28-12-14 sr.iit-z (iz) co-spark jee adv pta-16 (2011 p1) q'paper

NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY

INDIASec: Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-SPARK PTA-16

Dt: 28-12-14JEE-ADVANCE-2011-P1-Model

Time: 3:00 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 240

CHEMISTRY

Section Question Type+VeMark

s

- VeMark

s

No.of Qs

Total marks

Sec – I (Q.N : 1 – 7) Questions with Single Correct Choice

3 -1 7 21

Sec – II(Q.N : 8 – 11) Questions with Multiple Correct Choice

4 0 4 16

Sec – III(Q.N : 12 – 16)Questions with Comprehension

Type(2 Comprehensions – 2 + 3 = 5Q)

3 -1 5 15

Sec – IV(Q.N : 17 – 23) Questions with Integer Answer Type 4 0 7 28Total 23 80

PHYSICS


s

- VeMark

s

No.of Qs

Total marks

Sec – I(Q.N : 24 – 30) Questions with Single Correct Choice

3 -1 7 21


4 0 4 16

Sec – III(Q.N : 35 – 39) Questions with Comprehension Type

3 -1 5 15

Narayana IIT Academy 28-12-14_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-SPARK_JEE-ADV_(2011_P1)_PTA-16

(2 Comprehensions – 2 + 3 = 5Q)

Sec – IV(Q.N : 40 – 46) Questions with Integer Answer Type 4 0 7 28

Total 23 80 MATHEMATICS


s

- VeMark

s

No.of Qs

Total marks

Sec – I(Q.N : 47 – 53) Questions with Single Correct Choice

3 -1 7 21


4 0 4 16

Sec – III(Q.N : 58 – 62)Questions with Comprehension

Type(2 Comprehensions – 2 + 3 = 5Q)

3 -1 5 15

Sec – IV(Q.N : 63 – 69) Questions with Integer Answer Type 4 0 7 28

Total 23 80

Sr.IIT-Z(IZ)_P1_Advanced space for rough work


CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1Section-I (Single Correct Answer Type, Total Marks: 21) contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

1.‘C’ is

A)

Ph

B)

C)

Ph

D)

Ph



2.

Major product (A) is

A) B)

CH

C)

D)

3. During reduction of an aldehyde by Wolf- Kishner method, the initial condensation compound formed is

A) RC º N B) R2C=NNH2 C) RCH = NH D) RCH = NNH2



4.

A, B and C are :

A)

B)

C)

D)

5. If all benzenoid aromatic carbonyl compounds having formula react with

,the number of different oximes possible are

A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D)12Sr.IIT-Z(IZ)_P1_Advanced space for rough work


6. In the reaction HO – CH2 – CHO

how many distinct products (saturated) are possible ?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

7. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by

A)

NO2

OHC B)

C)

OH

OHC D)

SECTION-2Sr.IIT-Z(IZ)_P1_Advanced space for rough work


Section-II (Multiple Correct Answers Type, Total Marks: 16) contains 4 multiple choice questions.Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.

8.

AO3

Me2SOHC-CH2-CH2-C -C-CH2-C H2-CH O

o o

, as one of the product. Then A is

A) B)

C) D)

9) Fehling solution gives red precipitate with:

A) Aromatic aldehyde B) Aliphatic aldehyde

C) Ketones D) -hydroxy ketones



10) Consider the following reaction

Choose the correct statement(s)A) If a very high concentration of NaOH is used , hydride transfer occur mainly from a dioxoanion shown below.

6 5C H C H

O

O

B) If reaction is carried out in using NaOD , is produced.

C) If some is added to above reaction mixture , some will be

formed.

D) This reaction does not show kinetic isotopic effect.

11) Which of the following reactions is /are correct to get cinnamic acid

A)

B)

C)

D)



SECTION-3Section-III (Paragraph Type, Total Marks: 15) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the

paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

Paragraph-I:

The conversion of aldehyde having no alpha hydrogen to a mixture of carboxylic acid

and primary alcohol is known as Cannizzaro reaction. The most important feature of

this reaction is the conjugate base of hydrate of aldehyde.



12. Which step is rate determining step

A) Step-I B) Step-II C) Step-III D) Step-I and II both

13. In the given reaction final product is

A) B)

C) D)



Paragraph-II: 14 to 16

14) Structure of molecule B is

A) B) C) D)

15) Structure of ‘F’ is



A) B) C) D)

16) Identify the incorrect statement

A) Structure of E is identical to B B) Structure of A is

C) G is D) Structure of D is

SECTION-4Section-IV (Integer Answer Type, Total Marks: 28) contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.

17. How many of the following compounds will give haloform reaction

a) b) c)

d) e) f)



g) g)

h) i)

18) Which of the following will give positive Fehling’s test

19)

Double bond equivalent in compound ‘B’ formed is



20) The number of compounds theoretically possible for the formula excluding

stereo isomers

21) .The number of iodoform molecules produced per molecule of the reactant in above

reaction is/are

22) How many of the following are more reactive than acetaldehyde towards nucleophilic

addition?

FCH2CHO, O2N CH2CHO , CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3, PhCHO, PhCOCH3

23) Number of moles of RMgX consumed per molecule with the following reactant is.



PHYSICSSECTION-1

Section-I (Single Correct Answer Type, Total Marks: 21) contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questionyou will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer andzero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

24. A potential difference V is applied across an X-ray tube. If is the charge to mass

ratio of an electron and c the speed of light in vacuum, the ratio of the de Broglie

wavelength of the incident electrons to the shortest wavelength of X-rays produced is

given by

A) B) C) D)



25. The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the electron in the the energy state of a

hydrogen atom is proportional to

A) B) C) D)

26. If elements with principal quantum number were not allowed in nature, the

number of possible elements would be

A) 60 B) 32 C) 4 D) 64

27. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three different metal plates p,q

and r having work functions and , respectively. A light

beam containg wavelength of 550nm, 450 mm and 350 nm with equal intensities

illuminates each of the plates. The correct I-V graph for the experiment is

A) B)



C) D) 28. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve for nucle is shown in figure W,

X , Y and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is

A) B) C) D)

29. A radioactive element of mass number 208 at rest disintegrates by emitting an - particle. If E is the energy of the emitted -particle, the energy of disintegration is

A) B) C) 52E D) E

30. A positron with kinetic energy 1 MeV and an electron with kinetic energy 1MeV meet each other moving in opposite directions. They annihilate each other by emitting two photons. If the rest mass energy of an electron is 0.51 MeV, the wavelength of each photon is

A) B) C) D)



SECTION-2Section-II (Multiple Correct Answers Type, Total Marks: 16) contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct. Foreach question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to thecorrect answer(s) ONLY and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.

31. When a point light source, of power W emitting monochromatic light of wavelength is kept at a large distance from a photosensitive surface of work function , and area S, we will have ( The surface faces the source)

A) Number of photons striking the surface per unit time as

B) The maximum energy of the emitted photoelectrons as

C) The stopping potential needed to stop the most energetic emitted photoelectrons as

D) Photoemission occurs only if lies in the range

32. The intensity of X-rays from a Coolidge tube is plotted against wavelength as shown

in figure. the minimum wavelength found is and the wavelength of line is . If

the accelerating voltage is increased



A) Decreases

B) increases

C) increases

D) and both decrease but remains unchanged

33. For a certain radioactive substance, it is observed that after 4 hours, only 6.25% of the

original sample is left undecayed. It follows that

A) The half life of the sample is 1 hour

B) The mean life of the sample 1/(ln 2) hour

C) The decay constant of the sample is ( ln 2) hour-1

D) After a further 4 hours, the amount of the substance left over would be only 0.39%

of the original amount

34. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct? A) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less than the sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleonsB) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater than the sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleonsC) In nuclear fusion energy is released by fusing two nuclei of medium mass (approximately 100 amu) D) In nuclear fission, energy is released by fragmentation of a very heavy nucleus

SECTION-3Section-III (Paragraph Type, Total Marks: 15) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of theparagraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice



questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) outof which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darkenONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. Inall other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

Paragraph-I:Hydrogen is the simplest atom of nature. There is one proton in its nucleus and an electron moves around the nucleus in a circular orbit. According to Niels Bohr, this electron moves in a stationary orbit, it emits no electromagnetic radiation. The angular momentum of the electron is quantized, i.e., mvr = (nh / 2), where m = mass of the electron, v = velocity of the electron in the orbit, r = radius of the orbit, and n = 1, 2, 3… when transition takes place from Kth orbit to Jth orbit, energy photon is emitted. If

the wavelength of the emitted photon is , we find that , where R is

Rydberg’s constant.

++

r n

v n

F m

ze

e –

On a different planet, the hydrogen atom’s structure was somewhat different from

ours. There the angular momentum of electron was P = 2n(h / 2), i.e. an even

multiple of (h / 2).

Answer the following questions regarding the other planet based on above passage :

35. The minimum permissible radius of the orbit will be



A) B) C) D)

36. In our world, the velocity of electron is v0 when the hydrogen atom is in the ground

state. The velocity of electron in this state on the other planet should be

A) v0 B) v0 / 2 C) v0 / 4 D) v0 / 8

37. In our world, the ionization potential energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. On the

other planet, this ionization potential energy will be

A) 13.6 eV B) 3.4 eV C) 1.5 eV D) 0.85 eV

PASSAGE-II

A radioactive elements decays by beta emission. A detector records n beta particles in

the first 2 seconds and 0.75 n beta particles in the next 2 seconds

38. The decay constant of the element is

A) B) C) D)

39. The mean life of the element is (given ln(2)=0.693 and ln(3)=1.1)

A) 5 s B) 6 s C) 7 s D) 8 s

SECTION-4Section-IV (Integer Answer Type, Total Marks: 28) contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the



questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.

40. Hydrogen gas in its ground state is excited by means of monochromatic radiation of

wavelength . How many different lines are possible in the resulting spectrum?

The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.

41. A hydrogen-like atom of atomic number Z is in an excited state of quantum number

n=6. This excited atom makes a transition to the first excited state by successively

emitting two photons of energies 10.20 eV and 17.00 eV respectively. Find the value

of Z. The ionization energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV.

42. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by where

and are constants and is the radius of the electron orbit around the proton.

Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, it is found that is proportional to ,

where is the principal quantum number. Find the value of x.



43. An element of atomic number 9 emits photon of wavelength . Find the atomic

number of the element which emits photon of wavelength . (Assume screening

number for transition is equal to 1)

44. A sliver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7 eV is suspended from a

insulating thread in free-space. It is under continuous illumination of 200nm

wavelength light. As photoelectrons are emitted , the sphere gets charged and acquires

a potential. The maximum number of photoelectrons emitted from the sphere is

( where . The value of ‘Z’ is (Neglect electron cloud around the sphere)

45. To determine the half life of radioactive element, a student plots a graph of

versus t. Here is the rate of radioactive decay at time t. If the number of

radioactive nuclei of this element decreases by a factor of p after 4.16 years, find the

value of p.



46. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is disintegrations per second,

whose mean life is the mass of an atom of this radioisotope is . The mass

(in mg) of the radioactive sample is

MATHEMATICSSECTION-1

Section-I (Single Correct Answer Type, Total Marks: 21) contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.



47. ‘n’ positive integers taken at random are multiplied together then the probability that the last digit of the product is zero is__

A) B) C) D)

48. If A,B,C are three events such that

, ,

. If probability of getting atleast one event of A,B,C is greater than or

equal to 0.75 then A) B) C) D)

49. An urn contains 2 white 2 black balls. A ball is drawn at random and if it is white it is

not replaced into urn, otherwise it is replaced along with other ball of same colour.

The process is repeated, then the probability that the third ball drawn is black is

A) B) C) D)

50. Consider . Parameters a,b,c are chosen respectively by throwing a

die three times, then the probability that is increasing function is____

A) B) C) D)

51. If three numbers are chosen randomly from the set 21,3,3 ,.......,3n without replacement

then the probability that they form an increasing geometric progression is

A) 3

2n if ‘n’ is odd B)

3

2n if ‘n’ is even



C) 2

3

1

n

n if ‘n’ is even D) 2

3

2 1

n

n if ‘n’ is odd

52. Numbers are selected at random one at a time, from the number 00,01,02… 99 with replacement. An event E occurs if and only if the product of two digits of a selected number is 18. If the four numbers are selected, then the probability that E occurs at least 3 times

A) B) C) D)

53. Two persons A and B agree to meet at a place between 10 am to 11 am. The first one to arrive waits for 10 minutes and then leave. If the time of the arrival be independent and random, then is the probability that A and B meet is

A) B) C) D)

SECTION-2Section-II (Multiple Correct Answers Type, Total Marks: 16) contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct. For each



question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.

54. Let A and B are two events such that then

A) B)

C) D)

55. Probability of ‘n’ heads in 2n tosses of a fair coin can be given by

A) B) C) D)

56. One of 10 keys open the door. If we try the keys one after the other then

A) Probability that the door opened in the first attempt is

B) Probability that the door opened in the second attempt is

C) Probability that door opened in 10th attempt is

D) Probability that the door opened in 5th attempt is 1/3



57. A rifleman is firing at a distant target and has only 10% chance of hitting it(

), then which of the following are correct?

A) The number of rounds required in order to have more then 50% chance to hit the

target atleast once is 7.

B) When two attempts are made, the probability that both are failures is

C) When two attempts are made, the probability of hitting the target at least once is

D) When two attempts are made, the probability to hit the target exactly one time is



SECTION-3

Section-III (Paragraph Type, Total Marks: 15) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

Paragraph-I:

A circle of radius ‘r’ touches the lines at A,B whose centre is ‘C’ in

first quadrant (O is origin).

58. If a point is selected in quadrilateral OACB, then the probability that the point is

from the smaller sector CAB is

A) B) C) D)

59. A point is selected from the quadrilateral OACB and it is known that the point is

selected from the , then the probability that the point lies in is

A) B) C) D)

PASSAGE-II



Each face of cubical die is marked with different letters of the word SINDHU. The die

is rolled 12 times and letters on the upper face of the die are noted.

60. What is the probability of getting the letters to form the word SINDHU one time (Not

necessarily in order)?

A) B) C) D)

61. What is the probability of getting the letters to form the word SINDHU two times

(Not necessarily in order)?

A) B) C) D)

62. What is the probability of getting the letters, not to form the word SINDHU (Not

necessarily in order)?

A) B) C) D)



SECTION-4Section-IV (Integer Answer Type, Total Marks: 28) contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.

63. A bag contains “n” white and “n” black balls, pairs of balls are drawn without

replacement until the bag is empty. The probability that each pair contains one white,

one black is then

64. A bag contains ‘a’ white and ‘b’ black balls. Two players A and B alternately draw a

ball from the bag replacing the ball each time after the draw till one of them draws a

white ball and wins the game. If ‘A’ begins the game then probability of A winning is

three times that of B then is__

65. A natural number ‘x’ is chosen at random from first 100 natural numbers, then the

probability for the inequality to be true is then ___(H.C.F of a,b

is1)



66. If then find the probability that the graph of function

is strictly above the x-axis is then

(H.C.F of p,q is1)

67. In a 3 3 matrix the entries ija are randomly selected from the digits {0,1,2 __9} with

replacement. The probability that the numbers of the form xyz where x,y,z are the

elements in each row will be divisible by 11 is 1 2

9

7 .13

10

K K

then 1 2K K ____

68. Two number x, y are chosen at random from the numbers 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9. Then the

probability that is divisible by 3 is (H.C.F of a,b is1) then =______

69. 64 players play in a knockout tournament. Assuming that all the players are of equal

strength, the probability that 1P loses to 2P and 2P becomes the eventual winner is ,

where abc is a three digited number, then is


28-12-14 sr.iit-z (iz) co-spark jee adv pta-16 (2011 p1) q'paper

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