the d.r.’s of a line are 3, 4,12 then d.c.’s of the line are
1) 4 2 4, ,3 3 3
2) 2 1 2
, ,3 3 3
3) 2 1 2, ,6 6 6
4) 3 4 12
, ,13 13 13
IX_MATHEMATICS_SHP_E1 TO E3_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 4 3 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 1
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 1 2 4 4 3 1 4 2 4 4
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 1 1 1 1 2 4 1 4 2 2
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 4
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 1 4 2
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 3 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 4
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 4
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PHYSICS ( Q.NO. 1 TO 80)
1. The level of water in a tank is 5m high. A hole of area 2 cm2 is made at the bottom of the tank. The rate of leakage of
water from the hole in m3/s is (g= 10 ms-2)
1) 32 10 2) 42 10 3) 20 4) 22 10
2. A fresh water on a reservoir is 10 m deep. A horizontal pipe
4.0 cm in diameter pass through the reservoir 4.0 m below the water surface as shown in figure. If a plug secures the pipe opening , then the friction force between the plug and pipe wall is (Assume area of reservoir to be too large)
1) 49.2 N 2) 73.9 N 3) 10.84 N 4) 37.4 N
3. The readings of a meter which reads pressure fitted in a
closed pipe is 7.5×105 Nm–2. On opening the valve of the
pipe, the reading of that meter reduces to 5.5×105 Nm–2. Then speed of water flowing in pipe is
1) 10 1ms 2) 20 1ms 3) 0.1 1ms 4) 0.01 1ms
4. An aeroplane of mass 5000 kg is flying at an altitude of 3 km.
If the area of the wings is 10m2 and pressure at the lower surface of wings is 50 6 10. pa , the pressure on the upper surface
of wings is (in pascal) ( g= 10 ms-2)
1) 359 10 2) 42 10 3) 355 10 4) 59
5. A train goes past a person standing at the edge of a platform at high speed. Then the person will be
1 4
1) attracted towards the train 2) unaffected by the train 3) reflected by the train 4) affected only if its speed is
greater than critical velocity. 6. The dynamic lift of an aeroplane is based on
1) Torricelli theorem 2) Bernoulli's theorem 3) Conservation of angular
Momentum 4) Principle of continuity
7. A horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross section allows water
to flow through it with a velocity 11ms when pressure is 50
kPa at a point. If the velocity of flow has to be 12ms at some
other point, the pressure at that point should be
1) 51.5 kPa 2) 100 kPa 3) 48.5 kPa 4) 24.25 kPa
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8. A pipe is running full of water. At a point A it tapers from
400 cm2 cross sectional area to 200 cm2 at other point B. If the pressure difference between A and B is 15 cm of water column, the rate of volume flow of water through the pipe is
in litres/sec (g = 10 ms–2)
1) 20 2) 40 3) 10 4) 30
9. Water flows through a horizontal tube of variable cross section. The area of cross section at A and B are 4 mm2 and 2 mm2 respectively. If 1 cc of water enters per second
through A, find the pressure difference A BP P
1) 25 N/m2 2) 50 N/m2 3) 94 N/m2 4) 60 N/m2
10. In a horizontal pipe line of uniform cross section as pressure falls between two points separated by certain distance, the change in the kinetic energy of the oil flowing between these
two points is 0.01 J kg–1 and density of the oil is 600 kg m–
3. Then the fall in pressure between those two points is
1) 2 2Nm 2) 4 2Nm 3) 6 2Nm 4) 8 2Nm
11. The velocity distribution curve of the stream line flow of a liquid advancing through a capillary tube is
1) Circular 2) Elliptical 3) Parabolic 4) a straight line
12. A tank is completely filled with water. One of the vertical walls of the tank has pin holes from top to bottom. Which of holes will allow the water to fall at maximum distance on the floor?
1) Hole at the top 2) Hole at the bottom 3) Hole in the middle 4) Hole above middle but below top
13. There is a small hole of diameter 1 mm in the, wall of a water at a depth of 40 m below free water surface. The velocity of efflux of water from the hole will be
1) 0.14 m/s 2) 28 m/s 3) 0.28 m/s 4) 14 m/s
14. A cylindrical vessel of 90 cm height is kept filled up to the brim. It has four holes 1,2,3 and 4 which are respectively at heights of 20 cm, 30 cm, 45 cm and 50 cm from the horizontal floor PQ. The water falling at the maximum horizontal distance from the vessel comes from
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1) Hole number 4 2) Hole number 3 3) Hole number 2 4) Hole number 1
15. Figure shows two holes in a wide tank containing a liquid
common. The water streams coming out of these holes strike the ground at the same point. The height of liquid column in the tank is
1) 10 cm 2) 8 cm 3) 9.8 cm 4) 980 cm
16. The flow of blood in a large artery of an anesthetised dog is diverted through a venture meter. The wider part of the meter has a cross-section area equal to that of the artery
28A mm . The narrower part has an area 24a mm . The
pressure drop in the artery is 24 pa. The speed of blood in
the artery is 3 31.06 10 / blood kg m .
1) 0.125 m/s 2) 125 m/s 3) 1.25 m/s 4) 12.5 m/s
17. A point object is enclosed in a glass sphere of 8 cm radius. It is situated
4 cm from centre and is viewed from the side to which it is nearer.
Where will it appear to be if of glass = 1.5 ?
1) 6 cm from the centre 2) 4 cm from the nearer surface
3) 227
cm from the nearer surface 4) 2
23
cm from the centre
18. A mark is made on the surface of a glass sphere of diameter 20 cm and refractive index 1.5. It is viewed through the glass from a portion directly opposite. The distance of the image of the mark from the centre of the sphere will be
1) 10 cm 2) 5 cm
3) 20 cm 4) 40 cm
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19. A glass dumbell of length 30 cm and = 1.5 has ends 3 cm radius of
curvature. An object is situated in air at a distance of 9 cm from the end of dumbbell along the axis. The position of image formed due to refraction at one end only is
1) 16 cm 2) 18 cm
3) 22cm 4) 27 cm
20. A paperweight in the form of a hemisphere of radius 3.0 cm is used to hold down a printed page. An observer looks at the page vertically through the paperweight. At what height above the page will the printed letters near the centre appear to the observer
1) 2 cm 2) 1 cm 3) 0.5 cm 4) Zero
21. If 1 and 2 refractive index of the rarer and denser medium respectively.
If i and r are the angles of incidence and refraction. When refraction
from rarer to denser medium takes place, then Snell’s law is
1)
1
2
sinr
sin i
2)
2
1
sin i
sinr
3)
2
1
sinr
sin i
4) Both 1 and 2
22. A light ray, going through a prism with the angle of prism 060 , is found
to deviate by 030 . What limit on the refractive index can be put from
these data?
1) 2 2) 2
3) 3
2
4) 1
2
23. A crown glass prism with refracting angle 40, is to be achromatized for red and blue light with a flint glass prism. Angle of the flint glass prism
should be (Given Crown glass 1.513, 1.523r b Flint glass
1.645, 1.665r b )
1) 2 2) 3 3) 2.4 4) 4.5
24. When a ray of light is refracted by a prism such that the angle of deviation is minimum, then
1) the angle of emergence is equal to the angle of incidence
2) The refracted light ray must parallel to the base of the prism
3) Both 1 and 2 4) the sum of the angle of incidence and the angle of
emergence is equal to 900
Paragraph for Questions 25 to 27
A light ray is incident normally on the face AB of a right-angled prism ABC 1.50
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as shown in figure.
f
A
CB
P
25. The largest angle for which the light ray is totally reflected at the
surface AC is
1) 1 2
cos3
2)
1 2sin
3
3) 1 3
cos2
4)
1 3sin
2
26. The angle of refraction at the surface AB is 00
1) 00 2) 045
3) 030 4) 090
27. The angle of incidence at a point P on the surface AC is
1) 2) 090
3) 0180 4) Zero
Paragraph for Questions 28 to 30
Dispersive power of the material of a prism is the ratio of the angular dispersion of two extreme colours to their mean deviation.
28. In a prism, the refractive indices of different colours are
V R1.6, 1.52, 1.56 . The dispersive power of the prism is
1) 1/56 2) 1/8
3) 1/7 4) infinite
29. The angles of minimum deviations are 53° and 51° for blue and red colours respectively produced in an equilateral glass prism. The dispersive power is
1) 51/26 2) 1/26
3) 1/52 4) 1/51
30. Dispersive power of the material of a prism is 0.0221. If the deviation produced by it for yellow color is 38°, then the angular dispersion
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between red and violet colors is
1) 0.65° 2) 0.84°
3) 0.48° 4) 1.26°
31. If air is blown with a straw under of the pans of a physical balance present in equilibrium position, then that pan.
1) rises up 2) remains in the same position 3) lowers down 4) rises or lowers depending upon
the velocity of air blown. 32. Water enters a horizontal pipe of non uniform cross section
with a velocity of 0.3 ms–1 and leaves the other end with a
velocity of 0.6 ms–1. Pressure of water at the first end is
1500 Nm–2, then pressure at the other end is
1) 1000 2Nm 2) 1635 2Nm 3) 1400 2Nm 4) 1365 2Nm
33. A convex lens forms a real image three times larger than the object on a screen. Object and screen are moved until the image becomes twice the size of the object. If the shift of the object is 6 cm. the shift of screen is
1) 36 cm 2) 72 cm 3) 18 cm 4) 9 cm
34. An illuminated wire gauge is kept at a distance of 10cm from a convex lens. An image is obtained on a screen kept at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. The focal length of the convex lens is
1) 5 cm 2) -5 cm 3) -20 cm 4) 20 cm
35. An object is placed first at infinity and then at 20 cm from the
object-side focal plane of a convex lens. The two images thus
formed are 5 cm apart. The focal length of the lens is
1) 5 cm 2) 10 cm
3) 15 cm 4) 20 cm
36. When the object is placed in between the Infinity and the Optical centre of the Position of the image is the concave lens.
1) Between focus and optical centre
2) Between 1 1&2F F
3) Beyend 12F 4) At infinity
37. The graph shows the variation of magnification m produced by
convex lens with image distance v. The power of the lens is :
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1) b/c 2) b/ca
3) bc/a 4) c/b
38. An object is situated at a distance of 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. The position of the image formed by it will be
1) - 30 cm 2) 30 cm 3) -60 cm 4) + 60cm
39. The distance between two point sources of light is 24 cm and a
converging lens is kept in between two sources. The object
distances of two sources from a converging lens of focal length
of 9 cm, so that the image distances of two sources are equal
1) 6 cm 2) 18 cm
3) 18 cm or 6 cm 4) 24 cm
40. The plano-convex lenses of focal length 80 cm are placed with
their plane surfaces in contact to form an ordinary convex lens.
The distance of an object from this lens in order to obtain its
real, inverted image of unit magnification will be
1) 20 cm 2) 80 cm
3) 40 cm 4) 160 cm
41. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, the distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed so that the real images formed on the source itself is
1) 12 cm 2) 30 cm
3) 50 cm 4) 60 cm
42. To get real magnified image in convex lens, the object position is
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1) in between lens and F 2) in between F and 2F
3) at 2F 4) beyond 2F
43. An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from the convex lens of focal length 15 cm. the position of the image is
1) 60
7cm
2) -60 cm
3) 60 cm 4) 60
7cm
44. An object is situated at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length of 30 cm The position of the image formed by the lens is
1) 20 cm 2) -20 cm 3) 60 cm 4) -60 cm
45. A pin of length 2.00 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal
axis of a converging lens. An inverted image of size 1.00 cm is
formed at a distance of 40.0 cm from the pin. the focal length of
the lens is
1) 8.89 cm 2) 8.39 cm
3) 26.7 cm 4) 8.55 cm
46. A convex lens produces a double size real image when an object
is placed at a distance of 18 cm from it. Where should the object
be placed to produce a tripe size real image?
1) 16 cm 2) 18 cm
3) 10 cm 4) 21 cm
47. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the convex lens
of focal length 15 cm. the magnification produced by the lens is
1) 3 2) -3
3) 1
3
4) 1
3
48. A 2.0 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis
of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The distance of the
object from the lens is 15 cm. the magnification is
1) 2 2) -2
3) 1
2
4) 1
2
49. A ray of light enters a diamond from air. If the refractive index of
diamond is 2.42, by what per cent does the speed of light reduce
on entering the diamond?
1) 41 % 2) 59 %
3) 2.4 % 4) 100 %
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50. A ray of light travelling in air falls on the surface of a transparent slab. The ray makes an angle of 450 with the normal to the surface. Find the angle made by the refracted ray with the normal within the slab.
Refractive index of the material of the slab 2
1) 300 2) 600
3) 450 4) 900
51. A ray of light traveling in air falls obliquely on the surface of a calm pond. It will
1) go into the water without deviating from its path
2) Deviate away from the normal
3) Deviate towards the normal 4) Turn back on its original path
52. A ray of light goes from a medium of refractive index 1 to a medium of
refractive index 2 . The angle of incidence is i and the angle of
refraction is r. Then, sin i/ sin r is equal to
1) 1 2)
2
3) 1 2/ 4)
2 1/
53. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium falls on a surface
separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence045 . The ray
undergoes total internal reflection. If is the refractive index of the
medium with respect to air, select the possible value(s) of from the
following
1) 1.3 2) 1.4 3) 1.5 4) 1.2
54. The reflected and refracted rays are observed to be perpendicular to
each other, when ray of light is incident at an angle of 060 on a
transparent block. The refractive index of that block is
1) 3
2
2) 1
2
3) 2
3
4) 3
55. The critical angle for light going from a medium in which wave length is
4000 A to medium in which its wavelength is 6000A . The refractive index of medium is
1) 2
3
2) 1
3) 3
2
4) 1 2sin3
56. Time taken by sun light to pass through a window of thickness 2 mm
with refractive index 1.5 is [speed of light in vacuum = 3 x 108 m/s]
1) 2 x 10-3s 2) 2 x 105s 3) 2 x 10-11s 4) 1 x 10-11s
Paragraph for Questions 57 to 59
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Snell’s law 2 1
1 2
sin
sin
vi
r v
57. The angle a made by the light ray when it gets refracted from water to
air, as shown in the figure
1) 1 4
sin5
a
2) 1 5
sin4
a
3) 1 3
sin5
a
4) 1 5
sin3
a
58. Find the speed of light in medium ‘a’ if speed of light in medium ‘b’ is c/3, where c=speed of light in vacuum and light refracts from medium ‘a’ to medium ‘b’ making 450 and 600, respectively, with the normal.
1) 2
3 3
c
2) 2
3c
3) 1
3 3
c
4) 2
2 3
c
59. A ray of light is incident on a transparent glass slab of refractive index
3 . If the reflected and reflected rays are mutually perpendicular, what
is the angle of incidence?
1) 600 2) 300
3) 450 4) 900
Paragraph for Questions 60 to 62
Relation between Refractive index and Critical angle:
r
dSin 90 1
Sin C Sin C
60. The refractive index of glass is 1.5, The critical angle for glass is
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1) 1sin 0.67c 2) 1sin 1.5c
3) 1cos 1.5c 4) 1cos 0.67c
61. The refractive index of glass with respect to air is a g and refractive
index of water with respect to air a w , then refractive index of water
with respect to glass is
1) a g
a w
2)
a w
a g
3) 1
w g
4) 11
w g
62. A ray of light passing through a certain medium meets the surface
separating the medium from air at 045 and is just not refracted. The
refractive index of the medium is
1) 1.414 2) 0.707
3) 2.428 4) 2.121
63. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. The line as magnification produced by the lens is
1) 3
7
2) -3
3) 3 4) 3
7
64. An object 4 cm long is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm, The position of image is
1) 60
7cm
2) -60 cm
3) 60 cm 4) 60
7cm
65. The angle of deviation when light is incident at an angle of 045 on one
of the refracting faces of an equilateral prism of refractive index 1.414 is
1) 40 2) 30
3) 45 4) 50
66. The number of surfaces bounding a prism is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
67. A ray of light takes grazing incidence on the first face of a prism and the emergent ray is normal to the 2nd face of the prism. If ‘A’ is angle of prism then the angle of the deviation ‘D’ is equal to
1) 090 2A 2) 090 -A
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3) 0902
A
4) 0180 2A
68. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex
angle 30° and refractive index 2 .The angle of deviation of the ray is ........... degree when it emerges from the second surface of the prism
1) 30° 2) 60°
3) 15° 4) 90° 69.
A thin prism P1 of angle 03 and refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin prism P2 of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of P2 is
1) 02.25 2) 80
3) 2.6 4) 4.45
70. If the angle of a prism is 80° and angle of minimum deviation is 40°,
then the angle of refraction in the prism will be
1) 30° 2) 40°
3) 50° 4) 20°
71. A crown glass prism with refracting angle 40, is to be achromatized for
red and blue light with a flint glass prism. Angle of the flint glass prism
should be (Given Crown glass 1.513, 1.523r b Flint glass
1.645, 1.665r b )
1) 2 2) 3
3) 4.2 4) 4.5
72.
A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and R of identical shape and of the same material as P are now added as shown in the figure. The ray will suffer
1) greater deviation 2) no deviation
3) same deviation as before 4) total internal reflection
73.
A deviation in the path of a ray of light can be produced
1) By a glass prism but not by 2) By a rectangular glass slab
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a rectangular glass slab but not by a glass prism
3) By a glass as well as rectangular glass slab
4) Neither by a glass prism nor by a rectangular glass slab
74.
The angle of minimum deviation of the prism is 060 , then the
refractive index of the substance of an equilateral prism is
1) 3 2) 1
2
3) 1
3
4) 2
75. The prism is surrounded by a medium of refractive index 1 . If the
refractive index index of the material of the prism is 2 , then
1)
2
1
sin2
sin2
mA
A
2)
1
2
sin2
sin2
mA
A
3)
1
sin2
sin2
mA
A
4)
2
sin2
sin2
mA
A
76. The ratio of the angular dispersion of two extreme colours to
their mean deviation is
1) Dispersive power 2) Dispersion
3) Angular dispersion 4) Angular deviation
77. A ray of light incident normally on the first face of a prism of
refracting angle ‘A’ and critical angle ‘C’. The ray emerges from
the second face of the prism when the following condition satisfies
1) C>A 2) C<A
3) C A 4) C A
78. If the critical angle for the medium of a prism is C and the angle of
the prism is A, then there will be no emergent ray when
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1) A<2C 2) A= 2C
3) A>2C 4) A=C/2
79. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is
incident onto it. For minimum deviation
1) PQ is horizontal 2) QR is horizontal
3) RS is horizontal 4) Any one will be horizontal
80. A ray of light incident at an angle ' ' on a refractive face of a
prism emerges from the other face normally. If the angle of the
prism is 05 and the prism is made of a
material of refractive index 1.5 the angle of incidence is
1) 07.5 2) 05
3) 01.5 4) 02.5
IX_PHYSICS_SHP_E1 TO E3_KEY
Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
KEY 1 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 3
Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
KEY 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 4 4 4
Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
KEY 4 1 1 3 1 1 2 3 2 2
Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
KEY 3 4 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 2
Q.NO. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
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KEY 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 1
Q.NO. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
KEY 3 4 3 4 3 4 1 1 1 1
Q.NO. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
KEY 2 1 1 1 2 3 2 3 1 2
Q.NO. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
KEY 1 3 1 1 1 1 3 3 2 1
CHEMISTRY( Q.NO. 1 TO 80)
1. The value of (Kp / Kc) for the reversible reaction SO2(g) + 1/2
O2(g) SO3(g) at constant temperature T is:
1)(RT)1/2 2)RT 3) 1/2( )RT 4)1/RT
2. The knowledge of equilibrium constant helps us in 1) Predicting the extent of a reaction 2) Predicting the direction in which the net reaction is taking place 3) Calculation of equilibrium concentration 4) All the above 3. If Qc is less than Kc the net reaction will occur in__________
1)Backward direction 2)Forward direction 3)Remain unchanged 4)The reaction stops 4. If the value of K is large, then 1) The reactants are more stable 2) The products are more stable 3) The reactants and products both are equally stable. 4) Both reactants and products are unstable. 5. The equilibrium constant expression for a gaseous reaction is .
4 5
3 2
C 4 6
2
NH OK =
NO H OWrite the balanced chemical equation
corresponding to this expression? 1) 4NO + 6H2O 4NH3 + 5O2 2)2NO + 6H2O 2NH3 + 3O2
3)4NO + 3H2O 4NH3 + 2O2 4)2NO + 3H2O 4NH3 + 3O2 6. The equilibrium constant, Kp for the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2
2SO3(g) is 4.0 atm–1 at 1000 K. What would be the partial
pressure of O2 if at equilibrium the amount of SO2 and SO3 is the
same?
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1)0.50 atm 2)0.25 atm 3)1 atm 4)0.75 atm
7. For the reaction, at 800 K N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) the ratio of
Kp and Kc is: (R = 0.0821 litre.atm.mol–1.K–
1)2.3 × 10–4 2)3.2 × 10–6 3)2.3 × 104 4)3.2 × 106
8. A reversible reaction A C takes place in two steps A B; B
C, which are also equilibrium steps. If the equilibrium constants
of the two steps are K1& K2 respectively, the overall equilibrium
constant K is equal to
1)K1 / K2 2)K2 / K1 3)K1 x K2 4)K1 - K2
9. In an equilibrium reaction for which , 0G 0 the equilibrium
constant K should be equal to
1)1 2)<1 3)>1 4) undefined
10. The equilibrium constant kc of a reversible reaction is 5. The rate
constant for the reverse reaction is 2.8. What is the rate constant
for the forward reaction
1) 14 2) 28
3) 0.028 4) 280
11. Which of the reactions will be formed when the standard free
energy change of the reaction is greater than unity
0G 1
1)Forward reaction 2)Backward reaction
3)Both will occur with the same speed 4)Reaction will stop
12. When ºG 0 then
1)Reaction is at equilibrium 2)Not at equilibrium
3)Forward reaction is feasible 4)Reverse reaction is Feasible
13. The relation between standard free energy change of a reaction
and its equilibrium constant is given by
1) 0G c2.303RT K 2)
0
c
2.303G log
RT
3) 0
cG 2.303RT log K 4) 0 2
cG 2.303RT K
14. Kc for the reaction 2(g ) 2 g 3 gN 3H 2NH at 773 K is 26.0 10 . Kp
for the above reaction will be: (R = 0.0821)
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1)1.5 × 10–5 2)4 × 10–6 3)6 × 10–6 4) 8 × 10–6 15. The equilibrium constant, Kp for the reaction
2 24 g 2 g 6 gC H H C H is 17 15.04 10 atm at 25ºC. Calculate Gº .
1)+101 kJ 2) 101kJ 3) 1.01kJ 4)1.01kJ 16. For A B C Dthen the reaction quotient Q =
1) A B
C D 2)
C D
A B 3)
A B
C D 4)
A D
C B
17. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on the basis of which of the
following concepts?
1)Arrhenius concept
2)Bronsted Lowry concept
3)Lewis concept
4)Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis concept.
18. In which of the following reactions, the equilibrium remains
unaffected on addition of small amount of argon at constant
volume?
1) 2 2H g I g 2HI g
2) 5 3 2PCl g PCl g Cl g
3) 2 2 3N g 3H g 2NH g
4)The equilibrium will remain unaffected in all the three cases.
19. Conjugate acid of a weak base is always stronger.
What will be the decreasing order of basic strength of the
following conjugate bases? - - - -
3OH , RO , CH COO , Cl
1) - - - -
3OH > RO > CH COO > Cl 2) - - - -
3CH COO >RO > OH > Cl
3) - - - -
3RO > OH > CH COO > Cl 4) - - - -Cl > RO > OH > CH3COO
20. In the reaction SnCl2 + 2Cl-SnCl4 +2e- the Lewis acid is
1)SnCl 2)SnCl3 3)SnCl2 4) 4SnCl
21. Which among the following reactions will be favoured at low
pressure?
1) 2 2N g O g 2NO g 2) 2 2H g I g 2HI g
3) 5 3 2PCl g PCl g Cl g 4) 2 2 3N g 3H g 2NH g
22. In a reaction 5 3 2AX (g) AX (g) X (g) ;H > 0, the dissociation of
AX5(g) will be favored at:
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1)Low temperature and high pressure
2)High temperature and low pressure
3)Low temperature and low pressure
4)High temperature and high pressure
23. On increasing the pressure, in which direction will the gas phase
reaction proceed to re-establish equilibrium, is predicted by
applying the Le Chatelier’s Principle. Consider the reaction.
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
Which of the following is correct, if the total pressure at which
the equilibrium is established, is increased without changing the
temperature?
1)Kwill remain same
2)Kwill decrease
3)Kwill increase
4)Kwill increase initially and decrease when pressure is very high
24. Conjugate base of a acid is obtained by
1)Addition of proton to a base
2)Removal of proton from the acid
3)Addition of
OH ion to the base
4)Removal of proton from the base
Paragraph for Questions 25 to 27
In the reaction, 2 3HC H O H O C , HCl and H3O+ are Bronsted –
Lowry acids.
25. Review the equilibrium and choose the correct statement 4 2 3 4HC O H O H O C O
1) 4HC O is the conjugate acid of 2H O
2) 3H O is the conjugate base of 2H O
3) 2H O is the conjugate acid of 3H O
4) 4C O is the conjugate base of 4HC O
26. 2 3HC H O H O C .
In the above reaction which acts as Bronsted base?
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1)HCl 2) 3H O 3) 2H O 4)None
27. The conjugate base of 2NH is :
1) 3NH 2) 2NH 3) 4NH 4)
3N
Paragraph for Questions 28 to 30
Physical and chemical equilibrium can respond to a change in their
pressure, temperature, and concentration of reactants and products.
To describe the change in the equilibrium we have a principal named
Le Chatelier's principle. According to this principle, even if we make
some changes in equilibrium, then also the system even re-establishes
the equilibrium by undoing the effect.
28. Consider the following equilibrium:
2 2 32 2 ; ,NO O NO H ve
If 2O is added and volume of the reaction vessel is reduced, the
equilibrium
1)Shifts in the product side 2)Shifts in the reactant side
3)Cannot be predicted 4)Remains unchanged
29. If We add 2
4SO ion to a saturated solution of 2 4Ag SO , it will result
in a/an
1)Increase in Ag concentration.
2)Decrease in Ag concentration
3)It will shift Ag ions from solid into solution.
4)It will decrease the 2
4SO ion concentration in the solution
30. In the reaction. If we increase the pressure of the system, the
equilibrium is
1)Shifts in the product side 2)Shift in reactant side
3)Remains unchanged 4)Cannot be predicted
31. For the reaction 2(g ) 2 g 3 gN 3H 2NH , the units of Kc are:
1) mole / litre 2)litre / mol 3) 2 2lit mol 4) lit2mol2
32. The equilibrium constant for H2+I2 2HI is 81 then the
equilibrium constant for 1
2 H2+
1
2I2 HI is_________
1)6 2)7 3)9 4)12
33. Which of the following are correct :
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1)pH of a weak acid is = a
1 1PK log C
2 2
2)pH of a weak base is = w b
1 1PK PK logC
2 2
3)pH of a weak base is = b
114 PK logC
2
4)All the above
34. Find the pH of a 0.002 N acetic acid solution, it is 3.3% ionised at a given dilution. [log 6.6 = 081]
1)4.34 2)5.33 3)4.18 4)3.33
35. A 0.01 M ammonia solution is 4 % ionized, the concentration of
OH– ions is
1)0.005 M 2)0.0004 M 3)0.0005 M 4)0.05 M
36. A weak mono acidic base is 7% ionized in 0.01 M. solution. The Hydroxide ion concentration in the solution is
1)7 x 10-4 2)5 x 10-4 3)5 x 10-10 4)2 x 10-11
37. The pH of neutral water at 25°C is 7.0. As the temperature increases, ionization of water increases, however, the concentration of H+ ions and OH– ions are equal. What will be the pH of pure water at 60°C?
1)Equal to 7.0 2)Greater than 7.03)Less than 7.0 4)Equal to zero
38. 0.4g of NaOH is present in one litre of the solution shows that H+ concentration of the solution is
1)10-2 2)10-4 3)10-10 4)10-12
39. One litre of water contains 710 moles of H ions .Degree of ionisation of water ( in percentage) is
1)7
1.8 10 2)
91.8 10
3)7
3.6 10 4)
93.6 10
40. At 700C the concentration of H+ ion in aqueous solution of NaCl
is 10-6 mole/lit. The OH- ion concentration is
1)10-8 moles/lit. 2)10-6moles/lit. 3)10-7 moles/lit. 4)10-9moles/lit.
41. A monobasic acid solution has pH value of 5. Its molarity is 0.0005M. The degree of ionisation of the acid is
1)5 x 10-3 2)2x10-3 3)5 x10-2 4)2x10-2
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42. Determine the degree of ionisation of 0.05M NH3 at 250C in a
solution of pH=11 (Kb=1.76 x 10-5)
1)0.0173 2)0.173 3)1.73 4)17.3
43. The ionisation constant of a mono basic acid is 6 x 10-2. The pH of 0.01 M - acid solution is [log 2.4 = 0.38]
1)1.61 2)3.30 3)5.0 4)1.65
44. The pH of a 0.01M aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide will be.
1)12 2)7.5 3)9.0 4)11.0
45. Which of the following aqueous solutions of compounds are acidic in nature :
1) 2 4K SO 2) 3FeC 3) 4CuSO 4)Both 2 and 3
46. The dissociation constants of two acids HA1 and HA2 are 4.5 x
10-4 and 1.8 x 10-5 respectively. If both are having equal concentrations the relative strength of acids is
1)5:2 2)2:5 3)5:1 4)1:5
47. Degree of dissociation of CH3COOH and 4NH OHare the same. If
0.01 M solution of CH3COOH has pH=4.0; then pH of 0.01 M
NH4OH will be
1)4 2)7 3)10 4)14
48. pH of a sample of KOH and another of NaOH are 9 and 12
respectively. Their normalities are related as NaOH KOHN xN . What
is the value of x?
1)5/6 2)6/5 3) 210 4) 310
49. 50ml of 0.1M solution of sodium acetate and 50 ml of 0.01M
acetic acid mixed. The pKa of acetic acid is 5.76. The HP of the
buffer solution is
1)6.76 2)4.76 3)5.76 4)9.24
50. Which of the following will produce a buffer solution when mixed
in equal volumes?
1)0.1 moldm–3 NH4OH and 0.1 moldm–3HCl
2)0.05 moldm–3 NH4OH and 0.1 moldm–3HCl
3)0.1 moldm–3 NH4OH and 0.05 moldm–3 HCl
4)0.1 moldm–3 CH4COONa and 0.1 moldm–3NaOH
51. Conjugate acid of a weak base is always stronger.
What will be the decreasing order of basic strength of the
followingconjugate bases?
- - - -
3OH , RO , CH COO , Cl
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1) - - - -
3OH > RO > CH COO > Cl 2) - - - -
3CH COO >RO > OH > Cl
3) - - - -
3RO > OH > CH COO > Cl 4) - - - -Cl > RO > OH > CH3COO
52. For the reaction, at 800 K N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) the ratio
of Kp and Kc is: (R = 0.0821 litre.atm.mol–1.K–1)
1)2.3 × 10–4 2)3.2 × 10–6 3)2.3 × 104 4)3.2 × 106
53. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
2 2A g +B g 2AB g is 48 at 600 K What is the equilibrium
constant for 2 22AB g A g +B g
1)1.56×10–2 2)2.08×10–2 3)1.56×102 4)2.56×102
54. If the reversible reaction
SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3(g) + NO(g) - (1)
takes place in two reversible steps (2 & 3), with equilibrium constant values 4.0 and 0.45 respectively
SO2(g) + 2 3
1( ) ( )
2O g SO g K = 4.0 - (2)
2 2
1( ) ( ) ( )
2NO g NO g O g K = 0.45 - (3)
the equilibrium constant Kc of the reaction (1) is
1)0.9 2)400 / 9 3)9 / 400 4)1.8
55. Find the pH of a 0.002 N acetic acid solution, it is 3.3% ionised at
a given dilution. [log 6.6 = 081]
1)4.34 2)5.33 3)4.18 4)3.33
56. A monobasic acid solution has pH value of 5. Its molarity is
0.0005M. The degree of ionisation of the acid is
1)5 x 10-3 2)2x10-3 3)5 x10-2 4)2x10-2
Paragraph for Questions 57 to 59
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Many reactions, particularly the biochemical reactions are to be carried
out at a constant pH. But it is observed that solutions and even pure
water (pH = 7) cannot retain the constant pH for long.
57. Which of the following statements are correct for about buffer solution :
1)It has a definite pH
2)Its pH does not change on dilution.
3)It’s pH does not change on standing for long time. 4)All the above 58. Solutions with reserve acidity and alkalinity are called :
1)Buffer solution 2)True solution
3)Isohydric solution 4)Ideal solution
59. A buffer solution is used in : 1)Preparation of potash alum 2)The removal of phosphate ions
3)Increasing the pH value of a solution
4)Precipitation of 3
Cr OH from 3CrC .l
Paragraph for Questions 60 to 62
In the reaction, 2 3HC H O H O C , HCl and H3O+ are Bronsted -
Lowry acids.
60. Review the equilibrium and choose the correct statement 4 2 3 4HC O H O H O C O
1) 4HC O is the conjugate acid of 2H O
2) 3H O is the conjugate base of 2H O
3) 2H O is the conjugate acid of 3H O
4) 4C O is the conjugate base of 4HC O
61. 2 3HC H O H O C .
In the above reaction which acts as Bronsted base?
1)HCl 2) 3H O 3) 2H O 4)None
62. The conjugate base of 2NH is :
1) 3NH 2) 2NH 3) 4NH 4)
3N
63. 1 2 3a a aK ,K and K are the respective ionisation constants for the
following Reactions.
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2H S H HS
2HS H S
2
2H S 2H S
The correct relationship between 1 2 3a a aK ,K and K is
1)3 1 2a a aK K K 2)
3 1 2a a aK K K
3)3 1 2a a aK K K
4)
3 1 2a a aK K /K
64. The ionisation constant of an acid, Ka, is the measure of strength of an acid. The Ka values of acetic acid, hypochlorous acid and formic acid are 1.74 × 10–5, 3.0 × 10–8 and 1.8 × 10–4 respectively. Which of the following Orders of pH of 0.1 moldm–3 solutions of these acids are correct?
1) Acetic acid >hypochlorous acid > formic acid
2) Hypochlorous acid > acetic acid > formic acid
3) Formic acid >hypochlorous acid > acetic acid
4) Formic acid > acetic acid >hypochlorous acid
65. hK of salt obtained from strong acid and weak base is
55 10 . The bK of weak base is
1) 192 10 2) 105 10
3) 102 10 4) 95 10
66. pH of 0.01M HS- will be
1) log7
2
apK C
pH 2) log
72
apK C
pH
3) 1 272
pK pK
pH 4)
72
a bpK pK
pH
67. The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and weak base in its 0.1M solution is found to be 25%. If the molarity of the solution is 0.2M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt sholud be
1) 100% 2) 50% 3) 25% 4) 80%
68. From separate solutions of four sodium salts NaW, NaX, NaY and NaZ had pH 7.0, 9.0, 10.0 and 11.0 respectively when each solution was 0.1M, the weakest acid is
1) HW 2) HX 3) HY 4) HZ
69. Nature of 0.1M solution of potassium sulphate is
1) Acidic 2) Alkaline 3) Neutral 4) Amphoteric
70. The no.of hydroxyl ions produced by one molecule of
2 3Na CO on hydrolysis is
1) 4 2) 2
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3) 3 4) 0
71. MX is the salt of weak base, MOH and weak acid, HX .
Aqueous solution of MX is
1) Acidic, if a bK K 2) Basic, if a bK K
3) Neutral, if a bK K
4) All the above
72. The HP of 0.1M solution of the following compounds increase in the order
1) 3 2 2 4 KNO K S K SO 2)
2 2 4 3 K S K SO KNO
3) 2 4 3 2 K SO KNO K S 4)
3 2 4 2 KNO K SO K S
73. Identify the salt of a strong acid and weak base. Among the following?
1) 3FeCl 2) 3CH COONa
3) 3 4CH COONH 4) NaBr
74. Which of the following salt solution have HP greater than 7?
1) NH4Cl 2) NaCl 3) CH3COONa 4) Na2SO4
75. The aqueous solution of sodium cyanide is basic in nature. This is due to the hydrolysis of
1) Sodium ion 2) Cyanide ion 3) Cyanide ion and sodium
ion 4) Iso cyanide ion
76. pH of aqueous NaHSO4 solution is
1) >7 2) 7 3) <7 4) 14
77. A salt of weak acid and weak base undergoes
1) Only cationic hydrolysis 2) Only anionic hydrolysis 3) Both cationic and
anionic hydrolysis 4) neither cationic nor
anionic hydrolysis
78. Which of the following is basic solution?
1) NaCl 2) NaNO2 3) NH4NO3 4) KBr
79. The pH of the salt of strong acid and weak base is given by
1) 1log
2 w apK pK C
2) 1log
2 w bpK pK C
3) 1
2 w a bpK pK pK
4) 1[ ]2
wpK
80. When 20 mL of M/20 NaOH is added to 10 mL of M/10 HCl, the resulting solution will
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1) Turn blue litmus red 2) turn phenolpthalein solution pink
3) Turns methyl orange red 4) Will have no effect on either red or blue litmus
IX_CHEMISTRY_SHP_E1 TO E3_KEY
Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
KEY 3 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 1 1
Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
KEY 2 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 3
Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
KEY 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 1 2 4
Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
KEY 3 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 1 2
Q.NO. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
KEY 4 1 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 3
Q.NO. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
KEY 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 1 2 4
Q.NO. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
KEY 3 2 1 4 3 1 3 4 3 2
Q.NO. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
KEY 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 4
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(OLYMPIAD AND E-TECHNO)
SIMPLE HOLIDAY
PACKAGE PONGAL
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
CLASS – IX – E4 & E5
IX_MPC_E4 to E5_SHP
INDEX
SUBJECT PAGE NO.
1. MATHEMATHICS 2 - 14
2. PHYSICS 15 - 31
3. CHEMISTRY 32 - 46
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MATHEMATICS (Q.No.1 to 80)
1. The equation of the straight line passing through the point (3,-4)
and making X and Y-intercepts which are in the ratio
2 : 3 is
1) 3x + 2y - 1 = 0 2) 2x + 3y + 12 = 0
3) 3x + 5y + 11 = 0 4) 3x + y + 1 = 0
2. A straight line L with negative slope passes through the point
(8,2) and cuts positive coordinate axes at the points P and Q.
Find the minimum value of OP+OQ as L varies, where O is the
origin.
1) 16 2) 18
3) 14 4) 20
3. 1,1 , 5,3A B are opposite vertices of a square in the XY – plane.
Find the equation of the other diagonal (not passing through
A,B) of the square.
1) 3x + y + 8 = 0 2) x + 3y + 8 = 0
3) 3x + y - 8 = 0 4) x + 3y - 8 = 0
4. The angle between the lines formed by joining the points
2, 3 , 5,1 and 7, 1 , 0, 3
1) /2 2) /4
3) 0 4) /6
5. If the points (1,2) and (3,4) were to be on the same side of the line 3 5 0x y a , then
1) 7 < a < 11 2) a = 7
3) a = 11 4) a < 7 or a > 11
6. The line L given by 15
x y
b passes through the point 13,32 . The
line K is parallel to L and has the equation 1.3
x y
c Then the
distance between L and K is
1) 23
15
2) 16
17
3) 17
15
4) 23
17
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7. If the point (1,2) is reflected through the origin and then through the line x = y, then the new coordinates of the point are
1) 1,2 2) 2, 1
3) 2, 1 4) 2,1
8. If p,q are lengths of perpendiculars from the origin to
cosα sinα sin2α;x y sinα cosα cos2α,x y then 2 2p q
1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 1
9. A square of side a lies above the x-axis and has one vertex at the origin. The side passing through the origin makes an angle
πα 0 α4
with the positive direction of x-axis. The equation of
its diagonal not passing through the origin is
1) cosα sin α sin α cosαy x
2) cosα sinα sinα cosαy x a
3) cosα sin α sin α sin αy x
4) cosα sinα cosα sinαy x a
10. The product of the perpendiculars drawn from the two points
2 2 ,0a b to the line cosα sin α 1x y
a b is
1) a 2) b
3) 2a 4) 2b
11. The arc of a triangle is 5 square unit. Two of its vertices are
2,1 , 3, 2 and the third vertex lies on the line 3.y x the third
vertex can be
1) 7 / 2,13/ 2 2) 3/ 2,3/ 2
3) 7 / 2, 13 / 2 4) 3/ 2, 3/ 2
12. The equation of the straight line whose slope 2 / 3 and which
divides the line segment joining 3, 4 , 7, 2 in the ratio 3 : 2
externally is
1) 2 3 12 0x y 2) 3 2 27 0x y
3) 2 3 29 0x y 4) 2 3 72 0x y
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13. If , , are the roots of 3 2 2 0 x x x then the equation whose
roots are 2 2 2 2 2 2, , is
1) 3 25 4 16 0 y y y 2) 3 25 4 16 0 y y y
3) 3 25 4 16 0 y y y 4) 3 25 4 16 0 y y y
14. The roots of 4 3 2x 10x 26x 10x 1 0 are
1) 3 2 2,2 3 2) 2 3 2,2 3
3) 3 2 2,3 2 4) 2 3 2,3 2
15. If 2,-2,4 are the roots of 3 2ax bx cx d 0 , then the roots of 3 28ax 4bx 2cx d 0 are
1) 2,-2,4 2) 1/2,-1/2,1/4
3) 1,-1,2 4) 4,-4,8
16. The transformed equation of 5 4 3 2x 5x 3x x x 1 0
by eliminating second term is
1) 5 3 2y 7y 12y 7y 0 2) 3y 2y 1 0
3) 4 2y 4y 1 0 4) 4 2y 24y 65y 55 0
17. A variable straight line drawn through the point of intersection
of the straight lines 1x y
a b and 1
x y
b a meets the coordinate
axes at A and B, then the locus of the mid-point of AB is.
1) 2 a b xy ab x y 2) 2 a b xy ab x y
3) 2 a b xy ab x y 4) 2 a b xy ab x y
18. The incenter of the triangle formed by the straight lines
3 , 3y x y x and 3.y is
1) (0, -2) 2) (0, 2) 3) (-2, 0) 4) (2,3)
19. The nature of the triangle formed by the lines 2 23 0x y and
2x is
1) scalene 2) right angled 3) equilateral 4) isosceles
20. The line 3x-3y+17=0 bisects the angle between a pair of lines of which one line is 2x+y+4=0, then the equation to the other line is
1) 3x+6y-5=0 2) 3x+6y-7=0
3) 3x+6y+8=0 4) None
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21. If the lines 2 2 0px qxy y make angles and with the x-axis,
then the value of tan is
1) q
1+p
2) q
1-p
3) -q
1+p
4) -q
1-p
22. 7x y and 2 22 0, 0 ,ax hxy ay a are three real distinct lines
forming a triangle. Then the triangle is
1) Isosceles 2) Scalene 3) Equilateral 4) Right-angled
23. Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices 2,2 , 6, 1 ,P Q
and 7,3 .R The equation of the line passing through 1, 1 and
parallel to PS is
1) 2 9 7 0x y 2) 2 9 11 0x y
3) 2 9 11 0x y 4) 2 9 7 0x y
24. Two sides of a triangle are 1 0 x y and 2 4 0 x y . If its
circumcentre is (2,1) the third side is
1) 4 3 6 0 x y 2) 3 4 6 0 x y
3) 4 3 6 0 x y 4) 3 4 6 0 x y
25. 1,3A and 2 / 5, 2 / 5C are the vertices of a triangle ABC and
the equation of the internal angle bisector of ABC is 2.x y The equation of side BC is
1) 7 3 4 0x y 2) 7 3 4 0x y
3) 7 3 4 0x y 4) 7 3 4 0x y
26. 1,3A and 2 / 5, 2 / 5C are the vertices of a triangle ABC and
the equation of the internal angle bisector of ABC is 2.x y The coordinates of vertex B are
1) 3/10,17 /10 2) 17 /10,3/10
3) 5/ 2,9 / 2 4) 1,1
27. 1,3A and 2 / 5, 2 / 5C are the vertices of a triangle ABC and
the equation of the internal angle bisector of ABC is 2.x y The equation of side AB is
1) 3 7 24x y 2) 3 7 24 0x y
3) 13 7 8 0x y 4) 13 7 8 0x y
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28. 1 1 2 2 3 3, , , ,A x y B x y C x y are the vertices of a triangle ABC.
0lx my n is an equation of the line L.If L intersects the sides
BC,CA and AB of the triangle ABC at P,Q,R respectively then
BP CQ AR
PC QA RB is equal to
1) -1 2) -1/2 3) 1/2 4) 1
29. 1 1 2 2 3 3, , , ,A x y B x y C x y are the vertices of a triangle ABC.
0lx my n is an equation of the line L.If the centroid of the
triangle ABC is at the origin and algebraic sum of the lengths of the perpendiculars from the vertices of the triangle ABC on the line L is equal to 1 then sum of the squares of the intercepts made by L on the coordinate axes is equal to
1) 0 2) 4 3) 9 4) 16
30. 1 1 2 2 3 3, , , ,A x y B x y C x y are the vertices of a triangle ABC.
0lx my n is an equation of the line L.If P dives BC in the ratio
2 : 1 and Q divides CA in the ratio 1 : 3 then R divides AB in the ratio (P,Q,R are the points as in Ex. 36)
1) 2 : 3 internally 2) 2 : 3 externally 3) 3 : 2 internally 4) 3 : 2 externally
31. The pair of lines 2 2 0h x y pxy bisects the angles between the
pair 2 22 0ax hxy by . The value of p is
1) a b 2) b a 3) a b 4) a b
32. If 2 24 2 6 10 0x lxy y x ky represent a pair of parallel lines,
then
1) 3, 2k l 2) 22, 12k l
3) 3, 2k l 4) 16, 9k l
33. If 2 23 2 5 10 0 lx xy y x y k represents a pair of perpendicular
lines, then
1) 3, 7k l 2) 12, 2k l
3) 3, 15k l 4) 15, 9k l
34. The equations of the diagonals of the rectangle formed by the lines 0 hxy gx fy c and the coordinate axes are
1) 0, 0gx fy gx fy c 2) 0, 0fx gy gx fy c
3) 0, 0gx fy c gx fy 4) 0, 0fx gy c gx fy
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35. Perpendiculars AL, AM are drawn from any point A on the x –
axis to the pair of lines 2 22 3 0x xy y . The angle made by LM
with x – axis is
1) 2)
2
3)
3
4)
4
36. All the chords of the curve 2 23x y 2x 4y 0 which subtend a
right angle at the origin pass through a fixed point, then the point is
1) (1, 1) 2) (-1, -1) 3) (1, -1) 4) (-1, 1)
37. If the pair of straight lines given by 2 2 2Ax + 2Hxy + By = 0 H > AB
forms an equilateral triangle with line ax + by + c = 0, then
A +3B 3A +B is equal to
1) 2H 2) – 2H 3) 2 2H 4) 4 2H
38. The area of the equilateral triangle formed by the pair of lines
passing through the origin and the line 12x 5y +13 = 0 in
sq.units is
1) 3 3 2) 2 3
3) 3 4) 1
3
39. The two lines represented by 2 2 23ax + 5xy + a 2 y = 0 are
perpendicular to each other for
1) two values of ‘a’ 2) three values of ‘a’
3) for one value of ‘a’ 4) for no value of ‘a’
40. If 2 2a x 1 + 2h x 1 y 2 + b y 2 = 0 has one angular
bisector 2x + 3y 8 = 0 , then other bisector is
1) 2 3 1 0x y 2) 2 3 1 0x y
3) 3 2 1 0x y 4) None of these
41. The angle between the straight lines represented by 2 22 5 2 5 7 3 0 x xy y x y is
1) 1 1
5
Cos 2)
1 3
5
Cos
3) 1 4
5
Cos 4)
1 2
5
Cos
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42. If the pairs of lines represented by 2 22 0ax hxy by and 2 22 2 2 0ax hxy by gx fy c form a rhombus, then
1) 2 2 0. a b fg h f g 2) 2 2 0. a b fg h f g
3) 2 2 0. a b fg h f g 4) 2 2 0.a b fg h f g
43. The equation 2 28 24 18 6 9 5 0x xy y x y represents a pair of
parallel straight lines , then the distance between them is
1) 7
53
2) 5
52
3) 7
52
4) 5
53
44. The equation 2 22 13 7 23 6 0x xy y x y represents a pair of
straight lines, then the angle between the lines is
1) 1tan 2 2) 1tan 3
3)
2
4)
4
45. The equation of the bisector of the acute angle between the lines 3 4 7 0x y and 12 5 2 0 x y is
1) 11x – 3y + 9 =0 2) 11x + 3y + 9 =0
3) 11x – 3y – 9 =0 4) 11x + 3y – 9 =0
46. A diagonal of the rectangle formed by the lines 2x 7x 6 0
and 2y 14y 40 0 is
1) 5x + 6y = 0 2) 5x – 6y = 0
3) 6x – 5y + 14 = 0 4) 6x – 5y - 14 = 0
47. The angle between the pair of straight lines formed by joining
the points of intersection of 2 2x y 4 and y =3x+c to the origin
is a right angle, then 2c
1) 20 2) 13
3) 1/5 4) 5
48. The equation 2 28x 8xy 2y 26x 13y 15 0 represents a pair
of parallel straight lines, then the perpendicular distance between them is
1) 7
5
2) 3
2 5
3) 7
2 5
4) 2
3 5
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49. If 5,4,6 , 1, 1,3 , 4,3, 2A B C are vertices of a triangle ABC, then the
coordinates of the point in which the bisector of BAC meets the side
BC is
1) 23 3 19, ,
8 2 8
2) 23 3 19
, ,8 2 8
3) 23 3 19, ,
8 2 8
4) 23 3 19
, ,8 2 8
50. If a triangle formed by the points 1,2,3 , 2,3,1 and 3,1, 2 , then
orthocenter is
1) 3,1, 2 2) 2,2,2
3) 2,2,1 4) 1,1, 2
51. If A,B,C are three points on , , Ox Oy Oz respectively, at distances a, b, c
0, 0, 0a b c from the origin ‘O’, then the coordinates of the point
which is equidistant from A,B,C and O is
1) , ,
2 2 2
a b c
2)
, ,3 3 3
a b c
3) , ,a b c 4) , ,2 2 2
a b c
52. The in-centre of the triangle formed by the points 0,0,0 , 3,0,0 and
0,4,0 is
1) (1, 1, 0) 2) (0,1,1)
3) (1, 0, 1) 4) (1,1,1)
53. The equations to a pair of opposite sides of a parallelogram are 2 5 6 0x x and
2 6 5 0.y y The equations to its diagonals are
1) 4 13, 4 7x y y x
2) 4 13,4 7x y y x
3) 4 13, 4 7x y y x 4) 4 13, 4 7y x y x
54. The lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of 2 2x y 2gx c 0 and
2 2x y 2fy c 0 are at right angles is
1) 2 2g f c 2) 2 2g f 0
3) 2 2g f 2c 4) 2 2 2g f c
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55. The distance from the point of intersection of the lines 2 2 2 2 0 x y x y to the point of intersection of the lines
2 22 5 2 1 0 x xy y x y is
1) 1 2) 0
3) 2 4) 4
56. The circumcentre of the triangle formed by the lines x2 – y2 = 0 and y–
5=0 is
1) (5, 0) 2) (0, 5)
3) (0, 0) 4) (5, 5)
57. Let ABCD be a parallelogram whose equations for the diagonals AC and
BD are and , respectively If length of diagonal AC is
4 units and the area of parallelogram ABCD is 8 sq. units, then the
length of other diagonal BD is
1) 10/3 2) 2
3) 20/3 4) none of these
58. Let ABCD be a parallelogram whose equations for the diagonals AC and
BD are and , respectively The length of side AB is
equal to
1) 2)
3) 4)
59. Let ABCD be a parallelogram whose equations for the diagonals AC and
BD are and , respectively The length of BC is equal
to
1) 2)
3) 4) none of these
60. The centroid of the tetrahedron formed by the points 1 1 1, ,A x y z ,
2 2 2, ,B x y z , 3 3 3, ,C x y z and 4 4 4, ,D x y z is
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4, ,4 4 4
x x x x y y y y z z z z
The circumcentre of the triangle formed by the points (1,2,3), (3,-1,5), (4,0,-3) is
1) (1,1,1) 2) 7 1, ,12 2
3) (3,3,3) 4) 7 1, ,12 2
x 2y 3 2x y 3
x 2y 3 2x y 3
2 58 / 3 4 58 / 9
3 58 / 9 4 58 / 9
x 2y 3 2x y 3
2 10 / 3 4 10 / 3
8 10 / 3
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61. The centroid of the tetrahedron formed by the points 1 1 1, ,A x y z ,
2 2 2, ,B x y z , 3 3 3, ,C x y z and 4 4 4, ,D x y z is
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4, ,4 4 4
x x x x y y y y z z z z
Let A (4,7,8), B (2,3,4) and C (2,5,7) be the vertices of ABC . The
length of the median AD is
1) 2 2) 1
2
3) 77
2
4) 89
2
62. The centroid of the tetrahedron formed by the points 1 1 1, ,A x y z ,
2 2 2, ,B x y z , 3 3 3, ,C x y z and 4 4 4, ,D x y z is
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4, ,4 4 4
x x x x y y y y z z z z, , are the root of
3 22 2 0 x x x .
Centroid of triangle with verties , , , ( , , ), ( , , ) is
1) 2 2 2, ,3 3 3
2) 2 1 2
, ,3 3 3
3) 2 2 2, ,3 3 3
4) 4 2 2
, ,3 3 3
63. If three consecutive vertices of a parallelogram are
4,3,5 , 0,6,0 . 8,1, 4A B C and D is the fourth vertex then
the angle between AC
and BD
is
1) 1 55
149 161
Cos 2)
1 65
149 161
Cos
3) 1 15
149 161
Cos 4)
1 3
149 161
Cos
64. The three lines with d.r’s , (1,1,2) ( 3 1, 3 1, 4) , ( 3 1, 3 1, 4) forms
1) An equilateral triangle 2) A right angled triangle 3) An isosceles triangle 4) A right angled isosceles triangle
65. If the dr’s of a line are 1 ,1 , 2 and it makes an angle 060
with the Y- axis then is
1) 1 3 2) 4 5
3) 2 2 5 4) 2 5
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66. If the angle between line with d.c’s
2, ,
21 21 21
a b and other line
with d.c’s 3 3 6, ,
54 54 54
is 900 then a pair of possible values of
‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are
1) -1, 4 2) 4, 2 3) 4,1 4) -4,-2
67. The vertices of a triangle are 2,3,5 , 1,3,2 , 3,5, 2 , then the
angles are
1) 300, 300, 1200 2) 1 0 11 5
,90 ,5 3
Cos Cos
3) 0 0 030 ,60 ,90 4) 1 0 11 2
,90 ,3 3
Cos Cos
68. If the vertices of a triangle are 1,1,1 , 4,1,1, , 4,5,1 , then the area
of triangle is
1) 5 sq. unit 2) 6 sq. unit 3) 3 sq. unit 4) 2 sq. unit
69. Let a line makes an angle ‘ ’ with X and Z - axes and with
Y -axis. If sin 3 sin , then 2cos
1) 3
5
2) 5
3
3) 2
5
4) 1
5
70. If ( ,3,5)x and (2, 1,2) are d.r’s of two lines and angle between the
lines is 045 then the values of x are
1) 4, 52 2) 3,42
3) 4,52 4) 3,32
71. A line OP where O = (0, 0, 0) makes equal angles with OX, OY, OZ. The point on OP, which is at a distance of 6 units from ‘O’ is
1) 12 12 12, ,3 3 3
2) 2 3, 2 3, 2 3
3) 2 3, 2 3, 2 3 4) 6 3, 6 3, 6 3
72. The d.r’s of the lines AB and AC are (1, 2, -2) and (2, -3, 6).
The d.r’s of a bisector of the BAC are
1) 3, -1, -8 2) -1, 5, -8 3) 1, 23, -32 4) None of these
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73. The line passing through the points A 5,1,a and B 3, ,1b
crosses the yz plane at the point 17 13
0, ,2 2
, then the
values of a, b are
1) 6,4 2) 3,5 3) 2,4 4) 1,6
74. The point to which the axes should be translated to eliminate
first degree terms in the equation 2 2 2 2 4 2 3 0 x y z x y z is
1) (1,2,-1) 2) (2,4,-2) 3) (3,2,1) 4) (2,6,3)
75. The d.c's of two lines are
3 1 3, ,
4 4 2and
3 1, ,
4 4k If the angle
between the lines is 60o then k =
1) 3 2) 2
3
3) 1
2 3
4) 3
2
76. A = (1, 2, 3), B = (4, 5, 7), C = (-4, 3, -6), D = (2, k, 2) are four
points. If the lines AB and CD are parallel then k =
1) 0 2) -9
3) 9 4) None of these
77. If a line makes angles 60 , 60 , 45o o o and with the four diagonals of
a cube then 2sin
1) 2
3
2) 11
12
3) 11
12
4) 31
12
78. If the direction cosines of any two lines are
2 / 3,1/ 3, 2 / 3 , 3/ 5, 4 / 5,0 respectively, then the acute angle
between those two lines is
1) 1 1
7Cos
2)
1 2
15Cos
3) 1 5
7Cos
4)
1 10
7Cos
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79. If a line in the space makes angles , and with the
coordinate axes, the 2 2 2cos2 cos2 cos2 sin sin sin
1) -1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2
80. If the angles made by a straight line with the coordinate axis are
, ,2
then
1) 0 2)
6
3)
2
4)
IX_MATHEMATICS_SHP_E4 &E5_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 4
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 1 4 2 1 3 1 4 3 4 4
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 1 4 4 1 2 2 2 2 2 2
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 2 1 2 1 4 3 4 4 1 3
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 3 4 3 2 1 3 1 3 3 2
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 4 1 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 4
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 3 3 1 1 4 3 4 2 1 3
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 3 3 1 1 3 3 1 2 3 3
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PHYSICS ( Q.NO. 1 TO 80)
1. Water flows through horizontal tube As shown in the figure. If the difference of heights of water column in the vertical tubes ish= 0.03 m, and the areas of cross section act A and B
are 4 10-4m2 and 1 10-4m2metal scrap respectively. Then the rate of flow of water across any section is (in cm3/s)
1) 55.56 2) 56.56
3) 57.56 4) 58.56
2. The diagram shows a pipe of uniform cross section in which
water is flowing.The directions of flow and the volume flow
rates(in cm3/s) are shown for various portions of the pipe.
The direction of flow and the volume flow rate in the portion
marked A are
1) 315 /secand cm 2) 35 /secand cm
3) 315 /secand cm 4) 35 /secand cm
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of turbulent flow?
1) Velocity more than critical
velocity
2) Irregular flow
3) Molecules crossing from one
layer to the other
4) All the above
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4. The below figure shows a liquid of density 1200 kg/m3
flowing steadily in a tube of varying cross section the cross-
section at ‘A’ point is 1.0 cm2 and that get ‘B’ is 20 mm the
points A and B are in the same horizontal plane.The speed of
the liquid ‘A’ is 10cm/sec then the difference in difference in
pressure at A and B is
1) 144a 2) 154a
3) 164a 4) 174a
5. The areas of cross section of the wide and narrow portions of the tube are 10 cm2 and 4 cm2 respectively are shown in figure. The rate of flow of the water through the tube is
1000cm3/sec.The difference of Mercury levels in the U-Tube
is
1) 0.97cm 2) 1.97cm
3) 0.67cm 4) 6.67cm
6. A cylindrical vessel of 90 cm height is kept filled up to the brim. It has four holes 1, 2, 3 and 4 which are respectively at heights of 20 cm, 30 cm, 45 cm and 50 cm from the horizontal floor PQ. The water falling at the maximum horizontal distance from the vessel comes from
1) Hole number 4 2) Hole number 3
3) Hole number 2 4) Hole number 1
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7. Water flows through a non-uniform tube of area P,Q and R, as shown in. The portion having the highest velocity is
1) P 2) Q
3) R 4) Same in all
8. Figure shows two holes in a wide tank containing a liquid column. The water streams coming one of these holes strike the ground at the same point. The height of liquid column in the tank is
1) 10cm 2) 8cm
3) 9.8cm 4) 980cm
9. One end of a cylindrical pipe has a radius of 2.5 cm water
(density=1.0103 kg/m3) streams steadily out at 9.0 m/s the rate at which mass is leaving the pipe is
1) 16.77 kg/sec 2) 16.77 g/sec
3) 17.66 kg/sec 4) 17.66 g/sec
10. A liquid of density 3800kgm is filled in a tank open at the top
the pressure, of the liquid. At the bottom of the tank is 6.4 atmospheres. The velocity of efflux through a hole at the
bottom is 5 2(1 10 )atmosphere Nm
1) 110ms 2) 120ms
3) 130ms 4) 140ms
11. A large open tank has two small holes in its vertical wall as shown in figure. One is a square hole of side ' 'L at a depth '4 'y from the top and the other is a circular hole of radius ' 'R
at a depth ‘y’ from the top. When the tank is completely
filled with water, the quantities of water flowing out per second from both holes are the same Then ' 'R is euql to :
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1)
2
L
2) 2 L
3) 2L
4)
2
L
12. Which of the following diagrams does not represent a streamline flow
1)
2)
3)
4)
13. The height of water level in a tank is H the range of water
stream coming out of a hole at a depth H
4 from upper water
level will be
1) 3H
2
2) 2H
3
3) H
3
4) 3H
14. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross section of
8.0 cm2 on one end which has 40fine holes each of diameter
1.0 mm. if the liquid flow inside the tube is 1.5 m min-1. what
is the speed of a ejection of the liquid through the holes
1) 0.376 m/s 2) 0.367 m/s
3) 0.637 m/s 4) 0.736 m/s
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15. The liquid flow is most streamlined when
1) liquid of high viscosity and High density flowing through a tube of small radius
2) liquid of high viscosity and the low density flowing through a tube of small radius
3) liquid of low viscosity and the low density flowing through a tube large radius
4) liquid of low viscosity and high density flowing through a tube of arger radius
16. A non-viscous incompressible liquid is flowing through a
horizontal pipe of constant cross-section. Bernoulli's
equation and the equation of continuity predict that the
change in pressure along the pipe
1) is zero 2) depends on the length of the
pipe
3) depends on the fluid velocity 4) depends on the cross sectional
area of the pipe
17. The time of making empty a hemispherical tank of radius `R’ through an orifice of cross sectional area`a’ at its bottom
1) T=∏ 2) T=14∏ 3) T=14∏ 4) T=∏
18. The quantity `h’ appearing in Bernoulli’s equation ( P+ v2+ gh
=constant) must be measured:
1) Upward from the centre of earth
2) Upward from the surface of earth
3) Upward from the lowest point in the flow
4) Upward from any convenient level.
19. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is cot (A/2)and
vertex angle of the prism is A. the angle of minimum deviation is
1) ∏-A 2) ∏ − 2 3)
∏ − 4) ∏-2A
20. Light travels a distance `x’ in medium and `xo’ in vacuum during
the same time. Then critical angle of the medium is
1) sin-1(xxo) 2) sin ( ) 3) sin ( ) 4) sin (√xxo)
21. A convex refracting spherical surface of radius `R’ seperates two media of refractive indices µ1and µ2 .Where should an object be placed in the medium `1’ so that a real image is formed in medium
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2 at the same distance. (µ1> µ2,convex surface is towards medium1)
1) =µ µµ µ
2) = µ µµ µ
3) = µ µµ µ
4) = µ µµ µ
22. A parallel beam of light travelling in water ( µw=4/3) is refractive by a spherical air bubble of radius 2mm situated in water. find the position of the image due to refraction at the first surface.
1) -6mm 2) -5mm 3) -3mm 4) 3mm
23. One end of a horizontal cylinder glass rod (µ =1.5)of radius 5.0 cm is rounded in the shape of hemisphere. An object 0.5 mm high is
placed perpendicular to the axis of the rod at a distance of 20.0
cm from the rounded edge. Find the image height.
1) 0.5 mm 2) -0.5 mm 3) 1 mm 4) -1 mm
24. Find the size of the image formed in the situation shown in figure.
1) 0.3cm 2) 0.6cm 3) 0.9cm 4) 0.2cm
25. If the light moving in a straight line bends by a small but fixed angle,it may be a case of
1) Interference 2) Refraction 3) Diffraction 4) Dispersion
Paragraph for Questions 26 to 28
The minimum angle of deviation m is given by µ=( )
/
Find the minimum angles of deviation of an equilateral prism for the
following cases.
26. m for glass prism of wave length 400nm having refractive index 1.66 is____________
1) 480 2) 240 3) 360 4) 520
27. m for glass prism of wave length 700mm having refractive index 1.61 is ______
1) 480 2) 240 3) 360 4) 520
28. m for glass prism having refractive index √3,is__________ 1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 750
O
C
1 1m 1.53m
20 cm
40 cm
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Paragraph for Questions 29 to 31
The formula governing refraction from rarer to denser medium is
2 2 11
v u R
m m mm
29. A spherical convex surface of radius of curvature R separates air
(µa=1) from diamond (aµd=2.5). The center of curvature is in the
diamond .A point object O placed in air is found to have a real
image Q in the diamond .The line PQ cuts the surface at a point O
and PO=OQ The distance PO is equal to
1) 7R 2) 7R
3 3) 7 R
5 4) 7
R2
30. A glass dumbbell of length 30 cm and µ=1.5 has ends 3cm radius of curvature .An object is situated in air at a distance of 9 cm
from the end of dumbbell along the axis. The position of image
formed due to
1) 3cm 2) 9cm 3) 27 cm 4) 18cm
31. An object O is stuck on the surface of a transparent solid sphere of radius 5 cm .The refractive index of the sphere such that rays from the object after refraction from the opposite side emerge as a parallel beam is
1) 1.5 2) 1.414 3)1 4)2
32. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with initial
velocity 4 m/s. The cross-sectional area of the tap is A. The
flow is Steady and pressure is constant throughout the
stream of water. The distance h vertically below the tap
where the cross sectional area of the stream becomes2
3A
is
(g=10m/s2)
1) 0.5 m 2) 1 m
3) 1.5 m 4) 2.2 m
33. An object is kept at a distance of 16 cm from a thin lens and the image formed is real. If the object is kept at a distance of 6 cm from the same lens, the image formed is virtual. If the sizes, of the images formed are equal, the focal length of the lens will be
1) 15 cm 2) 17 cm 3) 21 cm 4) 11 cm
34. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is painted black at the middle portion as shown in (figure). An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the lens then
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1) Only one image will be formed by the lens
2) The distance between the two images formed by such a lens is 6 mm
3) The distance between the images is 4 mm
4) The distance between the images 2 mm
35. A screen is placed a distance 40 cm away from an illuminated
object. A converging lens is placed between the source and the
screen and it is attempted to form the image of the source on
the screen. If no position could be found, the focal length of the
lens
1) must be less than 10 cm 2) must be greater than 20 cm
3) must not be greater than
20 cm
4) must not be less than 10 cm.
36. The graph shows the variation of magnification m produced by
convex lens with image distance v. The power of the lens is :
1) b/c 2) b/ca
3) bc/a 4) c/b
37. An object is situated at a distance of 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. The position of the image formed by it will be
1) - 30 cm 2) 30 cm
3) -60 cm 4) + 60cm
38. When an object is placed 15 cm from a lens, a virtual image is formed. Mark the correct statements.
1) The lens may be convex or concave
2) If the lens is diverging, the image distance has to be less than 15 cm
3) If the lens is converging, then its focal length has to
be greater than 15 cm
4) All of the above
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39. A lens forms a diminished and erect image of an object. The
magnification is 1
4. Find ratio of distances between object and
focus and focus and image:
1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 4 3) 8 : 1 4) 2 : 1
40. When an object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens at two different positions, it produces the images with magnifications +2 and -4 respectively. How many times more away from the lens the image will be formed in the second position as compared to the first position?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 10
41. The distance between two point sources of light is 24 cm and a converging lens is kept in between two sources. The object distances of two sources from a converging lens of focal length of 9 cm, so that the image distances of two sources are equal
1) 10 cm 2) 12 cm
3) 18 cm or 6 cm 4) 24 cm
42. The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the wall of a room is to be obtained on the opposite wall 3 m away by means of a large convex lens. What is the maximum possible focal length of the lens required for the purpose?
1) 0.75 m 2) 0.8 m 3) 1m 4) 0.75 cm
43. The decrease in the aperture of the lens changes
1) The position of the image 2) The size of the image 3) The intensity of the image 4) Both the position and size of the
image 44. The graph drawn with object distance along abscissa and image
distance along ordinate measuring the distance from the convex lens is
1) Straight line 2) Parabola 3) Circle 4) A hyperbola
45. An object of height 6cm is kept at a distance of 30cm from the
optic centre of a convex lens of focal length 8cm. The height of
image is
1) 1cm
3
2) 1- cm3
3) -3 cm 4) None of these
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46. A point source of light is placed at a distance of 2 f from a
converging lens of focal length f. The intensity on the other side
of the lens is maximum at a distance
1) f 2) between f and 2f
3) 2f 4) more than 2 f.
47. A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel
to its principal axis. As one moves away from the lens on the
other side on its principal axis, the intensity of light
1) remains constant 2) continuously increases
3) continuously decreases 4) first increases then decreases.
48. A convex lens forms a real image of a point object placed on its
principal axis. If the upper half of the lens is painted black,
1) the image will be shifted
downward
2) the image will be shifted upward
3) the image will not be
shifted
4) the intensity of the image will
increase.
49. An ideal fluid flows through a pipe of circular cross section made of two sections with diameters 2.5cm and 3.75cm.The ratio of the velocity in the two pipes is
1) 9:4 2) 3:2 3) 3 : 2 4) 2 : 3
50. During blood transfusion the needle is inserted in a vein where
the gauge pressure is 2000Pa. At what height must the blood
container be placed so that blood may just enter the vein
nearly(density of blood 3 31.06 10 /Kg m )
1) 0.8m 2) 0.5m
3) 0.2m 4) 0.4m
51. A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each of its two
wings has an area of 25m2. If the speed of the air is 180 km/h
over the lower wing and 234 km/h over the upper wing surface ,
determine the plane mass (take air density 1 kg/m3)
1) 2200kg 2) 3400kg
3) 4393kg 4) 6543kg
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52. In the figure shown
sin
sin
i
r is equal to
1) 2
2
3 1
2) 3
1
3) 3 1
2
2
4) 1
3
53. A ray of light travelling in glass 32g is incident on a glass
air surface at the critical angle. If a thin layer of water 43w
is now poured on the glass air surface , at what angle will the ray of light emerge into air at the water air surface?
1) 600 2) 300 3) 450 4) 900
54. A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of refractive index 3 at
an angle of incidence 600 as shown .Then the angles r, r1 , e and total deviation after two refractions are
1) 300,300,600 & 600 2) 600,600,300 & 300 3) 600,300,600 & 300 4) 300,600,300 & 600
55. A square box of water has a small hole located in one of the bottom corners. When the box is full and sitting on a level surface, complete opening of the hole results in a flow of water with a speed v0, as shown. When the box is still half empty, it is tilted by 450 so that the hole is at the lowest point. Now the water will flow out with a speed of
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1) 0v 2)
0
2
v
3) 0
2
v
4) 0
4 2
v
56. A ray of light from a denser medium strikes a rarer medium at
an angle of incidence i. The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 900 with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction are r and r1 . The critical angle is
1) Sin-1(tanr) 2) Sin-1(coti) 3) Sin-1(tanr1) 4) tan-1(sini)
Paragraph for Questions 57 to 59
In total internal reflection , the incident light is completely reflected into same medium
57. Light takes time t1 to travel a distance x1 in vacuum and same light takes t2 to travel a distance of x2 in a medium. The critical angle for that medium is
1) 1 2 1
1 1
sinx t
x t
2)
1 1 2
2 1
sinx t
x t
3) 1 1 1
2 2
sinx t
x t
4)
1 2 1
1 2
sinx t
x t
58. Total internal reflection is possible when a ray of light passes from
1) Air into water 2) Air into glass 3) Glass into water 4) Water into glass
59. The critical angle for a ray of light buffering total internal reflection will be smallest for light travelling from
1) Water into air 2) Glass into air 3) Glass into water 4) Water into glass
Paragraph for Questions 60 to 62
Snell’s law 2 1
1 2
sin
sin
vi
r v
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60. The angle a made by the light ray when it gets refracted from
water to air, as shown in the figure
1) 1 4sin
5a
2) 1 5
sin4
a
3) 1 3sin
5a
4) 1 5
sin3
a
61. Find the speed of light in medium ‘a’ if speed of light in medium ‘b’ is c/3, where c=speed of light in vacuum and light refracts from medium ‘a’ to medium ‘b’ making 450 and 600, respectively, with the normal.
1) 2
3 3
c
2) 2
3c
3) 1
3 3
c
4) 2
2 3
c
62. A ray of light is incident on a transparent glass slab of refractive
index 3 . If the reflected and reflected rays are mutually
perpendicular, what is the angle of incidence?
1) 600 2) 300
3) 450 4) 900
63. At what distance must an object be placed from a convex
lens of power 4D to obtain a real image three times the size of
the object
1) 3 cm 2) 33.3 cm
3) 67 cm 4) 16.7 cm
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64. A convex lens of focal length 25 cm is placed in between the
source of light and screen. The distance between the source
and screen is 1.25 m. The position of the lens so that real
image of the source is formed on the screen
1) 25.44 cm 2) 69 cm
3) 34.55 cm 4) 89.45 cm
65. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60o on one face of a prism
which has an angle of30o . The ray emerging out of the prism
makes an angle 30o with the incident ray. The refractive index of
the material of the prism is
1) 2 2) 3
2
3) 1
2
4) 3
66. The refractive indices of the crown glass for blue and red lights
are 1.51 and 1.49 respectively and those of the flint glass are
1.77 and 1.73 respectively. An isosceles prism of angle 6o is
made of crown glass. A beam of white light is incident at a small
angle on this prism. The other flint glass isosceles prism is
combined with the crown glass prism such that there is no
deviation of the incident light. The net dispersion of the
combined system is
1) 4o 2) 4
o
3) 0.04o 4) 0.004o
67. The R.I of the prism for violet colour is 1.7 and that for red is
1.65. if the refractive index for mean colour is1.66. Dispersive
power of that material is
1) 0.0157 2) 0.07575
3) 0.0525 4) 0.7575
68. An Optical fibre ( 1.7) is surrounded by a glass coating ( 1.5)
The Critical angle for total internal reflection at the fibre glass
interface is
1) 1 85sin75
2)
1 75sin85
3) 1 2
sin15
4) 1 2
sin17
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69. The difference between angle of minimum deviation of violet and red rays in the spectrum of white light from a prism is 20. If the angle of minimum deviation of mean ray is 480. Dispersive power of the material of the prism is
1) 0.0416 2) 0.0832 3) 0.0208 4) 0.0616
70. The ratio of the angle of minimum deviation of a prism in air
and when dipped in water will be ( 3 / 2 4 / 3)a g a w
and
1) 1 2) 3
3) 4 4) 5
71. A prism of refractive index and angle A is placed in minimum
deviation position. If the angle of minimum deviation is A, then
the value of A in terms of is
1) 1sin2
2)
1cos2
3) 12cos2
4)
12sin2
72. A black spot is present inside one of the face of an equilaterial
prism. A man places his eye directly at the opposite corner. He
sees two images of the spot at an angular separation of 60o .
Then the minimum value of refractive index of the prism is :
1) 1
3
2) 1
2
3) 1
2
4) 2
3
73. In the position of minimum deviation when a ray of yellow light
passes through the prism, then its angle of incidence is
1) Less than the
emergent angle
2) Greater than the emergent angle
3) Sum of the angle of
incident and emergent
angle is 90 degrees
4) Equal to emergent angle
74. A thin prism of angle 60 made of a glass of R.I 1.5 is combined
with another Prism made of glass of R.I 1.75 to produce
dispersion without deviation. Then the angle of second Prism is
1) 70 2) 40
3) 90 4) 50
75. In the formation of rainbow light from the sun on water droplets
undergoes
1) Only dispersion 2) Dispersion and total internal
reflection
3) Only total internal
reflection
4) None of these
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76. A thin Prism of angle 60 move up of glass of R.I 1.5 is combined
with another Prism move up of glass of R.I 1.75 to produce
dispersion without deviation. The angle of 2nd Prism is
1) 70 2) 90
3) 40 4) 50
77. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is cot( / 2)A and
vertex angle of the prism is A. The angle of minimum deviation
is
1) A 2) 2
2A
3)
2A
4) 2A
78. If the refractive index of diamond is 2.4, the velocity of light in
diamond is (c=3×108 m/s)
1) 0.125 × 108 m/s 2) 0.0125 × 108 m/s
3) 1.25 × 108 m/s 4) 2.5 × 108 m/s
79. By properly combining two prisms made of different material it
is possible to have
1) Have dispersion
without average
deviation
2) Have deviation without dispersion
3) Have both dispersion
and average deviation
4) All of these
80. A 60 degrees glass prism have a refractive index 1.5 The angle of
incidence for maximum deviation is
1) 90o 2) 38o
3) 58o 4) 42o
IX_PHYSICS_SHP_E4 & E5_KEY
Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
KEY 2 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 3 4
Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
KEY 3 4 1 3 2 1 2 4 4 2
Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
KEY 2 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 3
Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
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KEY 4 2 4 1 2 4 3 4 3 3
Q.NO. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
KEY 3 1 3 4 4 3 4 3 1 3
Q.NO. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
KEY 1 2 4 1 4 1 4 3 2 1
Q.NO. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
KEY 1 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 3
Q.NO. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
KEY 3 4 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 1
CHEMISTRY (Q.No.1 to 80)
1. The equilibrium constant for the reaction H
2(g) + I
2(g) 2HI (g) is 32 at a given temperature. The
equilibrium concentrations of I2 and HI are 0.25 × 10
–3 and
8 × 10–3
M respectively. The equilibrium concentration of H2 is:
1) 4 × 10–3
M 2) 1.5 × 10–3
M 3) 8 × 10
–3 M 4) none
2. For the reaction, 2 2 3N g +3H g 2NH g ,the value of Kp= 82
at 400 K. Find out the value of Kp for each of the following
reactions at the same temperature:
i) 3 2 22NH g N g +3H g
ii) 2 2 3
1 3N g + H g NH g
2 2
iii) 2 2 32N g +6H g 4NH g
1) i) 1681, ii) 2.44×10–2
, iii) 604
2) i)0.0121, ii) 9.05, iii) 6724
3) i) 2.44×10–2
, ii) 6 .4, iii) 1681
4) i) 2.44×10–2, ii) 1681, iii) 6.4
3. Hydrolysis of sucrose gives
2Sucross H O Glucos e Fructose
Equilibrium constant cK for the reaction is 132 10 at 300K.
Calculate G at 300K.
1) 4 17.64 10 Jmol 2) 4 17.64 10 Jmol
3) 4 176.4 10 Jmol 4) 4 176.4 10 Jmol
4. the ester, ethyl acetate, is formed by the reaction of ethanol and
acetic acid and the equilibrium is represented as:
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3 2 5 3 2 25CH COOH C H OH CH COOC H H O
Starting with 0.500 mol of ethanol and 1.000 mol of acetic acid
and maintaining it at 293K, 0.214 mol of ethyl acetate is found
after some time. Find the Qc.
1) 2.0 2) 0.20
3) 20 4) none
5. In an equilibrium reaction for which G 0 , the equilibrium
constant K should be equal to:
1) Zero 2) 10
3) 1 4) 2
6. If a mixture where Q=K is combined, what happens?
1) nothing appears to happen, but forward and reverse reactions are continuing at the same rate
2) the reaction shifts towards products
3) the reaction shifts toward reactants
4) nothing happen
7. For the reaction 2 5 2 22 4
g g gN O NO O
the units of Kc is:
1) 2 2mol L 2) mol/lit
3) no units 4) 3 3mol L
8. The equilibrium constant, p
K for the reacti
2 24 2 6
g g gC H H C H is 17 1
5.04 10 atm at 25ºC Calculate ºG
1) 101kJ 2) -101kJ
3) 51.010 10 kJ 4) 51.010 10 kJ
9. For the reaction ( )3 2 SS g
CaCO CaO CO the units of Kc is:
1) 2 2mol L 2) -1molL
3) no units 4) 3 3mol L
10. A mixture of 1.5 mol of 2N , 2.0 mol of
2H and 8.0 mol of 3NH is
introduced into a 20L vessel a 500K. The reaction sets in is
2 2 33 2 ;
g g gN H NH 221.7 10 /
cK mol L
Predict the direction in which the reaction proceeds.
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1) Reaction proceeds in the forward direction
2) Reaction proceeds in the backward direction
3) Reaction present at equilibrium
4) None
11. for an equilibrium reaction, which one of the following is not
true?
1) If the reaction quotient of the reaction is
greater than eqK , the
reaction has a tendency of move in the backward direction
2) If the reaction quotient of the reaction
is greater than eqK , the reaction has a
tendency to move in the forward direction
3) If the reaction quotient of the reaction is equal
to eqK , the reaction is
at equilibrium
4) If the reaction quotient of the reaction
is smaller than eqK , the reaction has a
tendency to move in the forward direction.
12. For the reaction 2 2 g 3 g
1SO O SO
2 if xp cK K RT where the
symbols have usual meaning then the value of x is (assuming
ideality)
1) 1 2) -1
3) 1/2 4) 1/2
13. For the reaction 2 2H g I g 2HI g , the standard free energy
is G > 0.The equilibrium constant (K) would be __________.
1) K = 0 2) K>1
3) K=1 4) K<1
14. 13.5 ml of HI are produced by the interaction of 8.1 ml of
hydrogen and 9.3ml of iodine vapour at 444ºC . Calculate the
equilibrium constant at this temperature of the reaction.
2 g 2 g gH I 2HI
1) 13.5 2) 6.75
3) 5.294 4) 52.94
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15. Some nitrogen and hydrogen gases are pumped into an empty
five-litre glass bulb at 500ºC . When equilibrium is established
3.00 moles of 2N . 2.10 moles of 2H and 0.298mole of 3NH are
found to be present. Find the value of cK for the reaction
2 g 2 g 3 gN 3H 2NH
1) 0.080 2) 8.00
3) 0.033 4) 3.33
16. The ester, ethyl acetate, is formed by the reaction of ethanol
and acetic acid and the equilibrium is represented as:
3 2 5 3 2 25CH COOH C H OH CH COOC H H O
What is the concentration, Qc for this reaction.(Note that water
is not in excess and is not a solvent in this reaction)
1) 3 2 5 2
3 2 5
[CH COOC H (l)[H O(l)]
[CH COOH(l)][C H OH(l)]
2) 3 2 5
3 2 5
[CH COOC H (l)]
[CH COOH(l)][C H OH(l)]
3) 3 2 5
3 2 5
[CH COOH(l)][C H OH(l)]
[CH COOC H (l)] 4)
3 2 5
3 2 5 2
[CH COOH(l)][C H OH(l)]
[CH COOC H (l)[H O(l)]
17. In which of the following systems doubling the volume of the container causes a equilibrium shift to right
1) 2 2
2 2g g g
CO O CO 2) 5 3 2g g g
PCl PCl Cl
3) 2 2 3
3 2g g g
N H NH 4) 2 2
2g g g
H I HI
18. The conjugate acid of hydride Ion is
1) 3
H O 2) H2
3) OH 4) H2O
19. Which is not a conjugate pair of acid-base?
1) 2, HS S 2) 3 , H O OH
3) 2, HONO NO 4)
6 5 6 5, C H COOH C H COO
20. For the chemical reaction
33g g g
X Y X Y ; the amount of 3X Y at equilibrium is affected
by
1) Temperature and pressure
2) Temperature only
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3) Pressure only 4) Temperature, pressure and catalyst
21. G for the reaction X Y C is 4.606 kcal at 1000 K. The
equilibrium constant for the reverse mode of the reaction will be:
1) 100 2) 10
3) 0.01 4) 0.1
22. In the reaction the 3 2 2
2 4 4 4 2 4HC O PO HPO C O Bronsted Bases
are
1) 3 2
4 2 4,PO C O 2) 3 2
4 4,HPPO O
3) 2
2 4 4,HC O HPO 4) 2
2 4 2 4,CHC O O
23. What is G for the following reaction ?
4
2 2 3 p
1 3N g H g NH g ;K 4.42 10
2 2 at 250C.
1) 126.5kJmol 2) 111.5kJmol
3) 12.2kJmol 4) 10.97kJmol
24. In the following reaction
2
aq aq2 3 2 2 3 aqaq4 3A C DB
Cu H O HCO Cu H O OH H CO
Species behaving as Bronsted – Lowry acids are
1) A, D 2) B, C
3) A, B 4) B, D
Paragraph for Questions 25 to 27
According to Lewis concept, a base is defined as a substance which can furnish a pair of electrons to form a co-ordinate bond where as an acid is a substance which can accept a pair of electrons. The acid is also known as electron acceptor or electrophile while the base is
electron donor (or) nucleophile.
Which of the following acts a Lewis acid?
25.
1) H+ 2) H2C=CH2
3) BF3 4) both 1 & 3
26. Among the following which one acts as Lewis base?
i) C2H2 ii) AlCl3 iii) 2
RNH iv) S
1) i, ii, iii & iv 2) i & iii
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3) only iv 4) only iii
27. Pick out odd one from the following
1) C2H4 2) C2H2
3) 3
CH 4) CN
Paragraph for Questions 28 to 30
Phosphorous pentachloride when heated in a sealed tube at 700k it decomposition as
5 3 2g g gPCl PCl Cl
; Kp = 38atm
Vapour density of the mixture is 74.25
If pressure is increased then equilibrium will;
28.
1) Be unaffected 2) Shift in backward direction
3) Shift in forward direction
4) Cannot be predicted
29. When inert gas is added to the given reversible process then the equilibrium will:
1) Be unaffected 2) Shift in backward direction
3) Shift in forward direction
4) Cannot be predicted
30. Which among the following reactions will be favoured at low pressure?
1) 2 g 2 g gN O 2NO 2) 2 g 2 g g
H I 2HI
3) 5 g 3 g 2 gPCl PCl Cl 4) 2 g 2 g 3 g
N 3H 2NH
31. The ionisation constant of an acid, Ka, is the measure of strength of an acid. The Ka values of acetic acid, hypochlorous
acid and formic acid are -51.74 × 10 , -83.0 × 10 and -41.8 × 10respectively. Which of the following Orders of pH of 0.1 mol dm–
3 solutions of these acids are correct?
1) Acetic acid > hypochlorous acid > formic acid
2) Hypochlorous acid > acetic acid > formic acid
3) Formic acid > hypochlorous acid > acetic acid
4) Formic acid > acetic acid > hypochlorous acid
32. What will be the value of pH of 0.01 mol dm–3 CH3COOH (Ka =
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1.74 × 10–5 )?
1) 3.4 2) 3.6
3) 3.9 4) 3.0
33. Arrange the following in increasing order of pH. KNO3 (aq), CH3COONa (aq), NH4Cl (aq), C6H5COONH4 (aq)
1) NH4Cl < C6H5COONH4 < KNO3 < CH3COONa
2) C6H5COONH4 < KNO3 < CH3COONa< NH4Cl
3) NH4Cl < CH3COONa <C6H5COONH4 < KNO3
4) NH4Cl < KNO3 < CH3COONa< C6H5COONH4
34. The dissociation constants of mono basic acids A,B,C and D are 4 5 6 106 10 ,5 10 ,3.6 10 and7 10 respectively. The
HP values of
their 0.1 molar aqueous solutions are in the order:
1) A B C D 2) A B C D
3) A B C D 4) A B C D
35. The degree of dissociation of 0.01M 3CH COOH is 4.24 %. Then
degree of dissociation of 0.1M 3CH COOH will be
1) 1.34% 2) 4.24%
3) 5.24% 4) 0.33%
36. HP of 0.005M HCOOH 4Ka 2 10 is equal to
1) 3 2) 2
3) 4 4) 5
37. Degree of dissociation of two weak acids 1 2and are in ratio of
1:2 ; 41Ka 2 10 then what will be 2Ka ?
1) 48 10 2) 42 10
3) 44 10 4) 41 10
38. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of
1) NaCl 2) NaOH
3) 2 4
H SO 4) 3
CH COOH
39. The dissociation constants of two acids 1
HA and 2
HA are
43 10 and 51.8 10 respectively. The relative strength of the
acids will be:
1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1
3) 1 : 16 4) 16 : 1
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40. Degree of Dissociation of 0.001 M 3CH COOH is 5ka 1.0 10
1) 610 2) 710
3) 110 4) 210
41. Dissociation constant of NH3 is 51.8 10 calculate the
dissociation constant of its conjugate acid 4NH 14w[K 10 ]
1) 1055 10 2) 105.5 10
3) 105.5 10 4) 1055 10
42. Which of the following is the correct quadratic form of the Ostwald’s Dilution Law equation?
1) 2 0C K K 2) 2 0C K K
3) 2 0C K K 4) 2 0C K K
43. A monoprotic acid in 1.00 M solution is 0.001% ionized. The dissociation constant of acid is:
1) 31.0 10 2) 61.0 10
3) 81.0 10 4) 101.0 10
44. The 'apK for acid A is greater that apK for acid B. The strong
acid is:
1) Acid A 2) Acid B
3) are equally strong 4) None of these
45. pH of water is 7.0 at 25°C. If water is heated to 70°c, the:
1) pH will decrease and solution becomes acidic
2) pH will increase and solution becomes basic
3) pH will remain constant as 7
4) pH will decrease but solution will be natural
46. The role of catalyst in reversible reaction is :
1) To increase the rate of forward reaction
2) Decrease the rate after equilibrium
3) Allow equilibrium to be achieved quickly
4) None of these
47. Which statement/relationship is correct:
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1) Upon hydrolysis salt of a strong base and weak acid gives a solution with pH<7
2) 1pH log
H
3) Only at 25°C the pH of water is 7
4) The value of pKw at 25°C is 7
48. which equilibrium can be described as Lewis acid-base reaction but not Bronsted acid-base reaction:
1) 2 3 3 3H O CH COOH H O CH COO 2) 23 2 4 4 42NH H SO 2NH SO
3) 3 3 4 3NH CH COOH NH CH COO
4) 2 22 3 3 244
[Cu H O ] 4NH [Cu NH ] 4H O
49. The two Bronsted bases in the reaction are 3 2 2
2 4 4 24 4HC O PO HPO C O
1) 22 4 4HC O and PO 2) 3 3 2
4 42HPO and C O
3) 3 24 2 4PO and C O 4) 2
2 4 4HC O and HPO
50. Which does not act as Bronsted acid :
1) 4NH 2)
3CH COO
3) 3HCO 4)
3HSO
51. What is the HP of the buffer solution containing 0.15 moles of
4NH OH and 0.25 moles of
4NH Cl . bK for
4NH OH
51.8 10
[log(5) = 0.6989, log(3) = 0.4771, log(1.8) = 0.2552]
1) 4.96 2) 9.034
3) 8.23 4) 4.744
52. At 25 C the value of bkP for 3NH in aqueous solution is 4.7. What
is the HP of 0.1M aqueous solution of 4NH C with 0.01M 3NH ?
1) 5.7 2) 8.3
3) 4.7 4) 9
53. In the acid-base relation
3 3 2HCl CH COOH Cl CH COOH
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The conjugate acid of acetic acid is
1) Cl 2) HCl
3) 3 2
CH COOH 4)
3H O
54. For the following reaction
3 3 2
2aq aq
Ag NH Ag NH , 7
4 10K at 025 c Find 0
G ? ( 2 0.301)log
1) -53.375KJ/mole 2) +43.375KJ/mole
3) 53.375KJ/mole 4) -43.375KJ/mole
55. A solution of HCl has 5HP . If 1ml of it is diluted to 1 liter,
what will be the HP of the resulting solution?
1) 6.95 2) 7.56
3) 8.64 4) 6.23
56. for the reversible reaction 2 2 3N (g) 3H (g) 2NH (g) heat , The
equilibrium shifts in forward direction
1) by increasing the concentration of
3NH (g)
2) by decreasing the pressure
3) by decreasing the
concentration of 2N (g)
and 2H (g)
4) by increasing pressure and decreasing
temperature
57. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction,
2A B C is 2494.2 J. At a given time, the composition of
the reaction mixture is 1 1
(A) , (B) 2 and (C) .2 2
the reaction
proceeds in the: (R) 8.314 J/K/mol, e 2.718)
1) forward direction
because Q > Kc
2) reverse direction because Q > Kc
3) forward direction
because Q < Kc
4) reverse direction because Q < Kc
58. Paragraph for Questions 58 to 60
Many reactions, particularly the bio chemical reactions are to be
carried out at constant HP . But it is observed that solutions and
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even pure water cannot retain the constant HP for long time. But few
solutions resist change of HP upon addition of small amount of acid
or alkali. These solutions are called Buffer solutions.
A solution is 1M in 3CH COO Na and 10M in 3CH COOH .If kaP of
3CH COOH is 4.8.What is the HP of the solution?
1) 3.8 2) 5.8
3) 4.9 4) 6.8
59. Which of the following statements is/are correct for a buffer
solution.
1) It has reserve acidity
or Alkalinity
2) Its
HP is slightly changed by the
addition of small quantity of an acid
or a base.
3) Its
HP changes on
dilution
4) Both 1 and 2
60. A basic Buffer solution contains a weak base B and its conjugate
acid BH . On adding some HC , which of the following
reactions takes place to maintain constant HP ?
1) BH B H
2)
2B H O BH OH
3)
2H OH H O
4)
2BH OH B H O
61.
Paragraph for Questions 61 to 63
The degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte is inversely proportional to the square root of concentration. It is called Ostwald’s law. If we know the strength of one Acid, the other Acid strength can be calculated.
The degree of dissociation of 0.01M 3CH COOH is 4.24 %. Then
degree of dissociation of 0.1M 3CH COOH will be
1) 1.34% 2) 4.24%
3) 5.24% 4) 0.33%
62. HP of 0.005M HCOOH 4Ka 2 10 is equal to
1) 3 2) 2
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3) 4 4) 5
63. Degree of dissociation of two weak acids 1 2and are in ratio of
1:2 ; 41Ka 2 10 then what will be 2Ka ?
1) 48 10 2) 42 10
3) 44 10 4) 41 10
64. ‘HX’ is a weak acid 510aK , It forms a salt ‘NaX’ (0.1M) on
reacting with caustic soda. The degree of hydrolysis of ‘NaX’ is
1) 0.01 2) 0.1 3) 0.0001 4) 0.5
65. 2.5mL of 2
5M weak monoacidic base ( 12
bK 1 10 at 025 C ) is
titrated with 2
15 M HCl in water at 025 C .The concentration of
H at equivalence point is: ( 14
wK 1 10 at 025 C )
1) 133.7 10 M 2) 73.2 10 M 3) 23.2 10 M 4) 22.7 10 M
66. Select the correct statements among the following
1) In the complete ionization of indicator
its InpH pK
2) Methyl orange (working range : 3.1 to 4.4) is a suitable indicator for when acid and strong base.
3) Bromothymol blue (working range 6.0 to 7.6) is a good indicator for titration of HCl and NaOH.
4) Thymol blue (working range 1.2 to 2.8) is good indicator for titration of
100 ml of 4.74bpK and 0.1 M HCl.
67. The rapid change of pH near the stoicho-metric point of an acid-
Base titration is the basis of indicator detection. pH of the
solution is related to ratio of the concentrations of the
conjugate acid(HIn) and base In forms of the indicator by the
expression
1) In
HInlog pK pH
In
2) In
HInlog pH pK
In
3)
In
Inlog pH pK
HIn
4)
In
Inlog pK pH
HIn
68. The HP of 0.1M solution of the following compounds increase in
the order
1) 3 2 2 4 KNO K S K SO 2)
2 2 4 3 K S K SO KNO
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3) 2 4 3 2 K SO KNO K S 4)
3 2 4 2 KNO K SO K S
69. Which of the following indicator is most suitable for titration of HBr with strong acid?
1) Phenolphthalein (8.3 – 10)
2) Bromothymol blue (6 - 7.6)
3) Methyl Red (4.2 – 6.3) 4) Malachite green (11.4 – 13)
70. The degree of hydrolysis of which of the following salt is independent of the concentration of salt solution?
1) CH3COONa 2) NH4Cl 3) CH3COONH4 4) NaCl
71. Which of the following expressions is not applicable on the hydrolysis equilibrium?
2CN H O HCN OH
1)
w
h
a
KK
K HCN
2) hK
hC
3) 1
2apH pK HCN
4)
w aK KH
C
72. The pKa of weak acid HA is 4.80 and the pKb of a weak base BOH
is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of corresponding salt BA
will be
1) 9.22 2) 9.58
3) 4.79 4) 7.01
73. Dissociation of an indicator can be considered as,
HIn H In Colours of HIn and In– are different. Which
statement is correct?
1) Solution assumes
colours of HIn when
pH = pK – 1
2) Solution assumes colours of In– when
pH = pK – 1
3) Solution assumes
colours of HIn– when
pH = pK + 1
4) None
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74.
A certain monoprotic acid (weak) serves as indicator. Assuming
that colour change is seen when 1/3rd of the indicator has been
converted into ions and that at end point the pH of solution is
‘6’, the value of InpK
1) 7.3 2) 6.3
3) 5.3 4) 4.3
75. If pKb of CN– is 3.70, the pH of 0.5 M aqueous NaCN solution is
1) 10.8 2) 11.5
3) 11.99 4) 8.4
76. hK of salt obtained from strong acid and weak base is 55 10 . The
bK of weak base is
1) 192 10 2) 105 10
3) 102 10 4) 95 10
77. Calculate the pH at the equivalence point when a solution of
0.10 M acetic acid is titrated with a solution of 0.10M sodium
hydroxide. Ka for acetic acid 51.9 10 . (log 0.05= 1.3, log
1.9=0.27)
1) 8.71 2) 9.36
3) 6.485 4) 7.71
78. The pH of buffer solution prepared by mixing ‘50’ ml of 0.2 M,
CH3COOH and ‘25’ ml of CH3COONa is 4.8. What is the
concentration of CH3COONa? kaP of CH3COOH =4.8
1) 0.2 M 2) 0.4 M
3) 0.5 M 4) 0.8 M
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79. Useful buffer range of weak acid ‘HA’ 5Ka 10 is
1) 5 to 7 2) 4 to 6
3) 3 to 5 4) 7 to 9
80. One litre of an aqueous solution contain 0.15 mole of
Ka
3CH COOH P 4.8 and 0.15mole of 3CH COONa
. After the
addition of 0.05 mole of solid NaOH to this solution, the pH
will be (log 2 = 0.3010)
1) 4.5 2) 4.8
3) 5.1
4) 5.4
IX_CHEMISTRY_SHP_E4 & E5_KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key 3 3 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 2
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 2 3 4 4 1 1 3 4 2 2
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 4
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 2 3
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 4 3 2
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 4 1 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 1
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key 3 4 1 2 3 3 1 2 2 3