1- agenesis is least in= a. third molars b. 2nd premolars

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May GOD make it easy for you (Amen)

1- Agenesis is least in= A. Third molars B. 2nd premolars C. Lateral incisor D. Canines

2- Common location of supernumerary teeth: A. Max posterior B. Man anterior C. Man

anterior D. Max anterior

3- Developmental anomaly of supernumerary teeth occurs in which stage of tooth

development : A. Initiation B. Apposition C. Bell stage

4- Apical extension of pulp chamber and blah blah is A. Concresence �B. Taurodonism C.

Fusion

5- One of the following is manifested with seizure = Encephalotrigamino haematosis

6- Bilateral parotid enlargement in = Warthin’s tumor

7- Pt complaints of inability to close the right eye after LA injection in rt side, the affected

nerve is: A. Ophthalmic B. Facial C. Optic D.

8- Epinephrine (Adrenalin) should NOT be used with tricyclic antidepressants

9- Sialolithiasis is common in = Wharton's duct

10- If an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical

sign will be = Trismus

11- DiagnoDent = Detects only Class-I caries

12- DYFOTI = Detects Class-I, II and II caries

13- Correct order to prepare RPD = Prepare guiding planes, Height of contours (Carbon

marker), Retentive contours (Block out undercuts), Prepare Rests

14- Theophylline relaxes smooth muscles by inhibition of = Phosphodiesterase

15- Columnar, pallisading, hyperchromatic basal cells = OKC

16- CT lesion that causes pseudoepithelial hyperplasia = Granuloma

17- What lesion is localized, not dysplastic, or inflammatory, or metaplastic or reactive =

Idiopathic oseteosclerosis

18- Patient with emphysema, what would you expect to see on Forced expirium 1 second =

LOW

19- 16 yr old girl with ectopic canines. What else do you see = Gingival recession

20- Lateral displaced or pedicle flap = To treat gingival recession

21- Wax is usually used for border molding because it can be redone = Thermoplasticity

22- Treatment of xerostomia in patients with Sjogren’s syndrome = Cevimeline HCl

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23- Patient has skeletal class 2, but dentoalveolar is class 3, he has dental compensation. What

movement would you do pre operation = Upper LABIAL and lower LINGUAL (ULa-LLi)

24- What drug is available to do the desired effects = Free in plasma

25- What is NOT an effect of opioids = Peripheral inhibition of nerves

26- Most danger to operator on an x-ray room comes from = Scatter from patient’s face

27- During closure of mandible, what is least important = Relaxation of lateral pterygoid

28- Which periodontal disease is NOT related to bacteria = Desquamative gingivitis

29- What will allow complete passage of transillumination = Craze lines

30- Percussion test = PDL inflammation / Symptomatic apical periodontitis

31- Tooth least commonly involved in fracture = Mandibular premolars

32- Conscious sedation. Which reflex = Verbal

33- Mode of action of Montelukast = Inhibition of Leukotrienes (used for asthma and seasonal

allergies)

34- Anesthesia of lower lip indicates = Malignancy or fracture of angle of mandible

35- High C-Factor = Class-1 (Occlusal)

36- AVULSED PRIMARY CENTRAL INCISOR = NO NEED TO REPLANT! ! !

37- Which is the most common location for oral cancer in USA = Tongue

38- Ecchymosis of floor of the mouth after trauma on mandible indicate which site fracture =

Fracture of body of mandible

39- The most important factor to reduce sensitivity of root after periodontal treatment is =

Plaque control 40- Heavy duty gloves used for = cleaning instruments 41- Anxious patient feels helpless at dental appointment. What do you tell her = Raise hand

whenever she feels anxious 42- Which cancer has good prognosis = Cancer of the lip

43- Keratosis is dysplastic if it occurs on = Floor of mouth

44- Common feature of cleidocranial dysplasia = delayed eruption and supernumerary teeth

45- Gingivoplasty can be done in = ANUG

46- An indirect temporary restoration can cause periodontal disease when = margins impinge

on soft tissues

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47- Horizontal root fracture in middle third and the crown is slightly mobile = Splint and recall

patient

48- Occlusal trauma causes = widening of PDL

49- East-West (Cryer) elevator = Used to remove roots of lower molars

50- Battle’s sign = Fracture/injury to cranial base 51- Infection of which space will clinically present as a swelling = Canine space 52- Facial bow in maxillary retainers is used for = Light tipping of anterior teeth lingually (but

some people say that it is solely for retention…debatable)

53- When can the dentist take x ray for 4 years old child caries free clinically = When spaces

are closed

54- Clubbing fingers nails in children indicates = Cyanotic heart problem.

55- Pt. has lesion on posterior palate need biopsy. What nerve should get infiltration LA =

Greater Palpatine

56- Methotrexate for Rheumatoid arthritis = Thrombocytopenia

57- What epithelium is found at the base of sulcus = Junctional epithelium

58- Most common pattern of osseous defect in chronic periodontitis = Horizontal (Facebook

friend went with Crater something if horizontal not in option!)

59- Turner’s incisors = Trauma during pregnancy

60- Why mucous cyst appears blue = Vascular congestion

61- Function of the key way in post preparation = Anti-rotational feature. To limit movement or

resist removal (Dentin)

62- High risk to get retinal damage from dental staff = light used in polymerization of photo-

activated materials

63- Which teeth can be removed without pain when you give IAN block and lingual nerve block

= Canine and 1st premolar on the injection side (Dentin)

64- Which infiltration is given with IAN block to extract 2nd PM and all molars = Long buccal

nerve

65- Which drug is most likely to dry secretions in the oral cavity = Propantheline

66- Most recurrent caries after MO composite restoration = Gingival

67- what element added to alloy to produce corrosion resistance = Chromium (Dentin)

68- Finishing margin for full GOLD restorations = Bevel (Feather Edge) margin

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69- Luting agent for gold restorations and orthodontic appliances = Zinc Phosphate cement

70- Why gold made alloyed = increase strength

71- Perio-chip contains = Chlorhexidine

72- Most dangerous for dentist – Hepatitis B

73- Cognitive coping = INNER. Cognitive coping involves teaching a patient to identify negative

thoughts and behaviors that increase their stress burden and the situations where stress

occurs.

74- All can happen in shock except = Hypertension

75- Fear of choking because of dental treatment = Catasphoring

76- Hypoglycemia causes all EXCEPT = Bradycardia

77- Root caries = Soft tissue in dentin

78- Ectodermal dysplasia = Oligodontia and hypodontia

79- Child in dental office u gave him LA with epinephrine only one cartridge he felt agitated after

giving la what do u suspect = too much epinephrine in LA

80- Indication for nitrous oxide sedation = Anxiety

81- There was swelling 3 x 3 on the floor of the mouth and the swelling is fluctuant.

What will be the treatment = Marsupialization

82- Collimation = Restricts the dimensions of the x-ray beam

83- Neuropraxia = Maintained continuity of axon and Epineurium

84- 2-year-old child mother complaining that my son doesn't eat anything due to pain he has sore

red gums. What is your diagnosis = Herpes

85- A posterior crossbite in the deciduous dentition will most likely = present in permanent

dentition

86- Class III furcation defect. What would you not do = GTR

87- Patient came with the history of swelling and around mand premolar she has fever 101 and

difficulty in sleeping tooth has grade 3 mobility what u will do = Incision and drainage and

recall

88- Treatment of cellulitis = Antibiotics

89- Patient with the history of bleeding n also bruising on extremities what it can be =

Medications (but some say Leukemia)

90- Bonding is difficult to accomplish where = Sclerotic dentin is not removed

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91- In what order the 3 canals of mand 1st molar will appear = If your x-ray coming from

mesial. So order slob ML MB D for lower. For Upper Palatal MB2 MB1 DB

92- What systemic condition associated with endocarditis and glomerular nephritis = SLE

93- Primary support for mandibular CD = Buccal shelf

94- What is not important in class 3 cavity preparation = Extension for prevention

95- x ray shows very small caries lesion cross the DEJ on mesial and distal surface of tooth #3

= Separate MO and DO composite

96- Function of filter = Aluminum discs are used to “filter” out these USELESS long wave rays

97- Combination clasp = Similar to the cast circumferential clasp with the exception that the

retentive arm is fabricated from a round wrought wire (platinum-gold-palladium alloy or

chrome- cobalt alloy).

98- Most likely cause pulp necrosis after trauma to the tooth = Pulp hyperemia

99- A 7-year-old patient fractured the right central incisor 3 hours ago. A clinical examination

reveals a 2-mm exposure of a "bleeding pulp." The treatment-of-choice is = Pulpectomy

and Apexification

100- Difference between gingival margin trimmer and hatchet = HATCHET: cutting edge in the

plane of the handle. Designed to most effectively plane enamel of the facial and lingual

walls of a Class II amalgam preparation. GMT: has a curved blade and angled cutting

edge. Primarily used for beveling gingival margins, and for rounding or beveling the axio-

pulpal line angle of Class II preparation

101- If the 4 maxillary incisors were to be replaced by partial removable denture prosthesis,

which of the following would be desirable = Contact on Canines on lateral excursions

102- Percentage of 3rd canal in maxillary first premolar = 6%

103- Into which space is local anesthesia solution deposited during an inferior alveolar nerve

block = Pterygomandibular space

104- The procedure of apical closure in permanent immature non vital tooth is = Apexification

105- Modeling for fearful child: A. Show him the procedure in non-fearful child (usually sibling)

106- Brushing technique during ortho treatment or after periodontal surgery = Charter’s

technique

107- Indication for dual cure cement = Large posterior cavities or crowns

108- Most commonly associated with dysplastic cells / dysplsia = Erythroplakia

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inferior_alveolar_nerve_block

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inferior_alveolar_nerve_block

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109- Dentist ignoring unacceptable behavior is = Extinction

110- Dentist duties to practice truthfully, which type of ADA ethics = Veracity

111- Hardest to anesthetize = Irreversible pulpitis and Mandibular teeth

112- Diagnosis for lingering pain to cold and sensitivity to percussion = Irreversible pulpitis &

acute periapical abscess

113- A tooth is not responsive to cold, not to percussion, and palpation is tender = Necrotic pulp

and chronic apical periodontitis 114- Informed consent is type of = Autonomy

115- Unethical to fee the patient solely bcoz he is benefiting from insurance blah blah blah A.

Veracity B. Justice and 2 more options

116- Which medicine to avoid with gensing = Aspirin

117- Chronic periodontitis is more common in A. Hispanic male B. Hispanic female C. Black

female D. Black male

118- Modified widman flap is = Full thickness flap coronal to mucogingival junction

119- Systemic antibiotic and scaling are combined as main treatment for: A. Chronic

periodontitis B. Aggressive periodontitis C ANUG D. Desquamative gingivitis

120- Which is true about alveolar bone = It is in a state of constant flux

121- Gingiva is attached to the tooth by = gingival fibers

122- Lamina densa of the basal lamina beneath the epithelium is composed of: Type IV collagen

123- DMF index for: A. Caries B. Plaque C. OHI - S D- PI

124- Percentage of fluoridated community water in US :�A. 60 %�B. 74 �C. 80

125- Children between 7-10 years are mostly benefitted from = Pits and fissures sealants

126- Band and loop space maintainer is all Except--Prevents vertical eruption of opposing tooth

CORRECT!

127- Medications for:

a. grand mal seizure = Phenytoin

b. petit mal seizure = Ethosuximide and Valproic acid

c. Status epilepticus = Diazepam

128- Tooth and tissue support appliance: A. Lingual arch B. Nance C. Transpalatal arch D. One

more option

Nance appliance

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NANCE APPLIANCE is used to prevent upper molars from rotating or moving forward after

extraction of primary teeth or during orthodontic treatment. Some patients wear the Nance

Appliance while they are awaiting their permanent bicuspids or premolars to erupt into

place.

129- Pt has skin nodules, Supernumerary teeth and one more description, investigator should

investigate for: intestinal polyps (Gardner’s syndrome)

130- Hallmark of peri-radicular abscess = sinus track drainage

131- Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended in one of the following conditions before

extractions = TETRALOGY OF FALLOT

132- False neurotransmitter = Methyldopa

133- Dicumerol (Vit.K antagonist) = Coronary infarcts

134- An opiate type MAA with both agonist and antagonist properties = Pentazocin

135- All of the following cause craniofacial deformity Except = Tetralogy of fallot

136- Erythromycin and tetracyclines are prescribed carefully in patients with peptic ulcers

because = interacts with antacids if any

137- Macrolides avoided in asthma = interacts the theophylline

138- Antidote of warfarin = Vit K

139- Antidote of heparin = Protamine sulphate

140- 76 yrs is on warfarin therapy and needs emergency extractions of a decayed tooth. Select

the appropriate protocol: Do not stop warfarin and perform surgery using local anesthetic

and administer Vit. K

141- Dental lamina is formed at = 6 weeks IU

142- Automated external defibrillator best described as? not used under 12 years of age

143- 5- x ray, there are unerupted teeth, retained deciduous, impacted permanent teeth and l

saw osteoma also, Wt the diagnosis :A. Ectodermal dysplasia B. Odontogenic keratocyst

C. Gardener's syndrome

144- Sloughing of necrotic epithelium = Aspirin burn

145- Treacher choline syndrome (mandibulofacial dysostosis) has a relation to zygoma in same

manner of cleidocranial dysplasia relation to : A. Ribs B. Clavicle C. Iliac

146- Pigmentation of the face, lips and oral cavity and intestinal polyps = Peutz Jeghers

syndrome

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147- Children = Rhabdomyosarcoma

148- Macroglossia doesn't occur in A. Amylodosis B. Down syndrome C. Hypothyroidism , D.

Hyperthyroidism

149- Brown tumor (Central giant cell granuloma) is associated with HYPERPARATHYROIDISM

150- Description of a lucent lesion starting from lower second molar extending to incisor area (no

xray).What’s the least possible diagnosis? Nasopalatine duct cyst

151- Pregnant first trimester, picture of pyogenic granuloma, what to do: Wait till 2nd trimester

152- Cross bites are treated with maxillary expansion. Tongue thrusting causes cross bite = First

true, second false.

153- Best time for treatment of pt under dialysis : A. The day after dialysis B. Day before C.

Hours before

154- Periodontitis in AIDS pt will be treated by all of following except A. Scaling B. Systemic

antibiotics C. Antifungal to prevent candidasis D. Multiple free gingival graft to correct the

gingival defect or contour

155- Dementia : A. Short term memory loss B. Long term memory loss Two more options

156- Wt is true about elderly pt :A. Become less intelligent and difficult to change their behavior

or something like this B. Senility comes by age 2 more weird options

157- Evaluation of 2 groups A and B with 2 drugs for same period, what type of study A. Cross

sectional 3- clinical trials 3- cohort

158- Most common mid-face fracture = Zygomaticomaxillary

159- One month ago, a dentist studied the prevalence of dental caries among school students,

Wt study :A. Cross sectional B. Cohort C. Others

• A cross-sectional study involves looking at people who differ on one key characteristic at

one specific point in time. The data is collected at the same time from people who are

similar in other characteristics but different in a key factor of interest such as age, income

levels, or geographic location. Participants are usually separated into groups known as

cohorts. For example, researchers might create cohorts of participants who are in their 20s,

30s, and 40s.

• Cohort studies observe large groups of individuals, recording their exposure to certain risk

factors to find clues as to the possible causes of disease. They can be prospective studies

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and gather data going forward, or retrospective cohort studies, which look at data already

collected.

160- dentist studies 4 unrelated pts with myofacial pain and myalgia. Wt type of study :A. Case

series

161- mechanism of fetal alcohol syndrome A. Failure of cells distribution B. Neural crest

apoptosis

162- purpose of percussion :A. To assess inflammation of PDL

163- Flap heals by - primary

Gingivectomy- secondary

Graft- tertiary

164- Most potent and most toxic LA = Dibucaine

165- Long acting LA with less toxicity = Bupivacaine

166- Lozenges for candidiasis = Clotrimazole

167- Pain medication for liver toxicity and renal toxicity = OXYCODONE

168- painful response that subsides quickly after removal of stimulus is. Reversible pulpitis

169- polycrystalline ceramic :A. Zirconia B. Feldsparic porcelain C. Aluminosilicate ( not sure) D.

One more l think leutice something

170- Which type of suture is indicated in an immediate denture case to promote the best wound

healing for the alveolar ridge? = Interrupted

171- What is more frequent? DI, AI, Cleft lip

172- Adrenalin crisis = hypotension and cv collapse

173- Thyroid crisis = hypertension and Inc heart rate

174- Patient with Hepatitis B. All organs will be affected except? = Thyroid (not sure)

175- greatest fracture force A. Zircon B. Lettice something 3- aluminium or lithium blah blah bla

176- least fracture force: Leutice and also feldspathic porcelain

177- 15 years old pt with 107 f, lymphadynopathy, sore gums, diagnosis A. Primary herpetic

gingivostomatitis

178- Parkinson's disease, EXCEPT --- Associated with intentional tremor, D. associated with

dementia (Note: TT of Parkinsons: carbidopa+Levodopa)

179- All will be included in the ortho informed consent except A. Ortho treatment can bend roots

of the teeth B. Caries and gums dieses can happen during ortho treatment C. Injury to the

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nerve due to any previous accident can be increased during ortho D. During ortho Pt will

have to wear mouthguard during sports

180- All of the following reasons to restore erosion lesion except one, which one? a. prevents

future erosion b. reduced sensitivity c. esthetic

181- Which of the following dental conditions is often found in Down's syndrome patients? A.

Mulberry molars B. Supernumeraries C. Short, conical roots D. Hutchinson's incisors

182- Which tissue show most growth in first 6 years and then plateau? A. lymph B. neural

183- In PFM, to prevent porcelain fractures, the junction should be: 1. Right angle 2. Not round

3. Round NOTE:Junction: Right angled, Internal line angles: Rounded

184- HPV vaccine : before 18, after 18, after 26, before first sex

185- Cavity prep amalgam class 5 retention form ? A. prox grooves mesial / distal B. prox

grooves oclusal C. parallel walls mesio-distal D. parallel walls occluso-gingival

186- Maxillary premolar extraction forcep = 150

187- Mandibular premolar extraction forcep = 151

188- To prevent demineralization of enamel from orthodontic treatment, which method is

expensive? = Fluoride varnish every 6 months

189- The most predictable for treatment of perio disease? 1. Scaling & root planning 2. The

modified Widman flap 3. Free gingival flap 4. Apically positioned flap (1 or 4…Not sure.

SRP is gold standard. I prefer 1.)

190- What is not an advantage of LED cure in comparison to halogen: A. lifetime bulb, B. energy

efficient, C. weight, D. curing depth

191- what determines implant height in an overdenture? 1. implant length 2. impl diameter 3.

gingiva height 4. number of implants

192- Pregnant 36 weeks we don’t give ibuprofen why ? A. premature ducts arterious closure B.

cleft lip and palate C. spina bifida D. tachycardia

193- A dentist has the legal obligation to report all situations except: A. working under substance

abuse B. Advertising on electronic media C. abusing patients

194- MOA Doxycycline = If 30s ribosomal is not an option, then select “inhibit collagenase”

195- What are the important differences that we should know about Pemphigus and

pemphigoid? Pemphigus: suprabasilar vesicle and acanthylosis

Pemphigoid: subepidermal and NO acanthylosis

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196- Had that Glass ionomer cement question it does fluoride and what else --- pick this “ionic

bond to dentin and enamel”

197- which property porcelain has? = High compressive strength and poor tensile strength

198- Amalgam sealing quality question. You did amalgam but if at times leakage how to define

in reality = Improves over time

199- How to reduce penumbra = decrease object/film distance

200- When there is no barrier, protection of dentist = 6 feet; 90-135 degrees

201- Increase the voltage of radiation = Short wavelength and high energy

202- Source/object distance for lateral ceph = 5 feet

203- Mandibular fracture = Panoramic

204- what happens when a patient moves during panoramic = Irregular border and vertical line

205- View sinus = Waters

206- Condylar fracture = Reverse towne

207- View Zygomatic arch/zygomatic fracture = SMV

208- Best revealing issue for prediction about ossification = Hand wrist radiograph

209- Workers of nuclear plant, how much radiation permitted yearly = 5 rem / 5000 mrem yearly

210- On average, a nuclear worker receives approximately 150 mrem of occupational exposure

a year

211- To confirm horizontal fracture = Multiple vertical angulated radiographs

212- Hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles of feet = Papillon Lefvre syndrome

213- Something about fixing x ray image = Remove unexposed silver halide crystals (not sure)

214- Amalgam waste is regulated by = ADA or OSHA???

215- Amalgam restoration should be changed when it displays = Recurrent caries

216- Huge MOD amalgam, U notice that its got a line in a middle. But when u explore there is

not an actual crack. What is the next step? = Observe

217- The characteristic of an impression material to change its viscosity when applied tension ?

Thixotropic

218- Patient has discolored composite in #8. She doesn't like it. What will you do? 1. Replace

the whole filling 2. Remove 1mm and add new composite 3. Veneer 4. PFM

219- Which of the following is False concerning the indirect technique in

custom cast post and core fabrication: a. The technique involves reduced clinical time but

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increased laboratory Costs. b. It is more suitable for multi rooted teeth, and producing multi

directional post systems. c. Posts produced by this technique are considered to be with the

most accurate fit. d. It includes the use of a putty and wash impression technique. e. The

lentulo spiral is used in one of its steps. MAY BE “B” but not sure

220- If pt has infected maxillary sinusitis you can know it from all methods except: A. when pt.

bends forward it bothers him B. it irradiates to the ear C. pain irradiates somewhere else

D. palpation and percussion of upper molars and premolars Not sure

221- New ceramic crown 7 days back two red spots adjacent caused by Chemical burn

222- Scarring from electrical burn = lingual inclination of teeth or decreased VDO (both correct

hopefully!!!)

223- Diazepam-mediated effects include A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation B- Lowering

seizure Threshold C- Anterograde amnesia D- Analgesia

224- Least effective in treatment of Class-2 furcation defects: Floss

225- Levodopa therapy for Parkinson disease may result in each of the following effects

EXCEPT: a. Development of abnormal involuntary movements, especially in the face b.

Extreme sensitivity to sympathomimetic drugs c. Exacerbation of an acute psychosis d.

Nausea and vomiting e. Extreme sedation

226- Pregnant woman 5 months , cavity which LA? Lidocaine

227- Pregnant woman faints = Turn to LEFT SIDE and raise hip 150

228- Which NSAID does not block cox pathway = Acetaminophen

229- Ganglion blocking agent = Mecamylamine (Used for Hypertension)

230- Most appropriate time for surgical treatment of a patient with mandibular prognathism is =

Following completion of growth

231- Oral Hairy leukoplakia = Epstein Barr Virus

232- Condyloma acuminata is caused by = Human Papilloma Virus

233- Cleft lip happens in which week?= 6-9 weeks

234- Cleft lip more common in MALES and Cleft palate more common in FEMALES

235- All associated with periodontal disease EXCEPT= Stevens-Johnson syndrome

236- Acrodynia = primarily affects young children. The symptoms of irritability, photophobia, pink

discoloration of the hands and feet, and polyneuritis can be attributed to chronic exposure

to mercury.

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237- Arcon vs non arcon articulator = Arcon- where the condyles are attached to the lower

member of the articulator and the fossae are attached to the upper member. More accurate

for fabricating fixed restorations, especially when an interocclusal record is used to mount

mandibular cast. Nonarcon has upper and lower members rigidly attached. Provide easier

control in setting teeth for complete and partial dentures. Both are semi-adjustable and use

a facebow.

238- When u put crown on for cementation. What u check: A. Proximal contacts, occlusion there

is one more which I never heard about was in every option . Its something like iglu long

word. Don’t remember You check first Internal then proximal and then marginal

239- Study to know the effect of gastric bypass surgery on nutritional status: - Observational

Clinical trial Descriptitve Cohort

240- Home internal bleach causes mostly = External root resorption

241- Most common tooth to get plaque: A mandibular incisors B maxillary molars C

mandibular molars

242- Prevalence is measured by which study design: Cross-sectional

243- Incidence can be directly calculated from: a cohort study

244- One of the disadvantages of cohort studies is that: they are more prone to selection bias.

245- When fail and safe mechanism start in nitrous at what percentage . Doesn’t mention if for

kids or adults: 70%

246- How much oxygen give when u patient feel nausea in nitrous oxide. A stop nitrous

B give 60% oxygen C give 100 % oxygen

247- Healing after gingivectomy = Secondary intention

248- Mitral valve relapse patient. Do u do premedicate? NO

249- You can check all drugs in complete blood count except A. Clopidogrel B. Plavix C.

Apexaben D. Warfarin

250- When u put crown on for cementation. What u check: A. Proximal contacts, B. occlusion

there is one more which I never heard about was in every option . Its something like iglu

long word. You check Internal, then proximal and then gingival

251- Patient on initial stage in leaving smoking all can be done except: A Chantix B hypnosis

C Nicotinic patches D Bupropion

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252- Emancipated minor: Under 18 person who has been married, has been pregnant, or

responsible for his or her own welfare and is living independently of parental control and

support can give consent

253- Patient came to you and he only speaks limited English . You do all except: A Tell him pros

and cons. B Get consent in his own language C You talk to spouse about his plan

254- A person comes to you after SRP. He doesn’t have any calculus but his pocket depth is

around 5 or 6 mm generalised pocket . What u do? A Put him on maintenance phase B.

Do another SRP C. Do surgery

255- A mandibular 1st molar has a Grade-3 through to through furcation involvement. What do u

do? A. Hemisection it and make it like premolar B. Bridge from premolar to molar C.

Extract and implant

256- CUSTOM INDIRECT TECHNIQUE (outside the mouth in the LAB) FOR MAKING

TEMPORARY CROWNS IS PREFFERED BECAUSE IT IS MORE ACCURATE, BETTER

FIT, & PROTECTS THE PULP

257- For external crevicular incision where it will end: A apical to alveolar crest B Sulcular

epithelium C. Bone

258- Ectodermal dysplasia seen most in A maxilla B mandible C Alveolar bone

259- X rays 1 stafne but they mention lingualized salivary gland. 2. Ear lobe. 3. Hyoid bone

4. Nasal process of maxilla

260- File Diameter Calculation

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261- Who controls dental office materials. Ans ADA and if not in

options, then FDA

262- Sample-size is irrelevant in: Case-report or Case-Series

263- Epithelium growth per day= 0.5-1mm

264- Low fusing porcelain used for? Crown and bridge

265- Porcelain occlusal adjustment, which bur? Diamond

266- Margin discoloration of veneer:

day-amine

Week-microleakage

Month-microcrack

267- Treatment without consent=Battery

268- Tort law = If you treat without consent then technical

assault oand battery

269- Green discoloration of porcelain=Silver

270- House classification. Which is best? Class-1 (Physiologic)

271- All are side effects of opioids EXCEPT: Diuresis (too much peeing)

272- Which of the following is NOT a clinical presentation of oral Candidiasis? A- Erythematous

patch B- White, hyperplastic patch C- White, curd-like patch D- Ulcerative

273- Gustatory sweating while eating and crocodile tears = Frey’s syndrome

274- Which is the best approach for a patient who becomes very uncomfortable when a planned

surgical procedure is discussed = Explain post-operative instructions, obtain informed

consent, and help the patient to resolve anxiety before the procedure.

275- Lingual incline of buccal mandibular cusp which interference = Non-working

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276- What tooth has developmental groove, which influences to development of primary

periodontitis? = Max. 1st PM

277- Template for implant control except = Size of implant

278- Porcelain is strongest in which stage = Cooling

279- A child comes to your office with a neighbor, he states that he was playing in the yard and

injured himself, they gave the class of injury, I think it was Ellis III but it wasn’t relevant for

the Qs. The adult states they couldn’t contact his mother, the kid says he has a dentist but

doesn’t remember his name. What do you do: contact parents

280- Differentiate between periodontal and peri-radicular abscess = vitality test

281- What NOT to do in COPD patient? = 100% oxygen

282- Intrinsic activity, efficacy, affinity, potency = TI = LD50/ED50

283- LD50/ED50= therapeutic index or drug safety

284- A drug with a high LD50 and low ED50 has a HIGH therapeutic index, thus is relatively

SAFE.

285- How to see soft tissue injury radiographically = Dec 25%

286- 3 mm crowding. What to do: A. observe. B. Disking

287- Moderate crowding = Leeway

288- When you receive a PFM crown from the laboratory, what is the FIRST thing you check =

Internal surface

17


289- Penicillin is cross allergenic with CEPHALOSPORINS because of the beta lactamse

290- Broadest antimicrobial spectrum = Tetracyclines

18


291- Which can be safely administered to a patient with chronic renal failure without any change

in dosages = Doxycycline

292- Which does not cause scarring of oral mucosa = Erythema multiforme

293- Prilocaine is not used in = G6PD deficiency

294- Drug with good first pass effect? Low bioavailability

295- If a 5-year old child receives tetracycline therapy, the affected teeth will be = Canines,

premolars and 2nd molars

296- Morphine (schedule 2 opioid) relieves pain by = acting on opioid mu receptors on neuronal

cell membranes

297- Bupivacaine has all the following properties relative to lidocaine EXCEPT bupivacaine: A. is

more toxic B is an ester type local anesthetic C has slower onset of action D has

longer duration action

298- Mona-Lisa face = Sclerderma

299- Addison’s disease = diffused pigmentation

300- Treatment of myasthenia gravis: Physiostigmine and Piridostigmine

301- Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis = Edrophonium (Cholinesterase inhibitor)

302- Tricyclic antidepressants = Imipramine and amitriptyline

303- Both diazepam n narcotics antagonist

Diazepam - flumazenil

Narcotics or opioids- naloxone

304- Treatment of status epilepticus = Benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam or

midazolam (prefer midazolam)

305- Benzodiazepines mode of action = gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) at the

GABAA receptor

306- Anticholinergics mode of action = inhibit binding of acetylcholine to muscarinic and nicotinic

receptors. These receptors are found in eye, secretory glands and nerve endings to smooth

muscle cells.

307- Which medication for anticancer works on folate synthesis/ prevents folic acid production:

Methotrexate

308- Montelukast = Inhibits Leukotriene

309- Montelukast = For treatment of Asthma and seasonal allergies

19


310- Amantadine = Antiviral

311- Amphetamine = Psychostimulant, increases the release of dopamine and NE in brain. Used

for the treatment of ADHD.

312- ADHD: More common in boys. If a kid is taking amphetamine, tell him not to take the

medicine before dental appointment.

313- Penicillin = Low toxicity

314- Administration of succinylcholine to patient deficient in serum cholinesterase would cause =

prolonged apnea

315- Patient has a deficiency in acetylcholinesterase = d-tubocurarine

316- Best initial treatment of TMJ muscle spasm = NSAIDS+muscle relaxants

317- Never give penicillin with tetracycline. They ANTAGONIZE eachother

318- Which of the following glucocorticoids is the strongest? Dexamethasone

319- Acetaminophen MOA = antipyretic effect by acting on centers in hypothalamus

320- Adalimumab and infliximab = bind to TNF-alpha receptors and used to treat rheumatoid

arthritis

321- Benzodiazepine antagonist = Flumazenil

322- Articaine is the only amide metabolized in the BLOOD STREAM and NOT in liver!

323- Percocet (Oxycodone+acetaminophen) is Class-II

324- Antihistamine contraindicated with erythromycin = Terfenadine

325- Which medication does not cause hyposalivation = Pilocarpine

326- Antagonism to motion sickness = diphenylhydramine (indirect sympathomimetic drug)

327- Motion sickness = Scopolamine

328- Diphenylhydramine has the MOST sedative effect

329- Chlorpheniramine has the LEAST sedative effect

330- The drug which causes withdrawal symptoms in pts taking oxycodiene = codeine

331- The drug contraindicated in pt taking gingko biloba = Heparin

332- The drug of choice in patient with bradycardia = Atropine, Epinephrine.

333- Which of the following does not have anti-inflammatory action = Acetaminophen

334- Prilocaine above 500mg causes = Apnoea, cardiogenic shock, methemoglobinemia.

335- Histamines are produced by = Mast cells

336- Propranolol = Non-selective beta blocker

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337- Common between Gardner’s syndrome and Neurofibromatosis = Autosomal dominant

338- Dentist wants to evaluate the effect on by pass surgery and nutrition = Clinical trial or

Cohort???

339- Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur (3 correct answers):

A when the drug is administered orally.

B in patient who have already experience an allergic reaction to the drug.

C in patient with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy.

D when the drug is administered parentally

E within minutes after drug administration.

340- 10 y.o girl, with good OH, no caries but a child of divorced parents. How would you rate her

caries risk? Middle

341- On a lateral cephalogramm of the 10 y.o girl what is the radiolopacity that crosses her

posterior teeth? = Palatine process of maxilla

342- Compression rate in CPR = 120/minute

343- Gingival index = Ordinal like 1,2,3

344- Manipulative kid = Positive reinforcement

345- Red Complex bacteria = P. gingivalis, T. denticola, & Tannerella forsythia (formerly

Bacteroides forsythus)

346- Which test does not check for bacteria and their metabolites = IL-1

347- Cool glass slab? = to incorporate more powder into the liquid and increase working time

348- Pink growth on palatal between canine and 1st pre? Pyogenic granuloma

349- Pregnant gingivitis = progesterone, plaque, estrogen

350- Which of the following causes speech problems in a patient with cleft palate? Inability of the

soft palate to close the nasopharyngeal air flow

351- The most stable elastic material in a moisture environment? PVS or polyether

352- Trismus most common in which space? Submassteric, Submandibular, Sublingual

353- Bone resorption after 1 year in implant? 0.2 or 0.02 (DD says 0.02)

354- Least bucco-lingual resistance to lateral forces = One 4 mm diameter implant

355- Critical pH for dentin demineralization = 6.2

356- Critical pH for enamel demineralization = 5.5

357- Rubber dam = dry teeth

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358- Incision for palatal tori = Y-Shaped (Some people say double Y)

359- Medication for Asthma control = albuterol (short acting) and theophylline (long-term)

360- Muscle in maxillary frenum = orbicularis oris, elevator angular oris

361- Muscle in mandibular frenum = traingularis\depressor anguli oris, buccinator

362- To prevent eye damage, the protective eyewear that u wear should effectively filter which

light rays below: 500 or 509 (both correct)

363- After how long of wearing does a face mask become useless = 1 hour

364- Which muscle is pierced during IAN block = buccinator

365- When draining purulent exudate from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space using

an intraoral approach = buccinator muscle

366- Kennedy’s class-III, Tooth supported RPD rest towards the ridge

367- Main function of indirect retainer? Prevent dislodgement of RPD vertically

368- A dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patients with different background. Dentist is

doing what kind of research? Case-Series

369- Under which principles of informed consent of treatment, a dentist is NOT required to

inform a patient about which of the following?

a) Alternative treatments available by a specialist

b) The risk associated with non-treatment

c) Potential risks of treatment

D) insurance co-payment for treatment

370- Combination clasp = The combination clasp is similar to the cast circumferential clasp with

the exception that the retentive arm is fabricated from a round wrought wire (platinum-gold-

palladium alloy or chrome-cobalt alloy)

22


371- Nutrient canals seen radiographically most common where? Mandibular incisors

Nutrient Canal

372- Advantage of distraction osteogenesis = Less relapse

373- After IAN block, patient has facial paralysis. Which ligament = Sphenomandibular ligament

374- Cheek biting occurs due to = insufficient HORIZONTAL overlap in molars

375- Cheek biting corrected by = increasing the HORIZONTAL overlap in molars

376- Kennedy’s Class-III gets support from = Occlusal rest (tooth supported)

377- Kennedy’s class-4 is also tooth supported

23


378- The most stable elastic impression in moisture environment? a. polyether b. additional

silicone c. condensation silicone d. polysulfide

379- Patient is given oral habit reducing appliance to prevent an oral habit, what is

this considered? – Negative reinforcement POSITIVE PUNISHMENT

380- Axial walls on an MOD cavity for a cast gold onlay should = Converge from the

gingival walls to pulpal walls

381- Best allograft = FDBA Cadaver

382- Breathing rate in a kid = 22 to 30

383- With age, CHROMA increases

384- While doing external bevel incision the curette is touching which structure

apically: JE

385- Reversal occlusal plane can be seen in a given pano. why? Chin tilted too much

upwards

386- What is an allograft – transplant from one human to another

387- Crowing sounds are seen with. Acute asthmatic attack, COPD.

388- Blood transfusion before surgery should be done when the platelet concentration falls

below. 20,000, 50,000 , 100,000 etc

389- Normal bleeding time = 1-9 min

390- Normal prothrombin time = 11-16 seconds

391- Normal platelet count = 150,000 to 450,000

392- Normal Partial Thromboplastin Time = 32-46 seconds

393- The most effective method of caries reduction = Systemic water fluoridation

394- 5 A’s of cancer prevention: Ask, assess, advise, assist, arrange

395- Ectodermal dysplasia = sparse hair

396- Max. nitrous oxide in kids = 30%

397- Long-term nitrous = Symptoms similar to multiple sclerosis

398- For thiazide diuretics = Give K-supplements

399- In multiple sclerosis = LA with epinephrine is CONTRAINDICATED

400- A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of

lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and

24


steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure is 80/60. What is the

most probable diagnosis? Incipient syncope

401- Most common respiratory emergency = Hyperventilation

402- Most common CNS emergency = Syncope

403- Patient has a petit mal seizure in your office, what do you do? Protect patient

from hurting themselves.

404- Strep mutans: lives in a non-shedding surface

405- Short story about a patient with candida, what medicine can we give that can be given

orally (systemically) and locally with efficiency: Miconazole (in can be used as cream and

tablets)

406- Maximum allowable dose of EPI that can be administered to a cardiac-risk patient is

0.04mg.

407- Lidocaine may show cross-allergy with = Mepivacaine (Dentin)

408- Which drugs when administered intravenously, is LEAST likely to produce respiratory

depression? Diazepam

409- Side effect of nitroglycerin = Orthostatic hypotension and headache

410- First sign of lidocaine toxicity = CNS stimulation/Nervousness

411- Trismus is most commonly caused by = Tetanus

412- High-flow 100% 02 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope EXCEPT

= Hyperventilation syndrome

413- What antiviral drug is used for influenza A and Parkinson’s = Amantadine

414- Ganglionic blocking agents cause = orthostatic hypotension

415- Atropine poisoning = burning dry mouth and orthostatic hypotension (as it is anticholinergic)

416- Cause of death by irreversible cholinesterase = Respiratory paralysis

417- Cholinergic crisis = lacrimation, bradycardia, extreme salivation, weakness voluntary

muscle

418- Levodopa crosses brain barrier to treat Parkinson’s disease

419- Hallmark of anticholinergic drug = Mydriasis (pupil dilation)

420- Cocaine overdose = mydriasis (dilated pupil)

421- Opioid overdose = miosis (constricted pupil)

422- MOA of levodopa = replenish deficiency of dopamine in patients with parkinson’s

25


423- Alpha1 stimulate – vasoconstriction, mydriasis

424- Alpha1 block – vasodilation

425- Stimulate beta – increase HR, bronchodilation, vasodilation

426- Block beta – decrease HR, brocho constriction

427- Epi - to reverse give – prazosin or chlorpromazine

428- MOA of reserpine – stabilize the axon terminal membrane preventing release norepiephine,

Used for treatment of hypertension

429- Amphetamine – indirect acting drug

430- MOA of Naloxone: non-selective and competitive opioid receptor antagonist in case

of opioid overdose

431- MOA of Clonidine: centrally acting sympatholytic (α2 adrenoceptor agonists)

432- MOA of Zoloft: Sertraline - Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

433- Serotonin syndrome = Tramadol (narcotic pain killer like morphine) + SSRI

434- Immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face

becomes quickly and visibly swollen. the immediate treatment should be to = Use pressure

followed by cold packs over swelling

435- For codeine allergy = use meperidine, tramadol or pentazocine

436- Each of the following is an advantage of midazolam over diazepam EXCEPT one. Which

one is this EXCEPTION? Less potential for respiratory depression

437- Nitrous oxide sedation should be postponed in pt. with: Sinusitis, GI obstructions, Middle

ear disturbances and Nausea (all of them)

438- Occlusal reduction for fixed crowns: flat and round for porcelain….similar to natural

contours for metal

439- Color is usually described according to the Munsell color space in terms of hue, value, and

chroma. Hue is the attribute of a color that enables the clinician to distinguish between

different families of color, whereas value indicates the lightness of a color. Chroma is the

degree of color saturation. When color is determined using the Munsell system, value is

determined first followed by chroma. Hue is determined last by matching with shade tabs of

the value and chroma already determined.

440- Wavelength of color = Hue

441- Who regulate temperature of the autoclave? FDA (DD)

26


442- The most frequent respiratory complications following oral and maxillofacial surgery are:

1-pulmonary atelectasis (in smokers).

2-aspiration pneumonia (manifest in pt right lung).

3-pulmonary embolus (originate in deep venous system of lower extremities especially in

non-ambulatory patient).

443- 50% NO/50% O2 and pt feels nausea. what should dentist do? Stop NO and start 100% O2

444- Least incidence of oral cancer = Native Americans

445- Best prognosis of cancer = SCC (that’s what the group people said)

446- Most common location of SCC = Posterior lateral borders of tongue

447- A 40 years old patient bilateral posterior crossbite. How to correct the problem? Maxillary

ostectomy

448- Prevalence of cleft lip and palate in US is 1 to : A. 600 B. 700 C.1000 D. 1200

449- Stridor: laryngospasm

450- Which one does not affect the tactile sensitivity of dentist? = Material composition

451- Male extracted his lower left third molar, on the second day he feels feverish, with

sublingual swelling that elevate his tongue, affects the swallowing and breathing, diagnosis:

Ludwig angina

452- Cellulitis A. Neutrophilia B. Neutropenia C. Lymphocytosis D. leukocytosis (Both C

and D)

453- Immunoglobulin IgG: A. Decreases phagocytosis B. Antigens receptor

C. Produces macrophages and neutrophils

454- Flabby tissues in anterior maxilla for a complete denture impression = Passive

455- Recurrence is least in: A. Ameloblastoma B. OKC C. Odontogenic myxoma D.

Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst

456- MOST COMMON complication associated with the use of LA = Vasaovagal syncope

457- LA with epinephrine is contra-indicated with = TCA, propranolol, amphetamine, MAO

inhibitors such as Isocarboxazid and Phenelzine (All of them)

458- Failure of tubercular impar to retract prior to fusion of lateral halves of tongue result in

A median rhomboid glossitis B cleft bifid tongue C geographic tongue

459- X-ray with radiolucent /radiopaque lesion in the left posterior molar ramus area, diagnosis:

A. Ameloblastic fibrodontoma B. Ameloblastic fibroma

27


460- x ray of Dentigerous cyst (impacted tooth with radiolucency around the CEJ)

461- Which of the following lesion is strictly diagnosed from microscopic features

A. Ameloblastoma B. OKC C. Fibroma

462- Pic of prescription: name of pt...., date....., Rx : Motrin 800 mg/ 2 TABLETS, every 8

HOURS, for dental pain, name of Dr......, Bill...... Q: what is the wrong of this prescription :

A. Frequency of dose B. Number of tables per dose

463- Diazepam uses in all Except : A. Emesis B. Anxiety C. Muscle spasm D. Seizures

464- Epinephrine is NOT used in = Hyperthyroidism as it causes hypertension

465- What is NOT important for biohazard container = made up of metal

466- Cells most frequently found in granuloma = lymphocytes

467- Most common benign tumor occurring in the oral cavity = Fibroma

468- Uncontrolled diabetes = inhibits osteoblastic activity

469- Pear-shaped radiolucency causing displacement of the roots of vital maxillary

lateral incisor and canine = Globulomaxillary cyst

470- Horizontal and vertical angulation causes what type of distortion of image?

- Horizontal-overlap

- Vertical -elongation or shortening

471- In Emphysema, the anteroposterior of the lung is = Lengthened.

472- Capitation is with = Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

473- Lesions that occur in the alveolar ridge of infants = Bohn’s nodules

474- Multiple neurofibromas with café-au-liet spots on skin = Vonrecklinghausen disease of skin

475- Chemical disintegration of enamel = Erosion

476- Mottled enamel is produced by = Fluorine

477- Structure of enamel more resistant to acids = enamel cuticle

478- Most common route through which infection reaches pulp is = Dental caries

479- Cells responsible for root resorption = osteoclasts

480- Patient had a root canal 2 years ago and now you see an apical radiolucency. What to do

pt asymptomatic = Retreatment if the tooth becomes symptomatic

481- Dry socket is a form of = periostitis

482- Pathophysiology of dry socket = Fibrinolysis

483- Which one is not for provider protection = Rubber dam

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484- Placement of rubber dam affects color selection by? Dehydration of tooth

485- Dentist is not behaving with staff. Which ethical is violated? = Beneficence

486- Intraoral dental sinus = parulis (made up of granulation tissue, also called “gum-boil”)

487- Inflammation of lips is called = Cheilitis

488- Delayed side effect of corticosteriod treatment of TMJ = Blurred vision

489- Most common oral cancer = SCC (mostly lower lip)

490- Which index is irreversible = DMFT

491- In cardiac pacemaker patient, what can be used safely = Radiographic equipment

492- Most common cause of mucocele = trauma

493- Best radiograph for mandibles symphysis fracture = Occlusal

494- Xylitol is best used as = chewing gum

495- Crystals are deposited in TMJ in gouty arthritis =Monosodium urate

496- Dens-in-Dente most commonly occurs in = Maxillary lateral incisors

497- Paralysis of tongue is called = Glossoplegia

498- What passes through foramen ovale = Trigeminal nerve

499- Pt had fracture and numbness on side on nose cheeks...fracture site? Floor of the orbit

500- Most common site of basal cell carcinoma = middle third of face

501- Cells of dental pulp most capable of transforming into other cells = undifferenced

mesenchymal cells

502- Patient had trauma 2 year back now u see radio in anteriomand. What to do = Check

vitality and start RCT for non-vital teeth

503- Most common site of osteofibrosis (cementoma) = Mandibular anteriors

504- Wharthin’s tumor (Cystadenomalymphomatosum) = only occurs in PAROTID

505- Cells found in chronic pulp inflammation = Lymphocytes, Macrophages and Plasma cells

506- Cells most often found in granuloma = Lymphocytes

507- Diagnosis of OKC = histology

508- Prominent forehead, dwarf, disproportionate arms and legs and retruded maxilla =

Achondroplasia

509- Blood of a patient with acute infection shows = leukocytosis

510- Herpes causes = Chicken pox

511- Third order bend = Torque

29


512- You must give a long buccal injection to extract all molars and 2nd premolars.

513- which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes=non-

ionized and high lipid solubility

514- Pseudocyst = Traumatic bone cyst. Common in 20s yrs. Scallops around teeth

515- Pierre Robin Syndrome = an inherited disorder that presents as micrognathia and

retrognathia of the mandible, glossoptosis (posterior displacement of tongue),

and cleft palate. Often seen with respiratory problems.

516- Papillon Lefvre Syndrome = periodontitis, Hyperkeratosis hand/feet, premature tooth loss (4

years old)

517- Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia seen on = Granular cell tumor. More common on

tongue and in females

518- Crouzon syndrome=beaten metal appearance of skull+Hypertelorism + midface deficiency.

Cranial bones fuse too soon

519- Steven Johnson syndrome = Disease of skin and mucous membrane, begins like flu-like

symptoms, top skin layer dies and sheds off, burning eyes

520- 'Coast of Maine' like border is seen in pigmented lesions of: McCune Albright syndrome

521- Atrophy of gastric and pharyngeal mucosa, spoon nails (koilonycias) and predisposal to

oral carcinoma in postmenopausal females = Plummer Vinson syndrome

522- Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, which occurs exclusively in the parotid gland is

called = Wathin’s tumor

523- In Angina, DO NOT put patient in Trendelburg position

524- You raise a full mucoperiosteal flap to instrument in the pocket, after reposition of the flap

where resorption occurs more = interdental crest

525- In early caries, the first structure to show destruction is = interprismatic substance

526- Bence Jones proteins, punched out lesions, plasma cell infiltrate and skeletal

radiolucencies = multiple myeloma

527- Bisphosphonates are NOT used for = Osteomyelitis and multiple myeloma

528- First sign of multiple myeloma = bone pain

529- Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia and loss of lamina dura = Hyperparathyroidism

530- All developmental cysts are radiolucent except = Nasoalveolar

531- Koplik’s spots = Rubella

30


532- Bullae or vesicles of mucous membrane and skin are seen in all except: Agranulocytosis

533- Peak incidence of gingivitis in children occurs at = 10-13 years

534- Irradiation to head region does not cause = Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

535- Ramsay Hunt syndrome= caused by Herpes zoster. Associated with shingles, facial nerve

damage and loss of hearing in affected side

536- Most common benign tumor of the oral cavity = Fibroma

537- Most common cyst of the oral cavity = Peri-apical (radicular) cyst

538- Which cyst has the highest rate of recurrence = OKC

539- Most common malignancy of the oral cavity = SCC

540- Excessive formation of scar tissue = Keloid

541- Abnormally large pulp chambers = Regional odontodysplasia

542- Thinning of hair = Hypothyroidism

543- Rubella encephalopathy = Acquired

544- Strawberry tongue = Scarlet fever and fungiform papillae involved

545- Most common tumor of minor salivary glands = Adenoid cyctic carcinoma

546- Not a differential diagnosis in dentinogenesis imperfecta = Enamel hypoplasia (seen in

Type 1 Amelogenesis imperfecta)

547- Ectopic eruption most common in = Max. 1st Molars

548- Triad of hand-schuler-christian disease includes lesions of bone, exophthalmos and =

diabetes insipidus

549- For balancing side = 3 cusps should touch but not canine

550- Protrusive record is made for = horizontal condylar guidance

551- Christensen phenomenon = Space that forms in the posterior teeth during anterior

movement of mandible

552- Oral cytology is not useful in the diagnosis of = Lipoma

553- Split papule on lower lip = mucous patch

554- Stigmata of congenital syphilis does NOT include = Cleft lip

555- What is disadvantage of autograft? Second surgery

556- For big osseous defects= autograft

557- Intra-oral carcinoma does not present as = Abscess

31


558- Melkersson Rosenthal syndrome = facial paralysis, chelitis granulomatosa and SCROTAL

TONGUE

559- Ghon complex = Primary of childhood tuberculosis

560- Striae of Wickham = Lichen planus

561- Which fluoride for porcelain something = Neutral Sodium fluoride

562- Green and orange stains on teeth = Poor oral hygiene

563- Primary canines have a longer MESIAL cusp ridge compared with permanent canines in

which, DISTAL cusp ridge is longer.

564- Curve of Spee = Anterior-posterior curvature of the mandibular occlusal plane

565- Curve of Wilson = Medio-lateral U-shaped curve of upper and lower posterior teeth

566- Compensating curve = is under dentists’ control. Helps provide a balanced occlusion

567- In centric position = bilateral balanced occlusion. All cusps interdigitate.

Contacts in a Balanced Occlusion:

► Cusp-to-fossa contact in centric occlusion (MICP) in an ideal Class I occlusion.

► During lateral excursions, opposing cusps contact on the WORKING SIDE. BULL

► During lateral excursions, on the balancing side, maxillary lingual cusps (lingual inclines)

contact mandibular facial cusps (lingual inclines). LUBL

568- PID length changed from 8 inch to 16 inch, so the resultant beam is ¼ as intense.

569- PID length changed from 16 inch to 8 inch, so the resultant beam is 4 times intense

570- Base of incision in gingivectomy = coronal to mucogingival junction

571- Serial extraction is done when arch length discrepancy is over 10 mm

572- Normal maxilla and retruded mandible = SNA 82o and SNB <80o

573- 8 yr old, both second primary molar missing. How to maintain space? Lingual arch

574- 40 years old patient bilateral posterior crossbite , what would be the way to correct the

problem Quad Helix or surgery

575- In young patients (mixed dentition), what is used to correct cross-bite = Quadhelix (it

causes expansion of jaw)

576- Tongue blade appliance used in = anterior crossbite

577- Causes of anterior crossbite = Skeletal (mandibular hyperplasia and maxillary hypoplasia)

578- Hypercementosis = Most common in premolars and in Paget’s disease

32


579- Ground glass appearance = Fibrous dysplasia

580- In molar area, the lingual flange of mandibular denture is determined by = Mylohyoid

581- The mandibular flange (lateral to retromolar area) is determined by = Masseter

582- Occlusal morphology determinants, what is correct: Increased overjet, flatter posterior

cusps

583- Pt had fracture and numbness on side on nose cheeks...fracture site? Floor of orbit

584- If kid complained and whined in the beginning but at the end were very good: you

compliment

585- Aversive conditioning= punishment to deter unwanted behavior ex. Hand over mouth

586- The free gingival graft receives its nutrients from the viable connective tissue bed.

587- Free gingival graft is used for root coverage and increasing the zone of attached gingiva.

588- Main reason for failure of free gingival graft = failure of blood supply. The second reason is

infection

589- Most common donor site for free gingival graft = Palate.

590- First Endo done and then Perio treatment

591- Porphyria (Diagnosis) = Child presents with red urine, purplish-brown teeth, sensitivity to

sunlight, blisters and swelling on face and hands when exposed to sunlight

592- Discolored teeth are seen in all these = Porphyria (purplish-brown), cystic fibrosis

(yellowish-brown) and erythroblastosis fetalis (blue-greenish)

593- RH hump = Green or blue hue seen in teeth of erythroblastosis fetalis

594- Emergency treat of a kid that has ingested large amount of fluoride: induce vomiting and

call 911, have him drunk lots of milk or Ca containing liquid. DO NOT give sodium

bicarbonate

595- For adults, the average LETHAL dose of fluoride is = 4-5 grams

596- Incisal and coronal parts to be matched in porcelain metal crowns done by = Firing under

high temperature

597- Lethal dose of fluoride in infants is = 0.25 g (250 mg)

598- Most fluoride is absorbed from = Stomach

599- Fluoride is excreted via = Kidneys

600- Patient is very young and fearful first time you meet them – try to talk to them going

down at their height

33


601- Pits and fissure sealants are best retained on = Maxillary and mandibular bicuspids

602- A patient says that, “Even if there is some pain, it will be brief. I have effective methods of

coping.” The patient reminds himself of this during dental procedures. This patient’s

statement exemplifies which strategy? Rational response

603- Band and loop is most often use when the primary 1M is lost and the distal shoe is for

unilateral primary 2M lost

604- Which of the following describes ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)? Effective against Pseudomonas

aeruginosa.

605- A patient has a smooth! red! protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue. Microscopic

examination reveals a stratified squamous epithelium covering loose! fibrous connective

tissue with many thin-walled vascular spaces. What is it? Hemangioma

606- A 77 years old female 110 lbs. weight requires removal of mandibular teeth under local

anesthesia. She is apprehensive. The appropriate dose of IV diazepam to sedate her? 5

mg

607- Most common tooth to get plaque: Mandibular incisors

608- Stippling of gingiva indicates = degree of keratinization

609- Stratification specific keratins present in gingival epithelium are: K5 and K14

610- The gingival fiber group which inserts in two adjacent teeth is the: Trans-septal

611- An isolated area in which root is denuded of bone is intact and covered only by periosteum

and overlying gingiva is called: Fenestration

612- The type of bone present in the inter radicular area is: Cancellous

613- fibers in the lamina propria of the gingiva, help to bind the free gingiva to the tooth: Circular

614- Periodontium does NOT include = Dentin (DUHHH ! ! ! ! )

615- Bioactive glass (Perio glass) bone graft material is a type of: It is an alloplast I think

(silicate-based material)

616- Gingiva is attached to enamel by: hemidesmosomes (they connect JE to tooth)

617- Stippling occurs only on = attached gingiva

34


618- The sulcular epithelium acts as a semi permeable membrane through which: Fluids from

the gingiva seeps in to the sulcus

619- In gingival hyperplasia, you do = gingivectomy

620- Least likely to need a bone graft = 3-walled narrow

621- Which is prevalent = 2 wall defect

622- Least useful retention/resistance form in crown? Total area of 2 axial walls

623- Where does the epithelium for a graft come from? Recipient epithelium

624- Most common cause of tooth mobility = advanced periodontal disease

625- Histoplasmosis resembles = SCC

626- Collagen is a protein that has = a high fluid turnover rate

627- Osteoblast covering the periodontal surface of the alveolar bone constitute a: modified

endosteum

628- If the drug's liver metabolism is very efficient how it will influence to it potency? Decrease

potency Potency how much drug to produce effect while efficacy the effective of drug

629- Recently introduced LA claimed to be as potent as Procaine 0.05%, 30 mg 4 hour period =

33 cartridges (I will just memorize 33 for this shitty question)

630- A patient with non-healing lesion on the side of the nose. it has a rolled border and has

been increasing in size. the most likely diagnosis is = basal cell carcinoma

631- Keratin specific to epidermal type differentiation are: 1 2 10 12

632- Patient has sleep apnea which pain medication we can give = Ibuprofen

633- Which of the following fiber groups are not attached to alveolar bone? Transseptal

634- Color of normal gingiva is = Coral pink

635- Which orthodontic movement doesn’t commonly relapse = Extrusion

636- Clindamycin is bacteriostatic 50S ribosome unit, is effective against most anaerobes

637- Clindamycin is associated with = pseudomembranous colitis due to overgrowth of

Clostridium difficile

638- What to check in perio maintenance = Root caries

639- There are 3 categories of epidemiological studies .

1.Descriptive epidemiology: prevalence &incidence.

2. Analytic epidemiology: cohort study, cross sectional & case control .

3.Experimental epidemiology: clinical trials & community trials .

35


640- Absolute contra-indication for the use of Nitrous Oxide? Nasal congestion

641- Calcification of permanent mandibular 2nd molar starts at? Approx. 3 years

642- Calcification of permanent 1st molar starts at? Birth

643- All are clinical features of sinusitis except = Swelling

644- Systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) include all of the following

except = Aortic aneurysm

645- Pain med for patients with obstructive sleep apnea = Ibuprofen or acetaminophen (both can

be used)

646- While giving IAN block, if it caused paralysis of facial nerve, where did u inject = Too far

posteriorly

647- Most common = Health maintenance organization

648- Erythroblastosis fetalis = Ring like enamel hypoplasia

649- In implant preparation, which of the following can be used?

A) hydroxyapatite irrigation

b) High Speed Handpiece

c) Low torque

d) Air Coolant

650- Which kind of insulin is short acting = Insulin regular

651- Which gene is altered most in oral cancer ? p53

652- How carious detection dye acts? stains infected dentin

653- Eosinophilic granuloma seen in? Langerhan’s histiocytosis-X

654- Most commonly seen dental caries? Occlusal

655- Hypercalcification due to calcium intake

656- Hypomaturation

657- Trauma to tooth during development? Turner hypoplasia

658- Systemic Disease affected the primary tooth ? hypophosphatasia

659- Function of rest ? support

660- Indirect retainers most needed in ? Kennedy class 1,2

661- Which drugs cause gingival hyperplasia? phynetoin,nifipidine,cyclosporine

662- Partial agonist antagonists ? pentazocin

663- Opoids do not cause what ? solemence

36


664- Side effect of chloramphenicol ? aplastic anemia

665- How to calculate incidence ? (new case \ all case ) * 100

666- Benzodiazepine antagonists? flumenizil

667- Opoid antagonists? naloxone

668- Atropine inc or dec saliva ? decrease saliva

669- You inject LA into parotid gland capsule. how long it take to recover from the parathesia =

24 hrs

670- How does the wheezing sound occur? During expiration

671- How are the bronchioles of an asthmatic pt be.. Congenitally narrowed Chronic

inflammation

672- What is the function of tin and indium used in alloys for making pfm? Chemical bond to

porcelain

673- Network model is used: IPA

674- What is the meaning of conscious sedation? Analgesia

675- Increase in interpupil distance is called? Hypertelorism (seen in Cruozon syndrome)

676- Lupus erythematosis affects which organd ? renal, heart

677- Betchets disease ulcers resemble? Apthous ulcer

678- Single white spot lesion on a permanent tooth due to Hypercalcification due to flouride

intake

679- When u publish an article, which is the most important point that u consider ???

680- Meaning of Lethal dose of a drug? LD 50 .. the dose is lethal to 50% of patient

681- To increase density in xray what has to be done ? increase kvp,Ma,time

682- Dosage of acetaminophen in kids = 15 mg/kg

683- Drug for trigeminal neuralgia ? carbazmpine

684- Which test to be used in full crown ? thermal test

685- Crown has less buccolingual resistance. how to increase resistance = Give proximal

grooves

686- All post teeth disocclude while eccentric movement. Which cusp u wont grind Max lingual

687- Max molars have how many canals usually = 4

688- Domestic abuse is an act of = Power of control

689- Which teeth have less than of having 2 canals Max ant

37


690- 23 yr old adult male..want to get wisdom teeth removed which are fully erupted..Heroin

addiction withdrawal ..(some drug name starting with m..I forgot) also.history of smoking 20

pack in a year..which can affect healing Smoking

691- One pt having inr of 1.75. what u will do control bleeding after extraction Use gauze

692- If after scaling and root planing it reduced inflammation, did u remove Bacteria and

bacterial byproducts

693- The apical base of sulcus is by which tissue Junctional epithelium

694- Most strong porcelain by = Firing under compression

695- When is it false positive? Root canal filled with pus

696- In a clinic, the dentist and colleague are talking ..u think they are talking about u,but

actually they are not...Paranoid or is it Illusions = I will go with Paranoid

697- To prevent fovea fatigue,during color selection, what should u do. Select under natural light

or is it Glance for only 15sec at a time

698- Who gets max eye damage in a setting = Dentist

699- C factor highest in = Occlusal cavity

700- Pt telling I won't quit smoking? precontemplation

701- 60. Oral cancer in u.s mostly in Lip

702- Pic of parulis? fistula

703- Immediately after flap surgery what happens = Clot formation

704- What is allograft ? from another human

705- Y perio maintenance is done every 3 to 4 months: It's the time taken for alveolar bone to

remodel

706- The labial bow part of the removable prosthesis = It can be used for minor tipping

707- Which movement CANNOT relapse most Extrusion

708- Pt taking an anticoagulant. u want to extract 2 teeth. Ask his general doctor to give

clearance

709- Primary role of epinephrine in LA is = To decrease systemic reabsorption

710- Which is most rigid = Type 4 gold

711- Along with mwf what can be done = Scaling and root planning

712- If 7th nerve affected, will taste sensation change ? yes

38


713- 75. You do cpr,not the no.of times,they asked minimum depth to which u have to compress

1.5 inches

714- Sign of malignancy in radiographs Cortical bone rupture

715- Parathesia of lip sign of? Malignancy , angle fracture , nerve injury

716- Leukoedema-best described as = Normal finding

717- If the whole maxilla comes out detached from other bones, what kind of fracture..lefort 1

718- Incison for removal of lingual tori = Crevicular incision only

719- In normal dentrifice what kind of Floride is present ? NaF

720- The most effective topical anti microbial action by which commercial available mouthwash =

Chlorhex

721- 5.What is the name of the anti plaque agent available in the current antitartar dentrifices ?

pyrophosphate

722- One was about how to avoid legal complications ..all opiods had 3 combinatikns... like

autonomy +(2nother names which I have never heard) or informed consent+2other

names)

723- 10.You want impacted 3rd molar to be extracted because Cause distal caries to 2nd m

724- If u compare the radiation dose of person working in nuclear power plant and that of a

dental assistant (or whoever takes xray in a dental setting),how much will the dosage of

that person be = 1/5 times of the nuclear worker

725- Max permissible dose of radiation in a year ? occupational 0.05 sv

726- Non occupational and pregnant assistant 0.001 sv

727- What to do decrease value: Add a complementary color from the color wheel

728- Type 1 bone seen in which location ? anterior mandible

729- Neonatal teeth seen in which location ? anterior mandible

730- Blue sclera seen in : osteogenesis imperfecta & hypophostaphsia

731- Candida in cancer pt due to : Chemotherapy

732- This particular muscle because of the direction of its fibers can get covered by the denture

base? buccinator

733- 24.During extraction of MAX 3rd molar, root can go into which space? Infratemporal

734- 25.Actinomyces oral manifestations..know how it is ? lumpy jaw , sulfur granule

735- 26.After giving l.a,which sensation is lost last..motor not in option..? proprioception

39


736- What doesn't show that there is bad conflict happening within ur dental setting: Increased

production bcos of competition

737- In ur dental practice, want to keep good harmony and relationship with all your staff,what is

that u follow: Justice

738- Dentist had to remove the PERMANENT max 1st molar of a 9yr old kid due to caries.what

to do: Allow max second molar to erupt

1- agenesis is least in= a. third molars b. 2nd premolars

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