2005 pilotnbde (part i)

8/16/2019 2005 PilotNBDE (Part I)

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1

WhQt Qre

pre omimnt

linkages in glycogen

between glucose units?

A

Alpha-1,4

B.

Alpha-1,6

C. Beta-1,3

D

Beta-1,4

E.

8eta-1,6

2 In

fermentation, the final electron acceptor is

A

water.

B.

oxygen.

C. carbon dioxide.

D

an organic compound.

E.

an inorganic compound.

3

Which of the following primary teeth

is MOST

likely to have

an

oblique ridge?

A

Maxillary canine

B. Maxillary first molar

C.

Maxillary second molar

D Mandibular first molar

E.

Mandibular second molar

4 Each of the following structures is found in the

infratemporal fossae EXCEPT one. Which one

is this EXCEPTION?

A

Lingual nerve

B.

Medial pterygoid muscle

C. Inferior alveolar nerve

D

Pterygopalatine ganglion

E.

Pterygoid venous plexus

5 Each of the following cranial nerves is

associated with the cavernous sinus EXCEPT

one. Which one

is

this EXCEf / ION?

6

A

Facial

B.

Abducens

C. Trochlear

D. Trigeminal

E.

Oculomotor

Calcium dipicolinate is present in 18I ge amounts

in

A.

B.

C

D

E.

spores.

flagella.

mesosomes.

ribosomes.

mitochondria.

7. When compared to the

primary

mandibular first

molar, the primary mandibular second molar

normally exhibits a

GREA

TER number of which

of the following?

A. Oblique ridges

B. Roots

C

Cusps

D

Cervical ridges

E.

Transverse ridges

8 Which

of

the following describes the movement

of glycine molecules in an electric field at a pH of

6.06 (the isoelectric

pH

for glycine)? The glycine

molecules will

A. not move.

B. move to the anode.

C.

move to the cathode.

D. move to both anode and cathode.

9

Zinc is an essential component of which of the

following?

A. Pepsin

B. Amylase

C Hexokinase

D.

Adenylate cyclase

E Carbonic anhydrase

10

Which of the following cancers typically arises

in

teenagers and young adults?

A

Wilms tumor

B. Angiosarcoma

C.

Ewing s sarcoma

D Multiple myeloma

E.

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

11 Each of the following muscles usually appears

in

the floor of the posterior triangle EX EPT

one. hich one is this EXCEPTION?

A. Sternohyoid

B. Medius scalene

C. Splenius capitis

D. Levator scapulae

E.

Anterior belly

of

omohyoid

12 In

an

ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiofacial

cusp of the maxillary first molar opposes which

morphologic entity of the mandibular first molar?

A Central fossa

B. Lingual groove

C. Distofacial groove

D. Mesiofacial groove

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2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission

on

National Dental Examinations. All rights reselved. Reprinted by permission.



13. Three days ago, a patient received her third

immunization with tetanus toxoid. What class of

antibodies specific for tetanus t?xoid would one

expect

to

find in her serum?

A

Similar concentrations of IgM and IgG

B

High concentrations of both IgM and IgD

C Low concentration of IgM; high

concentration of IgE

D

Low concentration of IgM; high

concentration of IgG

E

High concentration of IgM; low

concentration of IgG

14. Facilitated diffusion

DIFFERS

from active

transport in that net transport by facilitated

diffusion

A

has a transport maximum.

B

uses ATP as an energy source.

C

requires a concentration gradient.

D

occurs

as

an endergonic (positive

f\..G

process.

15. Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds

of

the tongue

develops

primarily

from

A Rathke s pouch.

B. tuberculum impar.

C

foregut endoderm.

D. hypobranchial eminence.

E. lateral lingual swellings.

16. Each of the following statements regarding

aldosterone

is

correct

EX EPT

one. Which one

is this

EXCEPTION

A

Is

a mineralocorticoid.

B

Increases Na+ uptake from the kidneys.

C

Production

is

stimulated by angiotensin II.

D

Is produced in the zona fasciculata of the

adrenal cortex.

17. Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is

MOST

characteristic of

A

viral pneumonia.

B

bacterial pneumonia.

C

lung abscess.

D

bronchial asthma.

E

bronchopneumonia.

18. The occlusal outline of a mandibular first molar

is

similar to a

A

circle.

B

square.

C. hexagon.

D pentagon

E

rhomboid.

19. Which

of

the following statements

is

correct w

respect to mastication of food?

A

Food

is

masticated primarily

in

a border

movement.

B. Food is masticated primarily in lateral

contacting movement.

C.

An

ideal occlusion is a requisite for

masticatory efficiency.

D. Proper incisor contact

is

a requisite for

masticatory efficiency.

E. Indigestion is generally related to

inadequate mastication of food.

20. Human papillomaviruses

16

and 18 are strong

correlated with the appearance of

A

genital warts.

B. plantar warts.

C. cutaneous warts.

D. uterine cancer.

E. cervical cancer.

21. The sensory receptors serving the stretch refle

are classified as

A

nociceptors.

B chemoreceptors.

C proprioceptors.

D exteroceptors.

22. Which of the following muscles participates

flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero

ulnar joints?

A Deltoid

B. Brachialis

C

Biceps brachii

D. Triceps brachii

E. Coracobrachialis

© 2005 American Dental Association Jo t C ' . .

,

In om

mission on National Dental Examinations.

All

rights reserved. Reprinted

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permissio



23. During fetal development, blood is shunted from

the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch by means

of the

A. foramen ovale.

B. sinus venosus.

C. ductus venosus.

D. ductus arteriosus.

E foramen secundum.

24. Which of the following factors MOST influences

the lingual concavity of the maxillary anterior

teeth and groove direction of the posterior teeth?

A Anterior guidance

B. Angle of the eminence

C. Curve of the occlusion

D. Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett

movement)

E

Direction of movement of the rotating

condyle

25. Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of

DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop

capsules. This is an

example of bacterial

A. mutation.

B. dominance.

C.

conjugation.

D. transduction.

E

transformation.

26. Which of the following base pairs promotes helix

stabilization in DNA but does

NOT

do

so

in RNA?

A.

G C

B. A-T

C. G-U

D. C-T

E. A-U

27.

Blood from the cephalic vein drains into which

of the following veins?

A Basilic

B. Brachiocephalic

C. Axillary

D.

Internal thoracic

E. Superior vena cava

28. The junction between the tooth surface and the

crevicular epithelium is composed of which of

the following?

A.

Cementoid

B. Tight junction

C. Intermediate filaments

D.

Basal lamina-like structure

E Interstitial crevicular fluid

29. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5 ACG3 ,

then which of the following is its corresponding

codon on messenger-RNA?

A

5 CGT 3

B 5 CGU 3

C. 5 TGC 3

D 5 UAG 3

E 5 UGC 3

30. On the crown of the

primary

maxillary first

molar, the mesial surface normally

A. is larger than the distal surface of the

same tooth.

B.

exhibits a concave lingual outline.

C. is wider occlusocervically than

buccolingually.

D.

exhibits a straight cervical line.

E.

is wider buccolingually at the occlusal

table than at the cervical third.

31 Staphylococcus aureus

OST

commonly

causes

A. skin infections.

B. septicemia.

C

sore throat.

D chronic infections.

E.

exogenous infections.

32. Each of the following is characteristic of herpes

zoster EXCEPT one. Which one is this

EXCEPTION

A Unilateral

B, Usually involves 1-3 dermatomes.

C. Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent

patients.

D Only occurs in an individual having a

latent

VZV

infection.

E

More common in individuals who are

immunocompromised.

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2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted

by

permission.



4

33. Which of the following describes the contact

relationship between a maxillary central incisor

and a maxillary lateral incisor?

A

Contact

is

offset

to

the lingual.

B. Contact is centered incisocervically.

C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial

embrasure.

D.

Incisal embrasure is the largest of all the

embrasures.

34. Which

of

the following shows a relative

INCREASE

as

the dental pulp ages?

A

Number of fibroblasts

B.

Number of odontoblasts

C. Number of blood vessels

D. Size of the pulp chamber

E.

Amount of fibrous connective tissue

35. The rapid emergence of new strains of human

immunodeficiency virus is primarily the result of

A. the frequent genomic recombination

between human immunodeficiency virus

and other retroviruses.

S.

frequent errors in

the

translation of viral

proteins.

C. the lack of immune response to the viral

envelope glycoprotein.

D. frequent errors introduced by viral reverse

transcriptase.

E. the imprecision of protein cleavage by viral

protease.

36. Mesial

and

distal pulp horns are MORE likely to

be

found

in

which of the following teeth?

A Maxillary central incisors

B. Mandibular central incisors

C Mandibular canines

D. Maxillary first premolars

E. Mandibular first premolars

3 7. The major sensory nerve

to

the parietal

pericardium branches

from

which of the

following nerves?

A

Vagus

B.

Musculophrenic

C. Intercostal

D. Phrenic

E. Internal thoracic

38. Which of the following muscles

is MOST

concerned

in

quiet respiration?

A Rhomboid

B.

Diaphragm

C. Subclavius

D. Sacrospinalis

E.

Pectoralis major

39. Before swallowing can be initiated, afferent

information must be received

A.

B

C.

D.

from muscle spindles, indicating the

consistency of a soft bolus of food.

in

a lesser amount from nociceptors,

indicating a soft bolus of food.

from mucosal mechanoreceptors, indica

the consistency of a soft bolus of food.

from pharyngeal taste receptors, indicat

the consistency of a soft bolus of food.

40. When the mandible moves to the right, the

mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary right first

molar passes through which groove of the

mandibular right first molar?

A. Mesiomarginal

B.

Distofacial

C. Mesiofacial

D. Lingual

E.

Central

41. The antigenic component of which of the

following vaccines is a capsular antigen?

A. Influenza

B.

Poliovirus

C. Hepatitis B

D Haemophilus influenzae

42. Coupled respiration requires each

of

the

following EXCEPT one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

A.

ADP

B. Oxygen

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Electron donor

E. Inorganic phosphate

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2005 American Dental AssOCiation Joint C ,

. ommlsslon on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted

by

permission



43 As

the severity of periodontal disease

progresses, there is an increase in plasma cells

that produce which of the following'

A. slgA

B IgD

C IgE

0,

IgG

E IgM

44 Which of the following is a complication of

cirrhosis?

A. Splenic atrophy

B Hepatic angioma formation

C Obstruction of portal circulation

0,

Increased plasma protein formation

E

Decreased central venous pressure

45 Which of the following is produced when a

mutation occurs in an enzyme controlling a

signal pathway involved in cell growth

processes?

A. Epigene

B Antigene

C. Oncogene

D. Monogene

E. Transgene

46 DNA that is complementary to mRNA can be

made using which of the following?

A.

A plasmid

B DNA ligase

C

A retrovirus

D. RNA polymerase

E Reverse transcriptase

47 Which of the following groups of organs is

retroperitoneal?

A

Pancreas, transverse colon, and

descending colon

B Pancreas, stomach, and ovary

C Kidney, transverse colon, and ovary

D.

Ureter, gallbladder, and transverse colon

E Kidney, adrenal, and rectum

48. Each of the following derives from a phar

pouch EXCEPT one, Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

A Thymus

B Parathyroid

C Parotid gland

D.

Auditory tube

E. Palatine tonsil

49 The arrow in the illustration below indica

path taken by opposing cusps. The ma

movement indicated is

A. protrusive.

B

right lateral; laterotrusive.

C left lateral; laterotrusive.

D. right lateral; mediotrusive.

E. left lateral; mediotrusive.

50 Which of the following is caused by vitam

deficiency in adults?

A. Rickets

B. Myxedema

C Acromegaly

D.

Osteomalacia

E

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

51 In

unilateral balanced occlusion, contact b

lower buccal cusps and upper buccal cusp

along with simultaneous contact between

lingual cusps and upper lingual cusps, wil

likely occur

in

which of the following types

mandibular movements?

A. Laterotrusive

B. Mediotrusive

C. Straight retrusive

D. Straight protrusive

52 The buccal mucosa typically has which o

following epithelia?

A. Simple columnar

B Pseudostratified columnar

C Non-keratinized, stratified squamous

0, Parakeratinized, stratified squamous

E.

Orthokeratinized, stratified squamou

© 2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations.

All

rights reserved. Reprinted

by

permission,



8

74. Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in

the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in

order to compensate for occlusal wear. In

response to this continuous eruption, which o

the following is deposited at the apex

o

the root?

A

Primary dentin

B Secondary dentin

C Reparative dentin

D Cellular cementum

E

Acellular cementum

75

Which of the following would produce the greatest

DECREASE in

resistance in a single artery

2

mm

long and with a radius of

1 2

mm?

A A halving in length

B A doubling in length

C

An increase

in

radius by a factor of

2

D

A decrease in blood viscosity by a factor

of 2

76. Which of the following

BEST

describes a centric

holding cusp of a mandibular left second molar?

A

B

C

D

It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the

embrasure between maxillary first and

second molars.

It is the distofacial cusp and occludes

in

the

central fossa of a maxillary second molar.

It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in

the embrasure between maxillary first and

second rnolars.

It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in

the central fossa of a maxillary second

molar.

77. Oral streptococci are usually

A gamma-hemolytic.

B alpha-hemolytic.

C beta-hemolytic.

D

non-hemolytic.

78. The cell membrane is LE ST permeable to

which of the following substances?

A

02

B

CO2

C

H2O

D

Sodium

E

Ethanol

79

Which of the following types of dentin

is

the

MOST

highly mineralized?

A Carious

B Predentin

C

Intertubular

D

Interglobular

E Intra peri)tubular

80 Each of the following can be found in the dent

pulp EX EPT one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

A Nerve tissue

B. Blood vessels

C. Cernentoblasts

D. Lyrnph vessels

81

According to the Spaulding Classification

System for contaminated items and surfaces,

semi-critical items should be reprocessed by

A exposure to ethylene oxide.

B

a spray-wipe-spray technique.

C imersion in a tuberculocidal disinfectant.

D washing with a chlorhexidine gluconate

disinfectant.

E

heat stabilization if the material is heat

stable.

82.

In

the contractile cycle, the dissociation of the

actomyosin complex results

MOST

immediatel

from

A

A TP hydrolysis.

B release of ATP hydrolysis products.

C ATP replacing ADP on the myosin heads

D

tilting of the myosin heads crossbridges)

83. Which of the following represents the

consequence of the fact that DNA strands are

complementary?

A Hairpin loop structures can

be

generated

B They will always have identical sequence

C Separated strands are able to reassociate

D

They cannot get back together once

separated

84. Which o the following predominates

in

steroid

producing cells?

A Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

B Rough endoplasmic reticulum

C Golgi apparatus

D

Phagosomes

E Nucleolus

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2005 Arnerican Dental Association, Joint Comrnission on National Dental Exarninations. All rights reserved. Reprinted by perrnission



85 The spacing between anterior teeth

in

the

primary dentition

is

MOSTfrequently caused by

A thumb-sucking.

B tongue thrusting.

C transseptal gingival fibers.

D

the growth of the dental arches.

E the pressure from succedaneous teeth.

86 Each

of the following types of cells is

phagocytic EX EPT one. Which one is this

EXCEPTION

A Monocyte

B Histiocyte

C

Neutrophil

D Macrophage

E Lymphocyte

87 Which of the following

is MOST

likely to

promote depolymerization

of

extracellular

matrix?

A Cortisone

B Collagenase

C

Chymotrypsin

D

Hyaluronidase

88 In the intercuspal position, which of the

following anterior teeth has the potential of

contacting both anterior and posterior

antagonists?

A

Maxillary lateral incisor

B

Mandibular lateral incisor

C Maxillary canine

D Mandibular canine

89 In the oral region, the lingual artery usually is

found between the

A lingual and hypoglossal nerves.

B mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles.

C

hyoglossus

and

genioglossus muscles.

D sublingual duct and hypoglossal nerve.

E oral mucous membrane and the anterior

belly of the digastric muscle.

90. Each of the following is a type of inflammatory

exudate EXCEPT one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION?

A Suppurative

B

Fibrous

C Purulent

D Fibrinous

E Pseudomembranous

91. A substance alters the

rate

of an enzymatic

reaction by binding to

the

enzyme at a site other

than the active site. The substance described

is

a

an)

A uncoupler.

B covalent modifier.

C. allosteric inhibitor.

D. competitive inhibitor.

E. post-translational modifier.

92

On

a maxillary first molar, the occlusal outline

contains two obtuse and two acute angles. The

acute line angles are

A. mesiolingual and distolingual.

B. mesiofacial and distolingual.

C. mesiolingual and distofacial.

D. mesiofacial and distofacial.

E. distofacial and distolingual.

93 When T-cells from patients who have chronic

periodontal disease react with certain plaque

bacterial antigens, they produce each of the

following

EX EPT

one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

A Immunoglobulin

B IL-2

C T N F ~

D IFN-y

94. During which of the following would blood flow

to the coronary arteries

be

GREA TEST in a

resting individual?

A Isovolumic contraction

B

Ventricular ejection

C Atrial contraction

D Ventricular relaxation

95. Atropine prevents the secretion of saliva

resulting from stimulation of the chorda tympani

because it

A denatures the salivary gland proteins.

B

prevents the action of acetylcholine on the

secreting cells.

C prevents release of acetylcholine by

sympathetic postganglionic fibers.

D prevents release of acetylcholine

in

autonomic ganglia.

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10

96. If the point of a needle enters the parotid gland

during an inferior alveolar injection and solution is

deposited in the gland, the

OST

likely result is

A

paralysis of the buccinator muscle.

B paralysis of the temporalis muscle.

C

paresthesia of the lingual nerve.

D paralysis of temporal tympani.

E a hematoma of the pterygoid venous

plexus.

97. Which of the following promotes edema?

A. Increased blood proteins

B Increased sodium excretion

C Decreased lymphatic drainage

D

Decreased venule blood pressure

E

Increased plasma osmotic pressure

98. Which

of

the following ESTdescribes the

primary ionic movement during the

depolarization phase of a nerve action

potential?

A Potassium ions moving from inside to

outside the membrane

B Potassium ions moving into the fiber from

interstitial fluid

C

Large organic-negative ions moving from

inside the fiber to outside the fiber

D Sodium ions moving from inside the

membrane to outside the membrane

E Sodium ions moving from outside the

membrane to inside the membrane

99. A mature ovum

is

expelled from which of the

following?

A

Corpus luteum

B Corpus albicans

C

Graafian follicles

D Corpus hemorrhagicum

100. Which of the following is the characteristic

immunoglobulin present

in

human external

secret ions i.e. saliva, tears, intestinal juice)?

A

Monomeric

IgE

B

Monomeric IgA

C Polymeric IgG4

D Polymeric IgA

E Secretory IgD

2005 American Dental Association, Join t Commission

on

National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted

y

permissio



101. Which of the following is the cellular organelle

that contains many types of hydrolytic

enzymes?

102.

103

A.

Lysosome

B. Centrosome

C. Mitochondrion

D.

Golgi apparatus

E. Endoplasmic reticulum

Ordinarily a 6-year-old child would have which

of the following teeth clinically visible?

A All primary teeth only

B. All primary teeth and permanent first

molars

C. Primary posterior teeth permanent first

molars and central incisors

D. Primary canines permanent first molars

and permanent mandibular incisors

Which of the following

is

the lobe of the

cerebral hemisphere that lies

in

the middle

cranial fossa?

A

B.

C.

D

Frontal

Temporal

Occipital

Parietal

104. In an ideal intercuspal position the distoincisal

aspect of a mandibular central incisor opposes

which structure of which maxillary incisor?

A

B.

C

D.

E

Lingual fossa of a lateral

Mesial marginal ridge of a lateral

Distal marginal ridge of a central

Mesial marginal ridge of a central

Lingual fossa of a central

105. Virulence of the pneumococcus is associated

with its

A

B

C

D

E

pyrogenic exotoxin.

C-reactive protein.

content of nucleoprotein.

production of streptolysin.

capsular polysaccharide

106. Which of the following statements EST

describes hydroxyapatite

in

enamel?

107.

108

A. Has a nonpolar surface

B. Has

10

ions in each unit cell

C.

Contains no ion substitutions

D. Has a higher solubility than fluorapatite

E Has a solubility that decreases as the

pH decreases

Which of the following epithelial types is

normally associated with the internal lining of

the majority of the tubular gastrointestinal

tract?

A.

Simple columnar

B. Simple cuboidal

C. Simple squamous

D. Stratified cuboidal

E. Stratified squamous

Prior to surgery an anxious patient has a

higher systolic blood pressure than previously

noted. Which of the following represents the

MOST

likely reason?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Cardiac shock

Anaphylactic shock

Atrial fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation

Decreased arterial compliance

109. Which of the following skin lesions is generally

considered precancerous?

A.

B

C

D.

E.

Psoriasis

Verruca vulgaris

Intradermal nevus

Actinic keratosis

Seborrheic keratosis

110. Which of the following is a branching

filamentous microorganism that

is

a normal

inhabitant of the gingival crevice and tonsillar

crypts?

A

B.

C.

D.

E

spergillus niger

ctinomyces naeslundii

Penicillium notatum

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

Lactobacillus casei

©

2 5 American

Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations.

All rights

reserved. Reprinted by permission.

11



12

111. Glucose can be made from each of the

following sUbstances EX EPT one. Which

one is this

EXCEPTION

112

A

B

C

D

E

Lactate

Acetyl CoA

Glycerol

Pyruvate

Fructose

In

an ideal intercuspal position. the

distolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar

opposes the

A central fossa of the mandibular first

molar.

B

lingual sulcus of the mandibular first

molar.

C mesial fossa of the mandibular second

molar.

D

mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular

second molar.

E

facial embrasure between the

mandibular first and second molars.

113. Which of the following oral tissues contains

the LEAST collagen?

A

Bone

B

Dentin

C

Mucosa

D Enamel

E

Cementum

114. Each of the following statements describes a

contributor to the initiation of mineralization of

bone EXCEPT one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

A

B

C

D

E

Holes or pores in collagen fibers

Release of matrix vesicles by

osteoblasts

Release of acid phosphatase by

osteocytes trapped in lacunae

Alkaline phosphatase activity

in

osteoblasts and matrix vesicles

Degradation of matrix pyrophosphate

to release an inorganic phosphate

group

115.

Increased pulmonary ventilation obse

high altitudes results directly from the

hypoxia on the

116

A

B

C

D

E

carotid body.

aortic sinus.

hypothalamus.

carotid sinus.

respiratory center.

Juxtamedular and cortical ilephrons d

primarily in

A

filtration fraction.

B

location of macula densa.

C length of proximal tubule.

D

length of distal convoluted tubu

E

length of the thin segment of th

of

Henle.

117. Which of the following represents the p

function of slgA?

A Aggregates microorganisms an

prevents colonization

B

Activates complement

in

secre

fluids

C

D

E

Promotes phagocytosis by mon

Activates mast cells

Activates NK cells

118. Which of the following EST describes

occlusal outline of a maxillary first mol

an occlusal view?

A

B

C

D

E

Ovoid

Square

Rectangular

Pentagonal

Rhomboidal

119. The nasopalatine nerve reaches muco

the oral

c vity vi

which of the followin

foramina?

A Incisive

B

Infraorbital

C Lesser palatine

D

Greater palatine

E

Pterygopalatine

© 2005 American Dental Association Join t Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted by permission.



120

Which of the following represents the total

number of teeth in the permanent dentition

that normally possess a cingulum?

A 4

B

C

D

E

6

8

12

16

121. Cellular tropism by viruses is dependent on

which of the following?

A Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA

B Temperature of host cell incubation

C Gamma interferon production

D Cell surface receptors

E Viral enzyme synthesis


is

an allosteric effector

of an enzymatic reaction?

A

B

C

D

E

Competitive inhibitor

Noncompetitive inhibitor

Substance that binds to the substrate

Substance affecting enzymatic activity

by binding to the active site

Substance affecting enzymatic activity

by binding to non-active sites

123.

Odontoblasts secrete the organic components

of

the dentin matrix. The fibrous matrix

is

MOSTLY

A

B

C

D

E

keratin.

reticular fibers.

Type I collagen.

Type II and III collagen.

reabsorbed as the dentin matures.


EST

describes the

normal root of the mandibular canine, in cross

section at the

CEJ?

A

Circular, symmetrical

B. Triangular, symmetrical

C. Ovoid, symmetrical

D. Ovoid, but wider mesiodistally at the

lingual

E

Ovoid,

but

wider mesiodistally at the

labial

I l

125. Collagen degradation that

is

observed in

chronic periodontal disease can result directly

from the action

of

collagenase enzymes of oral

microbial origin. Such enzymes have been

demonstrated as component systems of

126.

A

B

C

D

E

Porphyromonas

species.

Lepthothnx buccalis

Entamoeba gingiva/is

Enterococcus faecalis

Veillon ella

species.

Hormones that

exert

their effects through the

activation of second messengers al e

A lipophilic.

B usually water soluble peptide/protein

hormones.

C initially bound to cytoplasmic hormone

receptors.

D

secreted by ovaries. testes, adrenal

cortex,

and

placenta.

127. Which of the following exhibits phagocyti c

activity in the central nervous system?

A. Ependymal cell

B. Microglial cell

C. Oligodendrocyte

D

Fibrous astrocyte

E Protoplasmic astrocyte

128. Each of the following coenzymes

is

a

component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase

complex EXCEPT one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION?

A

B.

C

D

NAD

Biotin

Coenzyme A

Thiamine pyrophosphate

129. Identify the anterior tooth that MOST

frequently exhibits a bifurcated root and

identify the positions of the roots.

Tooth

Root Position

A

Maxillary lateral

Mesial and distal

incisor

B

Maxillary lateral

Facial and lingual

incisor

C

Maxillary

canine

Facial and lingual

D

Mandibular canine

Facial and lingual

©


by

permission.

1



14

130. Which of the following ligaments is OST

often damaged in

an

inferior alveolar nerve

block?

A

Lateral

B

Capsular

C Stylohyoid

D

Stylomandibular

E

Sphenomandibular

131.

Which of the following enzymes seals nicks

in

DNA?

A

B

C

D

E

Exonuclease

Endonuclease

Ligase

DNA polymerase

RNA polymerase

132. Which of the following teeth is the LE ST

likely tooth to have a bifurcation of the root?

133.

134.

A

Mandibular canine

B Mandibular central incisor

C Maxillary central incisor

D

Mandibular lateral incisor

E

Maxillary second premolar

Hepatitis C virus infection

is OST

often

transmitted through

A sexual contact.

B oral secretions.

C

blood transfusions.

D

the fecal-oral route.

E

respiratory droplets.

Neurofibromatosis type I

is

characterized by

which of the following conditions?

A

B

C

D

E

Multiple mucosal neuromas

Perioral melanotic freckles

Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

Development o visceral carcinoma

Multiple pigmented macUies of the skin

135.

Each of the following structures increases the

surface area of the small intestine EXCEPT

one. Which

is

the EXCEPTION

A

Villi

B

Rugae

C

Microvilli

D

Brush border

E

Circular folds

136

137.

138.

139.

Which of the following represents the slight

incisocervical concavity on the labial crown

surface of the canines that is found in the

incisal third just mesial to the labial ridge?

A

Mesial fossa

B

Mesiolingual fissa

C

Mesial marginal ridge

D

Mesiolabialline angle

E

Mesiolabial developmental depression

Submucosal glands are usually located

in

the

A fundus of stomach

B duodenum.

C appendix.

D

jejunum.

E

colon.

Which o the following is an endogenous

fungus that

is

capable of producing an

opportunistic infection?

A Candida

B Rhizopus

C

Blastomyces

D

spergillus

E Cryptococcus

Which of the following pathogens is the single

OST common cause of sexually transmitted

disease in the U S.?

A.

B.

C

D

E

Treponema pallidum

Haemophilus ducrey

Chlamydia trachomatis

Herpes simplex virus

Human immunodeficiency virus

140. Which

o

the following is the pathway that

results in the formation of glucose in the liver

from lactate produced in muscle?

A. Cori cycle

B

Glycolysis

C

Citric acid cycle

D

Pentose phosphate pathway

©

2005 American Dental Association Joint Commission

on

National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted by permission.



141

142

Which of the following represents the primary

function of cementum?

A Attach Sharpey s fibers

B

Protect the root from caries

C Repair traumatic injuries of the root

D Supply nutrition to the periodontal

ligament

E

Maintain the width of the periodontal

ligament

Compared to a maxillary second premolar, a

maxillary first premolar has

A two roots, one facial and one lingual.

B three developmental grooves.

C one root containing two root canals.

D

a shorter central groove.

E

two roots, one mesial and one distal.

143. A 9-year-old boy has tinea capitis. If

he

is

receiving appropriate therapy then

he

is

MOST

likely being treated with

an

144

145

A

anti-viral agent.

B

anti-mycotic agent.

C anti-bacterial agent.

D

anti-parasitic agent.

A pronounced developmental groove

is

usually present

on

a marginal ridge of which

of the following teeth?

A

B

C

D

E

Maxillary canine

Maxillary first premolar

Mandibular second premolar

Mandibular first molar

Maxillary second

molar

MOST

cases of choriocarcinoma are

discovered by the appearance of a rising titer

in blood or urine of which of the following?

A. Acid phosphatase

B. Alpha-fetoprotein

C. Alkaline phosphatase

D. Carcinoembryonic antigen

E. Human chorionic gonadotropin

146

Glucose reabsorption in the nephron is usually

completed in which of the following?

A

B

C

D

Distal tubule

Loop of Henle

Collecting duct

Proximal tubule

147

148

149

Which of the following represents the number

and the location of cusps

on

the V-type

mandibular second premolar?

A No lingual and one facial

B

One lingual and one facial

C One lingual and two facial

D Two lingual and one facial

E

Two lingual and two facial

Which of the following primary teeth

is

usually

bilaterally symmetl ical when viewed facially

and incisally?

A Mandibular central incisor

B

Maxillary central incisor

C Maxillary lateral incisor

D Mandibular lateral incisor

E

Mandibular canine

Pernicious anemia is characterized

by

each of

the following symptoms

EXCEPT

one. Which

one

is

this

EXCEPTIO v?

A

Easy fatigability

B Atrophic glossitis

C Peripheral neuropathy

D

Atrophy of the gastric mucosa

E Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells

150

Which of the following nerves pierces the

thyrohyoid membrane?

A.

B

C

D

E

Inferior laryngeal

Recurrent laryngeal

External branch of the superior

laryngeal

Internal branch of the superior

laryngeal

Pharyngeal branch of the vagus

151

Each of the following conditions involves

changes in numbers of cells in an organ or

tissue EXCEPT one. Which one is this

EXCEPTION

A

B

C

D

Aplasia

Hyperplasia

Hypoplasia

Metaplasia

© 2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted

by

permission.

1



16

1520

The marginal ridges are more prominent on

the lingual surface of which of the following

incisors?

A

B

C

D.

Maxillary central

Mandibular central

Maxillary later'al

Mandibular lateral

153

Which of the following directly catalyzes urea

formation in a cell?

154

A.

Urease

B Uricase

C.

Arginase

D Glutaminase

Atretic follicles are characteristic of which of

the following?

A

B.

C

D

E.

Integument of scalp

Thyroid

Pituitary

Lymph gland

Ovary

155 Which of the following conditions is a

significant risk factor for the development of

hepatocellular carcinoma?

156

A.

Cholestasis

B. Portal hypertens ron

C. Cholelithiasis

D. Reye s syndrome

E. Hepatitis C

Where

is

the lingual height of contour located

on a mandibular first premolar?

A. Occlusal third

B

Junction of the occlusal and middle

thirds

C.

Middle third

D. Junction of the middle and cervical

thirds

E. Cervical third

157. Cigarette smoking has been etiologically

linked to each of the foliowing cancers

EXCEPT one. Which one is this

EXCEPTION

A

B.

C

O

E.

Lung

Colon

Oral cavity

Esophagus

Urinary bladder

158. Which of the following teeth has the greatest

cervi co-occlusal crown height?

A

B

C

D.

E

Maxillary first premolar

Mandibular second premolar

Maxillary first molar

Mandibular second molar

Maxillary second molar

1590

The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars

extends between which two cusps?

A

Mesiofacial and distofacial

B. Mesiolingual and distolingual

C. Mesiolingual and distofacial

D Mesiofacial and mesiolingual

E. Mesiofacial and distolingual

1600

A practitioner administers a

90:10

nitrous

oxide-oxygen mixture to a patient, causing

respiratory depression. Which of the following

conditions

is

likely to result?

A.

B

C.

O

Metabolic acidosis

Respiratory acidosis

Metabolic alkalosis

Respiratory alkalosis

Test item

'5

161-172 refer

t

the following

test

et.

A 23-year-old female presents with complaints of

difficulty

in

opening her mouth and a low-grade fever

of several days' duration. The medical history

indicates a recent positive PPO skin test, and the

patient

is

taking rifampin (Rifadin®). The extra-oral

exam shows diffuse swelling at the angle of the right

mandible and lateral neck. Oral exam shows gingival

swelling and erythema around partially erupted Tooth

32.

161. Rifampin (Rifadin®) is effective in treating

active tuberculosis because it targets which of

the following pathways?

A

B.

C.

D

E.

Mitosis

Replication

Translation

Transcription

mRN splicing

©

2 5

American

Dental Association, Joint

Commission

on

National Dental

Examinations. All rights reserved.

Reprinted by permission.



18

172. Prior to extracting Tooth 32, surgery is done to

expose the entire crown of the tooth. Which of

the following should the dentist expect to see?

A.

B.

C.

D.

The buccal-lingual dimension of the

crown is greater than the mesial-distal

dimension.

The mesial-distal dimension

of

the

crown

is

greater that the buccal-lingual

dimension.

The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal

dimensions of the crown are the same.

The crown of Tooth 32

is

smaller than

the crown of Tooth 1.

Test

item

's

173-181 refer to

the

following

testlet.

A 7-year-old male with a history of asthma presents

for an emergency appointment. He suffered a fall

in

which he struck his anterior maxilla. lacerating his

lips. Oral examination reveals bleeding from the

gingival sulcus around the maxillary central incisors,

and these teeth are mobile. The maxillary lateral

incisors are mobile but do not exhibit bleeding.

During the initial exam, the patient demonstrates

acute dyspnea.

173.

During the initial oral examination, the dentist

suspects onset of an acute asthmatic attack.

Each of the following is a common

manifestation

of

an asthmatic attack

EXCEPT

one. Which one is this EXCEPTION

174.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Airway edema

Bronchospasm

Decreased surfactant

Increased mucous secretion

Increased airway resistance

Which of the following immunoglobulin classes

is

OST

active

in

this patient's respiratory

difficulties?

A.

IgD

B.

IgA

C. IgE

O. IgM

E. IgG

175

Treatment of this patient's respiratory

symptoms requires activation of which of the

following pathways?

176.

177.

178.

A. Cholinergic nicotinic

8.

Cholinergic muscarinic

C. Adrenergic Alpha-1

D. Adrenergic Beta-1

E.

Adrenergic Beta-2

The immediate consequences of this patient's

respiratory difficulty include each of the

following

EXCEPT

one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

A. Hypoxia

B.

Tachycardia

C.

Hypercapnia

O.

Acute respiratory acidosis

E.

Increased renal bicarbonate production

Each of the following statements regarding the

pathogenesis of this patient's respiratory

difficulty

is

correct

EXCEPT

one. Which one

is

this EXCEPTION

A

B.

C.

O.

E.

Multinucleated giant cells phagocytize

extrinsic antigens.

Prostaglandin 0 elicits

bronchoconstriction and vasodilation.

Chemotactic factors recruit and

activate eosinophils and neutrophils.

Platelet activating factor aggregates

platelets and induces histamine

release.

Leukotrienes C4 04 and E4 cause

prolonged bronchoconstriction and

mucin secretion.

Laceration of the patient's lips resulted in

bleeding from which of the following arteries?

A.

Nasopalatine

B.

Nasal branches of the facial

C. Labial branches of the facial

D. Buccal branch of the maxillary

E.

Incisive branches of the infraorbital

© 2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted by permission.



179. If there is a fracture of the maxillary bone

adjacent to the traumatized central incisors,

then nociception terminates centrally within

which of the following?

180.

A.

B

C

D.

E

Trigeminal ganglion

Spinal tract of

V

Spinal subnucleus oral s of V

Spinal subnucleus caudal s of

V

Main (chief) sensory nucleus of

V

On

a panoramic radiograph of this patient, the

dentist

will expect to see each of the following

features EXCEPT one. Which one is this

EXCEPTION

A. Primary maxillary lateral incisors with

partially resorbed roots.

B Partially erupted maxillary central

incisors with incomplete root closure at

the apex.

C. Partially erupted mandibular lateral

incisors with incomple te root closure at

the apex.

D Fully erupted mandibular central

incisors with complete root formation

and closure at the apex.

E Fully erupted mandibular first molars

with incomplete root formation and non

closure at the apex.

181. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors

reveals a small, calcified radiopaque mass

between the roots of Teeth #8 and #9. Which

of the following

is

the

MOST

likely reason for

this mass?

A

B

C.

D

E

Distodens

Mesiodens

Talon cusp

Dens in dente

Peg lateral incisor

Test item #'s 182-195 refer to

the

following testlet

A 15-year-old male presents for emergency care. He is

non-compliant with his type I diabetes regimen, and he

suffered a fall while having an insulin reaction. He .

struck his chin and lacerated

his

tongue. Upon

opening, his mandible deviates to the left. A

panoramic radiograph reveals a fracture of the left

condylar neck.

182

Before examining this patient, the dentist notes

that the standard medical emergency kit

contains an ampule of glucagon. For which of

the following reasons would glucagon

be

used?

183

A. Acts as a source of glucose for the

hypoglycemic patient.

B

Promotes glycogen formation

in

the

hyperglycemic patient.

C. Promotes glycogeno lysis in the

hypoglycemic patient.

D. Stimulates secretion of insulin in the

hyperglycemic patient.

The patient's insulin reaction represented a

sudden fall in blood glucose because he had

taken his normal insulin dose but did not eat

breakfast. Each of the following is a clinical

manifestation of hypoglycemia

EX EPT

one. Which one is this

EXCEPTION

A

Coma

B Dizziness

C. Confusion

D Convulsion

E

Hyperventilation

184

Which of the following glucose transporters

was responsible for the patient's insulin

reaction ?

A

B

C

D

E

GLUT-1

GLUT-2

GLUT-3

GLUT-4

GLUT-5

© 2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on i'jational Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted

by

permission.

1



20

185. Which of the following cells found

in

the

pancreas is responsible for secreting insulin?

186

A Alpha

B

Beta

C

Delta

D

Acinar

E

Centroacinar

Each of the following is a likely long-term

complication of poorly controlled type I

diabetes mellitus EXCEPT one. Which one is

this

EXCEPTION

A Pancreatic carcinoma

B Hyaline arteriolosclerosis

C Proliferative retinopathy

D

Nodular glomerulosclerosis

E

Peripheral symmetric neuropathy

187. Sudden onset of a seizure in this patient

would

OST

likely be due to which of the

following?

188

189

A Hypoxia

B

Ketoacidosis

C Hyponatremia

D

Hypoglycemia

E

Hyperglycemia

The patient's tongue laceration will likely

damage taste buds found on

A. filiform papilla.

B. fungiform papilla.

C. circumvallate papilla.

D. ventrum of the tongue.

Pain impulses from the patient's fractured

mandible are carried by which of the following

nerves?

A Lingual

B. Inferior alveolar

C Auriculotemporal

D. Zygomaticotemporal

E.

Nerve

to lateral pterygoid

190. Each of the following events will occur during

fracture repair EX EPT one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

A

B

C

D

E

Blood clot forms.

Bridging callus forms

Periosteal callus forms.

New endochondral bone forms.

New osteons grow across the callus.

191. The deviation of the patient's mandible is

MO

likely due to lack of function of which of the

following muscles?

192.

193

A Left medial pterygoid

B Right medial pterygoid

C Masseter

D

Left lateral pterygoid

E

Right lateral pterygoid

Monosynaptic jaw closing reflexes might be

disrupted

in

which of the following areas?

A

Locus coenurus

B

Globus pallidus

C Motor nucleus of V

D Mesencephalic nucleus of V

E

Motor nucleus of VII

Muscular contractions might result

in

displacement of the left condyle. Into which of

the following areas will the condyle

OST

like

be displaced?

A Oral

cavity

B Maxillary sinus

C

Temporal fossa

D

Middle ear cavity

E Infratemporal fossa

194. With the fracture of the left condyle, the

condylar head remains in the mandibular fossa

due to which of the following ligaments?

A Periodontal

B Otomandibular

C

Stylomandibular

D

Sphenomandibular

E

Temporomandibular

195. Clinical examination

reveals

that the lingual

cusp on Tooth 5

is

broken off. This

is MOST

likely due to which of the following mandibular

movements during trauma?

A

B

C

D

E

Left mesiotrusive

Right mesiotrusive

Protrusive

Left laterotrusive

Right laterotrusive

© 2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. Reprinted by permission.



Test item

's

196-200 refer to the following testlet.

The dentist is called in to assist

in

the postmortem

identification of an unknown person. Parts of a

cadaver are presented, including portions of the skull

with bones, teeth, and intact soft tissue.

196. Upon viewing the cadaver, the dentist suddenly

feels faint and experiences vasodepressor

syncope. This finding might be associated with

each of the following circumstances

EXCEPT

one. Which one

is

this

EXCEPTION

197.

A

B

C

D

E

Pallor

Diaphoresis

Decreased heart rate

Decreased cerebral blood flow

Increased systemic blood pressure

Examination of the right side of the cadaver's

skull reveals a fracture running through the

petrotympanic fissure. Which of the following

structures is

OST

likely affected

by

such a

fracture?

A Chorda tympani

B Auriculotemporal nerve

C

Mandibular branch of V

D

Middle meningeal artery

E Accessory meningeal artery

198. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base

exhibits a fracture of the cribriform plate.

Damage to this area typically results in which

of the following conditions?

A Tunnel vision

B. Loss of sense of taste

C Loss of sense of smell

D. Damage to optic chiasm

E Damage to speech areas

199.

Examination of a portion of the left mandible

shows a torn piece

of

muscle attached on the

,medial side near the angle of the mandible.

This is which of the following muscles?

A

Buccal

B. Masseter

C. Temporalis

D. Medial pterygoid

E. Inferior head of the pterygoid

200. One piece of examined soft tissue contains

obvious glandular tissue. Histological

examination reveals that it is composed of

purely serous acini. This is OST likely which'

of the following glands?

A

B

C

D

E

Buccal

Parotid

Sublingual

Submandibular

Posterior palatal

WHEN YOU HAVE FINISHED THIS

EXAMINATION BOOKLET, TURN

IN

THE

ORIGINAL (TOP) ANSWER SHEETS TO

THE

TEST ADMINISTRATOR

YOU MAY KEEP THE EXAMINATION

BOOKLET AND THE CANDIDATE'S

COpy OF

THE TWO ANSWER SHEETS,


by

permission.



1

Item No

"""

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

1

12

13

4

15

16

17

18

19

2

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

3

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

5

NATIONAl

BOARD COMPREHENSIVE PART I PILOT EXAMINATION

TEST KEY

Discipli ne

Item Key

Item

No.

Discipline

Biochemistry-Physiology

A

51

Dental Anatomy

&

Occlusion

Microbiology-Pathology

D

52

Anatomic Sciences

Dental Anatomy & Occlusion

C

53

Dental

Anatomy

& Occlusion

Anatomic Sciences

D 54 Microbiology-Pathology

Anatomic Sciences

A

55

Anatomic Sciences

Microbiology-PatholClgy

A

56

Dental

Anatomy &

Occlusion


C 57 Microbiology-Pathology


A

58 Dental Anatomy & Occlusion


E

59



C 60

Dental

Anatomy &

Occlusion

Anatomic Sciences

A

61 Blochemistry-Physiology


D

62



D 63

Anatomic Sciences

Bioc-hemistfy-Physiology

C

64 Anatomic Sciences

Anatomic Sciences

E 65

Dental Anatom], & Occlusion


D

66



A

67

Anatomic

Sciences

Denml Anatomy & Occlusion

D

68



8 69 Biochemistry-Physiology

Microbiology-Pathology_

E

70 Biochemistry-Physiology


C

71

Dental Anatomy

8

Occlusion

Anatomic Sciences

C

72 Microbiology-Patho Qgy

Anatomic Sciences

D

73



D 74

Anatomic Sciences

Microbioklgy-Pathology

E 75

Biochemistry-PhysiolQ9Y


8

76

Dental

Anatomy

& Occlusion

Anatomic Sciences

C

77 Microbiology-Pathology

Anatomic Sciences

D

78



8 79

Anatomic

Sciences

Dental

Anatomy

&

Occlusion

A

80

Dental

Anatomy

& Occlusion


A



C

82

B i o c h e m i s t r y P h ~ l o l o g y

Dental

Anatomy

8 Occlusion

C

83


Anatomic Sciences

E

B4

Anatomic Sciences

Microbiol()Qy-Pathology

D 85


Dental Anatomy

8

Ocdusion

A

86


Anatomic Sciences D 87


Anatomic Sciences 8 88



C

89

Anatomic Sciences

Dental

Arlatomy

8 Occlusion D

90


Microbiology-Pathology D

91

Biochemistry-Physiology ,

Biochemistry.Physiology

C

92

Dental

Anatomy

&

Ocdusion


D 93


Microbiology-Pathology C 94



C

95


B i o c h e m i ~ t r y P h Y S i o l o g y

E

96

Anatomic Sciences

Anatomic Sciences

E


Anatomic Sciences

C

98



C

99



D

100


Item

A

C

B

A

E

A

C

B

8

D

D

C

E

C

B

E

A

E

B

E

D

C

B

D

C

B

B

D

E

C

E

C

C

A

D

E

D

C

C

B

C

B

A

D

B

A

C

E

C

D

@

2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations, Ail rights reserved, Reprinted by permiss



I

I

Item No.

1

1 2

1 3

104

105

106

1 7

108

109

110

112

113

114

115

116

117

118

119

120

121

122

123

124

125

126

127

128

129

13

131

132

133

34

135

36

137

138

139

140

141

142

143

144

145

146

147

148

149

150

NATIONAL BOARD COMPREHENS VE PART PILOT EXAMINATION

TEST KEY

Discipline

Hem Key Item No.

Discipline

Anatomic Sciences

A

151


Dental

Anatomy

Occlusion

B

i2

Dental Anatom1& Occlusion

Anatomic Sciences

B

153

B i o c h e m ~ P ~ i o t ~

Dental

Anatomy

Occlusion E

154

Anatomic Sciences

MicrobiolOQV-PatholoQV

E

155

M i c r o b i o l o g y - P a t h o ~

Biochemistry-Physiology D

56

Dental Anatomy

&

Occlusion

Anatomic

Sciences A

157



E

158

Dental Anatomy Occlusion

Microbiology-PafuolOQV

0

159

Dental AnatOfT Y & Occlusion

Microbiology-Pathology B

16

B i o c h e m i s J r y ~ P ~ i o l 9 9 Y

Biochemistry-Physiology B

161

B i o c h e m i s t r y - P ~ o I o g y


D

162

B l o c h e m ~ - : - P ~ o < > m '

Anatomic

Sciences 0

163

Anatomic Sciences

Anatomic Sciences

C

164

M i c r o b i o ~ P a t h o l ~

Biochemistry-PhysiolOQV

A

165

Anatomic Sciences

Biochemistry-Physiology E

I 166 Dental Anatom1& Occlusion


A

167

Anatomic Sciences

Dental Anatomy Occlusion E

168

Biochemisby-Physiology

Anatomic

Sciences A 169

Anatomic Sciences

Dental

Anatomy

Occlusion

D

17

Anatomic Sciences


D

171



E

172

Dental AnatolT Y Occlusion

Anatomic Sciences

C

113



E

174

M i c r o b i o l ~ a t h o l o g y


A

175

B i o c h e m ~ P ~ i o ~


B 176


Anatomic Sciences

B

77



B 178

Anatomic Sciences

Dental Anatomv

&

Occlusion

0

179

Anatomic Sciences

Anatomic Sciences

E

180

Dental Anatomy

&

OcClusion


C 181

Dental Anatom1

&

Occlusion

Dental

Anatomy

& Occlusion

C 182

B i o c h e m i s J Y - P ~ i ~ o g y


C

183



E 184


Anatomic Sciences

B

185

Anatomic Sciences

Dental Anatomy

&

Occlusion

E

186

Microbiology-Pa1hology

Anatomic Sciences

8

187

B i o c h e m i ~ ~ P ~ o I Q I D 1 :


A 188

Anatomic Sciences


C

189

Anatomic Sciences


A


Anatomic Sciences

A

191


Dental

Anatomy

Occlusion

A

92

Anatomic Sciences


B

193

Anatomic Sciences


B

94

Dental Anatom1

&

Occlusion


E

95

Dental AnatolT Y

&

Occlusion

Biochemistry-Physiology 0

196

B i o c h e m ~ P h Y S i o l o g y

Dental Anatomy

&

Occlusion

D

97

Anatomic Sciences

Dental Anatomy

&

Occlusion A

98

Anatomic Sciences

Microoiology-Pathology

E


Anatomic Sciences

D


Item Key

D

C

C

E

E

C

B

A

C

B

D

C

C

C

B

D

D

A

B

C

A

B

C

C

E

E

A

C

0

D

B

C

E

0

B

A

D

B

C

E

D

C

E

E

A

E

A

C

0

B

2005 pilotnbde (part i)

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